2a253 Volume 3 CDC

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1. (419) Taking direction measurements from more than one source is

Explanation

Triangulation is the process of determining the location of an object by measuring angles to it from two or more reference points. In the context of direction measurements, taking measurements from more than one source allows for triangulation, as it involves using multiple reference points to determine the direction of the object. This method is commonly used in navigation, surveying, and astronomy to determine the position or direction of objects.

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About This Quiz
2a253 Volume 3 CDC - Quiz

This is a study guide to help airman study for there end of course test. Not filling out there bubble sheets. End of disclaimer enjoy your studying. CDC 2A253N
SOF/PR Electronic Warfare Systems Journeyman
Volume 3. Electronic Warfare Principles and Support Equipment
2A253N 03 1308, Edit Code 01
AFSC 2A253

Personalize your quiz and earn a certificate with your name on it!
2. 64. (426) What type of threat are flares used to counter? 

Explanation

Flares are used to counter infrared missiles. Infrared missiles use heat-seeking technology to track and target aircraft. Flares are small, heat-emitting devices that can be deployed from an aircraft to divert the attention of the missile away from the aircraft's heat signature. When the flare is released, it produces a bright light and heat source that attracts the missile, causing it to veer off course and miss its intended target. This countermeasure is effective in confusing and distracting infrared missiles, providing a means of defense for aircraft.

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3. 65. (426) What important tactic must be performed with flare deployment to defeat infrared threats effectively? 

Explanation

To defeat infrared threats effectively, an important tactic that must be performed with flare deployment is an evasive maneuver. This involves maneuvering the aircraft in a way that makes it difficult for the infrared-guided missiles to track and hit the aircraft. By performing evasive maneuvers, the aircraft can change its direction, speed, and altitude, making it harder for the missiles to accurately lock onto the aircraft and increasing the chances of evading the threat.

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4. 77. (433) What is the most commonly used wiring diagnostic tool that identifies if a circuit is open or closed?

Explanation

A digital multi-meter is the most commonly used wiring diagnostic tool for identifying if a circuit is open or closed. This tool measures voltage, current, and resistance, allowing technicians to test the continuity of a circuit and determine if it is functioning properly. It can easily detect if a circuit is open (broken) or closed (complete), making it an essential tool for troubleshooting electrical systems.

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5. 78. (433) What connects to the digital multi-meter for taking measurements?

Explanation

Test probes are connected to a digital multi-meter for taking measurements. Test probes are used to make electrical connections between the circuit being measured and the multi-meter. They typically have a pointed tip for probing into the circuit and a connector that plugs into the multi-meter. By connecting the test probes to the appropriate points in the circuit, the multi-meter can measure various electrical quantities such as voltage, current, and resistance.

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6. 13. (403) What Air Force aircraft is used to perform the Wild Weasel mission?

Explanation

The F-16CJ is used to perform the Wild Weasel mission. The Wild Weasel mission involves suppressing enemy air defenses by locating and destroying surface-to-air missile sites. The F-16CJ is equipped with advanced electronic warfare systems and can carry anti-radiation missiles to target and neutralize enemy air defense systems. The other options (EA-6B, EF-111, and F/A-18) are also capable of performing electronic warfare missions, but the F-16CJ is specifically designed for the Wild Weasel mission.

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7. 15. (403) What type of electromagnetic jamming focuses all of the jamming energy in one particular area?

Explanation

Directional electromagnetic jamming focuses all of the jamming energy in one particular area. This type of jamming is used to disrupt or disable specific targets within a larger area, rather than affecting a broad range of targets. It allows for precise targeting and can be used to effectively disrupt enemy communications or radar systems.

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8. 19. (404) Emission control is important because it

Explanation

Emission control is important because it limits incidental or accidental emissions. This means that by implementing emission control measures, the release of pollutants into the environment can be reduced or prevented. This is crucial for protecting human health, as well as the health of ecosystems and the planet as a whole. By limiting incidental or accidental emissions, we can work towards creating a cleaner and more sustainable environment.

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9. 20. (404) The processes and actions necessary to protect your equipment from the effects of an electromagnetic pulse produced by an atomic blast are described as

Explanation

The correct answer is b. electromagnetic hardening. Electromagnetic hardening refers to the processes and actions taken to protect equipment from the effects of an electromagnetic pulse (EMP) produced by an atomic blast. This can involve shielding the equipment, using surge protectors, and implementing other measures to ensure that the equipment remains functional in the event of an EMP.

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10. 32. (411) Which radar display indicator displays range or velocity?

Explanation

The correct answer is a. A scope. A scope is a radar display indicator that displays range or velocity. It provides a visual representation of the radar data, showing the distance or speed of detected objects. The A scope is typically used for displaying range information, while the B scope is used for displaying velocity information. Range height and plan position are not radar display indicators that specifically display range or velocity.

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11. 49. (418) What component of the RWR selects the mode of operation?

Explanation

The interface control unit is responsible for selecting the mode of operation in the RWR. It controls the communication between different components and allows the user to switch between different modes. The scope provides visual display, the signal processor processes the received signals, and the receiver/amplifier amplifies the signals, but none of these components are responsible for selecting the mode of operation.

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12. 56. (422) Which is not considered a requirement for a radar noise jamming transmitter? 

Explanation

The requirement for a radar noise jamming transmitter does not include low cost. The other options, such as standardization, ease of operation, and continuous transmission, are considered important requirements for a radar noise jamming transmitter.

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13. 52. (420) Altering a carrier wave in accordance with a signal voltage is called 

Explanation

Modulation is the process of altering a carrier wave in accordance with a signal voltage. This allows the signal to be transmitted over long distances and received by a receiver. Deviation refers to the difference between the highest and lowest frequency of a modulated wave, deception is not related to altering a carrier wave, and amplification refers to increasing the amplitude of a signal. Therefore, the correct answer is c. modulation.

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14. 75. (431) The power meter displays absolute power in either watts or

Explanation

The power meter displays absolute power in either watts or dBm. dBm is a unit used to measure power levels in decibels relative to 1 milliwatt. It is commonly used in telecommunications and signal processing to express power ratios. The other options, dMb, Dm, and Dbm, are not valid units of measurement for power.

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15. 11. (403) What division of EW involves weapons that use electromagnetic or directed energy as their primary destructive mechanism?

Explanation

Electronic attack involves weapons that use electromagnetic or directed energy as their primary destructive mechanism. This can include jamming enemy radar systems, disrupting communications, or disabling electronic devices. Electronic support refers to the collection and analysis of electronic signals for intelligence purposes. Electronic detection involves the identification and tracking of electronic signals. Electronic protection focuses on measures to defend against electronic attacks and ensure the security of electronic systems.

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16. 14. (403) What missile uses an electro-optical or infrared imaging system to perform EA?

Explanation

The correct answer is a. AGM-65. The AGM-65 missile uses an electro-optical or infrared imaging system to perform EA (Electronic Attack). This system allows the missile to track and engage targets using visual or heat signatures, making it effective against both air and ground targets. The AGM-88 and BDU-88 are not known for their electro-optical or infrared imaging systems, and the BDU-65 is not a missile at all.

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17. 90. (439) What radio frequency transmission line test set (RFTLTS) test is based on a ratio of power out of a unit under test (UUT) to the RFTLTS power fed into the UUT?

Explanation

The correct answer is a. Insertion loss. The ratio of power out of a unit under test (UUT) to the power fed into the UUT is known as insertion loss. This test measures the amount of power loss that occurs when a component or device is inserted into a transmission line. It is commonly used to evaluate the performance of RF components such as filters, amplifiers, and connectors.

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18. 16. (403) What aircraft is used to jam communications of the enemy's C2 network?

Explanation

The EC-140H is the correct answer because it is an aircraft specifically designed for electronic warfare and is used to jam the communications of the enemy's command and control (C2) network. The other options, E-6B, EF-111, and F-16CJ, are not primarily used for jamming communications.

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19. 2. (401) What is the most permanent effective means of denying the enemy the use of the electromagnetic spectrum?

Explanation

The most permanent effective means of denying the enemy the use of the electromagnetic spectrum is destruction. This means completely destroying the enemy's equipment or infrastructure that allows them to utilize the electromagnetic spectrum. By doing so, the enemy will no longer have the ability to communicate or gather information through the use of electronic devices, effectively denying them the use of the electromagnetic spectrum.

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20. 1. (401) What is the first step in EW that is essential to develop an accurate EOB?

Explanation

The first step in EW (Electronic Warfare) that is essential to develop an accurate EOB (Electronic Order of Battle) is detection. Detection involves identifying and locating the enemy's electronic emissions, such as radar signals or communication transmissions. By detecting these emissions, the EW operator can gather information about the enemy's electronic capabilities and use it to develop an accurate EOB. This information is crucial for planning and executing effective electronic warfare operations.

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21. 92. (440) What countermeasures dispenser tester (CDT) functional check measures the firing pulse amplitude and pulse duration?

Explanation

The countermeasures dispenser tester (CDT) functional check that measures the firing pulse amplitude and pulse duration is the "Fire" test. This test is used to ensure that the dispenser is able to properly release countermeasures in response to a threat. By measuring the firing pulse amplitude and pulse duration, the tester can verify that the dispenser is functioning correctly and will effectively deploy the countermeasures when needed.

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22. 6. (401) ES data are not used to produce

Explanation

ES data refers to electronic support data, which is information collected from electronic sources such as radars, communication systems, and electronic warfare systems. This data is used to produce various types of intelligence, including signal intelligence, electronic intelligence, and communications intelligence. However, it is not used to produce ballistic intelligence, which is the intelligence related to the trajectory, behavior, and characteristics of ballistic missiles or projectiles.

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23. 7. (402) To control an adversary's C2 capabilities, C2W integrates destruction,

Explanation

C2W, or Command and Control Warfare, is an approach used to disrupt and neutralize an adversary's command and control capabilities. It involves the integration of various tactics and strategies to achieve this goal. The correct answer, option d, includes all the key components of C2W. Electronic warfare is used to disrupt and degrade the adversary's electronic systems. Military deception is employed to mislead and confuse the adversary. Operational security is implemented to protect friendly operations and prevent the adversary from gaining information. Psychological operations are conducted to influence the adversary's decision-making process. Therefore, option d is the most comprehensive and accurate answer.

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24. 35. (412) In relation to land and water, thermal crossover indicates both objects

Explanation

Thermal crossover refers to the point at which the temperature of land and water become equal. This means that both objects have the same temperature.

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25. 42. (415) What is one disadvantage of active MAWS?

Explanation

Active MAWS (Missile Approach Warning System) emits electromagnetic signals to detect and track incoming missiles. One disadvantage of active MAWS is that it can be tracked by passive detection. Passive detection systems do not emit any signals, making them harder to detect and track compared to active systems. This puts active MAWS at a disadvantage as it can be easily identified and potentially targeted by enemy passive detection systems.

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26. 47. (418) What range of coverage does the RWR's antennas provide?

Explanation

The RWR's antennas provide a range of coverage of 360°, meaning they can detect threats from all directions around the aircraft. This ensures that the aircraft is aware of any potential threats and can take appropriate action to avoid them.

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27. 62. (425) What chaff dispensing tactic confuses radar operators with multiple false targets? 

Explanation

Area saturation is a chaff dispensing tactic that confuses radar operators with multiple false targets. By releasing a large amount of chaff in a specific area, the radar screen becomes cluttered with numerous blips, making it difficult for operators to distinguish between real targets and the false ones created by the chaff. This tactic is effective in diverting enemy radar-guided missiles or aircraft away from the actual target, providing a greater chance of survival for the aircraft deploying the chaff.

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28. 63. (425) Which chaff tactic dispenses large quantities of chaff in a continuous ribbon? 

Explanation

Corridor operation is the chaff tactic that dispenses large quantities of chaff in a continuous ribbon. This tactic involves releasing chaff in a concentrated manner along a specific corridor, creating a dense cloud that can confuse enemy radar systems and make it difficult for them to track the aircraft. Area saturation involves dispersing chaff over a wide area, self-protection refers to the use of chaff to protect the aircraft from incoming threats, and preplanned burst involves releasing chaff in predetermined bursts to create a specific radar signature.

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29. 67. (427) What type of decoy provides a sufficient miss distance between the attacking missile and the aircraft? 

Explanation

Towed decoys are designed to create a sufficient miss distance between the attacking missile and the aircraft. These decoys are attached to the aircraft by a cable and are towed behind, creating a separation between the aircraft and the decoy. This helps to divert the attention of the attacking missile away from the aircraft and towards the decoy, increasing the chances of the missile missing its target. Towed decoys are an effective countermeasure against missile threats and provide a valuable defense mechanism for aircraft.

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30. 9. (402) Normal SEAD targets include radars for acquisition,

Explanation

The correct answer is d. antiaircraft artillery, early warning/ground controlled intercept, and SAM. This answer is correct because SEAD (Suppression of Enemy Air Defenses) targets include a range of radar systems that are used for acquisition, antiaircraft artillery, early warning/ground controlled intercept, and SAM (Surface-to-Air Missile) systems. SEAD missions aim to neutralize or destroy these various air defense systems to establish air superiority and allow friendly aircraft to operate effectively.

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31. 10. (402) What SAM system in North Vietnam was devastating to our strike forces?

Explanation

The SA-2 SAM system in North Vietnam was devastating to our strike forces. This surface-to-air missile system, also known as the Guideline, was highly effective in shooting down American aircraft during the Vietnam War. It had a long range and was capable of reaching high altitudes, making it a significant threat to our strike forces. The SA-2 system played a major role in the air defense network of North Vietnam and caused significant losses to the US military.

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32. 84. (436) What classification is the Emitter Library Module when it contains a library?

Explanation

The Emitter Library Module is classified as "Secret" when it contains a library. This means that the information stored in the module is considered to be highly sensitive and should only be accessed by individuals with the appropriate security clearance. The classification of "Secret" indicates that the information contained in the module could potentially cause serious damage if it were to be accessed or disclosed by unauthorized individuals.

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33. 5. (401) What EW component locates intentional and unintentional radiated electromagnetic energy for threat recognition?

Explanation

Electronic support is the correct answer because it refers to the component that locates intentional and unintentional radiated electromagnetic energy for threat recognition. Electronic support systems are used to gather information about the electromagnetic spectrum, including detecting and identifying radar signals, communications signals, and other electronic emissions. This information is then used for threat recognition and analysis. Electronic attack, electronic protection, and electronic management are all different components of electronic warfare, but they do not specifically refer to the function of locating radiated electromagnetic energy for threat recognition.

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34. 21. (405) The steps taken to locate the intentional and unintentional emissions from radar equipment is described as electronic

Explanation

The steps taken to locate intentional and unintentional emissions from radar equipment are described as electronic support. Electronic support involves identifying and analyzing electronic emissions to gather information about potential threats or to support friendly operations. It includes activities such as electronic surveillance, electronic reconnaissance, and electronic intelligence gathering. This helps in understanding the electronic environment and providing support to military operations.

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35. 22. (405) What are EW reconnaissance crews called?

Explanation

EW reconnaissance crews are called "Ravens" because they specialize in Electronic Warfare (EW) reconnaissance. The term "Ravens" is likely used to symbolize their ability to gather information and intelligence using electronic signals and communications, similar to how ravens are known for their intelligence and ability to gather information in the animal kingdom. The other options, such as "Crows," "Ferrets," and "Sparks," do not have any specific association with EW reconnaissance and are therefore incorrect.

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36. 100. (443) The common aircraft portable reprogramming equipment (CAPRE) requires visual inspection of components

Explanation

The correct answer is d. annually. The common aircraft portable reprogramming equipment (CAPRE) needs to undergo visual inspection of its components once a year. This is necessary to ensure that all the components are in proper working condition and to identify any potential issues or damages that may affect the equipment's performance. Regular inspections help in maintaining the reliability and effectiveness of the CAPRE, allowing it to function optimally when needed.

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37. 34. (412) What IR detector device requires a bias current or voltage to operate?

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Photoconductive. A photoconductive device is a type of IR detector that operates by changing its electrical conductivity when exposed to infrared radiation. To function properly, a bias current or voltage is required to provide the necessary electrical energy for the device to detect and respond to IR radiation. Photovoltaic devices convert light directly into electricity, photographic devices are used to capture images, and photoemissive devices emit electrons when exposed to light. None of these devices require a bias current or voltage to operate.

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38. 40. (414) Using a modulated high intensity IR energy to break an IR missile's lock, is an example of

Explanation

Using a modulated high intensity IR energy to break an IR missile's lock refers to the use of active infrared countermeasures. This involves emitting a strong infrared signal to interfere with the missile's infrared seeker, causing it to lose track of its target. This technique is an example of actively countering the missile's guidance system, rather than passively relying on the natural environment or deploying other defensive measures like flares or smoke.

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39. 41. (415) What feature of a MAWS relates to timeliness?

Explanation

The feature of a MAWS that relates to timeliness is the rapid identification of infrared missile threats. This means that the MAWS can quickly detect and identify incoming infrared missiles, allowing for timely response and countermeasures to be taken. This is important in order to minimize the potential damage and threat posed by these missiles. The other options, such as low false alarm rate, accurate threat positioning reporting, and multiple false targets due to maneuvers, do not directly relate to timeliness.

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40. 43. (416) A nonlinear device is any electronic device where the

Explanation

A nonlinear device is characterized by the fact that the current through the device is not proportional to the applied voltage. In other words, the relationship between current and voltage is not a straight line. This means that as the voltage changes, the current does not change in a linear manner. Nonlinear devices are commonly found in electronic circuits and can have complex behaviors and characteristics.

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41. 44. (416) When performing heterodyning of two different RF signals, the output will be the

Explanation

When performing heterodyning of two different RF signals, the output will contain the sum and difference frequencies of the two original signals, as well as the two original frequencies themselves. This is because heterodyning involves mixing two signals together, resulting in the creation of new frequencies that are the sum and difference of the original frequencies. Therefore, the correct answer is c. sum, difference, and two original frequencies.

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42. 61. (425) Each strip of chaff is a dipole reflector that is cut to

Explanation

Each strip of chaff is a dipole reflector, which means it consists of two conductive elements separated by a small gap. When radar waves hit the chaff, they induce an electric current in the conductive elements, causing them to radiate electromagnetic waves. The length of each strip of chaff is designed to be one-half the wavelength of the radar's frequency. This length is chosen because it allows for efficient reflection and scattering of the radar waves, maximizing the effectiveness of the chaff as a countermeasure. Therefore, the correct answer is b. one-half the wavelength of the radar's frequency.

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43. 66. (426) What type of flare does not leave a visual signature such as smoke or flame?

Explanation

A covert flare does not leave a visual signature such as smoke or flame. This means that it can be used without being easily detected by others. Kinematic, pyrotechnic, and conventional flares all have some form of visual signature, whether it be smoke or flame, making them more easily detectable. Therefore, the correct answer is a. Covert.

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44. 68. (427) What is the primary limitation of a towed decoy system? 

Explanation

The primary limitation of a towed decoy system is achieving 360° coverage. This means that the system may not be able to effectively protect the aircraft from threats coming from all directions. Other limitations mentioned in the options, such as separation between the decoy and the aircraft, the number of decoys that can be carried, and the time required for decoy deployment, are not mentioned as the primary limitation of the system.

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45. 71. (429) Using a time domain reflectometer, the distance to the discontinuity of a cable is determined by the 

Explanation

The distance to the discontinuity of a cable is determined by the reflected amplitude between the transmitted and reflected pulses. This is because when a signal is transmitted down a cable and encounters a discontinuity, a portion of the signal is reflected back towards the source. The amplitude of this reflected signal can be measured and analyzed to determine the distance to the discontinuity. By comparing the amplitude of the transmitted pulse with the amplitude of the reflected pulse, the location of the discontinuity can be determined.

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46. 8. (402) What support system provides detection and control of low-level aircraft beyond coverage of ground-based radars?

Explanation

AWACS stands for Airborne Warning and Control System. It is an advanced radar system mounted on an aircraft that provides detection and control of low-level aircraft beyond the coverage of ground-based radars. AWACS is able to detect and track aircraft at long ranges, providing valuable information for air defense operations. This system is commonly used by military forces to enhance their situational awareness and command and control capabilities in the air domain.

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47. 89. (439) The radio frequency transmission line test set (RFTLTS) is used to diagnose cable faults through voltage standing wave ratio (VSWR)/return loss measurements and

Explanation

The radio frequency transmission line test set (RFTLTS) is specifically designed to diagnose cable faults through voltage standing wave ratio (VSWR)/return loss measurements, as well as distance-to-fault measurements. The given answer, d. distance-to-fault measurements, accurately describes one of the main functions of the RFTLTS.

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48. 3. (401) The major components of EW are electronic

Explanation

The correct answer is a. attack, electronic support, and electronic protection. Electronic warfare (EW) involves three major components: attack, electronic support, and electronic protection. Attack refers to the use of electronic systems to disrupt or disable enemy electronic systems. Electronic support involves gathering and analyzing electronic signals to gain information about enemy activities. Electronic protection involves measures taken to protect friendly electronic systems from enemy attacks.

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49. 93. (441) What describes in detail how an Electronic Warfare Integrated Reprogramming (EWIR) change affects an electronic warfare system (EWS)?

Explanation

A Reprogramming Impact Message (RIM) describes in detail how an Electronic Warfare Integrated Reprogramming (EWIR) change affects an electronic warfare system (EWS). It provides information about the impact of the reprogramming on the system, including any changes or updates that need to be made. The RIM helps ensure that the EWS is properly configured and functioning after the reprogramming is implemented.

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50. 23. (405) The pulse analyzer does not measure

Explanation

The pulse analyzer is a device used to measure various characteristics of pulses, such as pulse width, scan rate, and scan type. However, it does not measure magnetic energy. Magnetic energy is a different parameter that is not directly related to the characteristics of a pulse. Therefore, option b is the correct answer.

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51. 97. (442) What category of exercise evaluates the entire Electronic Warfare Integrated Reprogramming (EWIR) process?

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Air Force directed. This category of exercise evaluates the entire Electronic Warfare Integrated Reprogramming (EWIR) process. This means that the exercise is directed by the Air Force and encompasses all aspects of the EWIR process. The other options, locally directed, MAJCOM directed, and maintenance directed, do not encompass the entire process and are therefore not the correct answer.

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52. 98. (442) Which is an Air Force reprogramming exercise?

Explanation

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53. 99. (443) The common aircraft portable reprogramming equipment (CAPRE) is powered by

Explanation

The common aircraft portable reprogramming equipment (CAPRE) requires both an AC adapter and a lithium-ion battery to be powered. This suggests that the equipment needs a constant source of power from the AC adapter, but also requires a backup power source in the form of a lithium-ion battery. This ensures that the equipment can still function even if the AC power is not available or if there is a power outage.

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54. 28. (408) Because of its range capabilities, the AI is generally

Explanation

The correct answer is c. the first of the air defense weapon systems to pose a problem for an approaching force. This answer suggests that the AI has the capability to pose a threat to an approaching force before other air defense weapon systems.

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55. 29. (409) Which of these is an important part of the C2 system?

Explanation

The C2 system, which stands for Command and Control system, is a crucial component in military operations. It involves the coordination and management of forces, assets, and resources. Among the options provided, the computer is an important part of the C2 system as it allows for data processing, communication, and decision-making. It enables commanders to gather information, analyze it, and make informed decisions in real-time. The computer helps in integrating and synchronizing various elements of the C2 system, ensuring effective command and control of military operations.

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56. 37. (413) Most IR missiles operate in the region of

Explanation

Most IR missiles operate in the region of 1 to 5 microns. This is because this range falls within the mid-infrared region, which is commonly used for IR missile detection and tracking. In this range, the atmosphere is relatively transparent, allowing for efficient transmission of IR radiation. Additionally, many materials, such as metals and certain gases, emit significant amounts of IR radiation in this range, making it easier for IR missiles to detect and track targets.

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57. 60. (424) What type of deception jamming makes use of the Doppler shift?

Explanation

Velocity deception jamming makes use of the Doppler shift. The Doppler shift is the change in frequency or wavelength of a wave in relation to an observer who is moving relative to the source of the wave. In velocity deception jamming, the jammer mimics the Doppler shift caused by the target's velocity, creating false target velocities to deceive radar systems. This type of jamming can confuse radar systems and make it difficult for them to accurately track and identify targets.

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58. 73. (429) When determining distance from the time domain reflectometer (TDR) to the discontinuity, count the number of cathode ray tube (CRT) divisions between the 

Explanation

When determining the distance from the time domain reflectometer (TDR) to the discontinuity, one should count the number of cathode ray tube (CRT) divisions between the leading edge of the incident pulse and the leading edge of the reflected pulse. This is because the leading edge of the incident pulse represents the point where the signal is first sent out, and the leading edge of the reflected pulse represents the point where the signal is received back after reflecting off the discontinuity. By counting the divisions between these two points, one can determine the distance to the discontinuity.

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59. 74. (430) A spectrum analyzer is a receiver, with the output of a

Explanation

A spectrum analyzer is a device used to measure and display the frequency spectrum of a signal. It typically uses a cathode-ray tube (CRT) display to show the frequency components of the signal. This is because a CRT display can visually represent the frequency spectrum in a clear and precise manner, allowing the user to easily analyze and interpret the signal. Therefore, option d, which states that a spectrum analyzer uses a cathode-ray tube display instead of a speaker, is the correct answer.

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60. 82. (435) What class of laser does the multipurpose electro-optical end-to-end tester (MEON) test use?

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Class 4. The multipurpose electro-optical end-to-end tester (MEON) test uses a Class 4 laser. Class 4 lasers are high-power lasers that can cause severe eye and skin injuries and can also ignite combustible materials. Therefore, they require special precautions and safety measures to be taken during their use.

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61. 83. (436) The frequency range of the PLM–4/Radar Signal Simulator is 0.5 to 18

Explanation

The PLM-4/Radar Signal Simulator has a frequency range of 0.5 to 18 GHz. This means that it can generate signals within this frequency range for radar testing and simulation purposes. The frequency range is given in gigahertz (GHz), which is a unit of frequency commonly used for high-frequency signals.

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62. 85. (436) What should you always do prior to using the PLM–4?

Explanation

Prior to using the PLM-4, it is important to give it a visual inspection. This ensures that there are no visible damages or issues with the equipment that could affect its functionality or safety. By visually inspecting the PLM-4, any potential problems can be identified and addressed before using it, preventing any accidents or malfunctions during operation.

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63. 18. (403) A repeater jamming technique that copies enemy radar pulses and returns incorrect target information to the enemy radar is an example of

Explanation

The correct answer is a. imitative deception. This is because the technique described in the question involves copying enemy radar pulses and returning incorrect target information to deceive the enemy radar. By imitating the enemy radar pulses and providing false target information, this technique aims to deceive the enemy and mislead their radar systems. Therefore, it can be classified as imitative deception.

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64. 4. (401) Frequency agility and changing PRF are examples of electronic

Explanation

Frequency agility and changing PRF (Pulse Repetition Frequency) are techniques used to protect electronic systems from being detected or jammed by enemy forces. By constantly changing the frequency and PRF, electronic systems can avoid being targeted or disrupted. These techniques are considered protective measures because they enhance the security and survivability of the electronic systems.

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65. 24. (406) What major subdivision of SIGINT collects and processes data on radar?

Explanation

ELINT, or Electronic Intelligence, is the major subdivision of SIGINT (Signals Intelligence) that collects and processes data on radar. ELINT focuses on gathering information about electronic signals emitted by radar systems, including their frequency, location, and capabilities. This information is crucial for understanding and analyzing enemy radar systems, as well as developing countermeasures and tactics to counter them. PHOTINT (Photographic Intelligence) focuses on collecting and analyzing imagery, HUMINT (Human Intelligence) relies on information gathered from human sources, and COMINT (Communications Intelligence) deals with intercepted communications.

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66. 26. (407) What is the normal correct order in which the four radars in an air defense network are used?

Explanation

The correct order in which the four radars in an air defense network are used is early warning, height finder, acquisition, and terminal defense. This order allows for the detection of incoming threats at a distance (early warning), determining the altitude of the threat (height finder), tracking and identifying the threat (acquisition), and finally engaging and neutralizing the threat (terminal defense). This sequence ensures a systematic and effective response to potential threats.

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67. 30. (409) What additions to the C2 network extend the range of the air defense system?

Explanation

Long-range interceptors and AWACS (Airborne Warning and Control System) are the additions to the C2 (Command and Control) network that extend the range of the air defense system. Long-range interceptors are capable of engaging targets at a greater distance, while AWACS provides surveillance and command capabilities, allowing for better coordination and control of air defense operations. Together, these additions enhance the effectiveness and coverage of the air defense system by extending its range and improving situational awareness.

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68. 12. (403) The primary missile used to destroy enemy radar-equipped air defense systems is the

Explanation

The AGM-88 is the primary missile used to destroy enemy radar-equipped air defense systems. This missile, also known as the High-Speed Anti-Radiation Missile (HARM), is specifically designed to home in on and destroy radar systems. It is capable of detecting and targeting radar emissions, making it an effective weapon against air defense systems. The other options, AGM-65, BDU-65, and BDU-88, are not specifically designed for this purpose and do not have the same capabilities as the AGM-88.

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69. 80. (434) The maximum wavelength the light source can produce, in the fiber optic test set, is?

Explanation

The maximum wavelength that the light source can produce in the fiber optic test set is 1550 nm. This means that the light emitted by the source has a wavelength of 1550 nm or less.

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70. 81. (435) The multipurpose electro-optical end-to-end tester (MEON) sources is harmful to eyes and skin at ranges less than

Explanation

The correct answer is a. 3ft. The multipurpose electro-optical end-to-end tester (MEON) sources emit harmful radiation that can be damaging to the eyes and skin. To ensure safety, it is recommended to maintain a distance of at least 3ft to minimize the risk of exposure to this harmful radiation.

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71. 55. (421) The most common device used to connect the sections of a wave guide is the

Explanation

The correct answer is c. choke joint. A choke joint is a device used to connect the sections of a waveguide. It is designed to prevent the propagation of certain frequencies or signals, allowing only the desired frequencies to pass through. This helps in reducing interference and maintaining the integrity of the signal being transmitted through the waveguide.

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72. 87. (438) What is the function of the AN/USM–464 test set?

Explanation

The AN/USM-464 test set is used to perform end-to-end, GO/NO GO performance verification testing of EW systems. This means that it is used to test the overall performance of electronic warfare (EW) systems and determine if they meet the required performance standards. It checks the functionality and performance of the systems to ensure they are operating correctly and can effectively detect and counter enemy electronic threats.

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73. 91. (440) The specific type of payload and magazine presence are simulated by

Explanation

The specific type of payload and magazine presence are simulated by coding plunger pins. These pins are used to indicate the type of payload and whether or not a magazine is present. They are coded in a specific way to provide this information to the system. The other options, such as fastening pins, safety interlock, and breechplate adapter, do not have the same functionality and do not simulate the payload and magazine presence.

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74. 27. (407) What type of information necessary for ground-controlled intercept does HF radar provide?

Explanation

HF radar provides information on the altitude necessary for ground-controlled intercept. This type of radar uses high-frequency radio waves to detect and track objects in the air, and it can determine the altitude of these objects by measuring the time it takes for the radar waves to bounce back after hitting the target. By knowing the altitude of an aircraft or other flying object, ground controllers can better coordinate intercept and defense strategies.

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75. 33. (411) When determining a radar's azimuth, the

Explanation

The azimuth of a radar refers to the horizontal angle at which it detects an object. The HBW (Horizontal Beam Width) determines the width of the radar beam in the horizontal direction. A wider HBW means that the radar beam covers a larger area, resulting in a lower resolution. This is because the radar beam is spread out over a wider area, making it more difficult to accurately determine the exact location of an object. Therefore, the wider the HBW, the poorer the resolution.

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76. 53. (420) The process where the carrier wave's frequency and phase vary according with the amplitude and frequency variations of a signal wave is called

Explanation

Frequency modulation is the process where the carrier wave's frequency and phase vary according to the amplitude and frequency variations of a signal wave. This means that as the amplitude and frequency of the signal wave change, the frequency of the carrier wave also changes. This is different from amplitude modulation, where only the amplitude of the carrier wave is varied. Noise modulation and deviation are not correct because they do not accurately describe the process described in the question.

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77. 76. (432) The horizontal divisions of an oscilloscope faceplate are calibrated to the settings of the

Explanation

The horizontal divisions of an oscilloscope faceplate are calibrated to the settings of the TIME/DIV control. This control allows the user to adjust the time scale of the waveform being displayed on the oscilloscope. By changing the time per division setting, the user can control the horizontal spacing between each division on the screen. This is important for accurately measuring the time duration of a waveform and analyzing its frequency or period. The VOLTS/DIV control, AC-GND-DC switch, and VERT MODE switch do not directly affect the horizontal divisions on the screen.

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78. 79. (434) How many pieces of test equipment are contained in the fiber optic test set?

Explanation

The correct answer is a. 2. The question is asking about the number of pieces of test equipment in the fiber optic test set. The answer "2" indicates that there are only two pieces of test equipment in the set.

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79. 88. (438) How many Go-Chains Performance Tests AN/ALQ–172 does the AN/USM 464 test?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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80. 17. (403) Transmitting a simulated unique system signature from a nonlethal platform is an example of

Explanation

Transmitting a simulated unique system signature from a nonlethal platform is an example of manipulative deception because it involves intentionally manipulating or falsifying information to deceive others. In this case, the transmission of the simulated system signature is meant to deceive or mislead others into believing that it is genuine, when in fact it is not. This type of deception aims to manipulate the perception or understanding of others for strategic or tactical purposes.

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81. 96. (441) Which step is not part of the Electronic Warfare Integrated Reprogramming (EWIR) process?

Explanation

The Electronic Warfare Integrated Reprogramming (EWIR) process involves several steps to reprogram the EW system's software. These steps include determining the threat, fielding the software change, and reprogramming the EW system's software. However, determining the impact of the threat system is not part of the EWIR process. This step may be important in assessing the overall effectiveness of the reprogramming efforts, but it is not directly involved in the process of reprogramming the software.

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82. 45. (416) What type of circuit is used to select the new frequencies of the heterodyning process?

Explanation

In the heterodyning process, a tank circuit is used to select the new frequencies. A tank circuit consists of an inductor and a capacitor connected in parallel or in series. It is commonly used in radio frequency circuits to select and amplify specific frequencies. The inductor and capacitor in the tank circuit resonate at a specific frequency, allowing only that frequency to pass through while attenuating others. Therefore, option b, "Tank," is the correct answer.

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83. 57. (423) Which technique of noise jamming predicts when the next radar pulse arrives, then jams the pulse?

Explanation

Cover pulse jamming is a technique of noise jamming where the jammer predicts when the next radar pulse arrives and then jams that pulse. This technique aims to disrupt the radar system by jamming the pulses, making it difficult for the radar to accurately detect and track targets. It involves covering or overpowering the radar pulse with jamming signals to create interference and mask the presence of targets.

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84. 69. (428) From an applied signal, input pulses are collected in binary form, then converted into decimal form for digital readout describes the operation of a 

Explanation

The given explanation describes the operation of collecting input pulses in binary form and converting them into decimal form for digital readout. This process is commonly used in a frequency counter, which measures the frequency of a signal by counting the number of pulses within a certain time period. Therefore, the correct answer is c. frequency counter.

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85. 70. (428) What piece of test equipment is the most accurate instrument for making frequency and time interval measurement? 

Explanation

A frequency counter is the most accurate instrument for making frequency and time interval measurements. It is specifically designed to measure the frequency of signals and can provide precise and accurate readings. An oscilloscope is used to visualize waveforms but may not provide the same level of accuracy as a frequency counter. A spectrum analyzer is used to analyze the frequency components of a signal but may not be as accurate for direct frequency measurements. A time domain reflectometer is used to measure the length of a cable or transmission line and is not designed for frequency or time interval measurements.

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86. 72. (429) What is not a precaution of the time domain reflectometer (TDR)? 

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Select proper propagation velocity constant of test cable. This is not a precaution of the time domain reflectometer (TDR). TDR is a device used to measure the impedance of a transmission line and locate faults or discontinuities in the line. The precautions listed in options a, b, and c are important safety measures to follow when using a TDR to avoid damage to the equipment and ensure accurate measurements. However, selecting the proper propagation velocity constant of the test cable is not a precautionary step, but rather a technical consideration to ensure accurate measurements.

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87. 94. (441) The software in computer-controlled EW systems that contains algorithms, that receive, identify, process, and do jamming tasks is the

Explanation

The software in computer-controlled EW systems that contains algorithms, that receive, identify, process, and do jamming tasks is the operational flight program.

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88. 95. (441) What notifies units to upload a specific electronic warfare (EW) software change?

Explanation

The correct answer is b. Implementation message (IMP). An implementation message is used to notify units to upload a specific electronic warfare (EW) software change. This message provides instructions and guidance on how to implement the software change and ensures that all units are aware of the change and can properly update their systems. A unit loading message (ULM) is used to load software or data into a unit's system, but it does not specifically notify units about a software change. A time compliance technical order (TCTO) is used to notify units of mandatory actions or modifications, but it is not specific to electronic warfare software changes. A maintenance instruction message (MIM) provides maintenance instructions and guidance, but it does not specifically notify units about software changes.

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89. 31. (410) How long does it take RF energy to travel a radar mile?

Explanation

The correct answer is c. 12.36μ. This indicates that it takes RF energy 12.36 microseconds to travel a radar mile.

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90. 38. (413) What IR seeker generates an FM signal directly proportional to the amount of target displacement from the center of the seeker scan?

Explanation

A conical IR seeker generates an FM signal directly proportional to the amount of target displacement from the center of the seeker scan. This means that as the target moves away from the center of the seeker's scan, the FM signal produced by the conical IR seeker will increase. This type of seeker is designed to track and target moving objects by detecting their displacement from the center of the scan.

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91. 48. (418) What component of the RWR processes the RF into a video signal?

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Receiver/amplifier. The receiver/amplifier component of the RWR (Radar Warning Receiver) is responsible for processing the received radio frequency (RF) signals and converting them into a video signal. This video signal is then used to display the radar threats on the RWR's control indicator. The receiver/amplifier plays a crucial role in detecting and analyzing the RF signals to provide accurate information about potential radar threats to the pilot or operator.

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92. 50. (419) All of the following are techniques used by geolocation receivers except

Explanation

Geolocation receivers use various techniques to determine the location of a signal source. Triangulation involves measuring the angles between the receiver and multiple known points to calculate the location. Interferometry uses the interference patterns of signals received at different locations to determine the source location. Time of arrival measures the difference in arrival times of signals at different locations to calculate the distance and hence the location. However, amplitude comparison, which involves comparing the amplitudes of signals received at different locations, is not a technique used by geolocation receivers.

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93. 25. (406) What is not analyzed by the pulse analyzer during manual radar analysis?

Explanation

The pulse analyzer analyzes various aspects of the radar pulse during manual radar analysis, such as pulse width, antenna-scan type, and pulse recurrence frequency. However, it does not analyze the frequency pulse.

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94. 39. (413) What IR seeker uses many detectors and each one detects a small portion of a scene?

Explanation

An IR seeker is a device used to detect and track infrared radiation emitted by a target. Staring IR seekers use many detectors, each one covering a small portion of the scene. This allows for a high-resolution image of the scene to be created by combining the outputs of all the detectors. Scanning, chopping, and spinning are other methods used in IR seekers, but they do not involve using multiple detectors to cover the scene. Therefore, the correct answer is a. Staring.

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95. 46. (417) What mode of operation must the ALR-20 panoramic receiver be in to use the audio facility?

Explanation

The ALR-20 panoramic receiver must be in manual mode in order to use the audio facility.

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96. 59. (424) What type of deception jamming is related to time?

Explanation

Deception jamming related to time is known as range deception jamming. This type of jamming involves manipulating the timing of signals to deceive radar systems. By altering the range or distance at which a target appears, range deception jamming can confuse radar operators and make it difficult for them to accurately track and identify targets. This type of jamming can be used to create false targets or hide real targets, making it an effective tactic in electronic warfare.

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97. 54. (420) Which is not an advantage of noise modulation?

Explanation

See Page 113 Noise Modulation

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98. 58. (423) Which technique of noise jamming causes jamming strobes to appear on the radar scope? 

Explanation

Track-while-scan modulated jamming is a technique of noise jamming that causes jamming strobes to appear on the radar scope. This technique involves modulating the jamming signal in synchronization with the radar's scanning pattern. As the radar scans the airspace, the jamming signal is modulated to mimic the radar's frequency and timing, creating false targets or strobes on the radar screen. This can confuse the radar operator and make it difficult to differentiate between real targets and jamming signals.

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99. 86. (437) How many cables does the AN/ALM–178 test consist of?

Explanation

The AN/ALM-178 test consists of 3 cables.

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100. 36. (412) IR energy an object emits is a function of its temperature, but the amount it emits at any given moment of time is determined by

Explanation

The correct answer is b. its ability to hold heat. The amount of IR energy that an object emits at any given moment of time is determined by its ability to hold heat. This means that objects with a higher heat capacity will emit more IR energy compared to objects with a lower heat capacity, even if they have the same temperature. Heat capacity is a measure of how much heat energy an object can absorb or release without changing its temperature. Therefore, an object's ability to hold heat directly affects the amount of IR energy it emits.

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(419) Taking direction measurements from more than one source is
64. (426) What type of threat are flares used to counter? 
65. (426) What important tactic must be performed with flare...
77. (433) What is the most commonly used wiring diagnostic tool that...
78. (433) What connects to the digital multi-meter for taking...
13. (403) What Air Force aircraft is used to perform the Wild Weasel...
15. (403) What type of electromagnetic jamming focuses all of the...
19. (404) Emission control is important because it
20. (404) The processes and actions necessary to protect your...
32. (411) Which radar display indicator displays range or velocity?
49. (418) What component of the RWR selects the mode of operation?
56. (422) Which is not considered a requirement for a radar noise...
52. (420) Altering a carrier wave in accordance with a signal voltage...
75. (431) The power meter displays absolute power in either watts or
11. (403) What division of EW involves weapons that use...
14. (403) What missile uses an electro-optical or infrared imaging...
90. (439) What radio frequency transmission line test set (RFTLTS)...
16. (403) What aircraft is used to jam communications of the enemy's...
2. (401) What is the most permanent effective means of denying the...
1. (401) What is the first step in EW that is essential to develop an...
92. (440) What countermeasures dispenser tester (CDT) functional check...
6. (401) ES data are not used to produce
7. (402) To control an adversary's C2 capabilities, C2W integrates...
35. (412) In relation to land and water, thermal crossover indicates...
42. (415) What is one disadvantage of active MAWS?
47. (418) What range of coverage does the RWR's antennas provide?
62. (425) What chaff dispensing tactic confuses radar operators with...
63. (425) Which chaff tactic dispenses large quantities of chaff in a...
67. (427) What type of decoy provides a sufficient miss distance...
9. (402) Normal SEAD targets include radars for acquisition,
10. (402) What SAM system in North Vietnam was devastating to our...
84. (436) What classification is the Emitter Library Module when it...
5. (401) What EW component locates intentional and unintentional...
21. (405) The steps taken to locate the intentional and unintentional...
22. (405) What are EW reconnaissance crews called?
100. (443) The common aircraft portable reprogramming equipment...
34. (412) What IR detector device requires a bias current or voltage...
40. (414) Using a modulated high intensity IR energy to break an IR...
41. (415) What feature of a MAWS relates to timeliness?
43. (416) A nonlinear device is any electronic device where the
44. (416) When performing heterodyning of two different RF signals,...
61. (425) Each strip of chaff is a dipole reflector that is cut to
66. (426) What type of flare does not leave a visual signature such as...
68. (427) What is the primary limitation of a towed decoy...
71. (429) Using a time domain reflectometer, the distance to the...
8. (402) What support system provides detection and control of...
89. (439) The radio frequency transmission line test set (RFTLTS) is...
3. (401) The major components of EW are electronic
93. (441) What describes in detail how an Electronic Warfare...
23. (405) The pulse analyzer does not measure
97. (442) What category of exercise evaluates the entire Electronic...
98. (442) Which is an Air Force reprogramming exercise?
99. (443) The common aircraft portable reprogramming equipment (CAPRE)...
28. (408) Because of its range capabilities, the AI is generally
29. (409) Which of these is an important part of the C2 system?
37. (413) Most IR missiles operate in the region of
60. (424) What type of deception jamming makes use of the Doppler...
73. (429) When determining distance from the time domain reflectometer...
74. (430) A spectrum analyzer is a receiver, with the output of a
82. (435) What class of laser does the multipurpose electro-optical...
83. (436) The frequency range of the PLM–4/Radar Signal...
85. (436) What should you always do prior to using the PLM–4?
18. (403) A repeater jamming technique that copies enemy radar pulses...
4. (401) Frequency agility and changing PRF are examples of electronic
24. (406) What major subdivision of SIGINT collects and processes data...
26. (407) What is the normal correct order in which the four radars in...
30. (409) What additions to the C2 network extend the range of the air...
12. (403) The primary missile used to destroy enemy radar-equipped air...
80. (434) The maximum wavelength the light source can produce, in the...
81. (435) The multipurpose electro-optical end-to-end tester (MEON)...
55. (421) The most common device used to connect the sections of a...
87. (438) What is the function of the AN/USM–464 test set?
91. (440) The specific type of payload and magazine presence are...
27. (407) What type of information necessary for ground-controlled...
33. (411) When determining a radar's azimuth, the
53. (420) The process where the carrier wave's frequency and phase...
76. (432) The horizontal divisions of an oscilloscope faceplate are...
79. (434) How many pieces of test equipment are contained in the fiber...
88. (438) How many Go-Chains Performance Tests AN/ALQ–172 does...
17. (403) Transmitting a simulated unique system signature from a...
96. (441) Which step is not part of the Electronic Warfare Integrated...
45. (416) What type of circuit is used to select the new frequencies...
57. (423) Which technique of noise jamming predicts when the next...
69. (428) From an applied signal, input pulses are collected in binary...
70. (428) What piece of test equipment is the most accurate instrument...
72. (429) What is not a precaution of the time domain reflectometer...
94. (441) The software in computer-controlled EW systems that contains...
95. (441) What notifies units to upload a specific electronic warfare...
31. (410) How long does it take RF energy to travel a radar mile?
38. (413) What IR seeker generates an FM signal directly proportional...
48. (418) What component of the RWR processes the RF into a video...
50. (419) All of the following are techniques used by geolocation...
25. (406) What is not analyzed by the pulse analyzer during manual...
39. (413) What IR seeker uses many detectors and each one detects a...
46. (417) What mode of operation must the ALR-20 panoramic receiver be...
59. (424) What type of deception jamming is related to time?
54. (420) Which is not an advantage of noise modulation?
58. (423) Which technique of noise jamming causes jamming strobes to...
86. (437) How many cables does the AN/ALM–178 test consist of?
36. (412) IR energy an object emits is a function of its temperature,...
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