CCMA Certification Exam Practice Test

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CCMA Certification Exam Practice Test - Quiz

Are you studying for the CCMA final exams? If so, then you must take up this CCMA Certification Exam Practice Test that is designed to test your knowledge about the subject. The CCMA (Certified Clinical Medical Assistant) test is designed for students or clinical medical assistants who wish to become officially certified in this field. So, if you're preparing for this exam, then you must be aware that this exam can be a little hard to tackle if you have not had an adequate revision of the topics covered. One way to tackle cold feet when it comes to an Read moreexam is to go through practice tests. So, take up this quiz and see how good you might do.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The position used in exams where the patient lays on their back with legs extended is:

    • A.

      Horizontal recumbent position

    • B.

      Sims

    • C.

      Recumbent lithotomy

    • D.

      Prone

    Correct Answer
    A. Horizontal recumbent position
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Horizontal recumbent position. This position refers to the patient lying on their back with their legs extended. It is commonly used in exams to allow for a clear view and access to the patient's abdomen and lower extremities.

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  • 2. 

    This is an infection control method designed to prevent direct contact with blood or other body fluids is:

    • A.

      PPE

    • B.

      Contact Precautions

    • C.

      Standard Precautions

    • D.

      Handwashing

    Correct Answer
    C. Standard Precautions
    Explanation
    Standard Precautions is an infection control method that aims to prevent direct contact with blood or other body fluids. It includes the use of personal protective equipment (PPE), such as gloves, masks, and gowns, to create a barrier between healthcare workers and potentially infectious materials. Standard Precautions also emphasize hand hygiene practices, such as regular handwashing, to reduce the transmission of pathogens. By following Standard Precautions, healthcare professionals can minimize the risk of infection and ensure the safety of both themselves and their patients.

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  • 3. 

    Tuberculosis in its active phase is what type of precaution?

    • A.

      Standard Precaution

    • B.

      Contact Precaution

    • C.

      Airborne Precaution

    • D.

      Universal Precaution

    Correct Answer
    C. Airborne Precaution
    Explanation
    Tuberculosis in its active phase is classified as an airborne precaution. This means that the disease is transmitted through the air by droplet nuclei that are generated when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks. Airborne precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of infectious agents that remain suspended in the air for long periods of time and can be inhaled by others. These precautions typically include the use of respiratory protection, such as N95 masks, and isolation of the infected individual in a negative pressure room to prevent the spread of the disease to healthcare workers and other patients.

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  • 4. 

    Persistent increased systolic and diastolic pressures are indicative of _________

    • A.

      Hypotension

    • B.

      Hypertension

    • C.

      Normal

    • D.

      No correct answer

    Correct Answer
    B. Hypertension
    Explanation
    Persistent increased systolic and diastolic pressures are indicative of hypertension. Hypertension, also known as high blood pressure, is a condition where the force of blood against the artery walls is consistently too high. This can lead to various health problems, including heart disease, stroke, and kidney damage. Therefore, the correct answer is hypertension.

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  • 5. 

    A respiratory rate greater than 24 per minute is called_______

    • A.

      Apnea

    • B.

      Hypoventilation

    • C.

      Tachypnea

    • D.

      Bradypnea

    Correct Answer
    C. Tachypnea
    Explanation
    Tachypnea is the correct answer because it refers to a respiratory rate greater than 24 breaths per minute. Apnea refers to the absence of breathing, hypoventilation refers to inadequate breathing, and bradypnea refers to a respiratory rate less than 12 breaths per minute.

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  • 6. 

    The blood lancet is used for the collection of blood specimens by _____

    • A.

      Injection

    • B.

      Suction

    • C.

      Cutting

    • D.

      Skin puncture

    Correct Answer
    D. Skin puncture
    Explanation
    The blood lancet is a small, sharp instrument used to puncture the skin for the collection of blood specimens. It is not used for injection or suction, as those methods involve different tools and purposes. Cutting is also not the correct answer, as the lancet is not meant to cut through the skin but rather create a small puncture. Therefore, the correct answer is skin puncture.

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  • 7. 

    Listening to the sounds produced while tapping the patient with fingers is called________

    • A.

      Percussion

    • B.

      Audition

    • C.

      Auditive

    • D.

      Propitiation

    Correct Answer
    A. Percussion
    Explanation
    Percussion is the correct answer because it refers to the act of tapping or striking a patient's body to produce sounds. This technique is commonly used by healthcare professionals to assess the condition of organs and tissues within the body. It helps in identifying abnormalities such as fluid accumulation or air-filled spaces. Audition, auditive, and propitiation are unrelated terms and do not describe the specific action of tapping to produce sounds for medical assessment.

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  • 8. 

    An apical pulse is the method of choice for ________

    • A.

      Infants and young children

    • B.

      Children over four years old

    • C.

      Adolescents

    • D.

      Young adults (20-40)

    Correct Answer
    A. Infants and young children
    Explanation
    An apical pulse is the method of choice for infants and young children because their heartbeats are best heard at the apex of the heart, which is located on the left side of the chest. This method involves using a stethoscope to listen to the heart sounds directly over this area, allowing for a more accurate assessment of the heart rate and rhythm in this age group. In older children, adolescents, and young adults, the radial pulse (located on the wrist) is typically used as it is easier to access and provides a reliable measure of heart rate.

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  • 9. 

    Which needle gauges are most commonly used for venipuncture?

    • A.

      24-25

    • B.

      21-22

    • C.

      19-20

    • D.

      16-18

    Correct Answer
    B. 21-22
    Explanation
    The most commonly used needle gauges for venipuncture are 21-22. These gauges are preferred because they strike a balance between being large enough to allow for a smooth blood flow and small enough to minimize patient discomfort. A larger gauge needle may cause more pain and bruising, while a smaller gauge needle may result in slower blood flow and clotting. Therefore, healthcare professionals often opt for 21-22 gauge needles for venipuncture procedures.

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  • 10. 

    "HIV' means_______

    • A.

      Hepatitis B Virus

    • B.

      Hepatitis C Virus

    • C.

      Human Immunodeficiency Virus

    • D.

      Human Infectious Virus

    Correct Answer
    C. Human Immunodeficiency Virus
    Explanation
    HIV stands for Human Immunodeficiency Virus. It is a virus that attacks the immune system, specifically targeting CD4 cells, which play a crucial role in fighting off infections. HIV weakens the immune system over time, leading to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), a condition in which the body is unable to fight off infections and diseases.

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  • 11. 

    After they are used, disposable syringes and needles, scalpel blades, and other sharp items should be placed in_____containers for disposal.

    • A.

      Biodegradable

    • B.

      Puncture-resistant

    • C.

      OSHA

    • D.

      Sanitized

    Correct Answer
    B. Puncture-resistant
    Explanation
    After they are used, disposable syringes and needles, scalpel blades, and other sharp items should be placed in puncture-resistant containers for disposal. This is because these items can cause injuries if not properly contained and disposed of. Puncture-resistant containers are designed to prevent accidental needle sticks and protect healthcare workers and waste management personnel from potential harm. By using puncture-resistant containers, the risk of transmitting infections and diseases through contaminated sharp items is minimized, ensuring the safety of everyone involved in the disposal process.

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  • 12. 

    Blood from all individuals should be considered______.

    • A.

      Decontaminated

    • B.

      Infective or infectious

    • C.

      Biodegradable

    • D.

      Chemically hazardous

    Correct Answer
    B. Infective or infectious
    Explanation
    Blood from all individuals should be considered infective or infectious because blood can carry various pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, and parasites that can cause infections in other individuals if proper precautions are not taken. Therefore, it is important to handle and dispose of blood safely to prevent the spread of infectious diseases.

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  • 13. 

    The first line of defense in preventing disease is ________

    • A.

      Wearing a mask

    • B.

      The medical hand wash

    • C.

      Wearing gloves

    • D.

      Wearing a gown

    Correct Answer
    B. The medical hand wash
    Explanation
    The first line of defense in preventing disease is the medical hand wash. Hand washing is a simple and effective way to remove germs and prevent the spread of infections. It helps to eliminate bacteria and viruses that may be present on our hands, reducing the risk of transmission through touch or contact with contaminated surfaces. Regular and thorough hand washing with soap and water for at least 20 seconds is recommended by health experts as a crucial step in maintaining good personal hygiene and preventing the spread of diseases.

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  • 14. 

    What federal agency requires the use of Sharps Containers?

    • A.

      Occupational Safety and Health Administration

    • B.

      Drug Enforcement Agency

    • C.

      Department of Defense

    • D.

      Law Enforcement Agency

    Correct Answer
    A. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA). OSHA is a federal agency responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees in the United States. They require the use of Sharps Containers, which are specially designed containers used to safely dispose of sharp medical instruments such as needles and syringes. This requirement helps prevent injuries and the spread of infectious diseases in healthcare settings.

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  • 15. 

    A disease state that results from the invasion and growth of microorganisms in the body is

    • A.

      A syndrome

    • B.

      An infection

    • C.

      A laceration

    • D.

      An asepsis

    Correct Answer
    B. An infection
    Explanation
    An infection is the correct answer because it refers to a disease state caused by the invasion and proliferation of microorganisms in the body. This invasion and growth of microorganisms can lead to various symptoms and health complications. Infections can be caused by bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites, and can affect different parts of the body. Proper diagnosis and treatment are essential to manage and control infections.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following locations is usually used for taking a pulse?

    • A.

      Apical pulse

    • B.

      Radial pulse

    • C.

      Brachial pulse

    • D.

      Apical-radial pulse

    Correct Answer
    B. Radial pulse
    Explanation
    The radial pulse is usually used for taking a pulse. The radial artery is located on the wrist, on the thumb side. It is easily accessible and provides an accurate representation of the heart rate. The pulse is typically taken by placing two fingers (usually the index and middle finger) on the radial artery and gently pressing to feel the pulsations. This method is commonly used in clinical settings and is a quick and convenient way to assess a person's heart rate.

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  • 17. 

    What is considered a normal adult pulse rate?

    • A.

      70-170

    • B.

      90-130

    • C.

      70-80

    • D.

      60-100

    Correct Answer
    D. 60-100
    Explanation
    A normal adult pulse rate refers to the average number of times the heart beats per minute in a resting state. The range of 60-100 is considered normal because it encompasses the typical pulse rates for most healthy adults. Pulse rates below 60 or above 100 may indicate an underlying health condition or physiological changes, such as cardiovascular problems or dehydration. Monitoring pulse rate can help assess overall cardiovascular health and detect any abnormalities.

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  • 18. 

    The radial pulse is located in the _______

    • A.

      Chest

    • B.

      Neck

    • C.

      Wrist

    • D.

      Head

    Correct Answer
    C. Wrist
    Explanation
    The radial pulse is located in the wrist. This is because the radial artery, which carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the hand, runs along the inside of the wrist. When checking the pulse, the radial artery is easily accessible and can be felt by placing two fingers (usually the index and middle fingers) on the inner side of the wrist, just below the base of the thumb.

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  • 19. 

    The least reliable measurement of body temperature is_____

    • A.

      Rectal

    • B.

      Oral

    • C.

      Axillary

    • D.

      All are equally reliable

    Correct Answer
    C. Axillary
    Explanation
    The axillary measurement of body temperature is considered the least reliable because it tends to be less accurate than other methods. This is because the axillary temperature is measured in the armpit, which is further away from the body's core and can be affected by external factors such as clothing and ambient temperature. Rectal and oral measurements are generally more accurate as they are closer to the body's core temperature.

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  • 20. 

    The most accurate and reliable measurement of body temperature is_______

    • A.

      Rectal

    • B.

      Oral

    • C.

      Axillary

    • D.

      Nasal

    Correct Answer
    A. Rectal
    Explanation
    The rectal temperature measurement is considered the most accurate and reliable method for determining body temperature. This is because the rectal thermometer is inserted into the rectum, which is closer to the body's core and provides a more accurate reflection of internal body temperature. Other methods like oral, axillary, and nasal measurements may be affected by external factors, such as breathing, eating, or environmental conditions, which can lead to less accurate readings.

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  • 21. 

    Which is recorded as the systolic blood pressure?

    • A.

      The point where the first sound is heard

    • B.

      The point where the last sound is heard

    • C.

      Anything under 100 on the sphygmomanometer

    • D.

      Anything over 100on the sphygmomanometer

    Correct Answer
    A. The point where the first sound is heard
    Explanation
    The systolic blood pressure is recorded as the point where the first sound is heard. This is because the first sound, known as Korotkoff sound, is produced when the pressure in the cuff is released and blood starts flowing through the artery again. The systolic pressure represents the maximum pressure exerted on the arterial walls during a heartbeat, and it is typically higher than the diastolic pressure, which is recorded as the point where the last sound is heard.

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  • 22. 

    First order of draw

    • A.

      Sodium citrate tubes (Lt. Blue)

    • B.

      Oxalate/fluoride tubes (Gray)

    • C.

      Blood Cultures (Yellow)

    Correct Answer
    C. Blood Cultures (Yellow)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Blood Cultures (Yellow) because the question is asking for the first order of draw, which refers to the order in which different types of tubes should be filled with blood during venipuncture. According to the given information, the first tube to be drawn is the one for blood cultures, which is represented by the yellow color. This is followed by the Sodium citrate tubes (Lt. Blue) and then the Oxalate/fluoride tubes (Gray).

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  • 23. 

    Second order of draw

    • A.

      Sodium citrate tubes (Lt. Blue)

    • B.

      Serum or non-additive tube (Red or Red/Gray)

    • C.

      EDTA tubes (Lavender)

    Correct Answer
    A. Sodium citrate tubes (Lt. Blue)
    Explanation
    Sodium citrate tubes are used for coagulation studies and are commonly referred to as "Lt. Blue" tubes due to their light blue color. These tubes contain a buffered solution of sodium citrate, which acts as an anticoagulant by binding to calcium ions and preventing blood from clotting. This allows for accurate testing of clotting factors and other coagulation parameters.

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  • 24. 

    Third order or draw

    • A.

      Blood Cultures (Yellow)

    • B.

      Oxalate/fluoride tubes (Gray)

    • C.

      Serum or non-additive tube (Red or Red/Gray)

    Correct Answer
    C. Serum or non-additive tube (Red or Red/Gray)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the serum or non-additive tube (Red or Red/Gray) because blood cultures are collected in yellow tubes and oxalate/fluoride tubes are used for glucose testing. Therefore, the only option left is the serum or non-additive tube for general laboratory tests.

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  • 25. 

    Fifth order of draw

    • A.

      Serum or non-additive tube (Red or Red/Gray)

    • B.

      EDTA tubes (Lavender)

    • C.

      Sodium citrate tubes (Lt. Blue)

    Correct Answer
    B. EDTA tubes (Lavender)
    Explanation
    The fifth order of draw in phlebotomy refers to the order in which blood samples are collected to minimize the risk of cross-contamination. The correct answer, EDTA tubes (Lavender), indicates that these tubes should be drawn after the serum or non-additive tubes (Red or Red/Gray) and before the sodium citrate tubes (Lt. Blue). EDTA tubes are used for tests that require whole blood or plasma, as EDTA is an anticoagulant that prevents blood from clotting. This order ensures that the EDTA tubes are not contaminated with any additives from the previous tubes.

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  • 26. 

    Sixth order of draw

    • A.

      Blood Cultures (Yellow)

    • B.

      Oxalate/fluoride tubes (Gray)

    • C.

      Serum or non-additive tube (Red or Red/Gray)

    Correct Answer
    B. Oxalate/fluoride tubes (Gray)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Oxalate/fluoride tubes (Gray). In the sixth order of draw, after collecting blood cultures (Yellow) and serum or non-additive tubes (Red or Red/Gray), the next tubes to be drawn are the Oxalate/fluoride tubes (Gray). These tubes are used for collecting samples for glucose testing and preserving the blood sample for accurate glucose measurement. The gray top indicates the presence of an anticoagulant (oxalate) and a preservative (fluoride) in the tube, which helps prevent the breakdown of glucose in the sample.

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  • 27. 

    The proper way to dispose of a needle is to:

    • A.

      Recap it and put it in sharps container

    • B.

      Throw it recapped into a biohazard bag

    • C.

      Put it into a sharps container, without recapping, immediately after withdrawing it

    • D.

      Collect them in a cup for disposal at the end of the day

    Correct Answer
    C. Put it into a sharps container, without recapping, immediately after withdrawing it
    Explanation
    The proper way to dispose of a needle is to put it into a sharps container, without recapping, immediately after withdrawing it. This is the safest method as it reduces the risk of accidental needlestick injuries. Recapping the needle increases the chances of getting injured. Collecting them in a cup for disposal at the end of the day is not recommended as it poses a risk of needlestick injuries during the day.

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  • 28. 

    Generally a referral letter has a life span of 12 months.  This life span starts on the day the letter is written.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    A referral letter is valid from the day it is written but its lifespan starts from the first consultation with the specialist. e.g. letter written on 1st June 2012 and valid from this date. Date of the first appointment with the specialist is 1st Sept 2012 therefore the lifespan of the referral starts on this date and teh referral will run out on 31st August 2013

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  • 29. 

    To prevent the insured from receiving a duplicate payment for losses under more than one insurance policy is called

    • A.

      Fee for service

    • B.

      Hospital benefits

    • C.

      Coordination of benefits

    • D.

      Non duplication benefits

    Correct Answer
    C. Coordination of benefits
    Explanation
    Coordination of benefits refers to the process of preventing the insured from receiving duplicate payments for losses covered by multiple insurance policies. It ensures that the total amount paid to the insured does not exceed the actual expenses incurred. By coordinating benefits, insurance companies can determine the primary and secondary coverage for a claim, avoiding overpayment and reducing fraud or abuse. This process helps to streamline claims handling and promotes fair and efficient distribution of benefits among multiple insurers.

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  • 30. 

    One who belongs to a group insurance plan is called

    • A.

      Third party payer

    • B.

      Subscriber

    • C.

      Carrier

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Subscriber
    Explanation
    A person who belongs to a group insurance plan is referred to as a subscriber. This individual is typically the policyholder or the primary member of the group plan. The subscriber is responsible for enrolling in the insurance plan and paying the premiums on behalf of themselves and any dependents included in the coverage.

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  • 31. 

    A sum of money provided in an insurance policy, payable for covered services is called

    • A.

      Deductible

    • B.

      Benefits

    • C.

      Dues payable

    • D.

      Premium

    Correct Answer
    B. Benefits
    Explanation
    In an insurance policy, benefits refer to the sum of money provided for covered services. This is the amount that the policyholder will receive from the insurance company when they make a claim for a covered service. The benefits can vary depending on the type of insurance policy and the coverage provided. It is important to understand the benefits of an insurance policy to know what services are covered and the amount of money that will be reimbursed.

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  • 32. 

    As a medical assistant, you are responsible for clarifying for patients what you are permitted to do.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    As a medical assistant, it is indeed your responsibility to communicate clearly with patients about the tasks and responsibilities you are authorized to perform. This helps to establish trust and understanding between the medical assistant and the patient, ensuring that the patient has accurate information about the medical assistant's role and abilities. By clarifying what you are permitted to do, you can also help manage patient expectations and avoid any misunderstandings or potential harm.

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  • 33. 

    The medical assistant is resonsible for correctly following OSHA guidelines for self-protection and the protection of other employees and patients.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The medical assistant is responsible for correctly following OSHA guidelines for self-protection and the protection of other employees and patients. This means that they must adhere to safety protocols and procedures to prevent the spread of infections and ensure a safe working environment for everyone involved. By following these guidelines, the medical assistant can minimize the risk of accidents, injuries, and the transmission of diseases.

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  • 34. 

    The medical assistant's main responsibility is to help the physician provide patient care.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The medical assistant's main responsibility is to assist the physician in providing patient care. This includes tasks such as taking patient histories, measuring vital signs, preparing examination rooms, and assisting with medical procedures. By performing these tasks, the medical assistant plays a crucial role in ensuring that patients receive quality care and that the physician is able to focus on diagnosing and treating patients. Therefore, the statement "The medical assistant's main responsibility is to help the physician provide patient care" is true.

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  • 35. 

    To show empathy, the medical assistant could

    • A.

      Express sympathy for the patient's problems

    • B.

      Tell the patient about his or her own problems

    • C.

      Acknowledge the patient's feelings

    • D.

      Make no comment--it is none of the medical assistant's business

    • E.

      Tell patients how they can fix their problems

    Correct Answer
    C. Acknowledge the patient's feelings
    Explanation
    Acknowledge the patient's feelings

    RATIONALE: Empathy is understanding how another person feels by placing oneself in his or her place.

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  • 36. 

    For which of the following symptoms can the medical assistant offer advice over the telephone?

    • A.

      Nausea of 2 days' duration

    • B.

      Diarrhea that appears to be getting more frequent

    • C.

      Pain in the arms with shortness of breath

    • D.

      Sore throat and cough

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. None of the above
    Explanation
    None of the above

    RATIONALE: A medical assistant's scope of training does not allow for a medical assistant to offer advice to a patient concerning treatment.

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  • 37. 

    Performing only those procedures that a medical assistant is trained to do and allowed to do by law is said to be

    • A.

      Doing the job

    • B.

      Being appropriate

    • C.

      Working within the scope of practice

    • D.

      Restrained

    • E.

      Ethical

    Correct Answer
    C. Working within the scope of practice
    Explanation
    Working within the scope of practice

    RATIONALE: Working within one's scope of practice means that a medical assistant must work within his or her scope of training and the state statute.

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  • 38. 

    Documents stored in the medical record

    • A.

      Are stored in the order in which they are received in the office

    • B.

      Have the oldest date first

    • C.

      Are store in reverse chronological order (most recent first)

    • D.

      Are stored in random order

    • E.

      Are stored in order of importance

    Correct Answer
    C. Are store in reverse chronological order (most recent first)
    Explanation
    Are stored in reverse chronological order (most recent first)

    RATIONALE: File each document according to categories into the established patient's file, with the most recent on top.

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  • 39. 

    A person who is not an established patient walks into the doctor's office asking to be seen.  The medical assistant should

    • A.

      Give the person an appointment at the earliest possible time

    • B.

      Tell the doctor

    • C.

      Determine that the patient is not in an emergency condition and then offer the person the first available appointment

    • D.

      Fit the person in that day

    • E.

      Tell the person to come back later

    Correct Answer
    C. Determine that the patient is not in an emergency condition and then offer the person the first available appointment
    Explanation
    Determine that the patient is not in an emergency condition and then offer the person the first available appointment.

    RATIONALE: The initial step in screening for appointments is to determine the urgency of the patient's condition. When an emergency does not exist, the first available appointment is offered.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following is not part of the patient medical record?

    • A.

      Dates and findings of office visits

    • B.

      Correspondence from other doctors concerning the patient

    • C.

      Financial records pertaining to the patient

    • D.

      Laboratory and x-ray reports

    • E.

      Health history

    Correct Answer
    C. Financial records pertaining to the patient
    Explanation
    Financial records pertaining to the patient

    RATIONALE: Financial records are never to be included as part of the patient's medical record.

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  • 41. 

    A surgical stitch made to close a wound

    Correct Answer
    suture
    Explanation
    A suture is a type of surgical stitch that is used to close a wound. It is typically made using a thread or material that is strong enough to hold the wound together until it heals. Sutures are commonly used in various medical procedures, such as surgeries, to ensure proper healing and reduce the risk of infection.

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  • 42. 

    An anatomic term meaning above or closer to the head; also called cranial

    Correct Answer
    superior
    Explanation
    The term "superior" is an anatomic term used to describe a location that is above or closer to the head. It is also referred to as "cranial". This term is commonly used in medical and anatomical contexts to describe the position of structures in relation to each other.

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  • 43. 

    A test used to measure breathing capacity

    Correct Answer
    spirometry
    Explanation
    Spirometry is a test used to measure breathing capacity. It is a diagnostic tool that measures the volume of air inhaled and exhaled by the lungs. It provides important information about lung function and can help diagnose conditions such as asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and other respiratory disorders. Spirometry is performed by having the individual breathe into a device called a spirometer, which measures the airflow and produces a graphical representation of the lung function. This test is widely used in clinical settings to assess and monitor lung health.

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  • 44. 

    An instrument that measures the air taken in and expelled from the lungs

    Correct Answer
    spirometer
    Explanation
    A spirometer is an instrument used to measure the volume of air that is inhaled and exhaled by the lungs. It is commonly used in medical settings to assess lung function and diagnose respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). By measuring the amount of air a person can inhale and exhale, a spirometer can provide valuable information about lung capacity, airflow, and overall respiratory health.

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  • 45. 

    The process of returning to the original polar (resting) state

    Correct Answer
    repolarization
    Explanation
    Repolarization refers to the process of returning to the original polar or resting state. This occurs after depolarization, which is the initial change in the electrical charge of a cell. During repolarization, the cell's membrane potential is restored to its resting state, allowing it to be ready for the next electrical impulse or action potential. This process is essential for the proper functioning of cells, especially in the nervous system and in cardiac muscle cells.

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  • 46. 

    Anatomic term meaning toward the back of the body; also called dorsal

    Correct Answer
    posterior
    Explanation
    The anatomic term "posterior" refers to the direction or location towards the back of the body. It is also known as dorsal.

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  • 47. 

    An infection contracted in a hospital

    Correct Answer
    nosocomial infection
    Explanation
    A nosocomial infection refers to an infection that is acquired in a hospital or healthcare facility. These infections can occur due to various reasons, such as the presence of pathogens in the healthcare environment, weakened immune systems of patients, invasive procedures, and improper infection control practices. The term "nosocomial infection" is used specifically to differentiate infections acquired in healthcare settings from those acquired in the community.

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  • 48. 

    Tuberculosis in its active phase is what type of precaution?

    • A.

      Standard Precaution

    • B.

      Contact Precaution

    • C.

      Airborne Precaution

    • D.

      Universal Precaution

    Correct Answer
    C. Airborne Precaution
    Explanation
    Tuberculosis in its active phase is categorized as an airborne precaution. This means that the disease is transmitted through the air when an infected individual coughs, sneezes, or talks. Airborne precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of infectious agents that can remain suspended in the air for long periods of time. These precautions typically include the use of respiratory protection, such as masks, and the implementation of proper ventilation systems to reduce the risk of transmission.

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  • 49. 

    This type of disinfection is the only type that kills all microbial life including spores is:

    • A.

      Disinfection

    • B.

      Autoclaving

    • C.

      Bleach 1:10

    • D.

      Sanitizing

    Correct Answer
    B. Autoclaving
    Explanation
    Autoclaving is the correct answer because it is a type of disinfection method that uses high pressure and steam to kill all microbial life, including spores. The high temperature and pressure in an autoclave effectively destroy the DNA and proteins of microorganisms, making it an extremely effective method for sterilization. Autoclaving is commonly used in medical and laboratory settings to ensure that all equipment and instruments are free from any viable microorganisms.

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  • 50. 

    Body temperature measured under the arm of a patient is called the ______temperature.

    • A.

      Oral

    • B.

      Rectal

    • C.

      Maxillary

    • D.

      Axilliary

    Correct Answer
    D. Axilliary
    Explanation
    Axillary temperature refers to the body temperature measured under the arm of a patient. This method is commonly used when it is not feasible or practical to measure temperature orally or rectally. The axillary temperature is considered a less accurate measure compared to rectal or oral temperatures, as it may be influenced by environmental factors and may not accurately reflect the core body temperature. Nonetheless, it is a convenient and non-invasive method for obtaining a general indication of body temperature.

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