Volume 5 2A851

100 Questions | Attempts: 708
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Volume 5 2A851 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    1. (801) Which part of a radar set amplifies and converts an RF wave into a video signal?

    • A.

      A. Antenna.

    • B.

      B. Receiver.

    • C.

      C. Indicator.

    • D.

      D. Transmitter.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Receiver.
  • 2. 

    2. (801) How long in μs does it take an RF wave to travel a radar mile?

    • A.

      A. 12.4μs.

    • B.

      B. 9.3μs.

    • C.

      C. 6.2μs.

    • D.

      D. 3.1μs.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 12.4μs.
  • 3. 

    4. (801) In which radar system is the transmitter turned on for short periods of time and off for long periods of time?

    • A.

      A. Beacon.

    • B.

      B. Frequency-shift.

    • C.

      C. Pulse-modulation.

    • D.

      D. Frequency-modulation.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Pulse-modulation.
  • 4. 

    5. (801) Accurate location of an object in space by radar pulses depends upon both

    • A.

      A. altitude and speed.

    • B.

      B. altitude and range.

    • C.

      C. range and direction.

    • D.

      D. speed and direction.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. range and direction.
  • 5. 

    3. (801) If a radar echo returns after 310 microseconds, how far away is the target?

    • A.

      A. 10 miles.

    • B.

      B. 25 miles.

    • C.

      C. 50 miles.

    • D.

      D. 75 miles.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. 25 miles.
  • 6. 

    6. (802) Which component in a pulse-modulation radar set supplies the voltages that operate the other radar components?

    • A.

      A. Antenna.

    • B.

      B. Indicator.

    • C.

      C. Transmitter.

    • D.

      D. Power supply.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Power supply.
  • 7. 

    7. (802) Which component in a pulse-modulation radar system shapes the radio frequency energy into a narrow beam?

    • A.

      A. Antenna.

    • B.

      B. Indicator.

    • C.

      C. Transmitter.

    • D.

      D. Synchronizer.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Antenna.
  • 8. 

    8. (802) The screen display on newer types of pulse-modulation radar indicators is called a

    • A.

      A. map.

    • B.

      B. pulse.

    • C.

      C. sweep.

    • D.

      D. spot condition.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. map.
  • 9. 

    9. (803) In a frequency-shift radar system, the Doppler principle makes it possible to instantaneously sense and measure

    • A.

      A. altitude and ground track.

    • B.

      B. target elevation and speed.

    • C.

      C. ground speed and drift angle.

    • D.

      D. magnetic heading and altitude.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. ground speed and drift angle.
  • 10. 

    10. (803) In a frequency-shift radar system, what is the relationship between a transmitter/receiver and an aircraft when the received frequency is higher than the transmitted frequency?

    • A.

      A. They are a constant distance away from each other.

    • B.

      B. The aircraft is not reflecting any of the radar pulse.

    • C.

      C. The aircraft is flying towards the transmitter/receiver.

    • D.

      D. The aircraft is flying away from the transmitter/receiver.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. The aircraft is flying towards the transmitter/receiver.
  • 11. 

    11. (803) In a frequency-shift radar system, what is the relationship between a transmitter/receiver and an aircraft when the received frequency is lower than the transmitted frequency?

    • A.

      A. They are a constant distance away from each other.

    • B.

      B. The aircraft is not reflecting any of the radar pulse.

    • C.

      C. The aircraft is flying towards the transmitter/receiver.

    • D.

      D. The aircraft is flying away from the transmitter/receiver.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. The aircraft is flying away from the transmitter/receiver.
  • 12. 

    12. (804) Which of the following are types of power loss in radio frequency lines?

    • A.

      A. Copper, dielectric, and radiation.

    • B.

      B. Current, dielectric, and emission.

    • C.

      C. Dielectric, radiation, and current.

    • D.

      D. Radiation, copper, and conduction.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Copper, dielectric, and radiation.
  • 13. 

    13. (804) If the spacing between the waveguide walls or size of the walls changes, then there will be a change in impedence causing decreased

    • A.

      A. heat.

    • B.

      B. power.

    • C.

      C. reflection.

    • D.

      D. standing waves.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. power.
  • 14. 

    14. (804) What is the most common device used to connect multiple sections of a waveguide system?

    • A.

      A. Choke-joint.

    • B.

      B. Adapter plate.

    • C.

      C. Universal-joint.

    • D.

      D. Master cylinder.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Choke-joint.
  • 15. 

    15. (804) The function of a dummy load in search and weather radar is to

    • A.

      A. simulate a capacitive load.

    • B.

      B. simulate a resistive load.

    • C.

      C. prevent standing waves.

    • D.

      D. simulate targets.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. simulate a resistive load.
  • 16. 

    16. (805) What circuit is triggered when the AS–653C radar antenna reflector rotates through the aircraft lubber line?

    • A.

      A. Bearing.

    • B.

      B. Tilt control.

    • C.

      C. Stabilization.

    • D.

      D. Heading marker.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Heading marker.
  • 17. 

    17. (805) Which component in the AN/APN–59 radar system furnishes both pitch and roll drive signals to the antenna stabilization motors?

    • A.

      A. AM–853B.

    • B.

      B. CN–221A.

    • C.

      C. AS–653C.

    • D.

      D. RT–289G.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. AM–853B.
  • 18. 

    18. (806) What is the maximum height that the CARA system computes aircraft altitude above ground level?

    • A.

      A. 5,000 feet.

    • B.

      B. 25,000 feet.

    • C.

      C. 35,000 feet.

    • D.

      D. 50,000 feet.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 50,000 feet.
  • 19. 

    19. (806) If your aircraft has two CARA systems installed, then how many associated antennas will be installed?

    • A.

      A. Two.

    • B.

      B. Three.

    • C.

      C. Four.

    • D.

      D. Five.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Four.
  • 20. 

    21. (806) What are all of the functions of the SET knob located on the combined altitude radar altimeter indicator?

    • A.

      A. As an on/off and brightness control.

    • B.

      B. As an on/off control and to set the VALI indicator.

    • C.

      C. As an on/off control and as a test button to check the system.

    • D.

      D. As an on/off control, to set the VALI indicator, and as a test button to check the system.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. As an on/off control, to set the VALI indicator, and as a test button to check the system.
  • 21. 

    22. (806) During the CARA radar altitude indicator’s bright lighting conditions, the ambient light sensor serves to

    • A.

      A. set the display brightness to dim.

    • B.

      B. override the dimmer control knob.

    • C.

      C. allow the user to brighten the display only.

    • D.

      D. allow the user to both dim or brighten the display.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. override the dimmer control knob.
  • 22. 

    20. (806) When reporting altitudes above 100 feet, the digital altitude display of the CARA indicates increments of

    • A.

      A. one foot.

    • B.

      B. two feet.

    • C.

      C. five feet.

    • D.

      D. ten feet.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. ten feet.
  • 23. 

    23. (806) What is the maximum altitude that the analog pointer and dial of the CARA’s radar altitude indicator can display?

    • A.

      A. 5,000 feet.

    • B.

      B. 10,000 feet.

    • C.

      C. 25,000 feet.

    • D.

      D. 50,000 feet.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 5,000 feet.
  • 24. 

    24. (806) If self-test is manually initiated on the CARA, then for 1.5 seconds the radar altitude indicator will display an illuminated R/T lamp, the pointer will move to

    • A.

      A. 500 feet, and the digital display will read 88888.

    • B.

      B. 700 feet, and the digital display will read 88888.

    • C.

      C. 500 feet, and the digital display will read TEST.

    • D.

      D. 700 feet, and the digital display will read TEST.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 500 feet, and the digital display will read 88888.
  • 25. 

    25. (807) What is the average operating power in watts of the LPCR system?

    • A.

      A. 3 W or less.

    • B.

      B. 5 W or less.

    • C.

      C. 11 W or less.

    • D.

      D. 15 W or less.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 11 W or less.
  • 26. 

    26. (807) Which radar application is used to fly along a preselected altitude above the ground?

    • A.

      A. Search radar.

    • B.

      B. Ground mapping.

    • C.

      C. Terrain following.

    • D.

      D. Terrain avoidance.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Terrain following.
  • 27. 

    27. (807) Which radar application sends data to compute time-to-go parameters?

    • A.

      A. Search radar.

    • B.

      B. Weather radar.

    • C.

      C. Bombing radar.

    • D.

      D. Synthetis aperture radar.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Bombing radar.
  • 28. 

    28. (808) What establishes the network system time for a Link–16 system?

    • A.

      A. GPS.

    • B.

      B. UTC.

    • C.

      C. NCS.

    • D.

      D. NTR.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. NTR.
  • 29. 

    29. (809) To enhance voice clarity on TADIL J secure digitized voice channels, the operator will select a Kb/s voice rate of

    • A.

      A. 4 Kb/s.

    • B.

      B. 8 Kb/s.

    • C.

      C. 16 Kb/s.

    • D.

      D. 32 Kb/s.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 16 Kb/s.
  • 30. 

    30. (810) If a unit has the need and capability to participate in both Link–16 and older Link systems, then it will normally be assigned an address between

    • A.

      A. 00001 to 00177.

    • B.

      B. 00177 to 00277.

    • C.

      C. 17700 to 17877.

    • D.

      D. 17877 to 17977.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 00001 to 00177.
  • 31. 

    31. (810) Which of the following fields does the Link–16 friendly status reports contain?

    • A.

      A. Activity.

    • B.

      B. Nationality.

    • C.

      C. Specific type.

    • D.

      D. Equipment status.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Equipment status.
  • 32. 

    32. (811) The elapsed time indicator of the R/T indicates the time power has been

    • A.

      A. applied to the R/T.

    • B.

      B. removed from the R/T.

    • C.

      C. applied to digital data processor.

    • D.

      D. removed from digital data processor.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. applied to the R/T.
  • 33. 

    33. (811) If you have a fail indication on the JTIDS digital data processor, then pressing the RESET pushbutton switch on the DDP will reset the fault indicator

    • A.

      A. and JTIDS system.

    • B.

      B. and digital data processor.

    • C.

      C. to clear the related fault cause.

    • D.

      D. if the related fault cause was corrected.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. if the related fault cause was corrected.
  • 34. 

    34. (811) Which subassembly is a part of the CMS?

    • A.

      A. IU.

    • B.

      B. SDU.

    • C.

      C. MIU.

    • D.

      D. SDCU.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. SDCU.
  • 35. 

    35. (811) When transmitting in the high power mode, what is the power output in Wp of the high power amplifier of the JTIDS?

    • A.

      A. 1050 Wp.

    • B.

      B. 520 Wp.

    • C.

      C. 260 Wp.

    • D.

      D. 130 Wp.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 1050 Wp.
  • 36. 

    36. (812) What power source is used to provide emergency back-up power to the JTIDS terminal to maintain critical data?

    • A.

      A. Lithium batteries.

    • B.

      B. Sulphur dioxide batteries.

    • C.

      C. Nickel-cadmium batteries.

    • D.

      D. Nickel-metal hydride batteries.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Nickel-cadmium batteries.
  • 37. 

    37. (812) What is the range in MHz of signals that the low pass filter passes?

    • A.

      A. 240 – 304 MHz.

    • B.

      B. 480 – 608 MHz.

    • C.

      C. 960 – 1215 MHz.

    • D.

      D. 1920 – 2430 MHz.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 960 – 1215 MHz.
  • 38. 

    38. (813) What is the operating band used by the JTIDS?

    • A.

      A. L.

    • B.

      B. S.

    • C.

      C. X.

    • D.

      D. Ku.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. L.
  • 39. 

    39. (813) How many bits of data can be transmitted in a given time slot of a JTIDS?

    • A.

      A. 258.

    • B.

      B. 465.

    • C.

      C. 516.

    • D.

      D. 930.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 930.
  • 40. 

    40. (814) When can the JTIDS synchronization process be initiated?

    • A.

      A. Once immediately before a Net Entry message is transmitted.

    • B.

      B. Every 12 seconds before a Net Entry message is transmitted.

    • C.

      C. Once immediately after a Net Entry message is transmitted.

    • D.

      D. Every 12 seconds when a Net Entry message is transmitted.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Every 12 seconds when a Net Entry message is transmitted.
  • 41. 

    41. (814) What are the two processes in which JTIDS fine synchronization are accomplished?

    • A.

      A. Passive and active

    • B.

      B. Active and dynamic.

    • C.

      C. Passive and radio silent.

    • D.

      D. Radio silent and reflexive.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Passive and active
  • 42. 

    42. (814) If the JTIDS entrant is attempting to achieve fine synchronization by transmitting a round trip time interrogation, then what process is being used?

    • A.

      A. Active.

    • B.

      B. Passive.

    • C.

      C. Dynamic.

    • D.

      D. Radio silent.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Active.
  • 43. 

    43. (815) Which component of the tactical information gateway system enables beyond line-of-sight coverage?

    • A.

      A. L-band antennas.

    • B.

      B. Multipurpose interface panel.

    • C.

      C. Low noise amplifier/diplexer assembly.

    • D.

      D. Satellite communication/global positioning system antenna.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Satellite communication/global positioning system antenna.
  • 44. 

    44. (816) What is the purpose of the MIDS data link terminal?

    • A.

      A. Provide accurate positional data for the data link terminal.

    • B.

      B. Extend networks BLOS and the local area.

    • C.

      C. Provide LOS connectivity to a local area network.

    • D.

      D. Transmit secure data messages across the DAMA satellite network.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Provide LOS connectivity to a local area network.
  • 45. 

    45. (816) To prevent interference and possible terminal shutdowns, what systems are monitored by the TIG system?

    • A.

      A. TACAN, VOR/ILS and radar altimeter.

    • B.

      B. IFF, color weather radar, and MLS.

    • C.

      C. ETCAS and radar altimeter.

    • D.

      D. IFF, ETCAS, and TACAN.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. IFF, ETCAS, and TACAN.
  • 46. 

    46. (817) Which is a MIL-STD 1553 bus standard requirement?

    • A.

      A. Information will have a very low level of data transfer determinism.

    • B.

      B. Information will be transferred in a reliable, deterministic, command/response fashion.

    • C.

      C. Information will not be transferred between bus terminals via a digital serial communications channel.

    • D.

      D. Electrical interface requirements will not be defined by the standard for all bus terminals and bus terminal connections.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Information will be transferred in a reliable, deterministic, command/response fashion.
  • 47. 

    47. (817) What is the structure of a MIL-STD1553 data word?

    • A.

      A. 20 bits long consisting of 1 sync bit, 16 data/command/status bits, and 3 parity bits.

    • B.

      B. 20 bits long consisting of 3 sync bits, 16 data/command/status bits, and 1 parity bit.

    • C.

      C. 32 bits long consisting of 1 sync bit, 28 data/command/status bits, and 3 parity bits.

    • D.

      D. 32 bits long consisting of 3 sync bits, 28 data/command/status bits, and 1 parity bit.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. 20 bits long consisting of 3 sync bits, 16 data/command/status bits, and 1 parity bit.
  • 48. 

    48. (817) Which of these is not a function of the MIL-STD 1553 data bus mode codes?

    • A.

      A. Resetting terminals.

    • B.

      B. Synchronizing the subsystem time.

    • C.

      C. Executing a BC broadcast command.

    • D.

      D. Commanding at RT to initiate a system self-test.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Executing a BC broadcast command.
  • 49. 

    49. (817) If a BC sends a command for all RTs to listen to data from another RT, then what type of command is being sent on the MIL-STD 1553 data bus?

    • A.

      A. Listen command.

    • B.

      B. System command.

    • C.

      C. Receive command.

    • D.

      D. Broadcast command.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Broadcast command.
  • 50. 

    50. (818) The basic element in a computer microchip is

    • A.

      A. silver.

    • B.

      B. silicon.

    • C.

      C. copper.

    • D.

      D. aluminum.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. silicon.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Sep 22, 2014
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 18, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Actofduty
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