2a253 Volume 3 CDC

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  • 1/100 Questions

    13. (403) What Air Force aircraft is used to perform the Wild Weasel mission?

    • A. EA–6B.
    • B. EF–111.
    • C. F/A–18.
    • D. F–16CJ.
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2a253 Volume 3 CDC - Quiz
About This Quiz

This is a study guide to help airman study for there end of course test. Not filling out there bubble sheets. End of disclaimer enjoy your studying. CDC 2A253N
SOF/PR Electronic Warfare Systems Journeyman
Volume 3. Electronic Warfare Principles and Support Equipment
2A253N 03 1308, Edit Code 01
AFSC 2A253

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  • 2. 

    15. (403) What type of electromagnetic jamming focuses all of the jamming energy in one particular area?

    • A. Support.

    • B. Standoff.

    • C. Directional.

    • D. Communications.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Directional.
    Explanation
    Directional electromagnetic jamming focuses all of the jamming energy in one particular area. This type of jamming is used to disrupt or disable specific targets within a larger area, rather than affecting a broad range of targets. It allows for precise targeting and can be used to effectively disrupt enemy communications or radar systems.

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  • 3. 

    19. (404) Emission control is important because it

    • A. increases incidental or accidental emissions.

    • B. limits incidental or accidental emissions.

    • C. decreases emissions.

    • D. increases emissions.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. limits incidental or accidental emissions.
    Explanation
    Emission control is important because it limits incidental or accidental emissions. This means that by implementing emission control measures, the release of pollutants into the environment can be reduced or prevented. This is crucial for protecting human health, as well as the health of ecosystems and the planet as a whole. By limiting incidental or accidental emissions, we can work towards creating a cleaner and more sustainable environment.

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  • 4. 

    20. (404) The processes and actions necessary to protect your equipment from the effects of an electromagnetic pulse produced by an atomic blast are described as

    • A. emissions control.

    • B. electromagnetic hardening.

    • C. electromagnetic compatibility.

    • D. early warning frequency deconfliction.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. electromagnetic hardening.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. electromagnetic hardening. Electromagnetic hardening refers to the processes and actions taken to protect equipment from the effects of an electromagnetic pulse (EMP) produced by an atomic blast. This can involve shielding the equipment, using surge protectors, and implementing other measures to ensure that the equipment remains functional in the event of an EMP.

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  • 5. 

    32. (411) Which radar display indicator displays range or velocity?

    • A. A scope.

    • B. B scope.

    • C. Range height.

    • D. Plan position.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. A scope.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. A scope. A scope is a radar display indicator that displays range or velocity. It provides a visual representation of the radar data, showing the distance or speed of detected objects. The A scope is typically used for displaying range information, while the B scope is used for displaying velocity information. Range height and plan position are not radar display indicators that specifically display range or velocity.

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  • 6. 

    49. (418) What component of the RWR selects the mode of operation?

    • A. Scope.

    • B. Signal processor.

    • C. Receiver/amplifier.

    • D. Interface control unit.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Interface control unit.
    Explanation
    The interface control unit is responsible for selecting the mode of operation in the RWR. It controls the communication between different components and allows the user to switch between different modes. The scope provides visual display, the signal processor processes the received signals, and the receiver/amplifier amplifies the signals, but none of these components are responsible for selecting the mode of operation.

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  • 7. 

    (419) Taking direction measurements from more than one source is

    • A. triangulation.

    • B. interferometry.

    • C. time of arrival.

    • D. amplitude comparison.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. triangulation.
    Explanation
    Triangulation is the process of determining the location of an object by measuring angles to it from two or more reference points. In the context of direction measurements, taking measurements from more than one source allows for triangulation, as it involves using multiple reference points to determine the direction of the object. This method is commonly used in navigation, surveying, and astronomy to determine the position or direction of objects.

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  • 8. 

    64. (426) What type of threat are flares used to counter? 

    • A. Infrared missiles.

    • B. Radar guided missiles.

    • C. Ground tracking radars.

    • D. Terminal defense radars.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Infrared missiles.
    Explanation
    Flares are used to counter infrared missiles. Infrared missiles use heat-seeking technology to track and target aircraft. Flares are small, heat-emitting devices that can be deployed from an aircraft to divert the attention of the missile away from the aircraft's heat signature. When the flare is released, it produces a bright light and heat source that attracts the missile, causing it to veer off course and miss its intended target. This countermeasure is effective in confusing and distracting infrared missiles, providing a means of defense for aircraft.

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  • 9. 

    65. (426) What important tactic must be performed with flare deployment to defeat infrared threats effectively? 

    • A. Chaff.

    • B. Evasive maneuver.

    • C. Noise jamming.

    • D. Deception jamming.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Evasive maneuver.
    Explanation
    To defeat infrared threats effectively, an important tactic that must be performed with flare deployment is an evasive maneuver. This involves maneuvering the aircraft in a way that makes it difficult for the infrared-guided missiles to track and hit the aircraft. By performing evasive maneuvers, the aircraft can change its direction, speed, and altitude, making it harder for the missiles to accurately lock onto the aircraft and increasing the chances of evading the threat.

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  • 10. 

    77. (433) What is the most commonly used wiring diagnostic tool that identifies if a circuit is open or closed?

    • A. oscilloscope.

    • B. power meter.

    • C. digital multi-meter.

    • D. time domain reflectometer.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. digital multi-meter.
    Explanation
    A digital multi-meter is the most commonly used wiring diagnostic tool for identifying if a circuit is open or closed. This tool measures voltage, current, and resistance, allowing technicians to test the continuity of a circuit and determine if it is functioning properly. It can easily detect if a circuit is open (broken) or closed (complete), making it an essential tool for troubleshooting electrical systems.

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  • 11. 

    78. (433) What connects to the digital multi-meter for taking measurements?

    • A. test probes.

    • B. power sensor.

    • C. diode detectors.

    • D. RF line.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. test probes.
    Explanation
    Test probes are connected to a digital multi-meter for taking measurements. Test probes are used to make electrical connections between the circuit being measured and the multi-meter. They typically have a pointed tip for probing into the circuit and a connector that plugs into the multi-meter. By connecting the test probes to the appropriate points in the circuit, the multi-meter can measure various electrical quantities such as voltage, current, and resistance.

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  • 12. 

    1. (401) What is the first step in EW that is essential to develop an accurate EOB?

    • A. Denial.

    • B. Detection.

    • C. Deception.

    • D. Destruction.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Detection.
    Explanation
    The first step in EW (Electronic Warfare) that is essential to develop an accurate EOB (Electronic Order of Battle) is detection. Detection involves identifying and locating the enemy's electronic emissions, such as radar signals or communication transmissions. By detecting these emissions, the EW operator can gather information about the enemy's electronic capabilities and use it to develop an accurate EOB. This information is crucial for planning and executing effective electronic warfare operations.

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  • 13. 

    2. (401) What is the most permanent effective means of denying the enemy the use of the electromagnetic spectrum?

    • A. Denial.

    • B. Deception.

    • C. Disruption.

    • D. Destruction.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Destruction.
    Explanation
    The most permanent effective means of denying the enemy the use of the electromagnetic spectrum is destruction. This means completely destroying the enemy's equipment or infrastructure that allows them to utilize the electromagnetic spectrum. By doing so, the enemy will no longer have the ability to communicate or gather information through the use of electronic devices, effectively denying them the use of the electromagnetic spectrum.

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  • 14. 

    6. (401) ES data are not used to produce

    • A. signal intelligence.

    • B. ballistic intelligence.

    • C. electronic intelligence.

    • D. communications intelligence.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. ballistic intelligence.
    Explanation
    ES data refers to electronic support data, which is information collected from electronic sources such as radars, communication systems, and electronic warfare systems. This data is used to produce various types of intelligence, including signal intelligence, electronic intelligence, and communications intelligence. However, it is not used to produce ballistic intelligence, which is the intelligence related to the trajectory, behavior, and characteristics of ballistic missiles or projectiles.

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  • 15. 

    7. (402) To control an adversary’s C2 capabilities, C2W integrates destruction,

    • A. electronic warfare, and military deception only.

    • B. electronic warfare, military deception, and operational security.

    • C. military deception, operational security, and psychological operations only.

    • D. electronic warfare, military deception, operational security, and psychological operations.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. electronic warfare, military deception, operational security, and psychological operations.
    Explanation
    C2W, or Command and Control Warfare, is an approach used to disrupt and neutralize an adversary's command and control capabilities. It involves the integration of various tactics and strategies to achieve this goal. The correct answer, option d, includes all the key components of C2W. Electronic warfare is used to disrupt and degrade the adversary's electronic systems. Military deception is employed to mislead and confuse the adversary. Operational security is implemented to protect friendly operations and prevent the adversary from gaining information. Psychological operations are conducted to influence the adversary's decision-making process. Therefore, option d is the most comprehensive and accurate answer.

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  • 16. 

    11. (403) What division of EW involves weapons that use electromagnetic or directed energy as their primary destructive mechanism?

    • A. Electronic attack.

    • B. Electronic support.

    • C. Electronic detection.

    • D. Electronic protection.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Electronic attack.
    Explanation
    Electronic attack involves weapons that use electromagnetic or directed energy as their primary destructive mechanism. This can include jamming enemy radar systems, disrupting communications, or disabling electronic devices. Electronic support refers to the collection and analysis of electronic signals for intelligence purposes. Electronic detection involves the identification and tracking of electronic signals. Electronic protection focuses on measures to defend against electronic attacks and ensure the security of electronic systems.

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  • 17. 

    14. (403) What missile uses an electro-optical or infrared imaging system to perform EA?

    • A. AGM–65.

    • B. AGM–88.

    • C. BDU–65.

    • D. BDU–88.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. AGM–65.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. AGM-65. The AGM-65 missile uses an electro-optical or infrared imaging system to perform EA (Electronic Attack). This system allows the missile to track and engage targets using visual or heat signatures, making it effective against both air and ground targets. The AGM-88 and BDU-88 are not known for their electro-optical or infrared imaging systems, and the BDU-65 is not a missile at all.

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  • 18. 

    16. (403) What aircraft is used to jam communications of the enemy’s C2 network?

    • A. E–6B.

    • B. EF–111.

    • C. F–16CJ.

    • D. EC–140H.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. EC–140H.
    Explanation
    The EC-140H is the correct answer because it is an aircraft specifically designed for electronic warfare and is used to jam the communications of the enemy's command and control (C2) network. The other options, E-6B, EF-111, and F-16CJ, are not primarily used for jamming communications.

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  • 19. 

    35. (412) In relation to land and water, thermal crossover indicates both objects

    • A. have sharp contrasts.

    • B. exchange infrared energy.

    • C. with the same temperature.

    • D. with different temperatures.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. with the same temperature.
    Explanation
    Thermal crossover refers to the point at which the temperature of land and water become equal. This means that both objects have the same temperature.

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  • 20. 

    42. (415) What is one disadvantage of active MAWS?

    • A. It operates only in the ultraviolet frequency spectrum.

    • B. It is unable to pull targets out of clutter.

    • C. Can be tracked by passive detection.

    • D. It uses Pulse Doppler radar.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Can be tracked by passive detection.
    Explanation
    Active MAWS (Missile Approach Warning System) emits electromagnetic signals to detect and track incoming missiles. One disadvantage of active MAWS is that it can be tracked by passive detection. Passive detection systems do not emit any signals, making them harder to detect and track compared to active systems. This puts active MAWS at a disadvantage as it can be easily identified and potentially targeted by enemy passive detection systems.

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  • 21. 

    47. (418) What range of coverage does the RWR’s antennas provide?

    • A. 45°.

    • B. 90°.

    • C. 180°.

    • D. 360°.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. 360°.
    Explanation
    The RWR's antennas provide a range of coverage of 360°, meaning they can detect threats from all directions around the aircraft. This ensures that the aircraft is aware of any potential threats and can take appropriate action to avoid them.

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  • 22. 

    52. (420) Altering a carrier wave in accordance with a signal voltage is called 

    • A. deviation.

    • B. deception.

    • C. modulation.

    • D. amplification.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. modulation.
    Explanation
    Modulation is the process of altering a carrier wave in accordance with a signal voltage. This allows the signal to be transmitted over long distances and received by a receiver. Deviation refers to the difference between the highest and lowest frequency of a modulated wave, deception is not related to altering a carrier wave, and amplification refers to increasing the amplitude of a signal. Therefore, the correct answer is c. modulation.

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  • 23. 

    56. (422) Which is not considered a requirement for a radar noise jamming transmitter? 

    • A. Low cost.

    • B. Standardization.

    • C. Ease of operation.

    • D. Continuous transmission.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Low cost.
    Explanation
    The requirement for a radar noise jamming transmitter does not include low cost. The other options, such as standardization, ease of operation, and continuous transmission, are considered important requirements for a radar noise jamming transmitter.

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  • 24. 

    75. (431) The power meter displays absolute power in either watts or

    • A. dMb.

    • B. Dm.

    • C. dBm.

    • D. Dbm.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. dBm.
    Explanation
    The power meter displays absolute power in either watts or dBm. dBm is a unit used to measure power levels in decibels relative to 1 milliwatt. It is commonly used in telecommunications and signal processing to express power ratios. The other options, dMb, Dm, and Dbm, are not valid units of measurement for power.

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  • 25. 

    90. (439) What radio frequency transmission line test set (RFTLTS) test is based on a ratio of power out of a unit under test (UUT) to the RFTLTS power fed into the UUT?

    • A. Insertion loss.

    • B. Distance-to-fault.

    • C. VSWR/return loss.

    • D. Stimulus generation.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Insertion loss.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. Insertion loss. The ratio of power out of a unit under test (UUT) to the power fed into the UUT is known as insertion loss. This test measures the amount of power loss that occurs when a component or device is inserted into a transmission line. It is commonly used to evaluate the performance of RF components such as filters, amplifiers, and connectors.

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  • 26. 

    92. (440) What countermeasures dispenser tester (CDT) functional check measures the firing pulse amplitude and pulse duration?

    • A. Fire.

    • B. Misfire.

    • C. Jettison.

    • D. Stray voltage.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Fire.
    Explanation
    The countermeasures dispenser tester (CDT) functional check that measures the firing pulse amplitude and pulse duration is the "Fire" test. This test is used to ensure that the dispenser is able to properly release countermeasures in response to a threat. By measuring the firing pulse amplitude and pulse duration, the tester can verify that the dispenser is functioning correctly and will effectively deploy the countermeasures when needed.

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  • 27. 

    5. (401) What EW component locates intentional and unintentional radiated electromagnetic energy for threat recognition?

    • A. Electronic attack.

    • B. Electronic support.

    • C. Electronic protection.

    • D. Electronic management.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Electronic support.
    Explanation
    Electronic support is the correct answer because it refers to the component that locates intentional and unintentional radiated electromagnetic energy for threat recognition. Electronic support systems are used to gather information about the electromagnetic spectrum, including detecting and identifying radar signals, communications signals, and other electronic emissions. This information is then used for threat recognition and analysis. Electronic attack, electronic protection, and electronic management are all different components of electronic warfare, but they do not specifically refer to the function of locating radiated electromagnetic energy for threat recognition.

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  • 28. 

    9. (402) Normal SEAD targets include radars for acquisition,

    • A. and antiaircraft artillery only.

    • B. antiaircraft artillery, and SAM only.

    • C. and early warning/ground controlled intercept and SAM only.

    • D. antiaircraft artillery, early warning/ground controlled intercept, and SAM.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. antiaircraft artillery, early warning/ground controlled intercept, and SAM.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. antiaircraft artillery, early warning/ground controlled intercept, and SAM. This answer is correct because SEAD (Suppression of Enemy Air Defenses) targets include a range of radar systems that are used for acquisition, antiaircraft artillery, early warning/ground controlled intercept, and SAM (Surface-to-Air Missile) systems. SEAD missions aim to neutralize or destroy these various air defense systems to establish air superiority and allow friendly aircraft to operate effectively.

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  • 29. 

    10. (402) What SAM system in North Vietnam was devastating to our strike forces?

    • a. SA–1.

    • b. SA–2.

    • c. SA–4.

    • D. SA–6.

    Correct Answer
    A. b. SA–2.
    Explanation
    The SA-2 SAM system in North Vietnam was devastating to our strike forces. This surface-to-air missile system, also known as the Guideline, was highly effective in shooting down American aircraft during the Vietnam War. It had a long range and was capable of reaching high altitudes, making it a significant threat to our strike forces. The SA-2 system played a major role in the air defense network of North Vietnam and caused significant losses to the US military.

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  • 30. 

    21. (405) The steps taken to locate the intentional and unintentional emissions from radar equipment is described as electronic

    • A. attack.

    • B. support.

    • C. protection.

    • D. management.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. support.
    Explanation
    The steps taken to locate intentional and unintentional emissions from radar equipment are described as electronic support. Electronic support involves identifying and analyzing electronic emissions to gather information about potential threats or to support friendly operations. It includes activities such as electronic surveillance, electronic reconnaissance, and electronic intelligence gathering. This helps in understanding the electronic environment and providing support to military operations.

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  • 31. 

    22. (405) What are EW reconnaissance crews called?

    • A. Crows.

    • B. Ferrets.

    • C. Sparks.

    • D. Ravens.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Ravens.
    Explanation
    EW reconnaissance crews are called "Ravens" because they specialize in Electronic Warfare (EW) reconnaissance. The term "Ravens" is likely used to symbolize their ability to gather information and intelligence using electronic signals and communications, similar to how ravens are known for their intelligence and ability to gather information in the animal kingdom. The other options, such as "Crows," "Ferrets," and "Sparks," do not have any specific association with EW reconnaissance and are therefore incorrect.

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  • 32. 

    34. (412) What IR detector device requires a bias current or voltage to operate?

    • A. Photovoltaic.

    • B. Photographic.

    • C. Photoemissive.

    • D. Photoconductive.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Photoconductive.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. Photoconductive. A photoconductive device is a type of IR detector that operates by changing its electrical conductivity when exposed to infrared radiation. To function properly, a bias current or voltage is required to provide the necessary electrical energy for the device to detect and respond to IR radiation. Photovoltaic devices convert light directly into electricity, photographic devices are used to capture images, and photoemissive devices emit electrons when exposed to light. None of these devices require a bias current or voltage to operate.

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  • 33. 

    40. (414) Using a modulated high intensity IR energy to break an IR missile’s lock, is an example of

    • A. using of the natural environment.

    • B. active infrared countermeasures.

    • C. the deployment of self-protection flares.

    • D. the introduction of smoke into engine exhaust.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. active infrared countermeasures.
    Explanation
    Using a modulated high intensity IR energy to break an IR missile's lock refers to the use of active infrared countermeasures. This involves emitting a strong infrared signal to interfere with the missile's infrared seeker, causing it to lose track of its target. This technique is an example of actively countering the missile's guidance system, rather than passively relying on the natural environment or deploying other defensive measures like flares or smoke.

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  • 34. 

    41. (415) What feature of a MAWS relates to timeliness?

    • A. Low false alarm rate.

    • B. Accurate threat positioning reporting.

    • C. Multiple false targets due to maneuvers.

    • D. Rapid identification of infrared missile threats.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Rapid identification of infrared missile threats.
    Explanation
    The feature of a MAWS that relates to timeliness is the rapid identification of infrared missile threats. This means that the MAWS can quickly detect and identify incoming infrared missiles, allowing for timely response and countermeasures to be taken. This is important in order to minimize the potential damage and threat posed by these missiles. The other options, such as low false alarm rate, accurate threat positioning reporting, and multiple false targets due to maneuvers, do not directly relate to timeliness.

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  • 35. 

    43. (416) A nonlinear device is any electronic device where the

    • A. impedance remains constant when the voltage changes.

    • B. impedance remains constant when the current changes.

    • C. current through the device is proportional to the applied voltage.

    • D. current through the device is not proportional to the applied voltage.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. current through the device is not proportional to the applied voltage.
    Explanation
    A nonlinear device is characterized by the fact that the current through the device is not proportional to the applied voltage. In other words, the relationship between current and voltage is not a straight line. This means that as the voltage changes, the current does not change in a linear manner. Nonlinear devices are commonly found in electronic circuits and can have complex behaviors and characteristics.

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  • 36. 

    44. (416) When performing heterodyning of two different RF signals, the output will be the

    • A. sum of the two frequencies.

    • B. difference of the two frequencies.

    • C. sum, difference, and two original frequencies.

    • D. sum and difference of the two frequencies.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. sum, difference, and two original frequencies.
    Explanation
    When performing heterodyning of two different RF signals, the output will contain the sum and difference frequencies of the two original signals, as well as the two original frequencies themselves. This is because heterodyning involves mixing two signals together, resulting in the creation of new frequencies that are the sum and difference of the original frequencies. Therefore, the correct answer is c. sum, difference, and two original frequencies.

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  • 37. 

    62. (425) What chaff dispensing tactic confuses radar operators with multiple false targets? 

    • A. Area saturation.

    • B. Self-protection.

    • C. Preplanned burst.

    • D. Corridor operation.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Area saturation.
    Explanation
    Area saturation is a chaff dispensing tactic that confuses radar operators with multiple false targets. By releasing a large amount of chaff in a specific area, the radar screen becomes cluttered with numerous blips, making it difficult for operators to distinguish between real targets and the false ones created by the chaff. This tactic is effective in diverting enemy radar-guided missiles or aircraft away from the actual target, providing a greater chance of survival for the aircraft deploying the chaff.

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  • 38. 

    63. (425) Which chaff tactic dispenses large quantities of chaff in a continuous ribbon? 

    • A. Area saturation.

    • B. Self-protection.

    • C. Preplanned burst.

    • D. Corridor operation.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Corridor operation.
    Explanation
    Corridor operation is the chaff tactic that dispenses large quantities of chaff in a continuous ribbon. This tactic involves releasing chaff in a concentrated manner along a specific corridor, creating a dense cloud that can confuse enemy radar systems and make it difficult for them to track the aircraft. Area saturation involves dispersing chaff over a wide area, self-protection refers to the use of chaff to protect the aircraft from incoming threats, and preplanned burst involves releasing chaff in predetermined bursts to create a specific radar signature.

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  • 39. 

    67. (427) What type of decoy provides a sufficient miss distance between the attacking missile and the aircraft? 

    • A. Towed.

    • B. Passive.

    • C. Deception.

    • d. Expendable active.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Towed.
    Explanation
    Towed decoys are designed to create a sufficient miss distance between the attacking missile and the aircraft. These decoys are attached to the aircraft by a cable and are towed behind, creating a separation between the aircraft and the decoy. This helps to divert the attention of the attacking missile away from the aircraft and towards the decoy, increasing the chances of the missile missing its target. Towed decoys are an effective countermeasure against missile threats and provide a valuable defense mechanism for aircraft.

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  • 40. 

    84. (436) What classification is the Emitter Library Module when it contains a library?

    • A. Sensitive.

    • B. Confidential.

    • C. Secret.

    • D. Top Secret.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Secret.
    Explanation
    The Emitter Library Module is classified as "Secret" when it contains a library. This means that the information stored in the module is considered to be highly sensitive and should only be accessed by individuals with the appropriate security clearance. The classification of "Secret" indicates that the information contained in the module could potentially cause serious damage if it were to be accessed or disclosed by unauthorized individuals.

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  • 41. 

    100. (443) The common aircraft portable reprogramming equipment (CAPRE) requires visual inspection of components

    • A. daily.

    • B. monthly.

    • C. semi-annually.

    • D. annually.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. annually.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. annually. The common aircraft portable reprogramming equipment (CAPRE) needs to undergo visual inspection of its components once a year. This is necessary to ensure that all the components are in proper working condition and to identify any potential issues or damages that may affect the equipment's performance. Regular inspections help in maintaining the reliability and effectiveness of the CAPRE, allowing it to function optimally when needed.

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  • 42. 

    3. (401) The major components of EW are electronic

    • A. attack, electronic support, and electronic protection.

    • B. attack, electronic countermeasures, and electronic protection.

    • C. countermeasures, electronic support, and infrared countermeasures.

    • D. countermeasures, electronic protection, and infrared countermeasures.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. attack, electronic support, and electronic protection.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. attack, electronic support, and electronic protection. Electronic warfare (EW) involves three major components: attack, electronic support, and electronic protection. Attack refers to the use of electronic systems to disrupt or disable enemy electronic systems. Electronic support involves gathering and analyzing electronic signals to gain information about enemy activities. Electronic protection involves measures taken to protect friendly electronic systems from enemy attacks.

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  • 43. 

    8. (402) What support system provides detection and control of low-level aircraft beyond coverage of ground-based radars?

    • A. AWACS.

    • B. JWCCS.

    • C. JSTARS.

    • D. ABCCC.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. AWACS.
    Explanation
    AWACS stands for Airborne Warning and Control System. It is an advanced radar system mounted on an aircraft that provides detection and control of low-level aircraft beyond the coverage of ground-based radars. AWACS is able to detect and track aircraft at long ranges, providing valuable information for air defense operations. This system is commonly used by military forces to enhance their situational awareness and command and control capabilities in the air domain.

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  • 44. 

    23. (405) The pulse analyzer does not measure

    • A. pulse width.

    • B. magnetic energy.

    • C. scan rate.

    • D. scan type.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. magnetic energy.
    Explanation
    The pulse analyzer is a device used to measure various characteristics of pulses, such as pulse width, scan rate, and scan type. However, it does not measure magnetic energy. Magnetic energy is a different parameter that is not directly related to the characteristics of a pulse. Therefore, option b is the correct answer.

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  • 45. 

    28. (408) Because of its range capabilities, the AI is generally

    • A. not used against an approaching force.

    • B. the last of the air defense weapon systems to pose a problem for an approaching force.

    • C. the first of the air defense weapon systems to pose a problem for an approaching force.

    • D. used only if antiaircraft artillery and surface-to-air missiles fail to deter an approaching force.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. the first of the air defense weapon systems to pose a problem for an approaching force.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. the first of the air defense weapon systems to pose a problem for an approaching force. This answer suggests that the AI has the capability to pose a threat to an approaching force before other air defense weapon systems.

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  • 46. 

    29. (409) Which of these is an important part of the C2 system?

    • A. Computer.

    • B. Height finder radar.

    • C. Airborne interceptor.

    • D. AWACS aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Computer.
    Explanation
    The C2 system, which stands for Command and Control system, is a crucial component in military operations. It involves the coordination and management of forces, assets, and resources. Among the options provided, the computer is an important part of the C2 system as it allows for data processing, communication, and decision-making. It enables commanders to gather information, analyze it, and make informed decisions in real-time. The computer helps in integrating and synchronizing various elements of the C2 system, ensuring effective command and control of military operations.

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  • 47. 

    37. (413) Most IR missiles operate in the region of

    • A. 1 to 5 microns.

    • B. 6 to 10 microns.

    • C. 7 to 12 microns.

    • D. 10 to 15 microns.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 1 to 5 microns.
    Explanation
    Most IR missiles operate in the region of 1 to 5 microns. This is because this range falls within the mid-infrared region, which is commonly used for IR missile detection and tracking. In this range, the atmosphere is relatively transparent, allowing for efficient transmission of IR radiation. Additionally, many materials, such as metals and certain gases, emit significant amounts of IR radiation in this range, making it easier for IR missiles to detect and track targets.

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  • 48. 

    61. (425) Each strip of chaff is a dipole reflector that is cut to

    • A. one-quarter the wavelength of the radar’s frequency.

    • B. one-half the wavelength of the radar’s frequency.

    • C. equal the wavelength of radar’s frequency.

    • D. double the wavelength of radar’s frequency.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. one-half the wavelength of the radar’s frequency.
    Explanation
    Each strip of chaff is a dipole reflector, which means it consists of two conductive elements separated by a small gap. When radar waves hit the chaff, they induce an electric current in the conductive elements, causing them to radiate electromagnetic waves. The length of each strip of chaff is designed to be one-half the wavelength of the radar's frequency. This length is chosen because it allows for efficient reflection and scattering of the radar waves, maximizing the effectiveness of the chaff as a countermeasure. Therefore, the correct answer is b. one-half the wavelength of the radar's frequency.

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  • 49. 

    66. (426) What type of flare does not leave a visual signature such as smoke or flame?

    • A. Covert.

    • B. Kinematic.

    • C. Pyrotechnic.

    • D. Conventional.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Covert.
    Explanation
    A covert flare does not leave a visual signature such as smoke or flame. This means that it can be used without being easily detected by others. Kinematic, pyrotechnic, and conventional flares all have some form of visual signature, whether it be smoke or flame, making them more easily detectable. Therefore, the correct answer is a. Covert.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 09, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Darren
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