Can You Pass This Geology Exam? Trivia Quiz

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Geology Exam Quizzes & Trivia

Can you pass this geology exam? Some people think they know all there is to geology, but when it comes to answering questions, they tend to notice they forgot some information. Do you know what happens when tectonic plates shift and features of the earth different layers? The quiz below is one way to find out just how knowledgeable you actually are when it comes to geology.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    ________ refers to the changes in the shape or position of a rock body in response to differential stress.

    • A.

      Stress

    • B.

      Deformation

    • C.

      Compression

    • D.

      Brittle Failure

    Correct Answer
    B. Deformation
    Explanation
    Deformation refers to the changes in the shape or position of a rock body in response to differential stress. When rocks are subjected to stress, such as compression or tension, they can undergo deformation, which can result in various changes, including folding, faulting, or fracturing. This process is crucial in understanding the behavior and formation of geological structures and can provide insights into the tectonic forces that shape the Earth's crust.

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  • 2. 

    How will compressional force change a rock body? 

    • A.

      Shorten and thicken the rock.

    • B.

      Stretch and thin the rock.

    • C.

      Fracture the rock and grind the pieces along side each other.

    • D.

      The rock will not change.

    Correct Answer
    A. Shorten and thicken the rock.
    Explanation
    When a compressional force is applied to a rock body, it causes the rock to deform. The force causes the rock to shorten in length and become thicker. This is because the rock is being squeezed from opposite directions, resulting in a reduction in its overall length and an increase in its thickness. Therefore, the correct answer is that a compressional force will shorten and thicken the rock.

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  • 3. 

    How will tensional force change a rock body?

    • A.

      Stretch and thin the rock.

    • B.

      Fracture the rock and grind the pieces along side each other.

    • C.

      Shorten and thicken the rock.

    • D.

      The rock will not change.

    Correct Answer
    A. Stretch and thin the rock.
    Explanation
    Tensional force refers to the force that pulls apart or stretches a material. In the context of a rock body, tensional force will cause the rock to stretch and thin out. This is because the force is acting in opposite directions, pulling the rock apart. As a result, the rock will undergo deformation, becoming elongated and thinner. This process may lead to the formation of cracks or fractures in the rock as it is stretched beyond its capacity. Therefore, the correct answer is that tensional force will stretch and thin the rock.

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  • 4. 

    Which tectonic boundary is associated with compressional stress?

    • A.

      Convergent

    • B.

      Divergent

    • C.

      Transform

    • D.

      Dip-Slip

    Correct Answer
    A. Convergent
    Explanation
    Convergent tectonic boundaries are associated with compressional stress. This is because convergent boundaries occur when two tectonic plates collide, causing one plate to be forced beneath the other in a process called subduction. The force of the collision and the subduction of one plate beneath the other create compressional stress, leading to the formation of mountain ranges and other geological features.

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  • 5. 

    What is a fault?

    • A.

      A fracture in a rock along which motion has occurred.

    • B.

      A stress fracture created by rocks stretching and pulling apart near the surface.

    • C.

      A solution pathway created by carbonic acid.

    • D.

      Foliation in a rock that acts as a plane of weakness.

    Correct Answer
    A. A fracture in a rock along which motion has occurred.
    Explanation
    A fault is a fracture in a rock along which motion has occurred. This means that there has been movement along the fracture, which can happen due to tectonic forces. Faults are important in understanding the Earth's crust and the movement of tectonic plates. They can cause earthquakes and are associated with the release of energy in the form of seismic waves. By studying faults, scientists can gain insights into the processes that shape the Earth's surface and the forces that drive plate tectonics.

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  • 6. 

    You are sitting in class when your professor begins talking about a dome with the inner layers dating back to the Tertiary and its outer layers dating back to the Permian. You immediately know this professor is wrong. What is your evidence?

    • A.

      Domes have the oldest layers in the middle, not the youngest.

    • B.

      Domes don't have layers.

    • C.

      Now that we know the age of the layers, we would call it a syncline.

    • D.

      Domes didn't exist back then.

    Correct Answer
    A. Domes have the oldest layers in the middle, not the youngest.
    Explanation
    The evidence for the professor being wrong is that domes have the oldest layers in the middle, not the youngest. This is a fundamental concept in geology known as the principle of superposition, which states that in undisturbed rock layers, the oldest layers are found at the bottom and the youngest layers are found at the top. Therefore, if the inner layers of the dome are dating back to the Tertiary (which is more recent) and the outer layers are dating back to the Permian (which is older), it contradicts the natural order of layer deposition in a dome.

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  • 7. 

    Which tectonic boundary would have many normal faults associated with it?

    • A.

      Convergent

    • B.

      Divergent

    • C.

      Transform

    Correct Answer
    B. Divergent
    Explanation
    Divergent tectonic boundaries occur when two plates move away from each other. As they separate, tensional forces cause the lithosphere to break and form normal faults. These faults result in the downward movement of one side of the fault relative to the other. Therefore, a divergent boundary is associated with many normal faults.

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  • 8. 

    A ________ fault has a vertical fault plane and shows movement parallel to the orientation of the fault. 

    • A.

      Strike-Slip

    • B.

      Reverse

    • C.

      Thrust

    • D.

      Normal

    Correct Answer
    A. Strike-Slip
    Explanation
    A strike-slip fault is characterized by a vertical fault plane and movement parallel to the orientation of the fault. This means that the two sides of the fault slide horizontally past each other, rather than moving vertically or at an angle. In a strike-slip fault, the rocks on either side of the fault plane are displaced horizontally, resulting in a shearing motion. This type of fault is commonly associated with transform plate boundaries, where two tectonic plates slide past each other.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following best describes the age relationship of the layers in an anticline? 

    • A.

      Oldest on the inside of the fold, youngest on the outside.

    • B.

      Oldest on the outside of the fold, youngest on the inside.

    • C.

      Oldest materials thrust up on top of younger layers.

    • D.

      Horizontal bedding with the youngest layers on the top.

    Correct Answer
    A. Oldest on the inside of the fold, youngest on the outside.
    Explanation
    In an anticline, the layers of rock are folded in a convex shape, with the oldest layers found in the center or inside of the fold. As the folding occurs, younger layers are pushed towards the outside of the fold. This means that the oldest layers are on the inside of the fold, while the youngest layers are on the outside.

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  • 10. 

    A ________ fault is created when the hanging wall moves up relative to the footwall. 

    • A.

      Reverse

    • B.

      Graben

    • C.

      Strike-Slip

    • D.

      Normal

    Correct Answer
    A. Reverse
    Explanation
    A reverse fault is created when the hanging wall moves up relative to the footwall. In this type of fault, the forces acting on the rocks cause compression and the rocks are pushed together, resulting in the hanging wall moving upward. This is in contrast to a normal fault, where the hanging wall moves downward relative to the footwall due to tension forces pulling the rocks apart.

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  • 11. 

    You are watching TV with a friend when there is a special bulletin about a city in California being devastated by an earthquake. The news anchor reports that the epicenter of the earthquake is 45 miles east of Los Angeles. How would you explain the definition of the epicenter to your geologically impaired friend?

    • A.

      The location on the Earth's surface directly above the point of slippage.

    • B.

      The exact location on the fault where slippage occurs.

    • C.

      The contact point between two tectonic plates

    • D.

      The location of migrating magma in the crust

    Correct Answer
    A. The location on the Earth's surface directly above the point of slippage.
    Explanation
    The epicenter refers to the location on the Earth's surface that is directly above the point where the slippage of tectonic plates occurs during an earthquake. It is the point where the seismic waves originate and is usually the area that experiences the most severe shaking and damage.

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  • 12. 

    What is the definition of the focus?

    • A.

      The exact location on the fault where slippage occurs.

    • B.

      The location where three monitoring stations overlap.

    • C.

      The location on the Earth's surface directly above the point of slippage.

    • D.

      The build-up of potential energy in a new location after an earthquake.

    Correct Answer
    A. The exact location on the fault where slippage occurs.
    Explanation
    The focus refers to the exact location on the fault where slippage occurs during an earthquake. It is the point where the energy that has been accumulated along the fault is released, resulting in the shaking of the ground. This is different from the epicenter, which is the point on the Earth's surface directly above the focus. The focus is crucial in understanding the dynamics and mechanics of an earthquake, as it helps seismologists determine the source and intensity of the seismic activity.

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  • 13. 

    The elastic rebound associated with earthquakes is an example of ________ deformation.

    • A.

      Elastic

    • B.

      Ductile

    • C.

      Brittle

    • D.

      Permanent

    Correct Answer
    A. Elastic
    Explanation
    The correct answer is elastic because the elastic rebound refers to the release of stored elastic energy during an earthquake. When stress builds up along a fault line, the rocks deform elastically, meaning they temporarily change shape but can return to their original shape once the stress is released. This sudden release of energy causes the rocks to "snap back" to their original position, resulting in the shaking and movement associated with earthquakes. This behavior is characteristic of elastic deformation.

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  • 14. 

    Which plate boundary along the Circum-Pacific Belt is responsible for the majority of that belt's earthquakes?

    • A.

      Convergent

    • B.

      Divergent

    • C.

      Transform

    Correct Answer
    A. Convergent
    Explanation
    Convergent plate boundaries occur when two tectonic plates collide and one plate is forced beneath the other, creating a subduction zone. This process leads to the formation of mountain ranges and deep ocean trenches. The friction and pressure caused by the plates' movement can result in intense seismic activity, making convergent plate boundaries responsible for the majority of earthquakes along the Circum-Pacific Belt, also known as the Ring of Fire.

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  • 15. 

    Which tectonic boundary is responsible for the most powerful and destructive earthquakes recorded?

    • A.

      Convergent

    • B.

      Divergent

    • C.

      Transform

    Correct Answer
    A. Convergent
    Explanation
    Convergent tectonic boundaries occur when two plates collide, causing one plate to be forced beneath the other in a process called subduction. This collision and subduction can result in the release of a large amount of energy, leading to powerful and destructive earthquakes. The subduction zone created by convergent boundaries is often associated with the formation of deep trenches and volcanic activity, further contributing to the intensity of earthquakes. Therefore, it is logical to conclude that convergent boundaries are responsible for the most powerful and destructive earthquakes recorded.

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  • 16. 

    What is the term used to describe slow, gradual displacement along a fault without the accumulation of significant strain?

    • A.

      Fault Creep

    • B.

      Megathrusting

    • C.

      Fault propagation

    • D.

      Elastic rebound

    Correct Answer
    A. Fault Creep
    Explanation
    Fault creep is the term used to describe slow, gradual displacement along a fault without the accumulation of significant strain. This occurs when the stress along the fault is released gradually, causing the rocks to move slowly and continuously without causing a significant earthquake. Fault creep is characterized by small, frequent movements that can be observed through features such as offset fences or roads. Unlike other types of fault movement, fault creep does not result in the build-up and release of large amounts of energy, making it less hazardous compared to other types of fault activity.

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  • 17. 

    ________ are records of seismic waves.

    • A.

      Seismograms

    • B.

      Seismographs

    • C.

      Seismometers

    • D.

      Seismic relays

    Correct Answer
    A. Seismograms
    Explanation
    Seismograms are records of seismic waves. They are created by seismographs, which are instruments that measure and record ground motion caused by earthquakes or other seismic activities. Seismometers are the sensors within seismographs that detect the ground motion, while seismic relays are devices used to transmit seismic signals. Therefore, the correct answer is seismograms.

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  • 18. 

    Where is the zone of greatest seismic activity on Earth?

    • A.

      Circum-Pacific Belt

    • B.

      Alpine-Himalayan Belt

    • C.

      San Andreas Fault

    • D.

      Mid-Atlantic Ridge

    Correct Answer
    A. Circum-Pacific Belt
    Explanation
    The Circum-Pacific Belt is the correct answer because it is also known as the Ring of Fire, which is the zone of greatest seismic activity on Earth. This belt is a major area in the basin of the Pacific Ocean where a large number of earthquakes and volcanic eruptions occur. It is characterized by the presence of several tectonic plate boundaries, including subduction zones, where one plate is forced beneath another, leading to intense seismic activity. This belt stretches from the western coast of the Americas, through the Pacific Ocean, to the eastern coast of Asia, making it the most seismically active region on Earth.

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  • 19. 

    You are monitoring a seismograph in Seattle. One morning, your instrument records an earthquake approximately 2,000 km away. From that information, can you predict where the earthquake occurred?

    • A.

      No, because you would need information from more than one seismograph to plot the epicenter.

    • B.

      No, because seismographs can't pick up earthquakes from that far away.

    • C.

      Yes. You could take the distance and match it up with known fault lines to find the epicenter

    • D.

      Yes, because seismographs can indicate direction as well as distance

    Correct Answer
    A. No, because you would need information from more than one seismograph to plot the epicenter.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is No, because you would need information from more than one seismograph to plot the epicenter. This is because the epicenter of an earthquake is determined by triangulating the data from multiple seismographs. By comparing the arrival times of seismic waves at different locations, scientists can pinpoint the epicenter. With data from only one seismograph, it is not possible to accurately determine the location of the earthquake.

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  • 20. 

    Which seismic wave will be released first during an earthquake?

    • A.

      P-waves

    • B.

      S-waves

    • C.

      L-waves

    • D.

      R-waves

    Correct Answer
    A. P-waves
    Explanation
    P-waves, also known as primary waves, are the first seismic waves to be released during an earthquake. These waves are compressional waves that travel through the Earth's interior and can move through solid, liquid, and gas. P-waves are the fastest type of seismic waves and are responsible for the initial shaking felt during an earthquake. They arrive at seismograph stations before the slower S-waves, L-waves, and R-waves, making them the first to be detected and recorded.

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  • 21. 

    When going from a 5 to a 6 on the Richter Scale, what is the increase in the amplitude of seismic waves?

    • A.

      10 times

    • B.

      1 time

    • C.

      2 times

    • D.

      32 times

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 times
    Explanation
    The Richter Scale is logarithmic, which means that each whole number increase on the scale represents a tenfold increase in the amplitude of seismic waves. Therefore, going from a 5 to a 6 on the Richter Scale corresponds to a 10 times increase in amplitude.

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  • 22. 

    ________ measures the total energy released during an earthquake by determining the average amount of slip on the fault, the area of the fault surface that slipped, and the strength of the faulted rock.

    • A.

      Moment Magnitude Scale

    • B.

      Mercalli Intensity Scale

    • C.

      Richter Scale

    • D.

      Beaufort Scale

    Correct Answer
    A. Moment Magnitude Scale
    Explanation
    The moment magnitude scale measures the total energy released during an earthquake by taking into account various factors such as the average amount of slip on the fault, the area of the fault surface that slipped, and the strength of the faulted rock. This scale provides a more accurate and comprehensive measurement of the earthquake's energy compared to other scales like the Richter scale or the Mercalli intensity scale. The moment magnitude scale is widely used by seismologists to quantify and compare the magnitudes of different earthquakes.

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  • 23. 

    What is infiltration?

    • A.

      Water soaking into the ground

    • B.

      The transition from liquid to gas as a result of increases in temperature

    • C.

      Plants taking in water

    • D.

      Water running off the surface and entering a channel

    Correct Answer
    A. Water soaking into the ground
    Explanation
    Infiltration refers to the process of water soaking into the ground. This occurs when precipitation or irrigation water enters the soil and is absorbed by it. Infiltration is an important part of the water cycle as it replenishes groundwater reserves and helps to maintain soil moisture levels. It is influenced by factors such as soil type, slope, vegetation cover, and the intensity of precipitation.

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  • 24. 

    The ________ describes the path water takes as it moves between the land, the ocean, and the atmosphere. 

    • A.

      Hydrologic Cycle

    • B.

      Evaporation

    • C.

      Rock Cycle

    • D.

      Precipitation

    Correct Answer
    A. Hydrologic Cycle
    Explanation
    The hydrologic cycle describes the continuous movement of water on, above, and below the surface of the Earth. It involves processes such as evaporation, condensation, precipitation, and runoff. Water evaporates from the ocean and land surfaces, rises into the atmosphere, condenses into clouds, and falls back to the Earth as precipitation. This water then flows into rivers, lakes, and groundwater, eventually returning to the ocean to complete the cycle. The hydrologic cycle is essential for maintaining the Earth's water balance and plays a crucial role in weather patterns and the distribution of water resources.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is not one of the three zones of a river system?

    • A.

      Sediment Capacity Zone

    • B.

      Sediment Transport Zone

    • C.

      Sediment Deposition Zone

    • D.

      Sediment Production Zone

    Correct Answer
    A. Sediment Capacity Zone
    Explanation
    The sediment capacity zone is not one of the three zones of a river system. The three zones are the sediment transport zone, sediment deposition zone, and sediment production zone. The sediment capacity zone is not a recognized zone in river systems.

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  • 26. 

    What is the wetted perimeter of a stream?

    • A.

      The amount of flow in contact with the banks and bed of the channel.

    • B.

      That part of a streambed that contains the strongest current.

    • C.

      Where the stream is incising on the outside of a meander loop.

    • D.

      Where deposition occurs in an abandoned stream channel.

    Correct Answer
    A. The amount of flow in contact with the banks and bed of the channel.
    Explanation
    The wetted perimeter of a stream refers to the amount of flow in contact with the banks and bed of the channel. This means that it includes the portion of the stream where water is in contact with the channel's boundaries, including the banks and the bottom of the stream. The wetted perimeter is an important factor in determining the hydraulic characteristics of a stream, such as its flow velocity and resistance to flow.

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  • 27. 

    What is the mouth of a stream?

    • A.

      The location where streamflow ends.

    • B.

      The location where one stream flows into another stream.

    • C.

      The location where streamflow begins.

    • D.

      The location where streams diverge into distributary channels.

    Correct Answer
    A. The location where streamflow ends.
    Explanation
    The mouth of a stream refers to the location where streamflow ends. This is typically where the stream empties into a larger body of water, such as a lake, ocean, or another stream. It is the point where the water from the stream is no longer flowing and merges with a larger water body.

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  • 28. 

    How will channel velocity change along the longitudinal profile of a stream? 

    • A.

      Velocity will start low and gradually increase toward the mouth due to increasing discharge downstream.

    • B.

      Velocity will remain constant for the entire length of the stream.

    • C.

      Velocity will start high and gradually decrease toward the mouth due to increasing discharge downstream.

    Correct Answer
    A. Velocity will start low and gradually increase toward the mouth due to increasing discharge downstream.
    Explanation
    As water flows downstream in a stream, the discharge (the volume of water passing through a cross-section of the stream per unit of time) increases. This increase in discharge leads to an increase in velocity. At the headwaters of the stream, where the discharge is low, the velocity will also be low. However, as the water moves downstream and the discharge increases, the velocity will gradually increase as well. Therefore, velocity will start low and gradually increase toward the mouth of the stream due to increasing discharge downstream.

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  • 29. 

    During what periods would streams see the greatest erosion and transportation of sediment?

    • A.

      Floods

    • B.

      Droughts

    • C.

      When Frozen

    • D.

      When Dammed

    Correct Answer
    A. Floods
    Explanation
    Streams would experience the greatest erosion and transportation of sediment during floods. This is because floods bring a large volume of water, which increases the velocity and energy of the stream. The fast-moving water can dislodge and carry away sediment, leading to erosion and transportation. Additionally, floods can also cause the stream to overflow its banks, further contributing to sediment transport.

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  • 30. 

    ________ is a measure of a stream's ability to transport particles based on size rather than quantity.

    • A.

      Competence

    • B.

      Corrosion

    • C.

      Capacity

    • D.

      Carbonate

    Correct Answer
    A. Competence
    Explanation
    Competence refers to a stream's ability to transport particles based on their size rather than their quantity. It indicates the stream's capability to move larger particles, such as rocks and boulders, rather than smaller ones. Competence is an important factor in determining a stream's erosional power and its ability to shape the landscape by transporting and depositing sediment of different sizes.

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  • 31. 

    What is the term for sediment deposited by streams?

    • A.

      Alluvium

    • B.

      Talus

    • C.

      Fluvium

    • D.

      Colluvium

    Correct Answer
    A. Alluvium
    Explanation
    Alluvium is the correct answer because it refers to sediment that is deposited by streams. When streams flow, they carry sediments such as sand, silt, and gravel, and when the flow slows down, these sediments settle and accumulate on the streambed or floodplain, forming alluvium. This process is responsible for the formation of fertile soils in river valleys and floodplains. Talus refers to the accumulation of rock debris at the base of a cliff or slope, fluvium is not a recognized term, and colluvium refers to sediments that are moved downslope by gravity.

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  • 32. 

    What is base level?

    • A.

      The downward limit of erosion.

    • B.

      The highest elevation streams can be found.

    • C.

      The transition from a straight channel stream to a meandering stream.

    • D.

      The gradient line along with the longitudinal profile of the stream.

    Correct Answer
    A. The downward limit of erosion.
    Explanation
    Base level refers to the lowest point to which a stream can erode its bed. It is the point where the stream meets a body of water, such as a lake or the ocean. At base level, the stream's erosive power is minimal, as it cannot erode below this point. Therefore, the correct answer is "The downward limit of erosion."

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  • 33. 

    What is the ultimate base level?

    • A.

      Sea level

    • B.

      Continental Divide

    • C.

      A basalt flow beneath softer sedimentary rocks

    • D.

      The bottom of a waterfall

    Correct Answer
    A. Sea level
    Explanation
    Sea level is considered the ultimate base level because it represents the lowest point to which rivers and streams can erode. It is the level at which water seeks equilibrium and is the reference point for measuring elevation on land. Continental Divide refers to a ridge that separates the direction of water flow, while a basalt flow beneath softer sedimentary rocks and the bottom of a waterfall are not universally applicable base levels.

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  • 34. 

    What percentage of the Earth's water is in the form of groundwater? 

    • A.

      0.62%

    • B.

      97.2%

    • C.

      94%

    • D.

      0.005%

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.62%
    Explanation
    Approximately 0.62% of the Earth's water is in the form of groundwater. Groundwater refers to the water that is stored beneath the Earth's surface in aquifers and permeable rock formations. This water is an essential source for drinking water and irrigation purposes. The other options provided in the question, such as 97.2%, 94%, and 0.005%, are not accurate representations of the percentage of groundwater on Earth.

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  • 35. 

    What percentage of Earth's liquid freshwater is in the form of groundwater?

    • A.

      94%

    • B.

      97.2%

    • C.

      0.62%

    • D.

      0.005%

    Correct Answer
    A. 94%
    Explanation
    Approximately 94% of Earth's liquid freshwater is in the form of groundwater. Groundwater refers to the water that is stored beneath the Earth's surface in aquifers and underground reservoirs. It is a significant source of freshwater for drinking, irrigation, and industrial purposes. This high percentage indicates the importance of groundwater as a vital resource for sustaining life and various human activities.

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  • 36. 

    What geologic process is responsible for warming the water at Hot Springs National Park?

    • A.

      Normal geothermal gradient

    • B.

      Radioactive minerals near the surface

    • C.

      Volcanic activity

    • D.

      Abnormal volumes of rain

    Correct Answer
    A. Normal geothermal gradient
    Explanation
    The correct answer is normal geothermal gradient. Hot Springs National Park is known for its hot springs, which are heated by the normal geothermal gradient. This means that the Earth's natural heat is gradually increasing the temperature of the groundwater, resulting in the hot springs. It is not caused by radioactive minerals near the surface, volcanic activity, or abnormal volumes of rain.

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  • 37. 

    What geologic process is responsible for the geothermal features in Yellowstone National Park?

    • A.

      Volcanic activity

    • B.

      Radioactive minerals near the surface

    • C.

      Abnormal volumes of rain

    • D.

      Normal geothermal gradient

    Correct Answer
    A. Volcanic activity
    Explanation
    Volcanic activity is responsible for the geothermal features in Yellowstone National Park. The park sits on top of a hotspot, where molten rock rises to the surface. This volcanic activity heats up water underground, creating hot springs, geysers, and other geothermal features. The heat from the volcanic activity also contributes to the formation of the park's famous geysers, such as Old Faithful.

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  • 38. 

    What is permeability?

    • A.

      Ability to transmit water

    • B.

      Volume of pore space in a material

    • C.

      When ice crystals deform and slide past each other

    • D.

      Dissolution of carbonate rock due to acid

    Correct Answer
    A. Ability to transmit water
    Explanation
    Permeability refers to the ability of a material to transmit water. It is a measure of how easily water can flow through the pore spaces of a substance. Materials with high permeability allow water to pass through easily, while those with low permeability restrict water flow. Permeability is an important property in various fields such as geology, hydrology, and civil engineering, as it affects the movement of groundwater, the design of drainage systems, and the effectiveness of filtration processes.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following materials would make the best aquitard?

    • A.

      Shale

    • B.

      Gravel

    • C.

      Sandstone

    • D.

      Conglomerate

    Correct Answer
    A. Shale
    Explanation
    Shale would make the best aquitard because it is a fine-grained sedimentary rock with low permeability. Its compact nature and small particle size make it difficult for water to pass through, acting as a barrier to the flow of groundwater. Gravel, sandstone, and conglomerate are all more porous and have higher permeability, allowing water to flow more easily through them.

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  • 40. 

    In order for an aquifer to use useful for human consumption, what kind of porosity and permeability should it have?

    • A.

      High porosity, high permeability

    • B.

      Low porosity, low permeability

    • C.

      Low porosity, high permeability

    • D.

      High porosity, low permeability

    Correct Answer
    A. High porosity, high permeability
    Explanation
    An aquifer that is useful for human consumption should have high porosity and high permeability. High porosity means that the aquifer has a lot of open spaces or pores that can hold and transmit water. High permeability means that the aquifer has the ability to allow water to flow through it easily. When an aquifer has both high porosity and high permeability, it can store and transmit a large amount of water, making it suitable for human consumption.

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  • 41. 

    What groundwater feature forms where the water table intersects with the Earth's surface, creating a natural outflow of groundwater? 

    • A.

      Spring

    • B.

      Fumarole

    • C.

      Sinkhole

    • D.

      Lake

    Correct Answer
    A. Spring
    Explanation
    A spring is a groundwater feature that forms when the water table intersects with the Earth's surface. This intersection creates a natural outflow of groundwater, resulting in the formation of a spring. Springs can vary in size and flow rate, and they often provide a source of freshwater for surrounding ecosystems.

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  • 42. 

    What feature is going to develop if a well is withdrawing more groundwater than an aquifer can naturally replace, resulting in a dimple in the water table? 

    • A.

      Cone of Depression

    • B.

      Subsidence

    • C.

      Contamination

    • D.

      Saltwater encroachment

    Correct Answer
    A. Cone of Depression
    Explanation
    If a well is withdrawing more groundwater than an aquifer can naturally replace, it creates a cone of depression. This occurs when the water table surrounding the well is lowered, creating a dimple or cone-shaped depression in the water table. The cone of depression can lead to a decrease in water availability, as nearby wells may also experience a drop in water levels.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 13, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Accorini

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