Hardest Trivia Questions On Flight Operations And Responsibilities! Quiz

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Hardest Trivia Questions On Flight Operations And Responsibilities! Quiz - Quiz

This quiz has the Hardest Trivia Questions on Flight Operations and Responsibilities! Before, during, and after takeoff, there are specific designs that are put in place to ensure the safety of people in the flight and those operating it? How about you take up this quiz and see how well you understand the operations and responsibilities of those in search.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    When must you notify the training section that qualification training is complete?

    • A.

      The first duty day following completion.

    • B.

      Within 30 days of completion.

    • C.

      72 hours after completion.

    • D.

      48 hours after completion.

    Correct Answer
    A. The first duty day following completion.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "The first duty day following completion." This means that as soon as you finish your qualification training, you are required to notify the training section on the very next working day. This ensures prompt communication and documentation of the completion of your training. It is essential to inform the training section promptly to maintain accurate records and to ensure that any further actions or assignments related to your training can be scheduled accordingly.

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  • 2. 

    The direction of flight operations during normal and contingency conditions is the responsibility of the flight.

    • A.

      Commander.

    • B.

      Supervisor.

    • C.

      SNCO.

    • D.

      Chief.

    Correct Answer
    D. Chief.
    Explanation
    The chief is responsible for the direction of flight operations during normal and contingency conditions. The chief is a senior position within the flight organization and has the authority to make decisions and provide guidance to ensure safe and efficient flight operations. The commander, supervisor, and SNCO may have their own roles and responsibilities within the flight, but the chief holds the overall responsibility for directing flight operations.

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  • 3. 

    The duties of the area supervisor are performed by the senior

    • A.

      Security patrol.

    • B.

      Security force members.

    • C.

      SRT member.

    • D.

      ART member.

    Correct Answer
    B. Security force members.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "security force members" because the area supervisor's duties are performed by the members of the security force. This implies that the area supervisor is responsible for overseeing and managing the security force, and the members of the security force carry out the day-to-day tasks and responsibilities required for the role.

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  • 4. 

    Who has the overall responsibility for unit manpower, standards, and evaluations?

    • A.

      SFS.

    • B.

      SFM.

    • C.

      SFO.

    • D.

      SFT.

    Correct Answer
    B. SFM.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SFM. SFM stands for Security Forces Manager, and they have the overall responsibility for unit manpower, standards, and evaluations. They are in charge of managing the personnel within the security forces unit, ensuring that they meet the required standards, and evaluating their performance. SFM plays a crucial role in maintaining the effectiveness and efficiency of the security forces unit.

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  • 5. 

    What patrol monitors assigned resources and provides a timed response of within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?

    • A.

      Internal SRT.

    • B.

      Immediate visual assessment sentries.

    • C.

      Close boundary sentry.

    • D.

      External SRT.

    Correct Answer
    A. Internal SRT.
    Explanation
    The Internal SRT (Security Response Team) is responsible for monitoring assigned resources and ensuring a timely response to alarms generated from IDS (Intrusion Detection System), personnel, or incidents. Their role is to quickly assess and address any security threats or breaches within the organization. This team is specifically focused on internal security measures and is trained to respond within three minutes to any alarms or incidents that occur.

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  • 6. 

    What operates inside or outside of restricted areas and tactically responds within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?

    • A.

      Internal SRT.

    • B.

      Immediate visual assessment sentries.

    • C.

      Close boundary sentry.

    • D.

      External SRT.

    Correct Answer
    D. External SRT.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is External SRT. An External SRT (Security Response Team) operates both inside and outside of restricted areas and is responsible for tactically responding within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS (Intrusion Detection Systems), personnel, or incidents. This team is trained to quickly assess and handle security threats and ensure the safety and security of the area.

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  • 7. 

    When a two-person internal SRT working within its assigned restricted area separates, you have a couple of single-person

    • A.

      Fire teams.

    • B.

      Internal SRTs.

    • C.

      Security patrols.

    • D.

      Close boundary sentries.

    Correct Answer
    C. Security patrols.
    Explanation
    When a two-person internal SRT working within its assigned restricted area separates, it creates two single-person fire teams. These fire teams can then act as security patrols, covering different areas and ensuring the safety and security of the restricted area.

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  • 8. 

    What is not a function performed by MSCFOs?

    • A.

      Assess exterior IDS by line-of-sight or CCTV.

    • B.

      Act as a subordinate C3 center for security forces posted during normal operations.

    • C.

      Control entry into structures, alert shelters and individual resources protected with IDS when alarm monitor do not exist in the designated area.

    • D.

      Assess the interior facility to ensure all IDS and C3 centers for security forces meet with higher headquarters requirements for designated areas.

    Correct Answer
    D. Assess the interior facility to ensure all IDS and C3 centers for security forces meet with higher headquarters requirements for designated areas.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Assess the interior facility to ensure all IDS and C3 centers for security forces meet with higher headquarters requirements for designated areas." This answer is not a function performed by MSCFOs because it involves assessing the interior facility and ensuring that it meets higher headquarters requirements, which is typically the responsibility of higher-ranking officials or facility managers. MSCFOs are more focused on assessing exterior IDS, acting as a subordinate C3 center, and controlling entry into structures.

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  • 9. 

    Providing security surveillance for a restricted or individual resource boundary is the responsibility of the

    • A.

      MSCFO.

    • B.

      IVA.

    • C.

      CCTV.

    • D.

      CBS.

    Correct Answer
    D. CBS.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CBS. CBS stands for Closed Circuit Television, which is a system that allows for video surveillance of a specific area or resource boundary. It is commonly used to provide security surveillance for restricted or individual resources, such as private property or high-security areas. The other options, MSCFO and IVA, do not specifically relate to security surveillance systems, while CCTV is a general term that encompasses various types of video surveillance systems, including CBS.

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  • 10. 

    What does SEI stand for?

    • A.

      Security entry identifier.

    • B.

      Security experience index.

    • C.

      Special delivery identifier.

    • D.

      Special experience identifier.

    Correct Answer
    D. Special experience identifier.
    Explanation
    SEI stands for Special Experience Identifier. This term is used to refer to a unique identifier that represents an individual's specialized knowledge, skills, or expertise in a particular field. It is a way to recognize and differentiate individuals who have gained significant experience or expertise in a specific area. The other options provided, such as Security Entry Identifier, Security Experience Index, and Special Delivery Identifier, do not accurately represent the meaning of SEI in this context.

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  • 11. 

    The purpose of awarding a SEI is to identify

    • A.

      Existing resources capable of deploying, avoiding unnecessarily inspecting the UMD.

    • B.

      Manpower critical resources that meet the average requirements for a contingency as well as manage needs.

    • C.

      Existing resources that meet unique circumstances, contingency requirements, or management needs.

    • D.

      How many of one specialty is assigned to one squadron.

    Correct Answer
    C. Existing resources that meet unique circumstances, contingency requirements, or management needs.
    Explanation
    The purpose of awarding a SEI is to identify existing resources that meet unique circumstances, contingency requirements, or management needs. This means that the SEI is used to recognize and assign resources that are capable of handling specific situations, fulfilling contingency plans, or meeting the needs of management. It is not about identifying the number of specialists assigned to a squadron or avoiding unnecessary inspections. The focus is on finding resources that are suitable for specific circumstances and requirements.

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  • 12. 

    The responsibility for investigating crimes and incidents requiring more detailed and specialized analysis than you are used to conducting while on flight belongs to which office?

    • A.

      Report of survey office of investigation.

    • B.

      Air Force office of investigation.

    • C.

      Security forces training team.

    • D.

      Security forces investigations.

    Correct Answer
    D. Security forces investigations.
    Explanation
    The responsibility for investigating crimes and incidents requiring more detailed and specialized analysis than what is typically conducted while on a flight belongs to the Security Forces Investigations office. This office is specifically tasked with conducting thorough investigations into such matters, ensuring that all necessary analysis and expertise are applied to gather accurate information and evidence. The Report of Survey office of investigation, Air Force office of investigation, and Security Forces training team may have their own respective roles and responsibilities, but they are not specifically designated to handle investigations of this nature.

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  • 13. 

    What is not a responsibility of the unit training section?

    • A.

      Coordinates with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained.

    • B.

      Monitors both delays in finishing qualification training and progress in skill-level upgrade training.

    • C.

      Identifies local training needs and trains unit personnel to meet mission requirements.

    • D.

      Informs Stan-Eval that individuals have completed their qualification training.

    Correct Answer
    A. Coordinates with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained.
    Explanation
    The responsibility of coordinating with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained is not a responsibility of the unit training section.

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  • 14. 

    Maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis as needed is the responsibility of which office?

    • A.

      Investigations.

    • B.

      Crime prevention.

    • C.

      Resource protection.

    • D.

      Reports and analysis.

    Correct Answer
    D. Reports and analysis.
    Explanation
    The responsibility of maintaining criminal incident data and submitting statistical and information reports/analysis falls under the office of Reports and Analysis. This office is in charge of collecting, organizing, and analyzing data related to criminal incidents, and providing reports and analysis based on this data as required. They play a crucial role in ensuring accurate and up-to-date information is available for decision-making and resource allocation in the field of law enforcement.

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  • 15. 

    Which regulation governs the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program?

    • A.

      AFI 36–2225.

    • B.

      AFI 36–2226.

    • C.

      AFI 36–2227.

    • D.

      AFI 36–2525.

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 36–2225.
    Explanation
    AFI 36–2225 is the correct answer because it specifically governs the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program. AFI 36–2226, AFI 36–2227, and AFI 36–2525 may be related to other regulations or programs, but they do not specifically pertain to the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program. Therefore, AFI 36–2225 is the most appropriate regulation that governs this program.

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  • 16. 

    What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?

    • A.

      Analysis.

    • B.

      Feedback.

    • C.

      Evaluation.

    • D.

      Cross-feed.

    Correct Answer
    B. Feedback.
    Explanation
    Feedback is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips because it provides them with information on the effectiveness of their actions and decisions. It allows commanders to understand the impact of their strategies and make necessary adjustments to achieve desired outcomes. Feedback helps commanders identify strengths and weaknesses, improve performance, and enhance decision-making processes. By receiving feedback from various sources, commanders can gain valuable insights and make informed decisions to effectively lead their teams and achieve their objectives.

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  • 17. 

    How many days does the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program allow to conduct an evaluation after an individual completes qualification training?

    • A.

      120.

    • B.

      90.

    • C.

      60.

    • D.

      30.

    Correct Answer
    D. 30.
    Explanation
    The Security Forces Stan-Eval Program allows 30 days to conduct an evaluation after an individual completes qualification training. This time frame ensures that the evaluation is conducted promptly after the training, allowing for a comprehensive assessment of the individual's skills and knowledge. It also allows for any necessary adjustments or improvements to be made in a timely manner.

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  • 18. 

    After an individual fails their Stan-Eval evaluation, within how many days after the individual completes review training does the section have to conduct a reevaluation?

    • A.

      30.

    • B.

      21.

    • C.

      15.

    • D.

      3.

    Correct Answer
    C. 15.
    Explanation
    After an individual fails their Stan-Eval evaluation, the section has to conduct a reevaluation within 15 days after the individual completes review training. This means that there is a specific time frame in which the reevaluation must take place, allowing the individual to have a chance to improve and demonstrate their skills after receiving additional training.

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  • 19. 

    The MWD program does not provide security forces units with the capability to

    • A.

      Enforce military laws and regulations.

    • B.

      Detect classified information.

    • C.

      Suppress illegal drug use.

    • D.

      Detect explosives.

    Correct Answer
    B. Detect classified information.
    Explanation
    The MWD program, which stands for Military Working Dog program, is not designed to provide security forces units with the capability to detect classified information. The main purpose of the program is to train and utilize dogs for various tasks such as patrol, search and rescue, and bomb detection. Detecting classified information is a specialized skill that typically falls under the domain of intelligence agencies and specialized units, rather than the MWD program.

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  • 20. 

    Before being assigned operational duties, what two commands must a MWD obey?

    • A.

      OUT and IN.

    • B.

      SIT and STAY.

    • C.

      OUT and HEEL.

    • D.

      STAY and HEEL.

    Correct Answer
    C. OUT and HEEL.
    Explanation
    A MWD (Military Working Dog) must obey the commands OUT and HEEL before being assigned operational duties. The command OUT is used to direct the dog to release or let go of something, while the command HEEL is used to instruct the dog to walk or run alongside the handler's left leg. These commands are essential for the dog's obedience and control during operations.

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  • 21. 

    When used in security operations, what becomes the primary mission of the MWD?

    • A.

      Deterrence.

    • B.

      Detention.

    • C.

      Decoying.

    • D.

      Detection.

    Correct Answer
    D. Detection.
    Explanation
    In security operations, the primary mission of the MWD (Military Working Dog) is detection. These highly trained dogs are used to detect various threats such as explosives, drugs, or illegal substances. They have a keen sense of smell and are able to locate hidden items or individuals that may pose a risk to security. By focusing on detection, MWDs play a crucial role in enhancing security measures and preventing potential threats from causing harm.

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  • 22. 

    When using dogs on detection screen posts, where do you position them to get maximum usage?

    • A.

      In low contact areas, so they don’t give away your position to the enemy by barking.

    • B.

      Upwind of all positions in your sector, in order to maximize there smelling capability.

    • C.

      At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons.

    • D.

      Downwind of all personnel, so that there is no scent confusion between you and the enemy.

    Correct Answer
    C. At key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons.
    Explanation
    The dogs should be positioned at key vantage points and avenues of approach to deny entry to unauthorized persons. This ensures that the dogs are strategically placed to prevent unauthorized individuals from entering the area. By positioning them at these locations, the dogs can effectively detect and deter any potential threats, enhancing security measures.

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  • 23. 

    What two factors must leaders consider before placing MWD teams in an area?

    • A.

      Location and size of area.

    • B.

      Time and terrain features.

    • C.

      Wind speed and direction.

    • D.

      Experience of canine and handler.

    Correct Answer
    A. Location and size of area.
    Explanation
    Before placing MWD (Military Working Dog) teams in an area, leaders must consider the location and size of the area. The location is important because it determines the specific environment and potential threats that the teams may encounter. The size of the area is also crucial as it affects the resources needed and the effectiveness of the teams in covering the entire area. By considering these factors, leaders can ensure that the MWD teams are strategically deployed and can effectively carry out their tasks.

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  • 24. 

    What is an advantage to using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post?

    • A.

      Increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern.

    • B.

      Decreases the patrols you would normally have to post per shift.

    • C.

      Allows the MWD team to relieve others posts for breaks.

    • D.

      Makes it easy to perform post checks on the team.

    Correct Answer
    A. Increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern.
    Explanation
    The advantage of using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post is that it increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern. By avoiding a predictable routine, it becomes more difficult for potential threats to anticipate the movements and patterns of the MWD teams. This unpredictability can enhance the safety and security of the teams and the area they are responsible for.

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  • 25. 

    From what direction should a dog team approach a building they are about to check?

    • A.

      Upwind.

    • B.

      Crosswind.

    • C.

      Downwind.

    • D.

      Wind direction doesn’t matter.

    Correct Answer
    C. Downwind.
    Explanation
    A dog team should approach a building they are about to check from the downwind direction. This is because approaching from downwind allows the dogs to catch any scents or odors that may be coming from inside the building. By approaching downwind, the dogs can use their sense of smell effectively to detect any potential threats or individuals inside the building. Approaching from upwind or crosswind may cause the scent to disperse and make it more difficult for the dogs to detect any potential dangers. Wind direction is important in this scenario to ensure the dogs can effectively use their sense of smell.

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  • 26. 

    When conducting a building search, what factors must be taken into consideration by the handler before releasing the MWD to conduct a search? 

    • A.

      Danger to the canine.

    • B.

      Time left in patrol shift.

    • C.

      Type and size of building.

    • D.

      Weather conditions just prior to the search.

    Correct Answer
    C. Type and size of building.
    Explanation
    The handler must consider the type and size of the building before releasing the MWD to conduct a search. This is important because different buildings may present different challenges and hazards for the canine. For example, a large building may require more time and resources to search effectively, while a small building may have limited space for the canine to maneuver. Additionally, certain types of buildings, such as warehouses or high-rise buildings, may have specific safety concerns or obstacles that need to be taken into account. Therefore, understanding the type and size of the building is crucial in ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the search.

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  • 27. 

    When used in police services activities, a patrol dog team provides a tremendous.

    • A.

      Physical deterrent.

    • B.

      Physicians deterrent.

    • C.

      Physiological deterrent.

    • D.

      Psychological deterrent.

    Correct Answer
    D. Psychological deterrent.
    Explanation
    A patrol dog team provides a psychological deterrent in police services activities. The presence of a well-trained and highly skilled dog can create fear and intimidation in potential criminals, deterring them from committing crimes. The psychological impact of knowing that a trained dog is on patrol can discourage individuals from engaging in illegal activities, as they may fear being apprehended or attacked by the dog. This psychological deterrent can help maintain law and order and enhance public safety.

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  • 28. 

    Which statement concerning the military working dog is not true?

    • A.

      They should be tolerant of people.

    • B.

      They should not be used often in daylight hours.

    • C.

      The presence of a large number of people should not significantly reduce the dog’s usefulness.

    • D.

      Patrol dogs should be able to walk among people, stand guardmount, and show no outward sign of aggression.

    Correct Answer
    B. They should not be used often in daylight hours.
    Explanation
    The statement "They should not be used often in daylight hours" is not true. Military working dogs are trained to work at any time of the day, including daylight hours. They are trained to perform various tasks such as patrol, detection, and search and rescue operations, which may require them to be active during the day. Therefore, this statement contradicts the role and capabilities of military working dogs.

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  • 29. 

    When is the military working dog’s detection ability more effective?

    • A.

      During daylight hours – they can use sight and sound.

    • B.

      During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions.

    • C.

      High traffic areas where there are many bystanders and several distractions.

    • D.

      During periods of dense fog and darkness, to heighten their psychological effect.

    Correct Answer
    B. During darkness or limited visibility with few distractions.
    Explanation
    The military working dog's detection ability is more effective during darkness or limited visibility with few distractions because they rely heavily on their sense of smell. In low light conditions, their sense of smell becomes even more heightened, allowing them to detect scents more easily. Additionally, with fewer distractions, they can focus better on their task at hand.

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  • 30. 

    While on a mobile patrol, where should the MWD be in the vehicle?

    • A.

      On the back seat with its head out of the window while the vehicle is moving.

    • B.

      In a portable kennel in the bed of a pickup truck.

    • C.

      Off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle.

    • D.

      On leash, laying down on the back seat.

    Correct Answer
    C. Off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle. This is because the MWD (Military Working Dog) should be allowed to move freely within the vehicle while on a mobile patrol. Being off leash allows the dog to respond quickly to any potential threats or situations that may arise. Placing the MWD on the front or rear seat ensures that it is secure and comfortable during the patrol.

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  • 31. 

    If an apprehension is made, in what position will the handler place the dog?

    • A.

      Sit/Stay.

    • B.

      Guard.

    • C.

      Heel.

    • D.

      Out.

    Correct Answer
    B. Guard.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Guard" because when an apprehension is made, the handler will typically position the dog in a guarding stance to protect and secure the area. This position allows the dog to stay alert and ready to respond to any potential threats or intruders.

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  • 32. 

    Which two forms are normally used for receipt of weapons?

    • A.

      AF Forms 629 and 1297.

    • B.

      AF Forms 629 and 1473.

    • C.

      AF Forms 1297 and 1473.

    • D.

      AF Forms 1437 and 1279.

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Forms 629 and 1297.
    Explanation
    AF Forms 629 and 1297 are the correct answer because these forms are commonly used for the receipt of weapons. These forms are likely specific to the Air Force and are likely the standard forms used to document the transfer and receipt of weapons within the organization. The other options, AF Forms 629 and 1473, AF Forms 1297 and 1473, and AF Forms 1437 and 1279, are not the correct answer as they do not match the commonly used forms for receipt of weapons.

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  • 33. 

    When should unit personnel clean their weapons?

    • A.

      Just prior to any outside agency inspection of the armory and its programs.

    • B.

      After firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed.

    • C.

      Before firing, after a three day break, and when directed by the armory.

    • D.

      Weapons are only cleaned by armory personnel.

    Correct Answer
    B. After firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed.
    Explanation
    Unit personnel should clean their weapons after firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed. This ensures that the weapons are in proper working condition and ready for use. Cleaning the weapons after firing helps remove any residue or debris that may affect their performance. Cleaning during inclement weather prevents moisture or other elements from causing damage or corrosion. Regular cleaning as needed helps maintain the overall functionality and longevity of the weapons. It is important for unit personnel to take responsibility for cleaning their own weapons rather than relying solely on armory personnel.

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  • 34. 

    What installations are required to have an ISP?

    • A.

      Only installations with a flying mission are required to develop an ISP.

    • B.

      The base commander determines whether the installation requires an ISP or not.

    • C.

      All installations having or supporting protection level resources must establish a plan.

    • D.

      Installations located overseas are required to have an ISP to coincide with local procedures.

    Correct Answer
    C. All installations having or supporting protection level resources must establish a plan.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All installations having or supporting protection level resources must establish a plan." This means that any installation that has or supports resources that require protection must have an ISP (Installation Security Plan) in place. The other options mentioned, such as installations with a flying mission or installations located overseas, may or may not require an ISP depending on the specific circumstances and the determination of the base commander. However, the requirement for an ISP is specifically tied to the presence of protection level resources.

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  • 35. 

    Who is responsible for ensuring the ISI is issued, approved, and implemented as an installation instruction?

    • A.

      Wing plans and programs section.

    • B.

      Installation security police chief.

    • C.

      Installation commander.

    • D.

      MAJCOM commander.

    Correct Answer
    C. Installation commander.
    Explanation
    The installation commander is responsible for ensuring the ISI (Installation Security Instruction) is issued, approved, and implemented as an installation instruction. This role holds the highest authority within the installation and is responsible for overseeing all aspects of its operations, including security measures. As such, they have the ultimate responsibility for ensuring that the ISI is properly implemented to maintain the security and safety of the installation and its personnel.

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  • 36. 

    What is not included in the ISP?

    • A.

      Threat estimate, a terrain and weather analysis of the installation and its surroundings.

    • B.

      Assessment of the installation’s vulnerability to terrorist acts or sabotage.

    • C.

      A cost assessment of anti-terrorism equipment.

    • D.

      An estimate of support from friendly forces.

    Correct Answer
    C. A cost assessment of anti-terrorism equipment.
    Explanation
    The ISP (Installation Security Plan) includes various components to assess and address security measures for an installation. These components typically include threat estimates, terrain and weather analysis, vulnerability assessments, and estimates of support from friendly forces. However, a cost assessment of anti-terrorism equipment is not included in the ISP. This suggests that the ISP focuses more on analyzing and evaluating potential threats and vulnerabilities rather than the financial aspect of acquiring anti-terrorism equipment.

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  • 37. 

    The basic purpose of your financial plan submission is to

    • A.

      Determine which branch of service requires the most funding to complete the mission.

    • B.

      Ensure an equitable distribution of the president’s budget for the next fiscal year.

    • C.

      Determine what type of budget Congress is up against when their session starts.

    • D.

      Ensure the Air Force is allowed to purchase adequate aircraft and munitions.

    Correct Answer
    B. Ensure an equitable distribution of the president’s budget for the next fiscal year.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to ensure an equitable distribution of the president's budget for the next fiscal year. This means that the purpose of submitting a financial plan is to ensure that the budget is allocated fairly and evenly among different areas or departments, without any bias or favoritism. The financial plan submission aims to ensure that all necessary expenses are covered and that resources are distributed in a way that supports the overall goals and objectives of the organization or government.

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  • 38. 

    POM submissions are done in

    • A.

      Odd years.

    • B.

      Even years.

    • C.

      Odd months.

    • D.

      Even months.

    Correct Answer
    B. Even years.
    Explanation
    POM submissions are done in even years. This means that whenever someone needs to submit a POM, they can only do it in a year that is divisible by 2. For example, they can submit it in 2020, 2022, 2024, and so on. Odd years, on the other hand, are not valid for POM submissions.

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  • 39. 

    All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked, have emergency lights, sirens, and a

    • A.

      Spare tire.

    • B.

      Public address system.

    • C.

      Set of keys hidden in the dash.

    • D.

      NCIC computer.

    Correct Answer
    B. Public address system.
    Explanation
    All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked, have emergency lights, sirens, and a public address system. This means that in addition to being visibly identifiable and equipped with emergency lights and sirens, these vehicles must also have a public address system. The public address system allows security forces personnel to communicate with the public or issue instructions in emergency situations.

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  • 40. 

    All temporarily assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked and have

    • A.

      SF badges applied to both the front doors.

    • B.

      Emergency lights, floodlights, and mobile radios.

    • C.

      Portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system.

    • D.

      A cage installed between the front and rear seats to transport a MWD.

    Correct Answer
    C. Portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system. This is because these items are necessary for temporarily assigned security forces vehicles to be properly marked. Portable emergency lights ensure that the vehicle is visible and can signal emergencies. Magnetic signs can be easily attached and removed, allowing for flexibility in marking the vehicle. A public address system enables communication with the public or other personnel. These features help to identify and distinguish security forces vehicles during their temporary assignments.

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  • 41. 

    Effective enforcement should emphasize selective enforcement and drivers complying

    • A.

      Voluntarily.

    • B.

      Unwillingly.

    • C.

      Mandatorily.

    • D.

      Involuntarily.

    Correct Answer
    A. Voluntarily.
    Explanation
    Effective enforcement should emphasize selective enforcement, which means that authorities should focus on targeting specific violations rather than enforcing all laws uniformly. By doing so, drivers are more likely to comply voluntarily, as they understand the rationale behind the enforcement and the importance of following the rules. This approach encourages a sense of responsibility and cooperation among drivers, leading to safer roads and a better overall traffic environment.

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  • 42. 

    Which code is not an alarm response code?

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      2

    • D.

      1

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    The options provided in the question are numerical values representing alarm response codes. Out of the given options, 4 is not an alarm response code.

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  • 43. 

    Upon your arrival on-scene, what is your first action?

    • A.

      Terminate response.

    • B.

      Immediately secure the area.

    • C.

      Search for suspicious individuals.

    • D.

      Search the exterior for open doors or windows.

    Correct Answer
    B. Immediately secure the area.
    Explanation
    Upon arrival on-scene, the first action should be to immediately secure the area. This is important to ensure the safety of everyone present and prevent any further harm or damage. Securing the area involves establishing control, setting up barriers or cordons, and preventing unauthorized access. It allows for a systematic approach to the situation, ensuring that all necessary steps can be taken without interference or disturbance. By securing the area, potential threats can be contained, evidence can be preserved, and further actions can be planned and executed effectively.

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  • 44. 

    Which PL resources are contained in controlled areas with owner/users being primarily responsible for security? 

    • A.

      PL1

    • B.

      PL2

    • C.

      PL3

    • D.

      PL4

    Correct Answer
    D. PL4
    Explanation
    PL4 resources are contained in controlled areas with owner/users being primarily responsible for security. This means that the highest level of protection is required for PL4 resources, and the owners or users of these resources have the main responsibility for ensuring their security. PL4 resources may include highly sensitive information or critical systems that require strict access control and protection measures.

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  • 45. 

    What actions will the flight perform during an open ranks inspection after the command “Open Ranks, MARCH”?

    • A.

      The first element stands fast and automatically executes dress right at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element also stands fast and automatically executes a dress right.

    • B.

      The last element stands fast and automatically executes dress right at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes two, four, or six paces, respectively, forward, halts, and automatically executes a dress right.

    • C.

      The last element stands fast and automatically executes a dress right at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces, respectively, forward, halts, and automatically executes a dress right.

    • D.

      The first element takes three paces forward and automatically executes dress right at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes none, one, or two paces, respectively, forward, halts, and automatically executes a dress right.

    Correct Answer
    C. The last element stands fast and automatically executes a dress right at a normal interval (arm’s length). Each succeeding element in front of them takes one, two, or three paces, respectively, forward, halts, and automatically executes a dress right.
    Explanation
    After the command "Open Ranks, MARCH", the last element of the flight will stand fast and automatically execute a dress right at a normal interval. Each succeeding element in front of them will take one, two, or three paces forward, halt, and automatically execute a dress right. This means that each member of the flight will move forward a certain number of paces, stop, and align themselves with the person in front of them before executing a dress right.

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  • 46. 

    During an open ranks inspection, when do you give the command, “Close Ranks, MARCH”?

    • A.

      When the remarks of the inspecting official are completed.

    • B.

      Immediately after the forth rank has been inspected.

    • C.

      At the completion of the guardmount briefing.

    • D.

      Upon departure of the inspecting official.

    Correct Answer
    D. Upon departure of the inspecting official.
    Explanation
    The command "Close Ranks, MARCH" is given upon departure of the inspecting official during an open ranks inspection. This command is given to signal the soldiers to close ranks and return to their original positions after the inspection is complete.

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  • 47. 

    Your personnel inspection during guardmount does not include checking to see if the individual is

    • A.

      Fit for duty.

    • B.

      Prepared to present a post briefing.

    • C.

      Complying with appearance directives.

    • D.

      In possession of all required equipment.

    Correct Answer
    B. Prepared to present a post briefing.
    Explanation
    During personnel inspection during guardmount, the main focus is on ensuring that the individual is fit for duty, complying with appearance directives, and in possession of all required equipment. However, checking if the individual is prepared to present a post briefing is not part of the personnel inspection. This means that the individual's readiness to present a post briefing is not assessed during this inspection.

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  • 48. 

    As a leader and supervisor, you should avoid asking questions that could be open for

    • A.

      Interpretation.

    • B.

      Discussion.

    • C.

      Argument.

    • D.

      Debate.

    Correct Answer
    C. Argument.
    Explanation
    As a leader and supervisor, it is important to create a positive and harmonious work environment. Asking questions that could lead to arguments can disrupt the team dynamics and create tension among team members. Therefore, it is advisable to avoid asking questions that could potentially spark arguments and instead focus on fostering open discussions, encouraging collaboration, and promoting a healthy exchange of ideas and opinions.

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  • 49. 

    What is the unit flight schedule based on?

    • A.

      Deployment/operations tempo.

    • B.

      Flight TDY/leave schedule.

    • C.

      Individual needs.

    • D.

      Unit needs.

    Correct Answer
    D. Unit needs.
    Explanation
    The unit flight schedule is based on the needs of the unit. This means that the schedule is determined by the requirements and priorities of the unit as a whole, rather than individual needs or preferences. The unit needs could include factors such as mission requirements, operational tempo, and resource availability. By considering the unit needs, the flight schedule can be optimized to ensure efficient and effective operations.

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  • 50. 

    Post the flight duty roster in a prominent place, but consistent with sound

    • A.

      COMSEC practices.

    • B.

      INFOSEC practices.

    • C.

      HUMINT practices.

    • D.

      OPSEC practices.

    Correct Answer
    D. OPSEC practices.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "OPSEC practices." OPSEC stands for Operational Security, which refers to the measures taken to protect sensitive information and prevent unauthorized access. In this context, posting the flight duty roster in a prominent place while following OPSEC practices means ensuring that the information is not accessible to unauthorized individuals who may exploit it for malicious purposes. This includes safeguarding the roster from potential threats and adhering to established security protocols.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 05, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Catherine Halcomb
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