Volume 1 - 2014 2A651 CDC
(221).webp "Volume 1 - 2014 2A651 CDC - Quiz")
Questions and Answers
- 1.
(001)Which functions form a maintenance group?
- A.
Operations, aircraft maintenance, flying
- B.
Maintenance, operations, quality assurance
- C.
Quality assurance (QA), Support, aircraft maintenance
- D.
Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and QA
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and QAExplanation
The functions that form a maintenance group are maintenance operations, maintenance, aircraft maintenance, and quality assurance (QA). These functions are all related to the maintenance and upkeep of aircraft and ensuring that they are in proper working condition. Maintenance operations involve managing and coordinating maintenance activities, while maintenance itself involves performing repairs and inspections. Aircraft maintenance specifically focuses on the maintenance of aircraft systems and components. Quality assurance is responsible for ensuring that maintenance activities meet the required standards and regulations.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(001) To which flight is the engine mangaement section assigned?
- A.
Programs and Resources
- B.
Maintenance Operations
- C.
Maintenance Training
- D.
Quality Assurance
Correct Answer
B. Maintenance OperationsExplanation
The engine management section is assigned to the Maintenance Operations department. This department is responsible for overseeing the maintenance and repair of aircraft engines. They ensure that engines are properly maintained and in good working condition to ensure the safety and efficiency of flights. The engine management section within Maintenance Operations specifically focuses on monitoring and managing the performance of aircraft engines, including scheduling regular inspections, troubleshooting issues, and coordinating repairs or replacements when necessary.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(001) Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules and maintains visibiliy of fleet health indicators?
- A.
Operations Support Center
- B.
Logistics Support Squadron
- C.
Operations Support Squadron
- D.
Maintenance Operations Center
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance Operations CenterExplanation
The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for monitoring flying and maintenance schedules and maintaining visibility of fleet health indicators. They oversee the coordination and execution of maintenance activities, ensuring that aircraft are properly maintained and available for missions. This includes tracking maintenance schedules, conducting inspections, and analyzing data to identify any potential issues or trends. Their role is crucial in ensuring the operational readiness and safety of the fleet.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(002) What does the fifth position of the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 2A652 represent?
- A.
Career Field Subdivision
- B.
Specific AFSC
- C.
Career field
- D.
Skill level
Correct Answer
B. Specific AFSCExplanation
The fifth position of the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) 2A652 represents the specific AFSC. AFSC is a code used by the Air Force to identify specific jobs within the career field. The specific AFSC indicates the particular job or specialty within the broader career field.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(002) What will be your title once you obtain the 7-skill level?
- A.
Craftsman
- B.
Apprentice
- C.
Journeyman
- D.
Superintendent
Correct Answer
A. CraftsmanExplanation
The title "Craftsman" is typically associated with someone who has reached a high level of skill and expertise in a particular craft or trade. Obtaining a 7-skill level suggests that the individual has achieved a mastery of their craft, making "Craftsman" an appropriate title for them.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(002) What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?
- A.
On-the-job training
- B.
Task qualification training
- C.
Career development course
- D.
Noncommissioned Officer Academy (NCOA)
Correct Answer
C. Career development courseExplanation
A career development course is provided to help individuals learn the knowledge portion of their job. This type of training is specifically designed to enhance skills and knowledge related to one's career path. It focuses on developing expertise and understanding in a particular field, allowing individuals to advance in their chosen profession. It provides comprehensive and in-depth training, covering various aspects of the job and equipping individuals with the necessary knowledge and skills to excel in their career.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(002) How many months must you have in the Air Force before you may attend the Airmen Leadership School (ALS)?
- A.
24
- B.
36
- C.
48
- D.
60
Correct Answer
C. 48Explanation
In order to attend the Airmen Leadership School (ALS), one must have served in the Air Force for a minimum of 48 months. This indicates that a certain level of experience and time in service is required before being eligible for leadership training.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(003) Air Force occupation safety and health (AFOSH) Standards are located within Air Force publication series
- A.
91
- B.
66
- C.
127
- D.
161
Correct Answer
A. 91Explanation
Air Force occupation safety and health (AFOSH) Standards are located within Air Force publication series 91.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(003) Which piece of personal protective equipment is required to avoid potential hazards when lifting heavy objects?
- A.
Goggles
- B.
Back brace
- C.
Leather gloves
- D.
Safety-toed boots
Correct Answer
D. Safety-toed bootsExplanation
Safety-toed boots are required when lifting heavy objects to avoid potential hazards. These boots provide protection to the feet from falling objects, compression, and impact. They have a reinforced toe cap that can withstand heavy loads and prevent injuries such as crushed toes or broken bones. Goggles, back brace, and leather gloves may also be necessary in certain situations, but safety-toed boots specifically address the hazards associated with lifting heavy objects.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(003) Which Air Force istruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?
- A.
00-5-1
- B.
00-20-1
- C.
21-101
- D.
36-2108
Correct Answer
C. 21-101Explanation
Air Force Instruction 21-101 defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance. This instruction serves as a guide for maintaining high standards of quality in maintenance operations and emphasizes the importance of integrity and adherence to established procedures. It provides a framework for ensuring that maintenance personnel consistently meet the required standards and contribute to the overall effectiveness of the Air Force's maintenance program.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(004) Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure it is safe to proceed?
- A.
Lock and pin the work stands
- B.
Check the intake for foreign object damage (FOD)
- C.
Review the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781K
- D.
Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft
Correct Answer
D. Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraftExplanation
To ensure safety before starting any maintenance on the aircraft, it is important to check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft. This is necessary to ensure that there are no ongoing activities or potential hazards that could pose a risk to the maintenance work. By communicating with others, any potential conflicts or safety concerns can be identified and addressed, ensuring a safe working environment for the maintenance personnel.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(004) How far does a propeller's axis of rotation extend?
- A.
20 feet to the front and 15 feet from the rear
- B.
15 feet to the front and 1 feet from the rear
- C.
10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear
- D.
5 feet to the front and 1 foot from the rear
Correct Answer
C. 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rearExplanation
A propeller's axis of rotation extends 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(004) In order to avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance to the rear of the aircraft?
- A.
100 feet
- B.
200 feet
- C.
300 feet
- D.
400 feet
Correct Answer
B. 200 feetExplanation
To avoid the engine exhaust blast, the minimum distance to the rear of the aircraft should be 200 feet. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of individuals and prevent any potential harm caused by the high temperature and forceful blast of the engine exhaust. A shorter distance could expose people to the risk of burns, injuries, or damage to property. Therefore, maintaining a minimum distance of 200 feet is crucial for safety.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(005) Foreign object damage (FOD) is normally caused by
- A.
People
- B.
Animals
- C.
Weather
- D.
Mechanical failure
Correct Answer
A. PeopleExplanation
Foreign object damage (FOD) is normally caused by people. This refers to any damage or debris that is introduced into an area where it does not belong, such as an aircraft engine or runway. FOD can be caused by individuals who inadvertently drop or leave objects in areas where they can be sucked into engines or cause damage to aircraft. It is important for individuals to be aware of their surroundings and properly dispose of any objects to prevent FOD incidents.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(005) Who has overall responsibility for the foreign object damage (FOD) program?
- A.
Quality Assurance
- B.
Production supervisor
- C.
Squadron commander
- D.
Vice Wing commander
Correct Answer
D. Vice Wing commanderExplanation
The Vice Wing commander has overall responsibility for the foreign object damage (FOD) program. This means that they are in charge of ensuring that proper procedures and protocols are in place to prevent foreign objects from causing damage to aircraft and equipment. They are responsible for overseeing the implementation of the FOD program and ensuring that all personnel are trained and aware of their roles and responsibilities in preventing FOD incidents.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(006) Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they
- A.
Aerosols
- B.
Liquids
- C.
Solids
- D.
Gases
Correct Answer
D. GasesExplanation
Toxic materials in the form of gases are the easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions because they can be inhaled and quickly absorbed into the bloodstream through the lungs. Gases have the ability to easily penetrate the respiratory system and enter the body, allowing for a faster onset of toxic effects compared to other forms such as aerosols, liquids, or solids.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(007) Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain
- A.
Safety
- B.
Hospital
- C.
Supervisor
- D.
Enviromental
Correct Answer
C. SupervisorExplanation
The supervisor is responsible for providing training on how to wear, use, and maintain safety equipment. They are in a position of authority and have the knowledge and expertise to ensure that employees are properly trained in safety protocols. The supervisor plays a crucial role in ensuring that employees have the necessary skills and knowledge to protect themselves and others in the workplace.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(007) What would you normally use to clean and sanitize respirators?
- A.
Alcohol
- B.
Pine oil
- C.
Mild soap
- D.
Fleur-de-lis
Correct Answer
C. Mild soapExplanation
Mild soap is the correct answer because it is typically used to clean and sanitize respirators. Alcohol may be too harsh and can damage the materials of the respirator. Pine oil is not commonly used for cleaning respirators, and fleur-de-lis is not a cleaning agent at all.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(007) Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent
- A.
Explosions
- B.
Unauthorized entry
- C.
Overflow of materials
- D.
Mixing of unlike materials
Correct Answer
B. Unauthorized entryExplanation
Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent unauthorized entry to ensure the safety of individuals and the environment. Unauthorized entry can lead to accidents, spills, or intentional harm, which can have severe consequences. By restricting access to authorized personnel only, the risk of mishandling or tampering with hazardous materials is minimized, reducing the potential for accidents or intentional harm.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(007) Containers holding hazardous waste must be clearly marked to show the contents and
- A.
Flash point.
- B.
Classification
- C.
Shipping name
- D.
Date the waste began to accumulate
Correct Answer
D. Date the waste began to accumulateExplanation
Containers holding hazardous waste must be clearly marked to show the contents and the date the waste began to accumulate. This is important for several reasons. First, it helps to ensure that the waste is properly managed and disposed of in a timely manner, as hazardous waste must be handled and treated differently than regular waste. Second, it allows for proper tracking and record keeping, as the date of accumulation is a key piece of information for regulatory compliance. Finally, it helps to protect the health and safety of workers and the environment, as knowing the date of accumulation can help determine how long the waste has been stored and if any potential risks have developed.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(008) A specialized function of the supply mission is
- A.
Repair
- B.
Service
- C.
Disposal
- D.
Retrieval
Correct Answer
C. DisposalExplanation
The specialized function of the supply mission that is being referred to in this question is disposal. This means that one of the tasks or objectives of the supply mission is to properly dispose of certain items or materials. This could involve safely getting rid of waste, excess or expired supplies, or any other items that need to be disposed of in a responsible manner.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(008) From what perspective does the Global Logistics Support Center (GLSC) manage supply?
- A.
Base system
- B.
Weapons system
- C.
Inventory system
- D.
Geographical system
Correct Answer
B. Weapons systemExplanation
The Global Logistics Support Center (GLSC) manages supply from the perspective of the weapons system. This means that their focus is on ensuring the availability and proper functioning of the weapons and equipment used by the military. They are responsible for coordinating and providing logistics support specifically for weapons systems, including maintenance, repair, and supply chain management. Their goal is to ensure that the weapons systems are properly equipped and ready for use at all times.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(008) Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require
- A.
Overhaul
- B.
Retest OK
- C.
Time change
- D.
Repair cycle support
Correct Answer
A. OverhaulExplanation
Certain equipment items may require overhaul when returned to the depot due to their design characteristics, function, or application. Overhaul involves a comprehensive examination, repair, and restoration of the equipment to ensure it is in optimal working condition. This process may involve replacing worn-out parts, conducting thorough inspections, and addressing any issues or deficiencies identified during the overhaul. Overhaul is necessary to extend the lifespan of the equipment, maintain its performance, and prevent any potential failures or malfunctions.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(008) Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS)?
- A.
Priority Monitor Report (D18).
- B.
Daily Document Register (D04).
- C.
Due-out Validation Listing (M30).
- D.
Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23).
Correct Answer
B. Daily Document Register (D04).Explanation
The Daily Document Register (D04) provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS). This document allows organizations to keep track of all the documents that have been processed, ensuring that nothing is missed or overlooked. It serves as a record of all the transactions and activities that have taken place within a specific time frame, allowing for easy reference and review.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(008) Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of the differences in each organization’s
- A.
Type of aircraft.
- B.
Contract.
- C.
Mission.
- D.
Location.
Correct Answer
C. Mission.Explanation
Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis because of the differences in each organization's mission. This suggests that the reason for prioritizing the delivery of parts is based on the specific tasks or objectives that each organization needs to accomplish. Different missions may require different parts or have varying levels of urgency, hence the need for prioritization in order to ensure that the right parts are delivered to the right organizations at the right time.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(009) What does a completed Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 350 serve to identify?
- A.
Origin of an item.
- B.
Why the item broke
- C.
How long the item will take to repair.
- D.
The responsible reparable processing center.
Correct Answer
A. Origin of an item.Explanation
A completed Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 350 serves to identify the origin of an item. This form is used in the Air Force to track and document the maintenance and repair history of equipment and systems. By completing this form, the origin of the item can be determined, providing important information about its history and previous maintenance actions. This helps in understanding the overall maintenance and repair process and can assist in troubleshooting and decision-making regarding the item.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(010) If you need detailed information concerning codes and entries on the Air Force Information Management Tool (IMT) Form 2005, Issue/Turn-In Request, refer to Air Force Manual (AFMAN)
- A.
23–254.
- B.
23–110.
- C.
91–254
- D.
91–110.
Correct Answer
B. 23–110.Explanation
The correct answer is 23-110. This is because the question is asking for detailed information concerning codes and entries on the Air Force Information Management Tool (IMT) Form 2005, Issue/Turn-In Request. The Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 23-110 specifically covers the procedures and guidelines for managing information and records in the Air Force. Therefore, referring to AFMAN 23-110 would provide the necessary information for understanding the codes and entries on the IMT Form 2005.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(011) Items that are awaiting parts or maintenance are each required to have an attached Department of Defense (DD) Form
- A.
1574
- B.
1575.
- C.
1577–2.
- D.
1577–3.
Correct Answer
B. 1575.Explanation
Items that are awaiting parts or maintenance are required to have an attached Department of Defense (DD) Form 1575.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(012) When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means the item
- A.
Has an assigned shelf-life period that may be extended.
- B.
Should be returned to supply after expiration date.
- C.
Has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life.
- D.
Should be inspected or tested.
Correct Answer
C. Has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life.Explanation
When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life, it means that the item has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life. This means that the item cannot be used or stored beyond its assigned shelf-life period, and it should not be returned to supply after the expiration date. Instead, it should be disposed of or replaced. The option "should be inspected or tested" is also not applicable as the item cannot be used beyond its shelf-life period.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(013) A Category I deficiency report (DR) is used to report a deficiency
- A.
That is required for tracking by agreement of the single manager.
- B.
Found during an initial acceptance inspection (critical or major defects only).
- C.
That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system.
- D.
That identifies a potential enhancement (applies to enhancements noted during the acquisition cycle).
Correct Answer
C. That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system.Explanation
A Category I deficiency report (DR) is used to report a deficiency that, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system. This means that the deficiency identified in the report is of significant importance and if left unaddressed, it can result in significant harm or damage to the equipment or system. This type of report is crucial for ensuring the proper functioning and safety of the equipment or system.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(013) Within how many hours must Category I deficiency reports (DR) be forwarded to the originating point?
- A.
8.
- B.
12.
- C.
24.
- D.
72.
Correct Answer
C. 24.Explanation
Category I deficiency reports must be forwarded to the originating point within 24 hours. This is important because Category I deficiencies are considered the most severe and require immediate attention. By forwarding the reports within 24 hours, the originating point can take prompt action to address and rectify the deficiencies, ensuring the safety and efficiency of operations.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(014) Which type of items must be reflected on the Custodian Authorization/Custody Receipt Listing (CA/CRL)?
- A.
Shelf-life.
- B.
Bench stock.
- C.
Hazardous materials.
- D.
Equipment authorization inventory data.
Correct Answer
D. Equipment authorization inventory data.Explanation
The Custodian Authorization/Custody Receipt Listing (CA/CRL) is a document that lists all the items that a custodian is authorized to have in their custody. It is important to include equipment authorization inventory data on this list to ensure that the custodian has the necessary equipment and to keep track of the inventory. Shelf-life, bench stock, and hazardous materials are not relevant to the CA/CRL.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(014) To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the
- A.
Shop chief.
- B.
Supervisor.
- C.
Commander.
- D.
Supply chief.
Correct Answer
C. Commander.Explanation
To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the commander. This suggests that the commander has the authority to select individuals for this role. The commander is likely responsible for overseeing the equipment and ensuring that it is properly managed and maintained. The shop chief, supervisor, and supply chief may have other roles and responsibilities within the organization, but it is the commander who has the power to appoint equipment custodians.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(014) When should new equipment account custodians receive training? a. Before signing for the account.
- A.
Before signing for the account.
- B.
Within 10 days of signing for the account.
- C.
Within 15 days of signing for the account.
- D.
Within 30 days of signing for the account.
Correct Answer
A. Before signing for the account.Explanation
New equipment account custodians should receive training before signing for the account to ensure that they are familiar with the proper procedures and protocols for handling and maintaining the equipment. This training will help them understand their responsibilities and ensure that they are able to effectively perform their duties as custodians. By receiving training before signing for the account, custodians will be better prepared to handle the equipment and minimize the risk of any damage or misuse.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(015) The second section of a technical order (TO) number gives the
- A.
Classification.
- B.
Type of equipment.
- C.
Mission type of equipment.
- D.
Model and series for equipment type.
Correct Answer
D. Model and series for equipment type.Explanation
The second section of a technical order (TO) number gives the model and series for equipment type. This means that the TO number provides information about the specific model and series of equipment that the technical order is referring to. This information is important for identifying and locating the correct technical order for a particular piece of equipment, ensuring that the correct procedures and instructions are followed.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(016) Which technical order (TO) describes the Air Force TO system?
- A.
00–5–1.
- B.
00–5–2.
- C.
00–20–1.
- D.
00–20–2.
Correct Answer
A. 00–5–1. -
- 37.
(017) Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?
- A.
General Equipment.
- B.
General System.
- C.
Fault Isolation.
- D.
Job Guide.
Correct Answer
D. Job Guide.Explanation
A Job Guide is a type of technical manual that is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action. It provides step-by-step instructions and guidance on how to perform specific maintenance tasks on equipment or systems. This type of manual is designed to assist technicians in completing their job efficiently and accurately by providing detailed instructions for each task.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(017) What section of the Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB) contains definitions of the codes used in the IPB?
- A.
Introduction.
- B.
Numerical index.
- C.
Group assembly parts list.
- D.
Reference designation index.
Correct Answer
A. Introduction.Explanation
The Introduction section of the Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB) contains definitions of the codes used in the IPB. This section provides an overview and explanation of the different codes and symbols used throughout the IPB, allowing users to understand and interpret the information provided in the document more effectively.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(018) What time compliance technical order (TCTO) category is issued to correct hazardous safety conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?
- A.
Record.
- B.
Urgent action.
- C.
Routine action.
- D.
Immediate action.
Correct Answer
D. Immediate action.Explanation
The immediate action time compliance technical order (TCTO) category is issued to correct hazardous safety conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel. This category is used when there is an urgent need to address the safety issue immediately to prevent any harm. It is the highest level of urgency for TCTOs and requires immediate attention and action from personnel to ensure the safety of individuals involved.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(019) Who originates technical orders?
- A.
Section supervisor.
- B.
Contracting squadron.
- C.
Equipment manufacturer.
- D.
Maintenance group commander.
Correct Answer
C. Equipment manufacturer.Explanation
The equipment manufacturer is responsible for originating technical orders. They have the knowledge and expertise to provide detailed instructions and guidelines for the maintenance and operation of their equipment. This ensures that the equipment is used correctly and maintained properly, reducing the risk of accidents and malfunctions. The manufacturer's technical orders serve as a valuable resource for maintenance personnel and help in ensuring the equipment's longevity and performance.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(020) An Air Force technical order (AFTO) information management tool (IMT) Form 22, Technical Manual (TM) Change Recommendation and Reply, is not submitted for
- A.
Preliminary technical orders (TO).
- B.
Methods and procedures TOs.
- C.
Work cards.
- D.
Job guides.
Correct Answer
A. Preliminary technical orders (TO).Explanation
AFTO IMT Form 22 is used for submitting recommendations and replies for changes to Technical Manuals (TMs). Preliminary technical orders (TOs) are not included in TMs, as they are temporary instructions that are issued before the completion of the formal TM. Therefore, AFTO IMT Form 22 is not submitted for preliminary TOs.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(020) Who makes sure the Air Force technical order (AFTO) information management tool (IMT) Form 22 is valid and warrants submission?
- A.
Initiator.
- B.
Commander.
- C.
Supervisor of initiator.
- D.
Product improvement office.
Correct Answer
C. Supervisor of initiator.Explanation
The supervisor of the initiator is responsible for ensuring that the Air Force technical order (AFTO) information management tool (IMT) Form 22 is valid and warrants submission. This means that the supervisor is in charge of reviewing and approving the form before it is submitted. They are responsible for verifying the accuracy and completeness of the information provided by the initiator and ensuring that it meets the necessary requirements. By involving the supervisor, there is an additional layer of oversight and quality control to ensure that the form is properly validated before submission.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(021) What are the two classifications of failures in the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach?
- A.
Evident and hidden.
- B.
Potential and evident.
- C.
Hidden and functional.
- D.
Potential and functional.
Correct Answer
D. Potential and functional.Explanation
The two classifications of failures in the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach are potential and functional. Potential failures refer to failures that have not yet occurred but have the potential to happen in the future. Functional failures, on the other hand, are failures that have already occurred and are impacting the system's functionality. This classification helps in identifying and prioritizing maintenance activities to prevent potential failures and address functional failures effectively.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(021) In the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition?
- A.
Hard time.
- B.
Lubrication.
- C.
On condition.
- D.
Failure finding.
Correct Answer
C. On condition.Explanation
In the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach, the preventative maintenance task that involves a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition is known as "on condition." This means that the equipment or system is inspected regularly to identify any signs or indications of potential failures, and maintenance actions are taken based on the condition observed. This approach helps to proactively address potential issues before they escalate into major failures, ensuring the reliability and performance of the equipment or system.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(022) Which program integrates hardware, software, maintenance, and diagnostic processes to quantify and monitor/manage engine health?
- A.
Centralized repair facility (CRF).
- B.
Engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D).
- C.
Engine life-cycle management planning (ELMP).
- D.
Comprehensive engine management system (CEMS).
Correct Answer
B. Engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D).Explanation
Engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) is the program that integrates hardware, software, maintenance, and diagnostic processes to quantify and monitor/manage engine health. This program helps in tracking the performance of the engine over time, identifying any potential issues or abnormalities, and providing diagnostic information to effectively manage and maintain the engine. It plays a crucial role in ensuring the optimal functioning and longevity of the engine.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(022) Within the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program, to whom do flight-line personnel transfer collected data for analysis?
- A.
Depot-level engine maintenance shops.
- B.
Base engine maintenance shop.
- C.
Product center engineers.
- D.
Flight-line expediter.
Correct Answer
B. Base engine maintenance shop.Explanation
Flight-line personnel transfer collected data for analysis to the base engine maintenance shop within the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program. This is where the data is further analyzed and used to inform maintenance decisions and actions related to the engines.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(022) Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program?
- A.
Propulsion and depot.
- B.
Depot and nondestructive inspection.
- C.
Propulsion and nondestructive inspection.
- D.
Environmental health and nondestructive inspection.
Correct Answer
C. Propulsion and nondestructive inspection.Explanation
Propulsion and nondestructive inspection technicians provide maintenance activity data to the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program. This suggests that these technicians are responsible for collecting and analyzing data related to engine performance and conducting inspections to identify potential issues or defects. By providing this data to the ET&D program, they contribute to the monitoring and maintenance of engines, ensuring their optimal performance and identifying any necessary repairs or improvements.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(023) Centralized repair facilities (CRF) provide support for whom?
- A.
War fighters.
- B.
Test cell personnel.
- C.
Flight-line mechanics.
- D.
Back shop mechanics.
Correct Answer
A. War fighters.Explanation
Centralized repair facilities (CRF) provide support for war fighters. This means that CRFs are responsible for providing repair and maintenance services to military personnel who are actively engaged in combat or war-related activities. CRFs ensure that war fighters have access to properly functioning equipment and vehicles, allowing them to carry out their missions effectively and safely.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(023) Who maintains accountability of centralized repair facility (CRF) assets and reports their status?
- A.
Production supervisor.
- B.
Depot item manager.
- C.
Engine technician.
- D.
Supply officer.
Correct Answer
A. Production supervisor.Explanation
The production supervisor is responsible for maintaining accountability of centralized repair facility (CRF) assets and reporting their status. This includes overseeing the inventory of assets, ensuring they are properly maintained and accounted for, and providing regular reports on their status. The production supervisor plays a crucial role in ensuring the efficient and effective management of CRF assets.Rate this question:
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- 50.
(024) Depot maintenance provides support to base-level technicians by
- A.
Notifying maintenance personnel of upcoming time compliance technical orders (TCTO).
- B.
Providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability.
- C.
Ensuring replacement parts are ordered in a timely manner.
- D.
Providing the most current TO updates to the field.
Correct Answer
B. Providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability.Explanation
Depot maintenance provides support to base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability. This means that depot maintenance personnel have the expertise and resources to assist base-level technicians when they encounter complex or challenging repairs that are beyond their own capabilities. By doing so, depot maintenance helps ensure that repairs are completed effectively and efficiently, minimizing downtime and maximizing the operational readiness of the equipment.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Apr 10, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Sep 29, 2014Quiz Created by
AustinCope
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