Hardest Trivia Questions On Flight Operations And Responsibilities! Quiz
-
All permanently assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked, have emergency lights, sirens, and a
-
Spare tire.
-
Public address system.
-
Set of keys hidden in the dash.
-
NCIC computer.
-
This quiz has the Hardest Trivia Questions on Flight Operations and Responsibilities! Before, during, and after takeoff, there are specific designs that are put in place to ensure the safety of people in the flight and those operating it? How about you take up this quiz and see how well you understand the operations and responsibilities of those in search.
Quiz Preview
- 2.
Adequate and fair post rotations can assist you in keeping
-
Flight morale high.
-
Duty position assignments limited.
-
The same highly skilled person at the same post.
-
A new flight member focused on a particular duty position.
Correct Answer
A. Flight morale high.Explanation
Adequate and fair post rotations can assist in keeping flight morale high by ensuring that all members of the flight have the opportunity to experience different duties and responsibilities. This helps prevent burnout and boredom, as well as promotes teamwork and skill development. When individuals are able to rotate through different positions, they feel valued and motivated, leading to increased morale and overall job satisfaction.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
The benefit of having a crime scene adequately protected is that it allows
-
Photographs to be taken.
-
Responding patrols to better piece together events.
-
The investigator to review the scene exactly as it was upon discovery.
-
The investigator to perform advisement of rights to personnel at the scene.
Correct Answer
A. The investigator to review the scene exactly as it was upon discovery.Explanation
Having a crime scene adequately protected ensures that the investigator can review the scene exactly as it was upon discovery. This means that no evidence will be tampered with or disturbed, providing the investigator with an accurate representation of the crime scene. This allows for a more thorough examination and analysis of the evidence, increasing the chances of solving the crime.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
What tone should your first impression set when you arrive on-scene?
-
Calm, positive, and helpful.
-
Agitated, positive, and helpful.
-
Uncaring, bothered, and hurried.
-
Aggressive, hostile, and immediate.
Correct Answer
A. Calm, positive, and helpful.Explanation
The first impression you make when arriving on-scene should be calm, positive, and helpful. This sets a welcoming and reassuring tone, showing that you are composed and ready to assist. Being agitated or uncaring would only escalate the situation and make the individuals involved feel more anxious. Similarly, being aggressive or hostile would create a hostile environment and hinder effective communication. Therefore, it is important to approach the scene with a calm demeanor, a positive attitude, and a willingness to provide assistance.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
From a hostage’s standpoint, the first 15 to 45 minutes are the most dangerous because this is when
-
The hostage negotiation team is attempting to make contact.
-
Most of the traveling occurs, after the hostage is abducted.
-
The hostage takers are still going through a panic reaction.
-
All deals are made for the release of the hostages.
Correct Answer
A. The hostage takers are still going through a panic reaction.Explanation
During the first 15 to 45 minutes, the hostage takers are still going through a panic reaction. This suggests that they may not have fully composed themselves or developed a strategic plan yet. As a result, they may act more impulsively and unpredictably, potentially increasing the danger for the hostage. It is crucial for the hostage negotiation team to establish contact during this time to try and calm the situation and gain control over the hostage takers.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
Upon your arrival on-scene, what is your first action?
-
Terminate response.
-
Immediately secure the area.
-
Search for suspicious individuals.
-
Search the exterior for open doors or windows.
Correct Answer
A. Immediately secure the area.Explanation
Upon arrival on-scene, the first action should be to immediately secure the area. This is important to ensure the safety of everyone present and prevent any further harm or damage. Securing the area involves establishing control, setting up barriers or cordons, and preventing unauthorized access. It allows for a systematic approach to the situation, ensuring that all necessary steps can be taken without interference or disturbance. By securing the area, potential threats can be contained, evidence can be preserved, and further actions can be planned and executed effectively.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
Allowing personnel to touch objects, walk on stains, or destroy footprints or tire marks at a crime scene
-
Would have no effect as long as the investigator was informed.
-
Could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime.
-
Could be beneficial to have all evidence collected and placed in a central location.
-
Would have no effect and allow the crime scene to be investigated quicker and a suspect found faster.
Correct Answer
A. Could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime.Explanation
Allowing personnel to touch objects, walk on stains, or destroy footprints or tire marks at a crime scene could cause the investigator to reach false conclusions about the crime. This is because any tampering with the evidence can lead to the contamination or alteration of crucial information that could be used to accurately determine what happened at the crime scene. In order to ensure the integrity of the investigation, it is important to preserve the crime scene and prevent any unnecessary interference or destruction of evidence.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
What is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips?
-
Analysis.
-
Feedback.
-
Evaluation.
-
Cross-feed.
Correct Answer
A. Feedback.Explanation
Feedback is one of the most valuable tools commanders have at their fingertips because it provides them with information on the effectiveness of their actions and decisions. It allows commanders to understand the impact of their strategies and make necessary adjustments to achieve desired outcomes. Feedback helps commanders identify strengths and weaknesses, improve performance, and enhance decision-making processes. By receiving feedback from various sources, commanders can gain valuable insights and make informed decisions to effectively lead their teams and achieve their objectives.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
When should unit personnel clean their weapons?
-
Just prior to any outside agency inspection of the armory and its programs.
-
After firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed.
-
Before firing, after a three day break, and when directed by the armory.
-
Weapons are only cleaned by armory personnel.
Correct Answer
A. After firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed.Explanation
Unit personnel should clean their weapons after firing, during inclement weather, or on a regular basis as needed. This ensures that the weapons are in proper working condition and ready for use. Cleaning the weapons after firing helps remove any residue or debris that may affect their performance. Cleaning during inclement weather prevents moisture or other elements from causing damage or corrosion. Regular cleaning as needed helps maintain the overall functionality and longevity of the weapons. It is important for unit personnel to take responsibility for cleaning their own weapons rather than relying solely on armory personnel.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
Which code is not an alarm response code?
-
4
-
3
-
2
-
1
Correct Answer
A. 4Explanation
The options provided in the question are numerical values representing alarm response codes. Out of the given options, 4 is not an alarm response code.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
Your personnel inspection during guardmount does not include checking to see if the individual is
-
Fit for duty.
-
Prepared to present a post briefing.
-
Complying with appearance directives.
-
In possession of all required equipment.
Correct Answer
A. Prepared to present a post briefing.Explanation
During personnel inspection during guardmount, the main focus is on ensuring that the individual is fit for duty, complying with appearance directives, and in possession of all required equipment. However, checking if the individual is prepared to present a post briefing is not part of the personnel inspection. This means that the individual's readiness to present a post briefing is not assessed during this inspection.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
Having a patrol officer search the scene that has not been involved in the preliminary investigation
-
Interferes with the ongoing investigation.
-
Allows for a fair share of the responsibilities within your flight.
-
Adds realism to the training environment for a new patrol officer.
-
Brings fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects.
Correct Answer
A. Brings fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects.Explanation
Having a patrol officer who has not been involved in the preliminary investigation search the scene brings fresh eyes to the crime scene without any bias from victims, witnesses, or suspects. This officer can provide a new perspective and potentially notice details that others may have missed. It ensures a thorough examination of the scene and increases the chances of finding important evidence.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
What should you do if a personality conflict occurs between an investigator and suspect during an interview?
-
Let another investigator conduct the interview.
-
Nothing because the suspect does not have to like you.
-
Step out for a few minutes to let the suspect calm down.
-
Place them in a holding cell until they are ready to continue.
Correct Answer
A. Let another investigator conduct the interview.Explanation
If a personality conflict occurs between an investigator and suspect during an interview, it is best to let another investigator conduct the interview. This is because a personality conflict can hinder the progress of the interview and may lead to biased or incomplete information being gathered. Allowing another investigator to take over ensures a more objective and effective interview process.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a
-
Habitual offender.
-
First time offender.
-
Psychotic offender.
-
Professional offender.
Correct Answer
A. Habitual offender.Explanation
An individual who feels no sense of wrongdoing after committing a crime is referred to as a habitual offender. This term is used to describe someone who repeatedly engages in criminal behavior without remorse or guilt. Unlike a first time offender, who may have made a mistake or acted impulsively, a habitual offender demonstrates a pattern of criminal behavior and shows no remorse for their actions. The term "psychotic offender" refers to someone who commits crimes due to a severe mental illness, while a "professional offender" typically refers to someone who commits crimes as a means of livelihood.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
What is an advantage to using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post?
-
Increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern.
-
Decreases the patrols you would normally have to post per shift.
-
Allows the MWD team to relieve others posts for breaks.
-
Makes it easy to perform post checks on the team.
Correct Answer
A. Increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern.Explanation
The advantage of using the flexible posting system when placing MWD teams on post is that it increases psychological protection by preventing a routine patrol pattern. By avoiding a predictable routine, it becomes more difficult for potential threats to anticipate the movements and patterns of the MWD teams. This unpredictability can enhance the safety and security of the teams and the area they are responsible for.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
All temporarily assigned security forces vehicles must be properly marked and have
-
SF badges applied to both the front doors.
-
Emergency lights, floodlights, and mobile radios.
-
Portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system.
-
A cage installed between the front and rear seats to transport a MWD.
Correct Answer
A. Portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system.Explanation
The correct answer is portable emergency lights, magnetic signs, and a public address system. This is because these items are necessary for temporarily assigned security forces vehicles to be properly marked. Portable emergency lights ensure that the vehicle is visible and can signal emergencies. Magnetic signs can be easily attached and removed, allowing for flexibility in marking the vehicle. A public address system enables communication with the public or other personnel. These features help to identify and distinguish security forces vehicles during their temporary assignments.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
Effective enforcement should emphasize selective enforcement and drivers complying
-
Voluntarily.
-
Unwillingly.
-
Mandatorily.
-
Involuntarily.
Correct Answer
A. Voluntarily.Explanation
Effective enforcement should emphasize selective enforcement, which means that authorities should focus on targeting specific violations rather than enforcing all laws uniformly. By doing so, drivers are more likely to comply voluntarily, as they understand the rationale behind the enforcement and the importance of following the rules. This approach encourages a sense of responsibility and cooperation among drivers, leading to safer roads and a better overall traffic environment.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
Your choice of search method is determined by the intent of the search and by the
-
Number of personnel available.
-
Size of the item to be found.
-
Amount of time available.
-
Area to be covered.
Correct Answer
A. Area to be covered.Explanation
The choice of search method is determined by the area to be covered. This means that the size of the area to be searched will dictate the appropriate search method to be used. If the area is large, a more systematic and organized search method may be required, such as grid searching or using search teams. On the other hand, if the area is small, a more focused and targeted search method may be sufficient, such as a line search or a visual search. Therefore, the area to be covered is a crucial factor in determining the most effective search method.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
What is the time limit placed on suspect interviews?
-
The amount of time necessary to obtain a confession.
-
There is no time limit set on an interview.
-
No more than 30 minutes.
-
No more than 60 minutes.
Correct Answer
A. There is no time limit set on an interview.Explanation
The correct answer is that there is no time limit set on an interview. This means that law enforcement officials can take as much time as they need to conduct the interview and gather information from the suspect. The absence of a time limit allows for thorough questioning and investigation, ensuring that all relevant details are uncovered. It also provides flexibility in case the suspect requires more time to provide a statement or if unforeseen circumstances arise during the interview process.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
Other than making the situation worse, if the occupants see you arrive on-scene, they may have time to
-
Leave.
-
Call a lawyer.
-
Get their story straight.
-
Conceal evidence of a crime.
Correct Answer
A. Conceal evidence of a crime.Explanation
If the occupants see you arrive on-scene, they may have time to conceal evidence of a crime. This means that they can hide or destroy any potential evidence that could incriminate them or prove their involvement in a criminal activity. By doing so, they aim to avoid being caught or prosecuted for their actions.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
When you interview residents, you should be alert to sudden movements or glances at closed doors, closets, or bureaus because the person may be
-
Hiding drugs.
-
Looking for an escape.
-
Cold and wants a jacket.
-
Hiding an injured family member or a weapon.
Correct Answer
A. Hiding an injured family member or a weapon.Explanation
When interviewing residents, being alert to sudden movements or glances at closed doors, closets, or bureaus indicates that the person may be hiding an injured family member or a weapon. This behavior suggests that they are trying to conceal something or protect someone, which could potentially be a threat or a dangerous situation. It is important for the interviewer to be aware of these signs and take appropriate action to ensure their safety and the safety of others involved.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
Who has the overall responsibility for unit manpower, standards, and evaluations?
-
SFS.
-
SFM.
-
SFO.
-
SFT.
Correct Answer
A. SFM.Explanation
The correct answer is SFM. SFM stands for Security Forces Manager, and they have the overall responsibility for unit manpower, standards, and evaluations. They are in charge of managing the personnel within the security forces unit, ensuring that they meet the required standards, and evaluating their performance. SFM plays a crucial role in maintaining the effectiveness and efficiency of the security forces unit.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
What patrol monitors assigned resources and provides a timed response of within three minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?
-
Internal SRT.
-
Immediate visual assessment sentries.
-
Close boundary sentry.
-
External SRT.
Correct Answer
A. Internal SRT.Explanation
The Internal SRT (Security Response Team) is responsible for monitoring assigned resources and ensuring a timely response to alarms generated from IDS (Intrusion Detection System), personnel, or incidents. Their role is to quickly assess and address any security threats or breaches within the organization. This team is specifically focused on internal security measures and is trained to respond within three minutes to any alarms or incidents that occur.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
What operates inside or outside of restricted areas and tactically responds within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS, personnel, or incidents?
-
Internal SRT.
-
Immediate visual assessment sentries.
-
Close boundary sentry.
-
External SRT.
Correct Answer
A. External SRT.Explanation
The correct answer is External SRT. An External SRT (Security Response Team) operates both inside and outside of restricted areas and is responsible for tactically responding within five minutes to alarms generated from IDS (Intrusion Detection Systems), personnel, or incidents. This team is trained to quickly assess and handle security threats and ensure the safety and security of the area.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
The MWD program does not provide security forces units with the capability to
-
Enforce military laws and regulations.
-
Detect classified information.
-
Suppress illegal drug use.
-
Detect explosives.
Correct Answer
A. Detect classified information.Explanation
The MWD program, which stands for Military Working Dog program, is not designed to provide security forces units with the capability to detect classified information. The main purpose of the program is to train and utilize dogs for various tasks such as patrol, search and rescue, and bomb detection. Detecting classified information is a specialized skill that typically falls under the domain of intelligence agencies and specialized units, rather than the MWD program.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
Which two forms are normally used for receipt of weapons?
-
AF Forms 629 and 1297.
-
AF Forms 629 and 1473.
-
AF Forms 1297 and 1473.
-
AF Forms 1437 and 1279.
Correct Answer
A. AF Forms 629 and 1297.Explanation
AF Forms 629 and 1297 are the correct answer because these forms are commonly used for the receipt of weapons. These forms are likely specific to the Air Force and are likely the standard forms used to document the transfer and receipt of weapons within the organization. The other options, AF Forms 629 and 1473, AF Forms 1297 and 1473, and AF Forms 1437 and 1279, are not the correct answer as they do not match the commonly used forms for receipt of weapons.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
Post the flight duty roster in a prominent place, but consistent with sound
-
COMSEC practices.
-
INFOSEC practices.
-
HUMINT practices.
-
OPSEC practices.
Correct Answer
A. OPSEC practices.Explanation
The correct answer is "OPSEC practices." OPSEC stands for Operational Security, which refers to the measures taken to protect sensitive information and prevent unauthorized access. In this context, posting the flight duty roster in a prominent place while following OPSEC practices means ensuring that the information is not accessible to unauthorized individuals who may exploit it for malicious purposes. This includes safeguarding the roster from potential threats and adhering to established security protocols.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
When questioning a juvenile, what action do you take if you cannot parent cannot respond in a timely manner?
-
Seek CSP advice.
-
Seek ADC advice.
-
Seek SJA advice.
-
Question them with a witness.
Correct Answer
A. Seek SJA advice.Explanation
If a juvenile's parent cannot respond in a timely manner during questioning, seeking SJA (Staff Judge Advocate) advice would be the appropriate action. The SJA is a legal advisor who can provide guidance on the proper course of action to take in such situations. They can help determine the next steps to ensure that the juvenile's rights are protected and that the questioning process is handled correctly.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
When must you notify the training section that qualification training is complete?
-
The first duty day following completion.
-
Within 30 days of completion.
-
72 hours after completion.
-
48 hours after completion.
Correct Answer
A. The first duty day following completion.Explanation
The correct answer is "The first duty day following completion." This means that as soon as you finish your qualification training, you are required to notify the training section on the very next working day. This ensures prompt communication and documentation of the completion of your training. It is essential to inform the training section promptly to maintain accurate records and to ensure that any further actions or assignments related to your training can be scheduled accordingly.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
What is not a responsibility of the unit training section?
-
Coordinates with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained.
-
Monitors both delays in finishing qualification training and progress in skill-level upgrade training.
-
Identifies local training needs and trains unit personnel to meet mission requirements.
-
Informs Stan-Eval that individuals have completed their qualification training.
Correct Answer
A. Coordinates with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained.Explanation
The responsibility of coordinating with maintenance personnel, civil engineers, and base supply to ensure facilities and equipment are properly maintained is not a responsibility of the unit training section.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
Maintaining criminal incident data and submitting the required statistical and information reports/analysis as needed is the responsibility of which office?
-
Investigations.
-
Crime prevention.
-
Resource protection.
-
Reports and analysis.
Correct Answer
A. Reports and analysis.Explanation
The responsibility of maintaining criminal incident data and submitting statistical and information reports/analysis falls under the office of Reports and Analysis. This office is in charge of collecting, organizing, and analyzing data related to criminal incidents, and providing reports and analysis based on this data as required. They play a crucial role in ensuring accurate and up-to-date information is available for decision-making and resource allocation in the field of law enforcement.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
Before being assigned operational duties, what two commands must a MWD obey?
-
OUT and IN.
-
SIT and STAY.
-
OUT and HEEL.
-
STAY and HEEL.
Correct Answer
A. OUT and HEEL.Explanation
A MWD (Military Working Dog) must obey the commands OUT and HEEL before being assigned operational duties. The command OUT is used to direct the dog to release or let go of something, while the command HEEL is used to instruct the dog to walk or run alongside the handler's left leg. These commands are essential for the dog's obedience and control during operations.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
What is the unit flight schedule based on?
-
Deployment/operations tempo.
-
Flight TDY/leave schedule.
-
Individual needs.
-
Unit needs.
Correct Answer
A. Unit needs.Explanation
The unit flight schedule is based on the needs of the unit. This means that the schedule is determined by the requirements and priorities of the unit as a whole, rather than individual needs or preferences. The unit needs could include factors such as mission requirements, operational tempo, and resource availability. By considering the unit needs, the flight schedule can be optimized to ensure efficient and effective operations.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
It is important, when possible, to rotate personnel through each post they are qualified to do in order to maintain
-
Proficiency.
-
Discipline.
-
Fairness.
-
Control.
Correct Answer
A. Proficiency.Explanation
Rotating personnel through each post they are qualified to do is important to maintain proficiency. By allowing individuals to gain experience and skills in different roles, they can become more versatile and knowledgeable. This rotation helps prevent employees from becoming stagnant or complacent in their current positions and ensures that they stay up-to-date with the latest practices and procedures. It also allows for a better understanding of the overall operations and enhances teamwork and collaboration among team members. Overall, rotating personnel promotes continuous learning and development, leading to increased proficiency in their respective roles.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
Who must the controller keep informed of all activities, incidents, and the status of each?
-
Flight commander and supervisor.
-
Flight chief and flight commander.
-
Flight chief and senior patrol officer.
-
Flight commander and operations superintendent.
Correct Answer
A. Flight chief and flight commander.Explanation
The controller must keep the flight chief and flight commander informed of all activities, incidents, and the status of each. These individuals are responsible for overseeing and managing the operations of the flight, and it is crucial for them to have up-to-date information in order to make informed decisions and effectively carry out their duties. By keeping them informed, the controller ensures that the flight chief and flight commander have a clear understanding of the situation and can take appropriate actions as needed.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
When conducting a building search, what factors must be taken into consideration by the handler before releasing the MWD to conduct a search?
-
Danger to the canine.
-
Time left in patrol shift.
-
Type and size of building.
-
Weather conditions just prior to the search.
Correct Answer
A. Type and size of building.Explanation
The handler must consider the type and size of the building before releasing the MWD to conduct a search. This is important because different buildings may present different challenges and hazards for the canine. For example, a large building may require more time and resources to search effectively, while a small building may have limited space for the canine to maneuver. Additionally, certain types of buildings, such as warehouses or high-rise buildings, may have specific safety concerns or obstacles that need to be taken into account. Therefore, understanding the type and size of the building is crucial in ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the search.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
When used in police services activities, a patrol dog team provides a tremendous.
-
Physical deterrent.
-
Physicians deterrent.
-
Physiological deterrent.
-
Psychological deterrent.
Correct Answer
A. Psychological deterrent.Explanation
A patrol dog team provides a psychological deterrent in police services activities. The presence of a well-trained and highly skilled dog can create fear and intimidation in potential criminals, deterring them from committing crimes. The psychological impact of knowing that a trained dog is on patrol can discourage individuals from engaging in illegal activities, as they may fear being apprehended or attacked by the dog. This psychological deterrent can help maintain law and order and enhance public safety.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
What installations are required to have an ISP?
-
Only installations with a flying mission are required to develop an ISP.
-
The base commander determines whether the installation requires an ISP or not.
-
All installations having or supporting protection level resources must establish a plan.
-
Installations located overseas are required to have an ISP to coincide with local procedures.
Correct Answer
A. All installations having or supporting protection level resources must establish a plan.Explanation
The correct answer is "All installations having or supporting protection level resources must establish a plan." This means that any installation that has or supports resources that require protection must have an ISP (Installation Security Plan) in place. The other options mentioned, such as installations with a flying mission or installations located overseas, may or may not require an ISP depending on the specific circumstances and the determination of the base commander. However, the requirement for an ISP is specifically tied to the presence of protection level resources.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
Which PL resources are contained in controlled areas with owner/users being primarily responsible for security?
-
PL1
-
PL2
-
PL3
-
PL4
Correct Answer
A. PL4Explanation
PL4 resources are contained in controlled areas with owner/users being primarily responsible for security. This means that the highest level of protection is required for PL4 resources, and the owners or users of these resources have the main responsibility for ensuring their security. PL4 resources may include highly sensitive information or critical systems that require strict access control and protection measures.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
How many days does the Security Forces Stan-Eval Program allow to conduct an evaluation after an individual completes qualification training?
-
120.
-
90.
-
60.
-
30.
Correct Answer
A. 30.Explanation
The Security Forces Stan-Eval Program allows 30 days to conduct an evaluation after an individual completes qualification training. This time frame ensures that the evaluation is conducted promptly after the training, allowing for a comprehensive assessment of the individual's skills and knowledge. It also allows for any necessary adjustments or improvements to be made in a timely manner.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
While on a mobile patrol, where should the MWD be in the vehicle?
-
On the back seat with its head out of the window while the vehicle is moving.
-
In a portable kennel in the bed of a pickup truck.
-
Off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle.
-
On leash, laying down on the back seat.
Correct Answer
A. Off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle.Explanation
The correct answer is off leash on the front or rear seat of the vehicle. This is because the MWD (Military Working Dog) should be allowed to move freely within the vehicle while on a mobile patrol. Being off leash allows the dog to respond quickly to any potential threats or situations that may arise. Placing the MWD on the front or rear seat ensures that it is secure and comfortable during the patrol.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
If an apprehension is made, in what position will the handler place the dog?
-
Sit/Stay.
-
Guard.
-
Heel.
-
Out.
Correct Answer
A. Guard.Explanation
The correct answer is "Guard" because when an apprehension is made, the handler will typically position the dog in a guarding stance to protect and secure the area. This position allows the dog to stay alert and ready to respond to any potential threats or intruders.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
The basic purpose of your financial plan submission is to
-
Determine which branch of service requires the most funding to complete the mission.
-
Ensure an equitable distribution of the president’s budget for the next fiscal year.
-
Determine what type of budget Congress is up against when their session starts.
-
Ensure the Air Force is allowed to purchase adequate aircraft and munitions.
Correct Answer
A. Ensure an equitable distribution of the president’s budget for the next fiscal year.Explanation
The correct answer is to ensure an equitable distribution of the president's budget for the next fiscal year. This means that the purpose of submitting a financial plan is to ensure that the budget is allocated fairly and evenly among different areas or departments, without any bias or favoritism. The financial plan submission aims to ensure that all necessary expenses are covered and that resources are distributed in a way that supports the overall goals and objectives of the organization or government.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
How many investigators should be present during a suspect interview?
-
At least three and one should be of the same sex.
-
You are only required to have one investigator.
-
As many as it takes to intimidate the suspect.
-
An interview is limited to two investigators.
Correct Answer
A. An interview is limited to two investigators.Explanation
The correct answer is "An interview is limited to two investigators." This means that during a suspect interview, only two investigators should be present. This ensures that the interview process is not overwhelming for the suspect and allows for a more focused and controlled environment. Having too many investigators may intimidate the suspect and hinder the effectiveness of the interview.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
Who is responsible for notifying the disaster control group of a major accident?
-
Law enforcement desk.
-
Security control.
-
Command post.
-
Base ops.
Correct Answer
A. Command post.Explanation
The command post is responsible for notifying the disaster control group of a major accident. The command post is typically the central coordination point during a crisis or emergency situation, where key decision-makers and officials gather to manage and direct response efforts. They have the authority and resources to quickly communicate and coordinate with the disaster control group, ensuring that they are promptly alerted and can take appropriate action to mitigate the situation.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
The responsibility for investigating crimes and incidents requiring more detailed and specialized analysis than you are used to conducting while on flight belongs to which office?
-
Report of survey office of investigation.
-
Air Force office of investigation.
-
Security forces training team.
-
Security forces investigations.
Correct Answer
A. Security forces investigations.Explanation
The responsibility for investigating crimes and incidents requiring more detailed and specialized analysis than what is typically conducted while on a flight belongs to the Security Forces Investigations office. This office is specifically tasked with conducting thorough investigations into such matters, ensuring that all necessary analysis and expertise are applied to gather accurate information and evidence. The Report of Survey office of investigation, Air Force office of investigation, and Security Forces training team may have their own respective roles and responsibilities, but they are not specifically designated to handle investigations of this nature.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
If any individual appears to be emotional, distraught, or stunned following any interview, to which person can the individual be released?
-
Medical personnel.
-
Roommate.
-
Supervisor.
-
Spouse.
Correct Answer
A. Supervisor.Explanation
If an individual appears to be emotional, distraught, or stunned following an interview, they can be released to their supervisor. This suggests that the supervisor is responsible for the well-being and support of the individual in such situations. The supervisor may have the necessary training or resources to address the emotional state of the individual and provide appropriate assistance or guidance.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
What authorizes the detention of civilians for offenses committed on a military installation?
-
Rules for courts-martial (RCM) 302(c) and Article 7b, UCMJ.
-
AF Form 3226, Authority to Apprehend in Private Dwelling.
-
Title 18, United States Code, and the US Constitution.
-
US Constitution and RCM 302(c).
Correct Answer
A. Title 18, United States Code, and the US Constitution.Explanation
The correct answer is Title 18, United States Code, and the US Constitution. This answer is correct because Title 18, United States Code, is the federal law that governs criminal offenses in the United States, including offenses committed on military installations. The US Constitution also plays a role in authorizing the detention of civilians for offenses committed on a military installation, as it provides the framework for the legal system and the rights of individuals. Together, these two sources of authority establish the basis for detaining civilians in such cases.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
The nuclear weapons mishap flag word “Dull Sword” identifies a nuclear weapons
-
Accident.
-
Incident.
-
Deficiency.
-
Occurrence.
Correct Answer
A. Deficiency.Explanation
The term "Dull Sword" is used as a flag word to identify a deficiency related to nuclear weapons. This means that when this term is used, it indicates that there is a problem or a lack in the nuclear weapons system. It does not specifically refer to an accident or incident, but rather highlights a deficiency or issue that needs to be addressed.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Dec 05, 2014Quiz Created by
Catherine Halcomb
Back to top