Volume 6 2A851

111 Questions | Attempts: 633
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2A851 Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    1. (A01) What is the first step in electronic warfare (EW) that is essential when developing an accurate electronic order of battle (EOB)?

    • A.

      A. Denial.

    • B.

      B. Detection.

    • C.

      C. Deception.

    • D.

      D. Destruction.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Detection.
  • 2. 

    2. (A01) Traditional noise jamming techniques designed to block communications channels or radarscope presentations are applications of

    • A.

      A. denial.

    • B.

      B. deception.

    • C.

      C. disruption.

    • D.

      D. destruction.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. denial.
  • 3. 

    3. (A01) Deliberate radiation, reradiation, alteration, suppression, absorption, denial, enhancement, or reflection of electromagnetic energy to mislead the enemy is called

    • A.

      A. detection.

    • B.

      B. deception.

    • C.

      C. disruption.

    • D.

      D. destruction.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. deception.
  • 4. 

    4. (A01) What is the most effective means of denying the enemy the use of the electromagnetic spectrum?

    • A.

      A. Denial.

    • B.

      B. Deception.

    • C.

      C. Disruption.

    • D.

      D. Destruction.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Destruction.
  • 5. 

    5. (A01) What component of electronic warfare (EW) involves the use of electromagnetic, directed energy, or antiradiation weapons to attack personnel, facilities, or equipment?

    • A.

      A. Electronic attack (EA).

    • B.

      B. Electronic support (ES).

    • C.

      C. Electronic protection (EP).

    • D.

      D. Electronic counter countermeasures (ECCM).

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Electronic attack (EA).
  • 6. 

    6. (A01) Frequency agility and changing pulse recurring frequency (PRF) are examples of

    • A.

      A. electronic attack (EA).

    • B.

      B. electronic support (ES).

    • C.

      C. electronic protection (EP).

    • D.

      D. electronic countermeasures (ECCM).

    Correct Answer
    C. C. electronic protection (EP).
  • 7. 

    7. (A01) Electronic support data is not used to produce

    • A.

      A. signal intelligence.

    • B.

      B. ballistic intelligence.

    • C.

      C. electronic intelligence.

    • D.

      D. communications intelligence.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. ballistic intelligence.
  • 8. 

    8. (A02) To control an adversary’s command and control (C2) capabilities, command and control warfare (C2W) integrates destruction,

    • A.

      A. electronic warfare, and military deception only.

    • B.

      B. electronic warfare, military deception, and operational security.

    • C.

      C. military deception, operational security, and psychological operations only.

    • D.

      D. electronic warfare, military deception, operational security, and psychological operations.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. electronic warfare, military deception, operational security, and psychological operations.
  • 9. 

    9. (A02) Degrading or interfering with the enemy’s command and control (C2) capabilities is best described by

    • A.

      A. denial.

    • B.

      B. disruption.

    • C.

      C. physical attack.

    • D.

      D. support systems.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. disruption.
  • 10. 

    10. (A02) Using precision-guided munitions, cruise missiles, or gunships is an example of

    • A.

      A. denial.

    • B.

      B. disruption.

    • C.

      C. physical attack.

    • D.

      D. support systems.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. physical attack.
  • 11. 

    11. (A02) What support system provides detection and control of low-level aircraft beyond coverage of ground-based radars?

    • A.

      A. Airborne Warning and Control System (AWACS).

    • B.

      B. Joint Warning, Command and Control System (JWCCS).

    • C.

      C. Joint Surveillance, Target Attack Radar System (JSTARS).

    • D.

      D. Airborne Battlefield Command and Control Center (ABCCC).

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Airborne Warning and Control System (AWACS).
  • 12. 

    12. (A02) Normal suppression of enemy air defense targets include radars for

    • A.

      A. acquisition, and antiaircraft artillery only.

    • B.

      B. acquisition, antiaircraft artillery, and surface-to-air (SAM) only.

    • C.

      C. acquisition and early warning/ground controlled intercept and SAM only.

    • D.

      D. acquisition, antiaircraft artillery, early warning/ground controlled intercept, and SAM.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. acquisition, antiaircraft artillery, early warning/ground controlled intercept, and SAM.
  • 13. 

    13. (A02) What surface-to-air missile (SAM) system in North Vietnam was devastating to our strike forces?

    • A.

      A. SA–1.

    • B.

      B. SA–2.

    • C.

      C. SA–4.

    • D.

      D. SA–6.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. SA–2.
  • 14. 

    14. (A02) What weapon is designed to home in on enemy emitters and disrupt or destroy an integrated air defense system?

    • A.

      A. Wild Weasel.

    • B.

      B. Cruise missile.

    • C.

      C. Anti-radiation missile.

    • D.

      D. Joint Surveillance, Target Attack Radar System.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Anti-radiation missile.
  • 15. 

    15. (A03) What division of electronic warfare (EW) involves weapons that use electromagnetic or directed energy as their primary destructive mechanism?

    • A.

      A. Electronic attack.

    • B.

      B. Electronic support.

    • C.

      C. Electronic detection.

    • D.

      D. Electronic protection.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Electronic attack.
  • 16. 

    16. (A03) The primary missile used to destroy enemy radar-equipped air defense systems is the

    • A.

      A. AGM–65.

    • B.

      B. AGM–88.

    • C.

      C. BDU–65.

    • D.

      D. BDU–88.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. AGM–88.
  • 17. 

    17. (A03) What Air Force aircraft is used to perform the Wild Weasel mission?

    • A.

      A. EA–6B.

    • B.

      B. EF–111.

    • C.

      C. F/A–18.

    • D.

      D. F–16CJ.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. F–16CJ.
  • 18. 

    18. (A03) What missile uses an electro-optical or infrared imaging system to perform electronic attack (EA)?

    • A.

      A. AGM–65.

    • B.

      B. AGM–88.

    • C.

      C. BDU–65.

    • D.

      D. BDU–88.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. AGM–65.
  • 19. 

    19. (A03) What type of jamming masks the presence and/or location of the strike force?

    • A.

      A. Standoff.

    • B.

      B. Directional.

    • C.

      C. Destruction.

    • D.

      D. Communications.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Standoff.
  • 20. 

    20. (A03) What aircraft is used to jam communications of the enemy’s command and control (C2) network?

    • A.

      A. E–6B.

    • B.

      B. EF–111.

    • C.

      C. F–16CJ.

    • D.

      D. EC–130H.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. EC–130H.
  • 21. 

    21. (A03) Transmitting a simulated unique system signature from a nonlethal platform is an example of

    • A.

      A. imitative deception.

    • B.

      B. imitative reception.

    • C.

      C. simulative deception.

    • D.

      D. manipulative deception.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. manipulative deception.
  • 22. 

    22. (A03) A repeater jamming technique that copies enemy radar pulses and returns incorrect target information to the enemy radar is an example of

    • A.

      A. imitative deception.

    • B.

      B. imitative reception.

    • C.

      C. simulative deception.

    • D.

      D. manipulative deception.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. imitative deception.
  • 23. 

    23. (A04) The steps taken to limit the incidental or accidental emissions from electronic equipment is best described as

    • A.

      A. electronic attack.

    • B.

      B. emissions control.

    • C.

      C. electromagnetic hardening.

    • D.

      D. electronic counter countermeasures.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. emissions control.
  • 24. 

    24. (A04) The processes and actions necessary to protect your equipment from the effects of an electromagnetic pulse produced by an atomic blast is best described as

    • A.

      A. emissions control.

    • B.

      B. electromagnetic hardening.

    • C.

      C. electromagnetic compatibility.

    • D.

      D. early warning frequency deconfliction.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. electromagnetic hardening.
  • 25. 

    25. (A04) Any disturbance that interrupts, obstructs, degrades, or limits the effective performance of electronics or equipment is best described as

    • A.

      A. electromagnetic pulse.

    • B.

      B. electromagnetic hardening.

    • C.

      C. electronic counter-countermeasures.

    • D.

      D. electromagnetic interference.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. electromagnetic interference.
  • 26. 

    26. (A05) The steps taken to locate the intentional and unintentional emissions from radar equipment is best described as

    • A.

      A. electronic attack.

    • B.

      B. electronic support.

    • C.

      C. electronic protection.

    • D.

      D. electronic management.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. electronic support.
  • 27. 

    27. (A05) What are electronic warfare (EW) reconnaissance crews called?

    • A.

      A. Crows.

    • B.

      B. Ferrets.

    • C.

      C. Sparks.

    • D.

      D. Ravens.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Ravens.
  • 28. 

    28. (A05) Which piece of equipment is considered the heart of the electronic support system?

    • A.

      A. Pulse analyzer.

    • B.

      B. Cathode-ray tube.

    • C.

      C. Spectrum analyzer.

    • D.

      D. Panoramic receiver.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Panoramic receiver.
  • 29. 

    29. (A05) What electronic support (ES) equipment provides antenna scan-type, scan rate, pulse recurrence frequency, pulse width, and pulse shape?

    • A.

      A. Oscilloscope.

    • B.

      B. Pulse analyzer.

    • C.

      C. Spectrum analyzer.

    • D.

      D. Panoramic receiver.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Pulse analyzer.
  • 30. 

    30. (A06) What Air Force aircraft is used extensively to collect electronic intelligence (ELINT) and communications intelligence (COMINT) data?

    • A.

      A. E–6B.

    • B.

      B. EC–130H.

    • C.

      C. KC–135R.

    • D.

      D. RC–135V/W.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. RC–135V/W.
  • 31. 

    31. (A06) What major subdivision of signal intelligence (SIGINT) collects and processes data on radar?

    • A.

      A. Photo intelligence (PHOTINT).

    • B.

      B. Electronic intelligence (ELINT).

    • C.

      C. Human intelligence (HUMINT).

    • D.

      D. Communications intelligence (COMINT).

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Electronic intelligence (ELINT).
  • 32. 

    32. (A06) What electronic intelligence (ELINT) equipment is used to determine the location of emitters?

    • A.

      A. Pulse analyzer.

    • B.

      B. Direction finder.

    • C.

      C. Spectrum analyzer.

    • D.

      D. Panoramic receiver.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Direction finder.
  • 33. 

    33. (A07) Which military frequency band designator denotes a frequency range higher than the others?

    • A.

      A. Echo.

    • B.

      B. Golf.

    • C.

      C. Charlie.

    • D.

      D. Foxtrot.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Golf.
  • 34. 

    34. (A07) The angle of incidence required to get a reflection back to the source is

    • A.

      A. 30°.

    • B.

      B. 45°.

    • C.

      C. 90°.

    • D.

      D. 120°.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 90°.
  • 35. 

    35. (A07) How long does it take radio frequency (RF) energy to travel a radar mile?

    • A.

      A. 24.72μ.

    • B.

      B. 18.54μ.

    • C.

      C. 12.36μ.

    • D.

      D. 6.18μ.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 12.36μ.
  • 36. 

    36. (A08) What unit of a pulse radar provides the pulse recurrence frequency (PRF) of the radar?

    • A.

      A. Modulator.

    • B.

      B. Master timer.

    • C.

      C. Power amplifier.

    • D.

      D. Waveform generator.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Master timer.
  • 37. 

    37. (A08) What radar display indicator displays range or velocity?

    • A.

      A. A scope.

    • B.

      B. B scope.

    • C.

      C. Range height.

    • D.

      D. Plan position.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. A scope.
  • 38. 

    38. (A08) The radar’s ability to separate targets into individual returns that are close together is called

    • A.

      A. azimuth.

    • B.

      B. elevation.

    • C.

      C. definition.

    • D.

      D. resolution.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. resolution.
  • 39. 

    39. (A08) When determining a radar’s azimuth, the

    • A.

      A. wider the horizontal beamwidth (HBW), the poorer the resolution.

    • B.

      B. wider the vertical beamwidth (VBW), the greater the resolution.

    • C.

      C. narrower the HBW, the poorer the resolution.

    • D.

      D. narrower the VBW, the greater the resolution.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. wider the horizontal beamwidth (HBW), the poorer the resolution.
  • 40. 

    40. (A09) What range of coverage does the radar warning receiver’s (RWR) antennas provide?

    • A.

      A. 45°.

    • B.

      B. 90°.

    • C.

      C. 180°.

    • D.

      D. 360°.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 360°.
  • 41. 

    41. (A09) What component of the radar warning receiver (RWR) identifies radar signals?

    • A.

      A. Antenna.

    • B.

      B. Signal processor.

    • C.

      C. Control indicator.

    • D.

      D. Receiver/amplifier.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Signal processor.
  • 42. 

    42. (A09) The radar warning receiver (RWR) does not provide signal

    • A.

      A. relative location.

    • B.

      B. identification.

    • C.

      C. frequency.

    • D.

      D. amplitude.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. amplitude.
  • 43. 

    43. (A09) What component of the radar warning receiver (RWR) selects the mode of operation?

    • A.

      A. Scope.

    • B.

      B. Signal processor.

    • C.

      C. Receiver/amplifier.

    • D.

      D. Interface control unit.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Interface control unit.
  • 44. 

    44. (A10) What three properties are common to both visible and infrared (IR) light?

    • A.

      A. Frequency, reflection, refraction.

    • B.

      B. Absorption, reflection, refraction.

    • C.

      C. Frequency, absorption, refraction.

    • D.

      D. Absorption, frequency, reflection.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Absorption, reflection, refraction.
  • 45. 

    45. (A10) The amount of infrared (IR) energy emitted by an object is

    • A.

      A. double the object’s absolute Kelvin temperature.

    • B.

      B. equal to the object’s absolute Kelvin temperature.

    • C.

      C. directly proportional to the fourth power of the object’s absolute temperature.

    • D.

      D. indirectly proportional to the fourth power of the object’s absolute temperature.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. directly proportional to the fourth power of the object’s absolute temperature.
  • 46. 

    46. (A10) What is the emissivity factor of a theoretical black body?

    • A.

      A. 0.5.

    • B.

      B. 0.8.

    • C.

      C. 1.0.

    • D.

      D. 1.2.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 1.0.
  • 47. 

    47. (A10) What infrared (IR) detector device requires a bias current or voltage to operate?

    • A.

      A. Photovoltaic.

    • B.

      B. Photographic.

    • C.

      C. Photoemissive.

    • D.

      D. Photoconductive.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Photoconductive.
  • 48. 

    49. (A11) Most infrared (IR) missiles operate in the region of

    • A.

      A. 1 to 5 microns.

    • B.

      B. 6 to 10 microns.

    • C.

      C. 7 to 12 microns.

    • D.

      D. 10 to 15 microns.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 1 to 5 microns.
  • 49. 

    48. (A10) In relation to land and water, thermal crossover indicates both objects

    • A.

      A. have sharp contrasts.

    • B.

      B. exchange infrared energy.

    • C.

      C. with the same temperature.

    • D.

      D. with different temperatures.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. with the same temperature.
  • 50. 

    50. (A11) What area of the aircraft will have the least infrared (IR) signature?

    • A.

      A. Plume.

    • B.

      B. Engine.

    • C.

      C. Skin.

    • D.

      D. Engine afterburner.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Skin.

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  • Current Version
  • Sep 08, 2014
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 07, 2014
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    Actofduty
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