2a253 Volume 3 CDC

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1. (401) What is the first step in EW that is essential to develop an accurate EOB?
- A. Denial.
- B. Detection.
- C. Deception.
- D. Destruction.

About This Quiz

This is a study guide to help airman study for there end of course test. Not filling out there bubble sheets. End of disclaimer enjoy your studying. CDC 2A253N
SOF/PR Electronic Warfare Systems Journeyman
Volume 3. Electronic Warfare Principles and Support Equipment
2A253N 03 1308, Edit Code 01
AFSC 2A253

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2.

2. (401) What is the most permanent effective means of denying the enemy the use of the electromagnetic spectrum?
- A. Denial.
- B. Deception.
- C. Disruption.
- D. Destruction.
Correct Answer

A. D. Destruction.

Explanation

The most permanent effective means of denying the enemy the use of the electromagnetic spectrum is destruction. This means completely destroying the enemy's equipment or infrastructure that allows them to utilize the electromagnetic spectrum. By doing so, the enemy will no longer have the ability to communicate or gather information through the use of electronic devices, effectively denying them the use of the electromagnetic spectrum.

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3.

3. (401) The major components of EW are electronic
- A. attack, electronic support, and electronic protection.
- B. attack, electronic countermeasures, and electronic protection.
- C. countermeasures, electronic support, and infrared countermeasures.
- D. countermeasures, electronic protection, and infrared countermeasures.
Correct Answer

A. A. attack, electronic support, and electronic protection.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. attack, electronic support, and electronic protection. Electronic warfare (EW) involves three major components: attack, electronic support, and electronic protection. Attack refers to the use of electronic systems to disrupt or disable enemy electronic systems. Electronic support involves gathering and analyzing electronic signals to gain information about enemy activities. Electronic protection involves measures taken to protect friendly electronic systems from enemy attacks.

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4.

4. (401) Frequency agility and changing PRF are examples of electronic
- A. attack.
- B. support.
- C. protection.
- D. countermeasures.
Correct Answer

A. C. protection.

Explanation

Frequency agility and changing PRF (Pulse Repetition Frequency) are techniques used to protect electronic systems from being detected or jammed by enemy forces. By constantly changing the frequency and PRF, electronic systems can avoid being targeted or disrupted. These techniques are considered protective measures because they enhance the security and survivability of the electronic systems.

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5.

5. (401) What EW component locates intentional and unintentional radiated electromagnetic energy for threat recognition?
- A. Electronic attack.
- B. Electronic support.
- C. Electronic protection.
- D. Electronic management.
Correct Answer

A. B. Electronic support.

Explanation

Electronic support is the correct answer because it refers to the component that locates intentional and unintentional radiated electromagnetic energy for threat recognition. Electronic support systems are used to gather information about the electromagnetic spectrum, including detecting and identifying radar signals, communications signals, and other electronic emissions. This information is then used for threat recognition and analysis. Electronic attack, electronic protection, and electronic management are all different components of electronic warfare, but they do not specifically refer to the function of locating radiated electromagnetic energy for threat recognition.

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6.

6. (401) ES data are not used to produce
- A. signal intelligence.
- B. ballistic intelligence.
- C. electronic intelligence.
- D. communications intelligence.
Correct Answer

A. B. ballistic intelligence.

Explanation

ES data refers to electronic support data, which is information collected from electronic sources such as radars, communication systems, and electronic warfare systems. This data is used to produce various types of intelligence, including signal intelligence, electronic intelligence, and communications intelligence. However, it is not used to produce ballistic intelligence, which is the intelligence related to the trajectory, behavior, and characteristics of ballistic missiles or projectiles.

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7.

7. (402) To control an adversary’s C2 capabilities, C2W integrates destruction,
- A. electronic warfare, and military deception only.
- B. electronic warfare, military deception, and operational security.
- C. military deception, operational security, and psychological operations only.
- D. electronic warfare, military deception, operational security, and psychological operations.
Correct Answer

A. D. electronic warfare, military deception, operational security, and psychological operations.

Explanation

C2W, or Command and Control Warfare, is an approach used to disrupt and neutralize an adversary's command and control capabilities. It involves the integration of various tactics and strategies to achieve this goal. The correct answer, option d, includes all the key components of C2W. Electronic warfare is used to disrupt and degrade the adversary's electronic systems. Military deception is employed to mislead and confuse the adversary. Operational security is implemented to protect friendly operations and prevent the adversary from gaining information. Psychological operations are conducted to influence the adversary's decision-making process. Therefore, option d is the most comprehensive and accurate answer.

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8.

8. (402) What support system provides detection and control of low-level aircraft beyond coverage of ground-based radars?
- A. AWACS.
- B. JWCCS.
- C. JSTARS.
- D. ABCCC.
Correct Answer

A. A. AWACS.

Explanation

AWACS stands for Airborne Warning and Control System. It is an advanced radar system mounted on an aircraft that provides detection and control of low-level aircraft beyond the coverage of ground-based radars. AWACS is able to detect and track aircraft at long ranges, providing valuable information for air defense operations. This system is commonly used by military forces to enhance their situational awareness and command and control capabilities in the air domain.

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9.

9. (402) Normal SEAD targets include radars for acquisition,
- A. and antiaircraft artillery only.
- B. antiaircraft artillery, and SAM only.
- C. and early warning/ground controlled intercept and SAM only.
- D. antiaircraft artillery, early warning/ground controlled intercept, and SAM.
Correct Answer

A. D. antiaircraft artillery, early warning/ground controlled intercept, and SAM.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. antiaircraft artillery, early warning/ground controlled intercept, and SAM. This answer is correct because SEAD (Suppression of Enemy Air Defenses) targets include a range of radar systems that are used for acquisition, antiaircraft artillery, early warning/ground controlled intercept, and SAM (Surface-to-Air Missile) systems. SEAD missions aim to neutralize or destroy these various air defense systems to establish air superiority and allow friendly aircraft to operate effectively.

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10.

10. (402) What SAM system in North Vietnam was devastating to our strike forces?
- a. SA–1.
- b. SA–2.
- c. SA–4.
- D. SA–6.
Correct Answer

A. b. SA–2.

Explanation

The SA-2 SAM system in North Vietnam was devastating to our strike forces. This surface-to-air missile system, also known as the Guideline, was highly effective in shooting down American aircraft during the Vietnam War. It had a long range and was capable of reaching high altitudes, making it a significant threat to our strike forces. The SA-2 system played a major role in the air defense network of North Vietnam and caused significant losses to the US military.

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11.

11. (403) What division of EW involves weapons that use electromagnetic or directed energy as their primary destructive mechanism?
- A. Electronic attack.
- B. Electronic support.
- C. Electronic detection.
- D. Electronic protection.
Correct Answer

A. A. Electronic attack.

Explanation

Electronic attack involves weapons that use electromagnetic or directed energy as their primary destructive mechanism. This can include jamming enemy radar systems, disrupting communications, or disabling electronic devices. Electronic support refers to the collection and analysis of electronic signals for intelligence purposes. Electronic detection involves the identification and tracking of electronic signals. Electronic protection focuses on measures to defend against electronic attacks and ensure the security of electronic systems.

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12.

12. (403) The primary missile used to destroy enemy radar-equipped air defense systems is the
- A. AGM–65.
- B. AGM–88.
- C. BDU–65.
- D. BDU–88.
Correct Answer

A. B. AGM–88.

Explanation

The AGM-88 is the primary missile used to destroy enemy radar-equipped air defense systems. This missile, also known as the High-Speed Anti-Radiation Missile (HARM), is specifically designed to home in on and destroy radar systems. It is capable of detecting and targeting radar emissions, making it an effective weapon against air defense systems. The other options, AGM-65, BDU-65, and BDU-88, are not specifically designed for this purpose and do not have the same capabilities as the AGM-88.

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13.

13. (403) What Air Force aircraft is used to perform the Wild Weasel mission?
- A. EA–6B.
- B. EF–111.
- C. F/A–18.
- D. F–16CJ.
Correct Answer

A. D. F–16CJ.

Explanation

The F-16CJ is used to perform the Wild Weasel mission. The Wild Weasel mission involves suppressing enemy air defenses by locating and destroying surface-to-air missile sites. The F-16CJ is equipped with advanced electronic warfare systems and can carry anti-radiation missiles to target and neutralize enemy air defense systems. The other options (EA-6B, EF-111, and F/A-18) are also capable of performing electronic warfare missions, but the F-16CJ is specifically designed for the Wild Weasel mission.

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14.

14. (403) What missile uses an electro-optical or infrared imaging system to perform EA?
- A. AGM–65.
- B. AGM–88.
- C. BDU–65.
- D. BDU–88.
Correct Answer

A. A. AGM–65.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. AGM-65. The AGM-65 missile uses an electro-optical or infrared imaging system to perform EA (Electronic Attack). This system allows the missile to track and engage targets using visual or heat signatures, making it effective against both air and ground targets. The AGM-88 and BDU-88 are not known for their electro-optical or infrared imaging systems, and the BDU-65 is not a missile at all.

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15.

15. (403) What type of electromagnetic jamming focuses all of the jamming energy in one particular area?
- A. Support.
- B. Standoff.
- C. Directional.
- D. Communications.
Correct Answer

A. C. Directional.

Explanation

Directional electromagnetic jamming focuses all of the jamming energy in one particular area. This type of jamming is used to disrupt or disable specific targets within a larger area, rather than affecting a broad range of targets. It allows for precise targeting and can be used to effectively disrupt enemy communications or radar systems.

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16.

16. (403) What aircraft is used to jam communications of the enemy’s C2 network?
- A. E–6B.
- B. EF–111.
- C. F–16CJ.
- D. EC–140H.
Correct Answer

A. D. EC–140H.

Explanation

The EC-140H is the correct answer because it is an aircraft specifically designed for electronic warfare and is used to jam the communications of the enemy's command and control (C2) network. The other options, E-6B, EF-111, and F-16CJ, are not primarily used for jamming communications.

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17.

17. (403) Transmitting a simulated unique system signature from a nonlethal platform is an example of
- A. imitative deception.
- B. imitative reception.
- C. simulative deception.
- D. manipulative deception.
Correct Answer

A. D. manipulative deception.

Explanation

Transmitting a simulated unique system signature from a nonlethal platform is an example of manipulative deception because it involves intentionally manipulating or falsifying information to deceive others. In this case, the transmission of the simulated system signature is meant to deceive or mislead others into believing that it is genuine, when in fact it is not. This type of deception aims to manipulate the perception or understanding of others for strategic or tactical purposes.

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18.

18. (403) A repeater jamming technique that copies enemy radar pulses and returns incorrect target information to the enemy radar is an example of
- A. imitative deception.
- B. imitative reception.
- C. simulative deception.
- D. manipulative deception.
Correct Answer

A. A. imitative deception.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. imitative deception. This is because the technique described in the question involves copying enemy radar pulses and returning incorrect target information to deceive the enemy radar. By imitating the enemy radar pulses and providing false target information, this technique aims to deceive the enemy and mislead their radar systems. Therefore, it can be classified as imitative deception.

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19.

19. (404) Emission control is important because it
- A. increases incidental or accidental emissions.
- B. limits incidental or accidental emissions.
- C. decreases emissions.
- D. increases emissions.
Correct Answer

A. B. limits incidental or accidental emissions.

Explanation

Emission control is important because it limits incidental or accidental emissions. This means that by implementing emission control measures, the release of pollutants into the environment can be reduced or prevented. This is crucial for protecting human health, as well as the health of ecosystems and the planet as a whole. By limiting incidental or accidental emissions, we can work towards creating a cleaner and more sustainable environment.

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20.

20. (404) The processes and actions necessary to protect your equipment from the effects of an electromagnetic pulse produced by an atomic blast are described as
- A. emissions control.
- B. electromagnetic hardening.
- C. electromagnetic compatibility.
- D. early warning frequency deconfliction.
Correct Answer

A. B. electromagnetic hardening.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. electromagnetic hardening. Electromagnetic hardening refers to the processes and actions taken to protect equipment from the effects of an electromagnetic pulse (EMP) produced by an atomic blast. This can involve shielding the equipment, using surge protectors, and implementing other measures to ensure that the equipment remains functional in the event of an EMP.

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21.

21. (405) The steps taken to locate the intentional and unintentional emissions from radar equipment is described as electronic
- A. attack.
- B. support.
- C. protection.
- D. management.
Correct Answer

A. B. support.

Explanation

The steps taken to locate intentional and unintentional emissions from radar equipment are described as electronic support. Electronic support involves identifying and analyzing electronic emissions to gather information about potential threats or to support friendly operations. It includes activities such as electronic surveillance, electronic reconnaissance, and electronic intelligence gathering. This helps in understanding the electronic environment and providing support to military operations.

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22.

22. (405) What are EW reconnaissance crews called?
- A. Crows.
- B. Ferrets.
- C. Sparks.
- D. Ravens.
Correct Answer

A. D. Ravens.

Explanation

EW reconnaissance crews are called "Ravens" because they specialize in Electronic Warfare (EW) reconnaissance. The term "Ravens" is likely used to symbolize their ability to gather information and intelligence using electronic signals and communications, similar to how ravens are known for their intelligence and ability to gather information in the animal kingdom. The other options, such as "Crows," "Ferrets," and "Sparks," do not have any specific association with EW reconnaissance and are therefore incorrect.

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23.

23. (405) The pulse analyzer does not measure
- A. pulse width.
- B. magnetic energy.
- C. scan rate.
- D. scan type.
Correct Answer

A. B. magnetic energy.

Explanation

The pulse analyzer is a device used to measure various characteristics of pulses, such as pulse width, scan rate, and scan type. However, it does not measure magnetic energy. Magnetic energy is a different parameter that is not directly related to the characteristics of a pulse. Therefore, option b is the correct answer.

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24.

24. (406) What major subdivision of SIGINT collects and processes data on radar?
- A. PHOTINT.
- B. ELINT.
- C. HUMINT.
- D. COMINT.
Correct Answer

A. B. ELINT.

Explanation

ELINT, or Electronic Intelligence, is the major subdivision of SIGINT (Signals Intelligence) that collects and processes data on radar. ELINT focuses on gathering information about electronic signals emitted by radar systems, including their frequency, location, and capabilities. This information is crucial for understanding and analyzing enemy radar systems, as well as developing countermeasures and tactics to counter them. PHOTINT (Photographic Intelligence) focuses on collecting and analyzing imagery, HUMINT (Human Intelligence) relies on information gathered from human sources, and COMINT (Communications Intelligence) deals with intercepted communications.

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25.

25. (406) What is not analyzed by the pulse analyzer during manual radar analysis?
- A. Frequency pulse.
- B. Pulse width.
- C. Antenna-scan type.
- D. Pulse recurrence frequency.
Correct Answer

A. A. Frequency pulse.

Explanation

The pulse analyzer analyzes various aspects of the radar pulse during manual radar analysis, such as pulse width, antenna-scan type, and pulse recurrence frequency. However, it does not analyze the frequency pulse.

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26.

26. (407) What is the normal correct order in which the four radars in an air defense network are used?
- A. Early warning, height finder, acquisition, and terminal defense.
- B. Height finder, early warning, acquisition, and terminal defense.
- C. Acquisition, early warning, height finder, and terminal defense.
- D. Acquisition, height finder, early warning, and terminal defense.
Correct Answer

A. A. Early warning, height finder, acquisition, and terminal defense.

Explanation

The correct order in which the four radars in an air defense network are used is early warning, height finder, acquisition, and terminal defense. This order allows for the detection of incoming threats at a distance (early warning), determining the altitude of the threat (height finder), tracking and identifying the threat (acquisition), and finally engaging and neutralizing the threat (terminal defense). This sequence ensures a systematic and effective response to potential threats.

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27.

27. (407) What type of information necessary for ground-controlled intercept does HF radar provide?
- A. Range.
- B. Azimuth.
- C. Altitude.
- D. Velocity.
Correct Answer

A. C. Altitude.

Explanation

HF radar provides information on the altitude necessary for ground-controlled intercept. This type of radar uses high-frequency radio waves to detect and track objects in the air, and it can determine the altitude of these objects by measuring the time it takes for the radar waves to bounce back after hitting the target. By knowing the altitude of an aircraft or other flying object, ground controllers can better coordinate intercept and defense strategies.

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28.

28. (408) Because of its range capabilities, the AI is generally
- A. not used against an approaching force.
- B. the last of the air defense weapon systems to pose a problem for an approaching force.
- C. the first of the air defense weapon systems to pose a problem for an approaching force.
- D. used only if antiaircraft artillery and surface-to-air missiles fail to deter an approaching force.
Correct Answer

A. C. the first of the air defense weapon systems to pose a problem for an approaching force.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. the first of the air defense weapon systems to pose a problem for an approaching force. This answer suggests that the AI has the capability to pose a threat to an approaching force before other air defense weapon systems.

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29.

29. (409) Which of these is an important part of the C2 system?
- A. Computer.
- B. Height finder radar.
- C. Airborne interceptor.
- D. AWACS aircraft.
Correct Answer

A. A. Computer.

Explanation

The C2 system, which stands for Command and Control system, is a crucial component in military operations. It involves the coordination and management of forces, assets, and resources. Among the options provided, the computer is an important part of the C2 system as it allows for data processing, communication, and decision-making. It enables commanders to gather information, analyze it, and make informed decisions in real-time. The computer helps in integrating and synchronizing various elements of the C2 system, ensuring effective command and control of military operations.

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30.

30. (409) What additions to the C2 network extend the range of the air defense system?
- A. AWACS and AAA.
- A. AWACS and AAA.
- C. Long-range interceptors and computers.
- D. Long-range interceptors and AWACS.
Correct Answer

A. D. Long-range interceptors and AWACS.

Explanation

Long-range interceptors and AWACS (Airborne Warning and Control System) are the additions to the C2 (Command and Control) network that extend the range of the air defense system. Long-range interceptors are capable of engaging targets at a greater distance, while AWACS provides surveillance and command capabilities, allowing for better coordination and control of air defense operations. Together, these additions enhance the effectiveness and coverage of the air defense system by extending its range and improving situational awareness.

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31.

31. (410) How long does it take RF energy to travel a radar mile?
- A. 24.72μ.
- B. 18.54μ.
- C. 12.36μ.
- D. 6.18μ.
Correct Answer

A. C. 12.36μ.

Explanation

The correct answer is c. 12.36μ. This indicates that it takes RF energy 12.36 microseconds to travel a radar mile.

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32.

32. (411) Which radar display indicator displays range or velocity?
- A. A scope.
- B. B scope.
- C. Range height.
- D. Plan position.
Correct Answer

A. A. A scope.

Explanation

The correct answer is a. A scope. A scope is a radar display indicator that displays range or velocity. It provides a visual representation of the radar data, showing the distance or speed of detected objects. The A scope is typically used for displaying range information, while the B scope is used for displaying velocity information. Range height and plan position are not radar display indicators that specifically display range or velocity.

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33.

33. (411) When determining a radar’s azimuth, the
- A. wider the HBW, the poorer the resolution.
- B. wider the VBW, the greater the resolution.
- C. narrower the HBW, the poorer the resolution.
- D. narrower the VBW, the greater the resolution.
Correct Answer

A. A. wider the HBW, the poorer the resolution.

Explanation

The azimuth of a radar refers to the horizontal angle at which it detects an object. The HBW (Horizontal Beam Width) determines the width of the radar beam in the horizontal direction. A wider HBW means that the radar beam covers a larger area, resulting in a lower resolution. This is because the radar beam is spread out over a wider area, making it more difficult to accurately determine the exact location of an object. Therefore, the wider the HBW, the poorer the resolution.

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34.

34. (412) What IR detector device requires a bias current or voltage to operate?
- A. Photovoltaic.
- B. Photographic.
- C. Photoemissive.
- D. Photoconductive.
Correct Answer

A. D. Photoconductive.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Photoconductive. A photoconductive device is a type of IR detector that operates by changing its electrical conductivity when exposed to infrared radiation. To function properly, a bias current or voltage is required to provide the necessary electrical energy for the device to detect and respond to IR radiation. Photovoltaic devices convert light directly into electricity, photographic devices are used to capture images, and photoemissive devices emit electrons when exposed to light. None of these devices require a bias current or voltage to operate.

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35.

35. (412) In relation to land and water, thermal crossover indicates both objects
- A. have sharp contrasts.
- B. exchange infrared energy.
- C. with the same temperature.
- D. with different temperatures.
Correct Answer

A. C. with the same temperature.

Explanation

Thermal crossover refers to the point at which the temperature of land and water become equal. This means that both objects have the same temperature.

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36.

36. (412) IR energy an object emits is a function of its temperature, but the amount it emits at any given moment of time is determined by
- A. its ability to dissipate heat.
- B. its ability to hold heat.
- C. the inherent temperature.
- D. the material itself.
Correct Answer

A. B. its ability to hold heat.

Explanation

The correct answer is b. its ability to hold heat. The amount of IR energy that an object emits at any given moment of time is determined by its ability to hold heat. This means that objects with a higher heat capacity will emit more IR energy compared to objects with a lower heat capacity, even if they have the same temperature. Heat capacity is a measure of how much heat energy an object can absorb or release without changing its temperature. Therefore, an object's ability to hold heat directly affects the amount of IR energy it emits.

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37.

37. (413) Most IR missiles operate in the region of
- A. 1 to 5 microns.
- B. 6 to 10 microns.
- C. 7 to 12 microns.
- D. 10 to 15 microns.
Correct Answer

A. A. 1 to 5 microns.

Explanation

Most IR missiles operate in the region of 1 to 5 microns. This is because this range falls within the mid-infrared region, which is commonly used for IR missile detection and tracking. In this range, the atmosphere is relatively transparent, allowing for efficient transmission of IR radiation. Additionally, many materials, such as metals and certain gases, emit significant amounts of IR radiation in this range, making it easier for IR missiles to detect and track targets.

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38.

38. (413) What IR seeker generates an FM signal directly proportional to the amount of target displacement from the center of the seeker scan?
- A. Spin.
- B. Image.
- C. Staring.
- D. Conical.
Correct Answer

A. D. Conical.

Explanation

A conical IR seeker generates an FM signal directly proportional to the amount of target displacement from the center of the seeker scan. This means that as the target moves away from the center of the seeker's scan, the FM signal produced by the conical IR seeker will increase. This type of seeker is designed to track and target moving objects by detecting their displacement from the center of the scan.

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39.

39. (413) What IR seeker uses many detectors and each one detects a small portion of a scene?
- A. Staring.
- B. Scanning.
- C. Chopping.
- D. Spinning.
Correct Answer

A. A. Staring.

Explanation

An IR seeker is a device used to detect and track infrared radiation emitted by a target. Staring IR seekers use many detectors, each one covering a small portion of the scene. This allows for a high-resolution image of the scene to be created by combining the outputs of all the detectors. Scanning, chopping, and spinning are other methods used in IR seekers, but they do not involve using multiple detectors to cover the scene. Therefore, the correct answer is a. Staring.

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40.

40. (414) Using a modulated high intensity IR energy to break an IR missile’s lock, is an example of
- A. using of the natural environment.
- B. active infrared countermeasures.
- C. the deployment of self-protection flares.
- D. the introduction of smoke into engine exhaust.
Correct Answer

A. B. active infrared countermeasures.

Explanation

Using a modulated high intensity IR energy to break an IR missile's lock refers to the use of active infrared countermeasures. This involves emitting a strong infrared signal to interfere with the missile's infrared seeker, causing it to lose track of its target. This technique is an example of actively countering the missile's guidance system, rather than passively relying on the natural environment or deploying other defensive measures like flares or smoke.

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41.

41. (415) What feature of a MAWS relates to timeliness?
- A. Low false alarm rate.
- B. Accurate threat positioning reporting.
- C. Multiple false targets due to maneuvers.
- D. Rapid identification of infrared missile threats.
Correct Answer

A. D. Rapid identification of infrared missile threats.

Explanation

The feature of a MAWS that relates to timeliness is the rapid identification of infrared missile threats. This means that the MAWS can quickly detect and identify incoming infrared missiles, allowing for timely response and countermeasures to be taken. This is important in order to minimize the potential damage and threat posed by these missiles. The other options, such as low false alarm rate, accurate threat positioning reporting, and multiple false targets due to maneuvers, do not directly relate to timeliness.

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42.

42. (415) What is one disadvantage of active MAWS?
- A. It operates only in the ultraviolet frequency spectrum.
- B. It is unable to pull targets out of clutter.
- C. Can be tracked by passive detection.
- D. It uses Pulse Doppler radar.
Correct Answer

A. C. Can be tracked by passive detection.

Explanation

Active MAWS (Missile Approach Warning System) emits electromagnetic signals to detect and track incoming missiles. One disadvantage of active MAWS is that it can be tracked by passive detection. Passive detection systems do not emit any signals, making them harder to detect and track compared to active systems. This puts active MAWS at a disadvantage as it can be easily identified and potentially targeted by enemy passive detection systems.

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43.

43. (416) A nonlinear device is any electronic device where the
- A. impedance remains constant when the voltage changes.
- B. impedance remains constant when the current changes.
- C. current through the device is proportional to the applied voltage.
- D. current through the device is not proportional to the applied voltage.
Correct Answer

A. D. current through the device is not proportional to the applied voltage.

Explanation

A nonlinear device is characterized by the fact that the current through the device is not proportional to the applied voltage. In other words, the relationship between current and voltage is not a straight line. This means that as the voltage changes, the current does not change in a linear manner. Nonlinear devices are commonly found in electronic circuits and can have complex behaviors and characteristics.

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44.

44. (416) When performing heterodyning of two different RF signals, the output will be the
- A. sum of the two frequencies.
- B. difference of the two frequencies.
- C. sum, difference, and two original frequencies.
- D. sum and difference of the two frequencies.
Correct Answer

A. C. sum, difference, and two original frequencies.

Explanation

When performing heterodyning of two different RF signals, the output will contain the sum and difference frequencies of the two original signals, as well as the two original frequencies themselves. This is because heterodyning involves mixing two signals together, resulting in the creation of new frequencies that are the sum and difference of the original frequencies. Therefore, the correct answer is c. sum, difference, and two original frequencies.

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45.

45. (416) What type of circuit is used to select the new frequencies of the heterodyning process?
- A. Plate.
- B. Tank.
- C. Diode.
- D. Resistor.
Correct Answer

A. B. Tank.

Explanation

In the heterodyning process, a tank circuit is used to select the new frequencies. A tank circuit consists of an inductor and a capacitor connected in parallel or in series. It is commonly used in radio frequency circuits to select and amplify specific frequencies. The inductor and capacitor in the tank circuit resonate at a specific frequency, allowing only that frequency to pass through while attenuating others. Therefore, option b, "Tank," is the correct answer.

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46.

46. (417) What mode of operation must the ALR-20 panoramic receiver be in to use the audio facility?
- A. Manual.
- B. Expand.
- C. Self-test.
- D. Automatic.
Correct Answer

A. A. Manual.

Explanation

The ALR-20 panoramic receiver must be in manual mode in order to use the audio facility.

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47.

47. (418) What range of coverage does the RWR’s antennas provide?
- A. 45°.
- B. 90°.
- C. 180°.
- D. 360°.
Correct Answer

A. D. 360°.

Explanation

The RWR's antennas provide a range of coverage of 360°, meaning they can detect threats from all directions around the aircraft. This ensures that the aircraft is aware of any potential threats and can take appropriate action to avoid them.

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48.

48. (418) What component of the RWR processes the RF into a video signal?
- A. Antenna.
- B. Signal processor.
- C. Control indicator.
- D. Receiver/amplifier.
Correct Answer

A. D. Receiver/amplifier.

Explanation

The correct answer is d. Receiver/amplifier. The receiver/amplifier component of the RWR (Radar Warning Receiver) is responsible for processing the received radio frequency (RF) signals and converting them into a video signal. This video signal is then used to display the radar threats on the RWR's control indicator. The receiver/amplifier plays a crucial role in detecting and analyzing the RF signals to provide accurate information about potential radar threats to the pilot or operator.

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49.

49. (418) What component of the RWR selects the mode of operation?
- A. Scope.
- B. Signal processor.
- C. Receiver/amplifier.
- D. Interface control unit.
Correct Answer

A. D. Interface control unit.

Explanation

The interface control unit is responsible for selecting the mode of operation in the RWR. It controls the communication between different components and allows the user to switch between different modes. The scope provides visual display, the signal processor processes the received signals, and the receiver/amplifier amplifies the signals, but none of these components are responsible for selecting the mode of operation.

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Current Version
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Quiz Edited by
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May 09, 2014

Quiz Created by
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2a253 Volume 3 CDC

1. (401) What is the first step in EW that is essential to develop an accurate EOB?

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2. (401) What is the most permanent effective means of denying the enemy the use of the electromagnetic spectrum?

3. (401) The major components of EW are electronic

4. (401) Frequency agility and changing PRF are examples of electronic

5. (401) What EW component locates intentional and unintentional radiated electromagnetic energy for threat recognition?

6. (401) ES data are not used to produce

7. (402) To control an adversary’s C2 capabilities, C2W integrates destruction,

8. (402) What support system provides detection and control of low-level aircraft beyond coverage of ground-based radars?

9. (402) Normal SEAD targets include radars for acquisition,

10. (402) What SAM system in North Vietnam was devastating to our strike forces?

11. (403) What division of EW involves weapons that use electromagnetic or directed energy as their primary destructive mechanism?

12. (403) The primary missile used to destroy enemy radar-equipped air defense systems is the

13. (403) What Air Force aircraft is used to perform the Wild Weasel mission?

14. (403) What missile uses an electro-optical or infrared imaging system to perform EA?

15. (403) What type of electromagnetic jamming focuses all of the jamming energy in one particular area?

16. (403) What aircraft is used to jam communications of the enemy’s C2 network?

17. (403) Transmitting a simulated unique system signature from a nonlethal platform is an example of

18. (403) A repeater jamming technique that copies enemy radar pulses and returns incorrect target information to the enemy radar is an example of

19. (404) Emission control is important because it

20. (404) The processes and actions necessary to protect your equipment from the effects of an electromagnetic pulse produced by an atomic blast are described as

21. (405) The steps taken to locate the intentional and unintentional emissions from radar equipment is described as electronic

22. (405) What are EW reconnaissance crews called?

23. (405) The pulse analyzer does not measure

24. (406) What major subdivision of SIGINT collects and processes data on radar?

25. (406) What is not analyzed by the pulse analyzer during manual radar analysis?

26. (407) What is the normal correct order in which the four radars in an air defense network are used?

27. (407) What type of information necessary for ground-controlled intercept does HF radar provide?

28. (408) Because of its range capabilities, the AI is generally

29. (409) Which of these is an important part of the C2 system?

30. (409) What additions to the C2 network extend the range of the air defense system?

31. (410) How long does it take RF energy to travel a radar mile?

32. (411) Which radar display indicator displays range or velocity?

33. (411) When determining a radar’s azimuth, the

34. (412) What IR detector device requires a bias current or voltage to operate?

35. (412) In relation to land and water, thermal crossover indicates both objects

36. (412) IR energy an object emits is a function of its temperature, but the amount it emits at any given moment of time is determined by

37. (413) Most IR missiles operate in the region of

38. (413) What IR seeker generates an FM signal directly proportional to the amount of target displacement from the center of the seeker scan?

39. (413) What IR seeker uses many detectors and each one detects a small portion of a scene?

40. (414) Using a modulated high intensity IR energy to break an IR missile’s lock, is an example of

41. (415) What feature of a MAWS relates to timeliness?

42. (415) What is one disadvantage of active MAWS?

43. (416) A nonlinear device is any electronic device where the

44. (416) When performing heterodyning of two different RF signals, the output will be the

45. (416) What type of circuit is used to select the new frequencies of the heterodyning process?

46. (417) What mode of operation must the ALR-20 panoramic receiver be in to use the audio facility?

47. (418) What range of coverage does the RWR’s antennas provide?

48. (418) What component of the RWR processes the RF into a video signal?

49. (418) What component of the RWR selects the mode of operation?