Kansas Water Treatment Class 1 Study Test

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| By Brandon Gebhart
Brandon Gebhart, Water Treatment Operator
Treatment Operator with 10+ years of experience in the water treatment industry. Proven ability to operate and maintain water treatment systems, as well as conduct laboratory analysis.
Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 16,210
| Attempts: 780
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  • 1/35 Questions

    Which is (are) the ideal indicator for pathogens?

    • Salmonella species
    • Coliform group bacteria
    • Gram-negative cocci
    • Gram-negative coccobacilli
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About This Quiz

Have not taken the test yet but KDHE website recommends studying Cal State Water treatment class materials so I wrote these from 437 page PDF. You're welcome. I ll update after I actually take the test.

Kansas Water Treatment Class 1 Study Test - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What are two principal chemicals that cause water hardness

    • Aluminum and iron

    • Aluminum and calcium

    • Iron and manganese

    • Calcium and magnesium

    Correct Answer
    A. Calcium and magnesium
    Explanation
    Calcium and magnesium are the two principal chemicals that cause water hardness. When water contains high levels of these minerals, it is considered hard water. Calcium and magnesium ions are present in the water due to the dissolution of minerals like limestone and dolomite. These minerals are commonly found in the earth's crust and can dissolve into groundwater sources. When hard water is heated or combined with soap, it forms a residue known as scale, which can clog pipes and reduce the effectiveness of soap.

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  • 3. 

    If a water sample tests positive for coliforms, the system must collect a set of repeat samples within

    • 18 hours

    • 24 hours

    • 36 hours

    • 48 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 hours
    Explanation
    When a water sample tests positive for coliforms, it indicates the presence of bacteria that may be harmful to human health. Therefore, it is important to take immediate action to ensure the safety of the water supply. Collecting a set of repeat samples within 24 hours allows for a timely assessment of the extent of contamination and helps in determining the appropriate measures to be taken to address the issue. Waiting longer than 24 hours may result in a delay in identifying and resolving the problem, potentially putting people at risk.

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  • 4. 

    Which part of a pump houses the packing or mechanical seal?

    • The shroud

    • The stuffing box

    • The volute

    • The casing head

    Correct Answer
    A. The stuffing box
    Explanation
    The stuffing box is the part of a pump that houses the packing or mechanical seal. This component is responsible for preventing leakage of the fluid being pumped. It is typically located at the point where the pump shaft exits the casing. The stuffing box contains packing material or a mechanical seal that creates a tight seal around the shaft, preventing the fluid from leaking out.

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  • 5. 

    It is hardest to kill the organism that causes which of the following illnesses?

    • Cholera

    • Typhoid

    • Cryptosporidiosis

    • Infectious hepatitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Cryptosporidiosis
    Explanation
    Cryptosporidiosis is caused by the organism Cryptosporidium, which is a microscopic parasite that can live in the intestines of humans and animals. It is known to have a protective outer shell that allows it to survive outside the body for long periods of time, making it resistant to chlorine disinfection and difficult to kill using traditional water treatment methods. This resilience of Cryptosporidium makes it harder to eradicate compared to the organisms that cause Cholera, Typhoid, and Infectious hepatitis.

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  • 6. 

    How many coliform positive samples are allowed each month for water systems that collect less than 40 samples per month?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    Water systems that collect less than 40 samples per month are allowed to have only 1 coliform positive sample each month. This means that out of all the samples collected in a month, only one is allowed to test positive for coliform bacteria. Coliform bacteria are indicators of potential fecal contamination in water, and exceeding the allowed limit indicates a higher risk of contamination. Therefore, it is important for water systems to closely monitor and ensure that they meet the required standards for water safety.

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  • 7. 

    Which is a principal problem associated with preliminary treatment screening?

    • Broken screens

    • Excessive downtime due to numerous shear pins being broken

    • Clogging

    • Chain comes out of foot sprocket

    Correct Answer
    A. Clogging
    Explanation
    Clogging is a principal problem associated with preliminary treatment screening. This refers to the accumulation of solid materials or debris in the screening equipment, which can obstruct the flow of wastewater and reduce the effectiveness of the screening process. Clogging can lead to operational issues, increased maintenance requirements, and decreased efficiency of the overall wastewater treatment system. It is important to regularly monitor and maintain the screening equipment to prevent clogging and ensure proper wastewater treatment.

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  • 8. 

    Under no circumstances should a composite sample be collected for which type of analysis?

    • Bacteriological

    • Total dissolved solids

    • Alkalinity

    • Turbidity

    Correct Answer
    A. Bacteriological
    Explanation
    A composite sample should not be collected for bacteriological analysis because this type of analysis requires a single, representative sample to accurately measure the presence and concentration of bacteria. Collecting a composite sample, which is a combination of multiple samples taken at different times or locations, would not provide an accurate representation of the bacterial content in the sample. Therefore, it is important to collect a single sample specifically for bacteriological analysis to ensure reliable results.

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  • 9. 

    How often should sedimentation basins with mechanical sludge removal equipment be drained and inspected?

    • Twice a year

    • Once a year

    • Every other year

    • Every three years

    Correct Answer
    A. Once a year
    Explanation
    Sedimentation basins with mechanical sludge removal equipment should be drained and inspected once a year. This is necessary to ensure their proper functioning and prevent any potential issues. Regular inspections help identify any maintenance or repair needs, as well as ensure that the sludge removal equipment is working effectively. Draining the basins allows for the removal of accumulated sludge and prevents it from causing blockages or other problems. By conducting these inspections and maintenance activities annually, the sedimentation basins can continue to operate efficiently and effectively.

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  • 10. 

    Alum works best in a pH range of

    • Less than 4.0

    • 4.0 to 5.5

    • 5.8 to 8.5

    • Greater than 9.0

    Correct Answer
    A. 5.8 to 8.5
    Explanation
    Alum works best in a pH range of 5.8 to 8.5 because this range allows for the optimal formation of aluminum hydroxide, which is the active ingredient in alum. At lower pH levels, below 5.8, the effectiveness of alum decreases as the formation of aluminum hydroxide is hindered. Similarly, at higher pH levels, above 8.5, the formation of aluminum hydroxide is also hindered, leading to reduced effectiveness. Therefore, the pH range of 5.8 to 8.5 provides the ideal conditions for alum to work effectively.

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  • 11. 

    The treatment process that controls corrosion or scaling is known as

    • Chemical control

    • Stabilization

    • Passivation

    • Corrosion kinetics

    Correct Answer
    A. Stabilization
    Explanation
    Stabilization is the correct answer because it refers to the treatment process that controls corrosion or scaling. This process involves the addition of chemicals or other substances to the water system to prevent the formation of scale or corrosion on the surfaces. Stabilization helps maintain the water's pH balance and prevents the water from becoming corrosive or scaling, thus ensuring the longevity and efficiency of the system.

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  • 12. 

    The number of monthly distribution system chlorine residual samples required is

    • Based on water withdrawal permit limit.

    • Based on system size.

    • Based on population.

    • Different for each state.

    Correct Answer
    A. Based on population.
    Explanation
    The number of monthly distribution system chlorine residual samples required is based on population. This means that the larger the population, the more samples are needed to ensure the safety and quality of the water supply. This is because a larger population typically means a higher demand for water, which increases the likelihood of potential contamination or issues with chlorine levels. By conducting more frequent samples, water authorities can closely monitor and address any problems to protect public health.

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  • 13. 

    Which is the only type of pump that can be operated against a closed valve?

    • Vertical turbine pump

    • Centrifugal pump

    • Axial-flow pump

    • Mixed-flow pump

    Correct Answer
    A. Centrifugal pump
    Explanation
    A centrifugal pump is the only type of pump that can be operated against a closed valve. This is because centrifugal pumps rely on the momentum of the fluid to create pressure and move it through the system. When a valve is closed, the fluid is unable to flow through the system, causing pressure to build up within the pump. Centrifugal pumps are designed to handle this pressure and continue operating, whereas other types of pumps may be damaged or unable to function under these conditions.

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  • 14. 

    Acids,bases, and salts lacking carbon are

    • Ketones.

    • Aldehydes

    • Organic compounds

    • Inorganic compounds.

    Correct Answer
    A. Inorganic compounds.
    Explanation
    The question asks for the category of acids, bases, and salts that do not contain carbon. Ketones and aldehydes are organic compounds that do contain carbon, so they are not the correct answer. Organic compounds are also not the correct answer because they include all compounds containing carbon, not just acids, bases, and salts. Therefore, the correct answer is inorganic compounds, as they do not contain carbon.

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  • 15. 

    Which adverse effects does the secondary contaminant manganese have?

    • Unappealing to drink, undesirable taste, and possible indication of corrosion

    • Discolored laundry and changed taste of water, coffee, tea, and other beverages

    • Undesirable metallic taste and possible indication of corrosion

    • Added total dissolved solids and scale, indication of sewage contamination and tastes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Discolored laundry and changed taste of water, coffee, tea, and other beverages
    Explanation
    Manganese is a secondary contaminant that can cause discoloration of laundry and alter the taste of water, coffee, tea, and other beverages. This means that if water or other beverages are contaminated with manganese, they may have a different taste and can stain laundry. This adverse effect is often associated with the presence of manganese in water sources.

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  • 16. 

    The 2 most important factors impacting the effectiveness of chlorination are

    • PH of the water and the content of foreign substances in the water.

    • Concentration of chlorine and content of foreign substances in the water

    • Concentration of chlorine and contact time

    • PH and Temperature of water

    Correct Answer
    A. Concentration of chlorine and contact time
    Explanation
    The effectiveness of chlorination is determined by the concentration of chlorine and the contact time. The concentration of chlorine refers to the amount of chlorine present in the water, which is crucial for disinfection. A higher concentration of chlorine can effectively kill bacteria and other harmful microorganisms. The contact time refers to the duration for which the chlorine is in contact with the water. Sufficient contact time ensures that the chlorine has enough time to react with and kill the microorganisms. Therefore, the concentration of chlorine and contact time are the two most important factors impacting the effectiveness of chlorination.

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  • 17. 

    A public water system has at least               service connections or serves              or more persons                or more days each year.

    • 15 ;50; 50

    • 25; 25; 50

    • 15; 25; 60

    • 25; 50; 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 15; 25; 60
    Explanation
    A public water system must have at least 15 service connections or serve 25 or more persons for 60 or more days each year.

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  • 18. 

    A physical property, as oppose to a chemical property, import to water treatment is

    • Turbidity

    • PH

    • Dissolved Solids

    • Electrical conductivity

    Correct Answer
    A. Turbidity
    Explanation
    Turbidity is a physical property that is important in water treatment. It refers to the cloudiness or haziness of a fluid caused by suspended particles. In water treatment, turbidity is a crucial parameter to measure as it indicates the presence of particulate matter that can affect the quality of the water. High turbidity levels can interfere with disinfection processes and can also be an indicator of potential health risks. Therefore, monitoring and controlling turbidity is essential in water treatment to ensure the provision of safe and clean drinking water.

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  • 19. 

    What natural electron force keeps colloidal particles apart in water treatment?

    • Van der Waals forces

    • Ionic forces

    • Zeta potential

    • Quantum forces

    Correct Answer
    A. Zeta potential
    Explanation
    Zeta potential is the correct answer because it is the natural electron force that keeps colloidal particles apart in water treatment. When colloidal particles are dispersed in water, they acquire an electrical charge due to the adsorption of ions from the surrounding medium. This charge creates a repulsive force between particles, preventing them from aggregating or settling. Zeta potential measures the magnitude of this electrical charge, and a higher zeta potential indicates stronger repulsion between particles. Therefore, it is an essential factor in maintaining the stability and effectiveness of water treatment processes.

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  • 20. 

    When one substance is dissolved in another and will not settle out, which is the product called?

    • An emulsion

    • A compound

    • A suspension

    • A solution

    Correct Answer
    A. A solution
    Explanation
    A solution is the correct answer because when one substance is dissolved in another and does not settle out, it forms a homogeneous mixture where the solute particles are evenly dispersed throughout the solvent. In a solution, the solute particles are too small to be seen and do not separate from the solvent over time.

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  • 21. 

    Disinfection of water wells with free chlorine requires exposure for                     at a concentration of                 .

    • 6 to 12 hours; 25 mg/L

    • 12 to 24 hours; 25 mg/L

    • 12 to 24 hours; 50 mg/L

    • 12 to 48 hours; 100 mg/L

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 to 24 hours; 50 mg/L
    Explanation
    Disinfection of water wells with free chlorine requires exposure for 12 to 24 hours at a concentration of 50 mg/L. This means that the water wells need to be treated with chlorine for a period of 12 to 24 hours and the concentration of chlorine in the water should be 50 mg per liter. This duration and concentration are necessary to effectively disinfect the water and kill any harmful bacteria or pathogens present in the well water.

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  • 22. 

    When a filter is ripening.

    • It is need of a backwash.

    • Turbidity is just starting to break through.

    • It is becoming more efficient in particle removal.

    • It is beginning to grow algae

    Correct Answer
    A. It is becoming more efficient in particle removal.
    Explanation
    When a filter is ripening, it means that it is maturing and becoming more efficient in particle removal. Ripening is a process in which the filter media develops a biofilm, which consists of beneficial bacteria and other microorganisms. This biofilm helps in trapping and removing particles from the water more effectively. As the filter ripens, the biofilm becomes thicker and more established, leading to improved filtration efficiency. Therefore, the correct answer is that the filter is becoming more efficient in particle removal.

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  • 23. 

    The turbidity of settled water before it is applied to the filters (post sedimentation process) should always be kept below

    • 1 - 2 ntu

    • 2 - 4 ntu

    • 5 ntu

    • 8 - 10 ntu

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 - 2 ntu
    Explanation
    The turbidity of settled water should always be kept below 1-2 NTU. Turbidity is a measure of the cloudiness or haziness of water, caused by suspended particles. High turbidity can interfere with disinfection processes and lead to the growth of harmful bacteria. Keeping the turbidity below 1-2 NTU ensures that the water is clear and free from excessive suspended particles, making it safer for consumption and further treatment.

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  • 24. 

    The zeta potential measures the number of excess                  found on the surface of all particulate matter.

    • Electrons

    • Ions

    • Cations

    • Protons

    Correct Answer
    A. Electrons
    Explanation
    Zeta potential is a measure of the electric charge on the surface of particulate matter. It quantifies the number of excess electrons present on the surface. Therefore, the correct answer is electrons.

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  • 25. 

    Which is the most important reason to reduce turbidity?

    • To reduce taste and odor problems?

    • To remove pathogens

    • To reduce corrosion

    • To determine the efficiency of coagulation and filtration

    Correct Answer
    A. To remove pathogens
    Explanation
    The most important reason to reduce turbidity is to remove pathogens. Turbidity is a measure of the cloudiness or haziness of water caused by suspended particles. These particles can include bacteria, viruses, and other microorganisms that can cause diseases. By reducing turbidity, the water treatment process can effectively remove these pathogens and ensure that the water is safe for consumption.

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  • 26. 

    Detention time in flocculation basins are usually designed to provide for

    • 5 to 15 minutes

    • 15 to 45 minutes

    • 45 to 60 minutes

    • 60 to 90 minutes

    Correct Answer
    A. 15 to 45 minutes
    Explanation
    Detention time in flocculation basins refers to the amount of time that water remains in the basin for the flocculation process to occur. This process involves the addition of chemicals to the water to form flocs, which are larger particles that can be easily removed during the sedimentation process. A detention time of 15 to 45 minutes is typically chosen as it allows sufficient time for the flocs to form and settle, ensuring effective removal of impurities from the water. A shorter detention time may result in incomplete flocculation, while a longer detention time may lead to excessive settling and increased operational costs.

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  • 27. 

    Which statement is true concerning colloidal particles?

    • Colloidal particles are so small that gravity has little effect on them

    • The zeta potential between colloidal particles is balanced by covalent bonding

    • Electrical phenomenon of colloidal particles predominate and control their behavior

    • The surface area of colloidal particles is very small compared to their mass

    Correct Answer
    A. Colloidal particles are so small that gravity has little effect on them
    Explanation
    Colloidal particles are extremely small in size, typically ranging from 1 to 1000 nanometers. Due to their small size, the gravitational force acting on them is negligible, and therefore, gravity has little effect on their behavior. Other forces such as Brownian motion and electrostatic forces become more significant in determining the behavior and movement of colloidal particles.

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  • 28. 

    In general, which causes an increase in taste and odors when natural waters lack dissolved oxygen?

    • Increase in algae growth

    • PH reduction causing an increase in iron and manganese going into solution

    • Anaerobic decomposition

    • Oxidation of organic material

    Correct Answer
    A. Anaerobic decomposition
    Explanation
    Anaerobic decomposition refers to the breakdown of organic matter in the absence of oxygen. When natural waters lack dissolved oxygen, anaerobic decomposition becomes more prevalent. This process leads to the release of various compounds, such as hydrogen sulfide and ammonia, which contribute to unpleasant tastes and odors in the water. Therefore, anaerobic decomposition is the most likely cause of an increase in taste and odors when natural waters lack dissolved oxygen.

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  • 29. 

    Which device collects the settled water as it leaves the sedimentation basin?

    • Effluent weir

    • Effluent flow box

    • Effluent baffle

    • Effluent launder

    Correct Answer
    A. Effluent launder
    Explanation
    The device that collects the settled water as it leaves the sedimentation basin is called the effluent launder. The effluent launder is designed to collect the clarified water and direct it towards the next stage of the water treatment process. It helps in separating the settled solids from the water and ensures that only the clean water is discharged from the sedimentation basin.

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  • 30. 

    In solid-contact basins with fairly constant water quality parameters, how often should the solids concentration be determined?

    • At least once per week

    • At least every other day?

    • At least once per month

    • At least twice per day

    Correct Answer
    A. At least twice per day
    Explanation
    In solid-contact basins, where water quality parameters remain fairly constant, it is important to determine the solids concentration at least twice per day. This frequent monitoring allows for better control and adjustment of the treatment process to maintain optimal water quality. Regular assessment of solids concentration helps ensure efficient and effective treatment, preventing any potential issues or deviations in the water treatment process.

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  • 31. 

    The definition of decant is

    • To draw off a liquid layer from a vessel of any size without disturbing and layers above or below

    • To draw off the sediment at the bottom of a vessel of any size without disturbing the overlying liquid layers.

    • To remove the precipitate at the bottom of any size vessel.

    • To draw off the liquid from a vessel of any size without stirring up bottom sediment

    Correct Answer
    A. To draw off the liquid from a vessel of any size without stirring up bottom sediment
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "to draw off the liquid from a vessel of any size without stirring up bottom sediment." This answer accurately describes the process of decanting, which involves carefully pouring off the liquid from a container while leaving any sediment or solid particles at the bottom undisturbed.

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  • 32. 

    Where are the sampling points located for required sampling of coliform bacteria in a community  water system?

    • At consumers' faucets

    • 75% at locations representative of population distribution and 25% at the farthest point in the system.

    • At points where water enters the distribution system

    • At representative points within the distribution system.

    Correct Answer
    A. At consumers' faucets
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "at consumers' faucets" because sampling coliform bacteria at consumers' faucets allows for testing the water that is actually being consumed by the community. This is important because it ensures that the water being supplied to the population is safe and free from coliform bacteria. Sampling at consumers' faucets provides a direct measure of the quality of water that people are using in their daily lives, making it a representative and accurate sampling method.

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  • 33. 

    Permanganate reactions are highly dependent on

    • Organics in the water

    • PH

    • Temperature

    • Alkalinity

    Correct Answer
    A. pH
    Explanation
    Permanganate reactions are highly dependent on pH because the permanganate ion (MnO4-) acts as an oxidizing agent in water treatment processes. The effectiveness of this reaction is influenced by the pH level of the water. At low pH levels, the permanganate ion is reduced more easily, resulting in a more efficient oxidation process. On the other hand, at high pH levels, the permanganate ion is less reactive and its oxidation potential decreases. Therefore, pH plays a crucial role in determining the efficiency of permanganate reactions.

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  • 34. 

    Which role does the action of straining suspended particles  play during filtration?

    • Minor

    • Fair

    • Good

    • Major

    Correct Answer
    A. Minor
    Explanation
    The action of straining suspended particles plays a minor role during filtration. Filtration primarily involves the separation of solid particles from a liquid or gas by passing it through a porous medium. While straining does occur during this process, it is not the main mechanism at play. Instead, filtration relies more on other mechanisms such as adsorption, absorption, and sieving to remove particles from the fluid.

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  • 35. 

    The main purpose  mechanical seals is to

    • Keep lubrication in and other foreign materials out.

    • Control water leakage from stuffing box

    • Prevent water leakage from the pump shaft

    • Help prevent shaft from warping

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevent water leakage from the pump shaft
    Explanation
    Mechanical seals primarily prevent water leakage from the pump shaft. They create a barrier between the rotating shaft and the stationary pump housing, effectively containing the fluid within the pump while preventing external contaminants from entering. This helps maintain the integrity and efficiency of the pumping system.

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  • Feb 12, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Aug 26, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Brandon Gebhart

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