# 2a253 Volume 2 CDC

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This is a study guide to help airman study for there end of course test. Not filling out there bubble sheets. End of disclaimer enjoy your studying. CDC 2A253N
SOF/PR Electronic Warfare Systems Journeyman
Volume 2. Electronic Warfare Principles and Support Equipment
2A253N 03 1308, Edit Code 01
AFSC 2A253

• 1.

### 2. The serial transmission bit rate for the MIL-1553 data bus is

• A.

A. 2 mega bits per second (Mbps)

• B.

B. 16 Mbps

• C.

C. 32 Mbps

• D.

D. 64 Mbps

A. A. 2 mega bits per second (Mbps)
Explanation
The correct answer is a. 2 mega bits per second (Mbps). The MIL-1553 data bus is a standard communication protocol used in avionics systems. It is a serial bus that operates at a bit rate of 2 Mbps. This means that it can transmit 2 million bits of data per second. This relatively low bit rate is sufficient for most avionics applications, as it allows for reliable communication without requiring excessive bandwidth.

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• 2.

### 3. A MIL-STD 1553 data bus message must contain at least one command word with a max of how many data words?

• A.

A. 3

• B.

B. 16

• C.

C. 20

• D.

D. 32

D. D. 32
Explanation
I don't know why but C is wrong. Check Page 9 1553 word structure

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• 3.

### 6. The basic element in a computer microchip is?

• A.

A. silver.

• B.

B. silicon.

• C.

C. copper.

• D.

D. aluminum.

B. B. silicon.
Explanation
The basic element in a computer microchip is silicon. Silicon is a semiconductor material that is widely used in the production of microchips due to its unique electrical properties. It is able to conduct electricity under certain conditions, making it an ideal material for creating transistors and other components within a microchip. Silicon also has the ability to control the flow of electrical current, allowing for the creation of complex circuits and the processing of information within a computer.

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• 4.

### 7. (202) Chips with circuits that can do the work of all the different parts of a computer are called

• A.

A. valves.

• B.

B. microchips.

• C.

C. circuit boards.

• D.

D. microprocessors.

D. D. microprocessors.
Explanation
I got B. but it was wrong so D it is check. (Page 11 Microchips

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• 5.

### 8. (202) What controls the current passing through a computer circuit?

• A.

A. Gates.

• B.

B. Buffers.

• C.

C. Transistors.

• D.

D. Central processing unit.

C. C. Transistors.
Explanation
Page 12 Transistors

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• 6.

### 9. (202) The heart of the entire computer complex data processing system is the

• A.

A. gate.

• B.

B. terminal.

• C.

C. transistor.

• D.

D. central processing unit.

D. D. central processing unit.
Explanation
Page 13 1st Line

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• 7.

### 10. (202) What controls the speed of a computer’s activities?

• A.

A. Clock.

• B.

B. Timer.

• C.

C. Input equipment.

• D.

D. Output equipment.

A. A. Clock.
Explanation
Page 13 Note

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• 8.

### 11. (202) What part of a computer acts like a sophisticated switchboard operator?

• A.

A. Memory.

• B.

B. Logic unit.

• C.

C. Control unit.

• D.

D. Arithmetic unit.

C. C. Control unit.
Explanation
Page 14 2nd line

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• 9.

### 12. (202) Where does the arithmetic/logic unit of a computer store the intermediate results of arithmetic operations?

• A.

A. Buffers.

• B.

B. Circuits.

• C.

C. Memory.

• D.

D. Registers.

D. D. Registers.
Explanation
Page 14 arithmetic/logic unit

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• 10.

### 13. (203) The primary computer memory that usually cannot be erased is called

• A.

A. random-access memory (RAM).

• B.

• C.

C. secondary.

• D.

D. auxiliary.

Explanation
Page 16

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• 11.

### 14. (203) Random-access memory is used to

• A.

A. provide secondary memory access.

• B.

B. provide auxiliary storage capabilities.

• C.

C. store computer operating information.

• D.

D. store information being calculated by the computer.

D. D. store information being calculated by the computer.
Explanation
See Page 16

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• 12.

### 15. (203) In a computer the term auxiliary storage refers to

• A.

A. specific storage locations.

• B.

B. the size and capacity of storage area.

• C.

C. memory stored outside the computer.

• D.

D. data processed through the main storage area.

C. C. memory stored outside the computer.
Explanation
I thought it was A but it's not see page 17

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• 13.

### 1. (201) Which was not a MIL-STD 1553 bus standard requirement?

• A.

A. Information was to have a very low level of data transfer determinism.

• B.

B. Information was to be transferred in a reliable, deterministic, command/response fashion.

• C.

C. Information was to be transferred between bus terminals via a digital serial communications c. Information was to be transferred between bus terminals via a digital serial communications channel.

• D.

D. Electrical interface requirements were to be defined by the standard for all bus terminals and bus terminal connections.

A. A. Information was to have a very low level of data transfer determinism.
Explanation
The correct answer is a. Information was to have a very low level of data transfer determinism. This means that the MIL-STD 1553 bus standard did not require the information to have a very predictable and consistent timing for data transfer.

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• 14.

### 4. The MIL-STD 1553 data bus system command that provides a mechanism for a bus terminal (RT) to send data to another RT when the bus controller (BC) does not require the data is called?

• A.

A. BC to RT.

• B.

B. RT to BC.

• C.

C. RT to RT.

• D.

D. BC to BC.

C. C. RT to RT.
Explanation
RT to RT. (Page 10 BC Commands)

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• 15.

### 5. Which is no a function of the MIL-STD 1553 data bus mode codes?

• A.

A. Resetting terminals.

• B.

B. Synchronizing the subsystem time.

• C.

C. Executing a bus controller (BC) broadcast command.

• D.

D. Commanding at bus terminal (RT) to initiate a system self-test.

C. C. Executing a bus controller (BC) broadcast command.
Explanation
c. Executing a bus controller (BC) broadcast command. (Page 10 Mode Codes)

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• 16.

### 16. (204) Using a text-based method to display characters and objects on a computer display refers to

• A.

A. using Windows-based programs.

• B.

B. displaying information in the form of individual dots.

• C.

C. displaying information in the form of printed characters.

• D.

D. communicating information from the central processing unit to the screen.

C. C. displaying information in the form of printed characters.
Explanation
(Page 19 Software Package)

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• 17.

### 17. (205) Internet protocols can best be described as a

• A.

A. way to communicate across interconnected networks.

• B.

B. way to print documents from any work station.

• C.

C. signal that produces radio frequencies.

• D.

D. relay between work stations.

A. A. way to communicate across interconnected networks.
Explanation
(Page 19 Internet Protocol)

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• 18.

### 18. (205) The switches within a network main function is to

• A.

A. build protocols to send across the network.

• B.

B. forward frames of information over a network.

• C.

c. generates a radio signal to extend range of a network.

• D.

D. enable several users to send information over a network.

D. D. enable several users to send information over a network.
Explanation
The switches within a network enable several users to send information over a network. Switches are networking devices that connect multiple devices together on a local area network (LAN). They receive incoming data packets and forward them to the appropriate destination device based on the MAC address. By doing so, switches allow multiple users to simultaneously send and receive information over the network, ensuring efficient and reliable communication.

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• 19.

### 19. (206) What is the technique where blocks of data can be segmented into numerous blocks so  can be written called?

• A.

A. Data striping.

• B.

B. Mirroring.

• C.

C. Bridging.

• D.

D. Parity.

A. A. Data striping.
Explanation
Data striping is a technique where blocks of data are divided into smaller blocks and written across multiple disks in a storage system. This technique improves performance and allows for parallel access to data. Mirroring involves creating an exact copy of data on multiple disks for redundancy. Bridging refers to connecting two or more networks together. Parity is a method used for error detection and correction in data storage. Therefore, the correct answer is a. Data striping.

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• 20.

### 20. (206) What redundant array of independent disks (RAID) level has no redundancy of data?

• A.

A. RAIDâ€“0.

• B.

B. RAIDâ€“1.

• C.

C. RAIDâ€“2.

• D.

D. RAIDâ€“3.

A. A. RAIDâ€“0.
Explanation
(Page 22)

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• 21.

### 21. (206) Which redundant array of independent disks (RAID) parity is distributed across all drives and eliminates a bottleneck?

• A.

A. RAIDâ€“2.

• B.

B. RAIDâ€“3.

• C.

C. RAIDâ€“4.

• D.

D. RAIDâ€“5.

D. D. RAIDâ€“5.
Explanation
See Page 23

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• 22.

### 22. (207) Shielded cable consists of a.

• A.

A. metallic braid over the insulation.

• B.

B. a metal conductor covered with a dielectric.

• C.

C. an inner conductor separated by an insulation dielectric.

• D.

D. a compact wire bundle with self-contained wire assemblies.

A. A. metallic braid over the insulation.
Explanation
(Page 37 top)

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• 23.

### 23. (208) Which is not a connector coupling type?

• A.

A. Friction.

• B.

B. Bayonet.

• C.

C. Insertion.

• D.

C. C. Insertion.
Explanation
(Page 37 electrical connector)

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• 24.

### 24. (208) Which is not a radio frequency (RF) connector precaution?

• A.

A. Never step on the cable.

• B.

B. Ensure a good grip when using pliers.

• C.

C. Ensure you solder double shielded cables together.

• D.

D. Ensure you do not exceed the bend radius of the cable.

B. B. Ensure a good grip when using pliers.
Explanation
(Page 41 RF connector precautions #2)

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• 25.

### 25. (209) Twisting an optic fiber during installation or maintenance results in

• A.

A. disturbances in lay uniformity

• B.

B. greater elasticity of the glass fibers.

• C.

C. reduced optical power transmission.

• D.

D. good tension control preventing loose or uneven standing.

C. C. reduced optical power transmission.
Explanation
I found A to be correct on Page 76 209 #2, but the key said C so I'm studying C

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• 26.

### 26. (209) In a fiber optic transmission, optoelectronic transducers

• A.

A. amplify output circuit signals.

• B.

B. convert electrical signals to light signals.

• C.

C. convert optical energy to electrical energy.

• D.

D. emit light when current is passed through them.

C. C. convert optical energy to electrical energy.
Explanation
(Page 45 Dectectors)

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• 27.

### 27. (210) Using exact dimensions for stripping wire ensures

• A.

A. radio frequency (RF) will not be impeded.

• B.

B. connectors will mate properly.

• C.

• D.

D. proper connection.

D. D. proper connection.
Explanation
(Page 48 last line)

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• 28.

### 28. (210) What type of solder is always used for electrical soldering?

• A.

A. Rosin core.

• B.

B. Solid core.

• C.

C. Hard.

• D.

D. Soft

A. A. Rosin core.
Explanation
(Page 50 solders)

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• 29.

### 29. (210) Rosin core flux must be used for electrical soldering because it has

• A.

A. softer materials.

• B.

B. harder materials.

• C.

C. noncorrosive effects.

• D.

D. a lower melting point.

C. C. noncorrosive effects.
Explanation
(Page 50 solders)

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• 30.

### 30. (210) Flux is designed to a. keep

• A.

A connection clean.

• B.

B. ensure electrical conductivity.

• C.

C. bond an electrical connection.

• D.

D. prevent oxygen from combining with metal.

D. D. prevent oxygen from combining with metal.
Explanation
(Page 50 flux)

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• 31.

### 31. (211) Proper care of an electric soldering iron involves

• A.

A. cooling the iron by dipping in water.

• B.

B. jerking the iron to remove excess solder.

• C.

C. tapping the iron on a table to remove excess solder.

• D.

D. keeping the iron in a proper holder when you are not using it.

D. D. keeping the iron in a proper holder when you are not using it.
Explanation
(Page 51 care of iron)

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• 32.

### 32. (212) Which is not a solderless connector type?

• A.

A. Splice.

• B.

B. Terminal lug.

• C.

C. Connector splice.

• D.

D. Connector plug pins.

C. C. Connector splice.
Explanation
(Page 52 solderless connectors)

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• 33.

### 33. (212) What solderless connector allows easy and efficient connections to electrical equipment?

• A.

A. Splice.

• B.

B. Terminal lug.

• C.

C. Connector splice.

• D.

D. Connector plug pins.

B. B. Terminal lug.
Explanation
(Page 52 terminal lug)

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• 34.

### 34. (213) Crimping tools were developed to ensure crimps

• A.

A. are properly stripped.

• B.

B. are insulated correctly.

• C.

C. could be quickly accomplished.

• D.

D. have a good mechanical connection.

D. D. have a good mechanical connection.
Explanation
(Page 54 Crimping tools)

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• 35.

### 35. (213) One purpose of crimper positioners is to

• A.

A. align crimper handles to pin contact.

• B.

B. put pin contacts in the proper position.

• C.

C. put the turret head in line with pin contact.

• D.

D. adjust the pressure applied to the connector pins.

B. B. put pin contacts in the proper position.
Explanation
(Page 55 3rd para)

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• 36.

### 36. (213) The colored end of an insertion and extraction tool is used for contact

• A.

A. insertion into a rear-release connector plug.

• B.

B. insertion into a front-release connector plug.

• C.

C. extraction from a rear-release connector plug.

• D.

D. extraction from a front-release connector plug.

A. A. insertion into a rear-release connector plug.
Explanation
The colored end of an insertion and extraction tool is used for contact insertion into a rear-release connector plug.

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• 37.

### 37. (215) Before performing any type of wire repair, you must consult the procedures in TO

• A.

A. 1â€“1Aâ€“14, Installation Practices for Aircraft Electric and Electronic Wiring.

• B.

B. 1â€“1Aâ€“15, General Maintenance Instructions for Support Equipment.

• C.

C. 1â€“1Aâ€“16, Electronic Wiring.

• D.

D. 1â€“1Aâ€“18, Practices for Aircraft Electric.

A. A. 1â€“1Aâ€“14, Installation Practices for Aircraft Electric and Electronic Wiring.
Explanation
Before performing any type of wire repair, it is important to consult the procedures in TO 1â€“1Aâ€“14, Installation Practices for Aircraft Electric and Electronic Wiring. This manual provides guidelines and instructions for proper installation practices, ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the wire repair. It covers various aspects such as wire routing, securing, and termination techniques, as well as maintenance and inspection procedures. Following these procedures is crucial to maintain the integrity and reliability of the aircraft's electrical and electronic wiring system.

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• 38.

### 38. (215) As a flightline technician, you can repair up to

• A.

A. 20 percent of the inner shield circumference of an electromagnetic pulse (EMP) hardened cable.

• B.

B. 20 percent of the outer shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable.

• C.

C. 25 percent of the inner shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable.

• D.

D. 25 percent of the outer shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable

D. D. 25 percent of the outer shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable
Explanation
(Page 66 outer shield)

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• 39.

### 39. (215) Before performing a wire repair, you must

• A.

A. ensure proper lighting.

• B.

B. inventory the required tools.

• C.

C. observe the warnings for using heat tools on aircraft.

• D.

D. read all procedures in TO 1â€“1Aâ€“14, Installation Practices for Aircraft Electric and Electronic Wiring.

D. D. read all procedures in TO 1â€“1Aâ€“14, Installation Practices for Aircraft Electric and Electronic Wiring.
Explanation
Before performing a wire repair, it is important to read all procedures in TO 1â€“1Aâ€“14, Installation Practices for Aircraft Electric and Electronic Wiring. This ensures that the repair is done correctly and in accordance with the established guidelines and standards. Reading the procedures helps to understand the specific steps and precautions that need to be taken during the repair process. It also helps to ensure that the repair is done safely and efficiently, minimizing the risk of errors or damage to the aircraft.

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• 40.

### 40. (216) Which is not considered a general precaution when lacing or tying wire groups or bundles?

• A.

A. Lace or tie bundles tightly enough to prevent slipping.

• B.

B. Tie all wire groups or bundles 12 inches or less apart.

• C.

C. Do not use ties on any part of a wire group or bundle that is located inside a conduit.

• D.

D. When tying wire bundles behind connectors, start ties far enough back from the connector to avoid playing (spreading) of contacts.

B. B. Tie all wire groups or bundles 12 inches or less apart.
Explanation
(Page 70 General Precautions)

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• 41.

### 41. (217) Which is not an Air Force inspection concept?

• A.

A. Periodic.

• B.

B. Phased.

• C.

C. Preflight.

• D.

D. Isochronal.

C. C. Preflight.
Explanation
A Preflight is just a Preflight it's not an inspection (Page 82 217.)

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• 42.

### 42. (217) Which statement best describes the programmed depot maintenance inspection concept?

• A.

A. May use contingency inspection workcard decks for a limited period of time.

• B.

B. Consists of inspections requiring skills beyond that of a normal operating unit. (Page 82)

• C.

C. Applies to all units in the Air Force, regardless of type of aircraft.

• D.

D. May use contingency inspection workcard decks for a limited period of time, consists of inspections requiring skills beyond that of a normal operating unit and applies to all units in the Air Force, regardless of type of aircraft.

D. D. May use contingency inspection workcard decks for a limited period of time, consists of inspections requiring skills beyond that of a normal operating unit and applies to all units in the Air Force, regardless of type of aircraft.
Explanation
The programmed depot maintenance inspection concept involves several aspects. Firstly, it may involve the use of contingency inspection workcard decks, but only for a limited period of time. Secondly, it consists of inspections that require skills beyond those of a normal operating unit. Lastly, this concept applies to all units in the Air Force, regardless of the type of aircraft. Therefore, the correct answer is d.

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• 43.

### 43. (217) Which inspection is designed to reduce the time an aircraft is out of commission for any given inspection?

• A.

A. Major.

• B.

B. Phase.

• C.

C. Preflight.

• D.

D. Hourly postflight.

B. B. Phase.
Explanation
(Page 85 4th para phase)

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• 44.

### 44. (218) Which inspection is a thorough and searching “look, see, and fix” of the aircraft?

• A.

A. Major.

• B.

B. Isochronal.

• C.

C. Basic postflight.

• D.

D. Home station check.

A. A. Major.
Explanation
(Page 86 1st line)

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• 45.

### 45. (218) What type maintenance is performed on aircraft that requires completion of an immediate action time compliance technical order (TCTO)?

• A.

A. Routine.

• B.

B. Scheduled.

• C.

C. Unscheduled.

• D.

d. Preventative.

C. C. Unscheduled.
Explanation
(Page 86 Last Sentence)

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• 46.

### 46. (219) Which inspection includes a review of the forms for current status, a visual inspection of equipment for defects, and adequate servicing?

• A.

A. Special.

• B.

B. Operator.

• C.

C. Acceptance.

• D.

D. Periodic and scheduled lubrication.

B. B. Operator.
Explanation
(Page 88 Operator Inspection)

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• 47.

### 47. (220) What symbol is placed in Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781A when an item is lost in or around an aircraft?

• A.

A. Red dash.

• B.

B. Red diagonal.

• C.

C. Red X.

• D.

D. Circled Red X.

C. C. Red X.
Explanation
When an item is lost in or around an aircraft, a Red X symbol is placed in the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781A. This symbol indicates that the item is missing and needs to be located or replaced.

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• 48.

### 48. (220) Which is not a dropped object under dropped object program (DOP)?

• A.

A. Fastener.

• B.

B. Munitions.

• C.

C. Aircraft panel.

• D.

D. Line replaceable unit (LRU).

B. B. Munitions.
Explanation
(Page 92 Dropped object prevention)

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• 49.

### 49. (221) Errors in the orbit and clock data of the global positioning system satellites are detected in the

• A.

A. satellites.

• B.

B. monitor stations.

• C.

C. master control station.

• D.

D. global positioning system.

B. B. monitor stations.
Explanation
(Page 99 Overall system function)

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• 50.

### 50. (221) How many radio frequency signals are transmitted from each global positioning system satellite?

• A.

A. None, they are passive.

• B.

B. Two, called L1 and L2.

• C.

• D.

B. B. Two, called L1 and L2.
Explanation
(Page 101 Satellite segment)

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• Current Version
• Mar 18, 2023
Quiz Edited by
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• May 09, 2014
Quiz Created by
Darren

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