2a553c CDC Volume 4 Ure

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| By Airmancollin

Airmancollin

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Quizzes Created: 4 | Total Attempts: 547

| Attempts: 143

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1/100 Questions

What ALE–47 CMDS operating mode selects an appropriate dispense response and initiates dispensing?
- BYP.
- MAN.
- AUTO.
- SEMI.

About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge on the ALR-20 Panoramic Receiver System, focusing on operational capabilities, tuning, and self-testing procedures. It is designed for learners seeking to understand electronic warfare equipment, enhancing skills in system operation and threat evaluation.

Quiz Preview

2.

Which ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver System indicator-control lamp switch permits better viewing of obscured threat symbols?
- MODE.
- TGT SEP.
- SEARCH.
- HANDOFF
Correct Answer

A. TGT SEP.

Explanation

The TGT SEP switch allows for better viewing of obscured threat symbols on the ALR-69 Radar Warning Receiver System indicator-control lamp. This switch likely adjusts the display or mode of the system to separate or highlight individual threats, making them more visible even when they are partially obscured.

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3.

Which ALE–50 TDS component isolates the electrical squib firing signals to prevent accidental deployment of decoys?
- Launcher.
- SIU.
- Ground safe/arm switch.
- MPLC.
Correct Answer

A. Ground safe/arm switch.

Explanation

The ground safe/arm switch is the component that isolates the electrical squib firing signals to prevent accidental deployment of decoys. This switch acts as a safety mechanism, allowing the operator to arm or disarm the system when necessary. By activating the ground safe/arm switch, the electrical squib firing signals are effectively disabled, ensuring that the decoys are not accidentally deployed during maintenance or other non-operational situations.

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4.

The power supply of the ALR–20 Panoramic Receiver System DC VOLTAGE MONITOR panel provides
- Precise voltage indicator.
- Precise current indicator.
- General voltage indicator.
- General current indicator.
Correct Answer

A. General voltage indicator.

Explanation

The power supply of the ALR-20 Panoramic Receiver System DC VOLTAGE MONITOR panel provides a general voltage indicator. This means that it is able to display the voltage level of the power supply in a general sense, giving a rough indication of the voltage being supplied. It does not provide precise measurements or specific details about the voltage, but rather gives a general idea of its level.

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5.

What is the primary intrasystem interface for the Hawk CS–2010 DF/Receiver System called?
- Thin net.
- Thick net.
- VersaNet.
- Cheapernet.
Correct Answer

A. VersaNet.

Explanation

The primary intrasystem interface for the Hawk CS-2010 DF/Receiver System is called VersaNet.

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6.

The displayed symbol that indicates that a signal’s parameters do not meet the requirements programmed into the ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver System is the
- S.
- U.
- Flashing diamond.
- Floating diamond.
Correct Answer

A. U.

Explanation

The correct answer is "U." The "U" symbol indicates that a signal's parameters do not meet the requirements programmed into the ALR-69 Radar Warning Receiver System. This symbol is used to alert the operator that the signal may not be reliable or accurate.

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7.

Which AYR–2 Electronic Support Measures System equipment section contains the units for data processing and power distribution?
- Aft antenna group.
- E51 electronic cabinet.
- Forward antenna group.
- ESMG control panel.
Correct Answer

A. E51 electronic cabinet.

Explanation

The E51 electronic cabinet contains the units for data processing and power distribution.

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8.

The ALR–20 Panoramic Receiver System is self-tested using
- An RF test.
- A video test.
- An analog test.
- RF and video tests.
Correct Answer

A. RF and video tests.

Explanation

The ALR-20 Panoramic Receiver System undergoes self-testing using both RF and video tests. This means that the system is evaluated for its performance and functionality in terms of both radio frequency signals and video signals. By conducting RF tests, the receiver system can ensure that it is able to accurately receive and process radio frequency signals. Additionally, video tests are performed to assess the system's ability to handle and display video signals effectively. The combination of RF and video tests allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the ALR-20 Panoramic Receiver System's capabilities.

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9.

) What is the maximum number of threats displayed in the PRIORITY mode of the ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver System?
- 3
- 5
- 11
- 16
Correct Answer

A. 5

Explanation

The maximum number of threats displayed in the PRIORITY mode of the ALR-69 Radar Warning Receiver System is 5.

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10.

What subsystem of the ALQ–161A Defensive Avionic System uses an automatic PD radar to detect airborne interceptors or missiles approaching from the rear of the aircraft?
- Active.
- Passive.
- Warning.
- Detection.
Correct Answer

A. Warning.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Warning" because the subsystem of the ALQ-161A Defensive Avionic System that uses an automatic PD radar to detect airborne interceptors or missiles approaching from the rear of the aircraft is responsible for providing warnings to the pilot about potential threats. This subsystem is designed to alert the pilot to take appropriate defensive actions in response to the detected threats.

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11.

How many decoys can be deployed by the ALE–50 TDS?
- One at a time.
- All decoys can be deployed simultaneously.
- Two at a time on the same side of the aircraft.
- Two at a time but on opposite sides of the aircraft.
Correct Answer

A. One at a time.

Explanation

The correct answer is "One at a time." This means that only one decoy can be deployed by the ALE-50 TDS at any given time.

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12.

What ALR–20 Panoramic Receiver System control adjusts the sensitivity and gain of the receiver?
- SWEEP WIDTH.
- MAN FREQ.
- RF LEVEL.
- MAX.
Correct Answer

A. RF LEVEL.

Explanation

The RF LEVEL control adjusts the sensitivity and gain of the ALR-20 Panoramic Receiver System. This control allows the user to adjust the level of the received radio frequency signal, which in turn affects the sensitivity and gain of the receiver. By adjusting the RF LEVEL, the user can optimize the receiver's performance and ensure accurate reception of the desired signals.

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13.

What B–2 flight management system component records the RDIs of failed LRUs?
- FMCP.
- AVIP.
- OBMP.
- DDU.
Correct Answer

A. OBMP.

Explanation

The OBMP (Onboard Maintenance Processor) is the B-2 flight management system component responsible for recording the RDIs (Recorded Diagnostic Information) of failed LRUs (Line Replaceable Units). This component is designed to monitor and diagnose any failures or malfunctions in the LRUs and store the relevant information for maintenance purposes. The FMCP (Flight Management Control Panel), AVIP (Avionics Interface Processor), and DDU (Data Display Unit) are not specifically involved in recording the RDIs of failed LRUs.

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14.

What B–2 defensive management system components couple RF from the environment into the EWS?
- Antennas.
- HIAC cables.
- Preamplifiers.
- Cable compensation units.
Correct Answer

A. Antennas.

Explanation

Antennas are the B-2 defensive management system components that couple RF (radio frequency) from the environment into the EWS (Electronic Warfare System). Antennas are responsible for receiving and transmitting RF signals, allowing the EWS to detect and analyze threats in the environment. They play a crucial role in gathering information and providing situational awareness to the defensive management system.

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15.

Which option is not a threat file of the ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver System?
- Sea.
- Land.
- Training.
- Airborne
Correct Answer

A. Airborne

Explanation

The ALR-69 Radar Warning Receiver System is designed to detect and identify threats in various environments. The options provided in the question are Sea, Land, Training, and Airborne. The correct answer is Airborne because the ALR-69 is specifically designed to detect airborne threats, such as enemy aircraft or missiles, and not threats that are related to sea, land, or training activities.

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16.

Which B–2 flight management system multifunction display unit page provides warnings, cautions, and advisories to the aircrew?
- Status.
- Initiated BIT.
- Avionics information.
- TSD.
Correct Answer

A. Status.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Status" because the Status page on the B-2 flight management system multifunction display unit provides warnings, cautions, and advisories to the aircrew. This page displays important information about the aircraft's systems and alerts the crew to any potential issues or concerns that may require their attention. It is a crucial tool for monitoring the overall status and health of the aircraft during flight.

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17.

What is the B–52 aircraft’s only totally manual transmitter system?
- ALT–6B.
- ALT–16A.
- ALT–28.
- ALT–32A.
Correct Answer

A. ALT–32A.

Explanation

The correct answer is ALT–32A. This is the only option that mentions a transmitter system, indicating that it is the correct choice. The other options do not provide any information about being a transmitter system, so they can be eliminated.

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18.

During flight, the ALQ–161A CITS control and display panel displays aircraft systems status and malfunction information in the form of a
- Fault code.
- Near English message.
- Reference designator indicator.
- CITS maintenance codes.
Correct Answer

A. Near English message.

Explanation

The ALQ-161A CITS control and display panel is designed to provide information about aircraft systems status and malfunctions. This information is displayed in the form of a near English message, which means that it is presented in a way that is easily understandable to the pilot or maintenance personnel. This allows for quick and effective troubleshooting and decision-making during flight.

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19.

In what mode does the ALE–47 CMDS select the appropriate dispense program and response but the operator must activate the dispenser?
- BYP.
- MAN.
- AUTO.
- SEMI.
Correct Answer

A. SEMI.

Explanation

The ALE-47 CMDS selects the appropriate dispense program and response in SEMI mode, but the operator must manually activate the dispenser. This means that the system will determine the appropriate program and response based on the threat environment, but the operator has control over when to actually dispense the countermeasures.

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20.

When the ALR–20 Panoramic Receiver System is in manual mode which option cannot be evaluated?
- Frequency.
- Direction of threat.
- Type of modulation.
- PRF.
Correct Answer

A. Direction of threat.

Explanation

In manual mode, the ALR-20 Panoramic Receiver System allows the user to manually control and adjust certain parameters. However, the system does not have the capability to evaluate the direction of threat in this mode. The other options, such as frequency, type of modulation, and PRF (Pulse Repetition Frequency), can still be evaluated and adjusted by the user.

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21.

Which statement describes a self-test function in the ALR–20 Panoramic Receiver System?
- RF test activates a pulse generator in the indicator.
- Video test activates a pulse generator in the indicator.
- RF test activates test oscillators in the individual tuners.
- Video test activates test oscillators in the individual tuners.
Correct Answer

A. RF test activates test oscillators in the individual tuners.

Explanation

The self-test function in the ALR-20 Panoramic Receiver System is described as RF test activating test oscillators in the individual tuners. This means that when the self-test function is initiated, it triggers the test oscillators in each individual tuner to generate signals for testing and calibration purposes. This allows the system to check the performance and functionality of each tuner independently.

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22.

) When the PRI of a displayed emitter changes, what determines the PRI of the tone heard from the ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver System?
- The signal processor.
- The PRI of the threat.
- The amplifier detector.
- The frequency selective receiver.
Correct Answer

A. The PRI of the threat.

Explanation

The correct answer is "The PRI of the threat." The PRI (Pulse Repetition Interval) of the tone heard from the ALR-69 Radar Warning Receiver System is determined by the PRI of the threat itself. The ALR-69 system detects and analyzes radar signals, including their PRI, in order to provide warnings to the pilot. Therefore, when the PRI of a displayed emitter changes, the system adjusts the tone accordingly based on the PRI of the threat being detected.

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23.

Which threat file is selected when power is first applied to the ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver System?
- Sea.
- Land.
- Training.
- Airborne.
Correct Answer

A. Land.

Explanation

When power is first applied to the ALR-69 Radar Warning Receiver System, the threat file that is selected is "Land". This suggests that the system is initially configured to detect and identify threats specifically related to land-based environments. This could include threats such as surface-to-air missiles or radar-guided artillery systems that are commonly found in land warfare scenarios.

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24.

What type of antenna does the ALQ–172(V)2 Countermeasures Set use?
- Horn.
- Blade.
- Spiral.
- Phase array.
Correct Answer

A. Phase array.

Explanation

The ALQ-172(V)2 Countermeasures Set uses a phase array antenna. A phase array antenna is a type of antenna that uses multiple radiating elements and phase shifters to create a beam of radio waves that can be electronically steered in different directions. This allows for a more precise and flexible control of the antenna's radiation pattern, making it ideal for applications such as radar and communication systems.

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25.

What ALQ–161A ACU complex component allows rapid loading and storing of software programs for the avionics control computers?
- Data transfer set.
- Data link terminal.
- Mass storage device.
- Radar data terminal.
Correct Answer

A. Mass storage device.

Explanation

The ALQ-161A ACU complex component that allows rapid loading and storing of software programs for the avionics control computers is the mass storage device. This device is designed to efficiently store large amounts of data, including software programs, and allows for quick access and retrieval of the stored information. It is an essential component in avionics systems as it enables the seamless transfer and management of software programs for the control computers.

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26.

Which ALQ–161A Defensive Avionic System subsystem contains the ECM transmitting hardware?
- Active.
- Passive.
- Warning.
- Detection.
Correct Answer

A. Active.

Explanation

The ALQ-161A Defensive Avionic System is a defensive system used in aircraft. It consists of different subsystems, and one of these subsystems contains the ECM transmitting hardware. The ECM stands for Electronic Countermeasures, which are used to disrupt and confuse enemy radar and communication systems. The active subsystem is responsible for actively transmitting these countermeasures, making it the correct answer. The passive subsystem, on the other hand, would be responsible for receiving and analyzing enemy signals, while the warning and detection subsystems would provide alerts and detection of threats.

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27.

The AAR–47 Missile Warning Set uses how many optical sensor converters?
- 2.
- 4.
- 6.
- 8.
Correct Answer

A. 4.

Explanation

The AAR-47 Missile Warning Set utilizes four optical sensor converters. These converters are responsible for detecting and analyzing incoming missile threats. Having multiple converters increases the system's reliability and accuracy in identifying potential threats, allowing for timely countermeasures to be taken.

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28.

) When the ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver System is in PRIORITY mode, how is the operator notified when six or more high priority threats exist?
- The OPEN legend flashes.
- The PRIORITY legend flashes.
- The OPEN and PRIORITY legends alternately flash.
- The system automatically returns to the OPEN mode.
Correct Answer

A. The OPEN and PRIORITY legends alternately flash.

Explanation

When the ALR-69 Radar Warning Receiver System is in PRIORITY mode and there are six or more high priority threats, the operator is notified by the flashing of the OPEN and PRIORITY legends alternately. This flashing pattern alerts the operator to the presence of multiple high priority threats, allowing them to prioritize and respond accordingly.

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29.

What detection subsystem component of the ALQ–161A Defensive Avionic System converts the RF signal into a digital data word?
- Antenna directional receiver.
- Frequency channelizer.
- Band 4–8 receiver.
- Encoder.
Correct Answer

A. Encoder.

Explanation

The encoder is the detection subsystem component of the ALQ-161A Defensive Avionic System that converts the RF signal into a digital data word. It takes the analog RF signal and converts it into a digital format that can be processed and analyzed by the system. This allows the system to accurately detect and identify threats in the RF spectrum. The antenna directional receiver, frequency channelizer, and Band 4-8 receiver are all components that help in receiving and filtering the RF signal, but it is the encoder that actually converts it into a digital data word.

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30.

The MPLC of the ALE–50 TDS is in what mode of operation when –2035 VDC power is sent to the deployed decoy?
- Transmit.
- Standby.
- Backup.
- Sever.
Correct Answer

A. Transmit.

Explanation

When the deployed decoy of the ALE-50 TDS receives -2035 VDC power, the MPLC (Mode Power and Logic Controller) is in Transmit mode of operation. This means that the system is actively transmitting signals or performing its intended function. The other options, Standby, Backup, and Sever, do not indicate an active mode of operation and are therefore not the correct answer.

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31.

The10-High Infrared Countermeasures System transmitter faces the rear and is located
- On each wing tip.
- At the top of the tail.
- In each engine pylon.
- Under the rear of the fuselage.
Correct Answer

A. In each engine pylon.

Explanation

The correct answer is "in each engine pylon." The explanation for this answer is that the 10-High Infrared Countermeasures System transmitter is located in each engine pylon. This means that there is a transmitter in each of the engine pylons of the aircraft.

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32.

What is heard in the audio headsets when jamming a target with the AN/AAQ–24 DIRCM System?
- 200/400 Hz tone.
- 400/600 Hz tone.
- 600/1000 Hz tone.
- 1000/1500 Hz tone.
Correct Answer

A. 600/1000 Hz tone.

Explanation

When jamming a target with the AN/AAQ-24 DIRCM System, a 600/1000 Hz tone is heard in the audio headsets.

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33.

What control do you adjust to put the ALR–20 Panoramic Receiver System into the AUTO tuning mode?
- MAN FREQ control to MAX.
- MAN FREQ control to AUDIO.
- SWEEP WIDTH control to MAX.
- SWEEP WIDTH control to AUDIO.
Correct Answer

A. SWEEP WIDTH control to MAX.

Explanation

To put the ALR-20 Panoramic Receiver System into the AUTO tuning mode, you need to adjust the SWEEP WIDTH control to MAX. This control determines the width of the frequency sweep, and setting it to the maximum value ensures that the receiver system scans a wide range of frequencies automatically. Adjusting the MAN FREQ control to MAX or AUDIO does not activate the AUTO tuning mode.

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34.

Which B–2 DMS component performs electronic order-of-battle correlation?
- Preprocessor.
- Receiver/processor.
- DMP.
- TELS processor.
Correct Answer

A. TELS processor.

Explanation

The TELS processor is the B-2 DMS component that performs electronic order-of-battle correlation. This means that it analyzes and correlates electronic signals to determine the enemy's order of battle, which includes information about their military units, equipment, and capabilities. The TELS processor is specifically designed for this purpose and is responsible for processing and interpreting the electronic signals received by the B-2 DMS system.

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35.

Which subsystem of the ALQ–161A Defensive Avionic System acquires threat radar signals from the environment?
- Active.
- Passive.
- Warning.
- Detection.
Correct Answer

A. Detection.

Explanation

The subsystem of the ALQ-161A Defensive Avionic System that acquires threat radar signals from the environment is the Detection subsystem. This subsystem is responsible for identifying and detecting incoming radar signals that could pose a threat to the aircraft. It plays a crucial role in alerting the pilot and other defensive systems about potential threats, allowing them to take appropriate defensive measures.

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36.

What supplies the operator control interface for the Hawk CS–2010 DF/Receiver system?
- Keyboard.
- Display unit.
- OCU.
- RCU.
Correct Answer

A. Keyboard.

Explanation

The operator control interface for the Hawk CS-2010 DF/Receiver system is supplied by a keyboard. The keyboard allows the operator to input commands and control the system. It is a crucial component for operating and interacting with the system, providing a means for the operator to input information and navigate through the system's functions. The keyboard enables efficient and effective control over the system's operations.

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37.

Which control is not located under the protective panel on the front of the ALR–20 Panoramic Receiver System indicator?
- Focus.
- Intensity.
- Positioning.
- Scale illumination.
Correct Answer

A. Scale illumination.

Explanation

The control that is not located under the protective panel on the front of the ALR-20 Panoramic Receiver System indicator is scale illumination. This means that the scale illumination control is located elsewhere on the device, outside of the protective panel.

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38.

How many of the ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver indicator control unit’s lamp switches control modes of operation?
- 4
- 6.
- 8.
- 10.
Correct Answer

A. 6.

Explanation

The ALR-69 Radar Warning Receiver indicator control unit has 6 lamp switches that control different modes of operation.

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39.

Providing two independently selectable and individually tunable RF signals is the primary function of the ALT–32A’s
- Spot noise circuit.
- Noise barrage circuit.
- Automatic gain control.
- Common functional circuit.
Correct Answer

A. Spot noise circuit.

Explanation

The primary function of the ALT-32A's spot noise circuit is to provide two independently selectable and individually tunable RF signals. This circuit generates random noise signals that can be used for testing and calibration purposes in various applications. It allows the user to adjust the frequency and amplitude of the noise signals independently, providing flexibility and versatility in signal generation.

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40.

What does a steady deploy indicator on the ALE–50 TDS’s CDU mean?
- A TDS fault is detected.
- A sever command failed.
- A decoy is fully deployed.
- A decoy is being deployed.
Correct Answer

A. A decoy is fully deployed.

Explanation

The steady deploy indicator on the ALE-50 TDS's CDU indicates that a decoy is fully deployed. This means that the countermeasure system has successfully released a decoy to divert incoming threats away from the aircraft. The indicator provides confirmation that the deployment process has been completed and the decoy is effectively in place to protect the aircraft.

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41.

) Which of these devices did not contribute to increased tuning speeds for the ALR–20 Panoramic Receiver System?
- Traveling wave tubes.
- Backward wave oscillators.
- Frequency sensitive channel filters.
- Magnetically tuned bandpass filters.
Correct Answer

A. Frequency sensitive channel filters.

Explanation

Frequency sensitive channel filters did not contribute to increased tuning speeds for the ALR-20 Panoramic Receiver System. The other three devices, traveling wave tubes, backward wave oscillators, and magnetically tuned bandpass filters, all played a role in increasing tuning speeds.

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42.

The ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver component that has blanking circuits which allow it to distinguish TACAN output pulses and friendly radar to prevent their display on the azimuth indicator is the
- FSRS receiver.
- Signal processor.
- Receiver controller.
- Compass sail amplifier detector.
Correct Answer

A. Compass sail amplifier detector.

Explanation

The ALR-69 Radar Warning Receiver component that has blanking circuits which allow it to distinguish TACAN output pulses and friendly radar to prevent their display on the azimuth indicator is the compass sail amplifier detector.

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43.

Direction finding in the ALQ–172(V)1 Countermeasures Set is accomplished by the
- Receiver.
- RF switch.
- Transmitter.
- Signals controller.
Correct Answer

A. RF switch.

Explanation

In the ALQ-172(V)1 Countermeasures Set, direction finding is achieved through the use of the RF switch. The RF switch is responsible for controlling the flow of radio frequency signals within the system. It allows the receiver to select and process the desired signals while blocking out unwanted signals. By manipulating the RF switch, the system can effectively determine the direction of incoming signals and take appropriate countermeasures. The transmitter, receiver, and signals controller are not directly involved in the direction finding process.

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44.

The ALR–20 Panoramic Receiver System jammer control unit allows the operator to look through
- Received threat packages.
- Onboard system receivers.
- Certain transmitter outputs.
- Any internally generated noise on the displayed traces.
Correct Answer

A. Certain transmitter outputs.

Explanation

The ALR-20 Panoramic Receiver System jammer control unit allows the operator to look through certain transmitter outputs. This means that the operator can view and analyze specific signals or frequencies that are being transmitted by potential threats. By being able to monitor these transmitter outputs, the operator can identify and respond to any potential threats more effectively.

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45.

The ALQ–161A LRU that controls and monitors the EMUX system and components is the
- DLT.
- CT.
- DRT.
- CITS interface terminal.
Correct Answer

A. CT.

Explanation

The correct answer is CT, which stands for Control Terminal. The ALQ-161A LRU is responsible for controlling and monitoring the EMUX system and its components. The Control Terminal serves as the interface terminal for the system, allowing users to interact with and manage the EMUX system effectively.

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46.

ALE–47 Countermeasures System dispense signals are routed to breechplate contact pins by the
- Sequencer.
- Programmer.
- DA.
- CDU.
Correct Answer

A. Sequencer.

Explanation

The ALE-47 Countermeasures System dispense signals are routed to breechplate contact pins by the sequencer. The sequencer is responsible for coordinating and controlling the dispensing of countermeasures in response to threats. It receives inputs from various sensors and determines the appropriate timing and sequence for dispensing the countermeasures. The sequencer then sends the dispense signals to the breechplate contact pins, which initiate the release of the countermeasures.

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47.

What B–2 defensive management system antennas provide backlobe suppression?
- Band 1.
- Band 2.
- Band 3.
- Band 4.
Correct Answer

A. Band 4.

Explanation

The B-2 defensive management system antennas that provide backlobe suppression are Band 4.

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48.

The subsystem of the ALQ–161A Defensive Avionic System that contains the controlling hardware for expendable countermeasures is
- Active.
- Passive.
- Warning.
- Detection.
Correct Answer

A. Passive.

Explanation

The controlling hardware for expendable countermeasures in the ALQ-161A Defensive Avionic System is referred to as "passive." This implies that the hardware does not actively emit any signals or take any offensive actions. Instead, it is designed to detect and respond to incoming threats by deploying expendable countermeasures such as chaff or flares. The passive nature of this subsystem ensures that it does not reveal the aircraft's position or intentions to potential threats.

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49.

Which AN/AAQ–24 DIRCM system BIT verifies the CIU signal processor interface?
- 5 minute intervals.
- 10 minute intervals.
- 20 minute intervals.
- 30 minute intervals.
Correct Answer

A. 20 minute intervals.

Explanation

The AN/AAQ-24 DIRCM system BIT verifies the CIU signal processor interface at 20-minute intervals. This means that every 20 minutes, the BIT (Built-In Test) of the system will check and verify the interface between the CIU (Control Interface Unit) and the signal processor. This regular interval ensures that the interface is functioning properly and allows for timely detection of any potential issues or malfunctions.

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Quiz Edited by
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Nov 03, 2011

Quiz Created by
Airmancollin

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2a553c CDC Volume 4 Ure

What ALE–47 CMDS operating mode selects an appropriate dispense response and initiates dispensing?

Quiz Preview

Which ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver System indicator-control lamp switch permits better viewing of obscured threat symbols?

Which ALE–50 TDS component isolates the electrical squib firing signals to prevent accidental deployment of decoys?

The power supply of the ALR–20 Panoramic Receiver System DC VOLTAGE MONITOR panel provides

What is the primary intrasystem interface for the Hawk CS–2010 DF/Receiver System called?

The displayed symbol that indicates that a signal’s parameters do not meet the requirements programmed into the ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver System is the

Which AYR–2 Electronic Support Measures System equipment section contains the units for data processing and power distribution?

The ALR–20 Panoramic Receiver System is self-tested using

) What is the maximum number of threats displayed in the PRIORITY mode of the ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver System?

What subsystem of the ALQ–161A Defensive Avionic System uses an automatic PD radar to detect airborne interceptors or missiles approaching from the rear of the aircraft?

How many decoys can be deployed by the ALE–50 TDS?

What ALR–20 Panoramic Receiver System control adjusts the sensitivity and gain of the receiver?

What B–2 flight management system component records the RDIs of failed LRUs?

What B–2 defensive management system components couple RF from the environment into the EWS?

Which option is not a threat file of the ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver System?

Which B–2 flight management system multifunction display unit page provides warnings, cautions, and advisories to the aircrew?

What is the B–52 aircraft’s only totally manual transmitter system?

During flight, the ALQ–161A CITS control and display panel displays aircraft systems status and malfunction information in the form of a

In what mode does the ALE–47 CMDS select the appropriate dispense program and response but the operator must activate the dispenser?

When the ALR–20 Panoramic Receiver System is in manual mode which option cannot be evaluated?

Which statement describes a self-test function in the ALR–20 Panoramic Receiver System?

) When the PRI of a displayed emitter changes, what determines the PRI of the tone heard from the ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver System?

Which threat file is selected when power is first applied to the ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver System?

What type of antenna does the ALQ–172(V)2 Countermeasures Set use?

What ALQ–161A ACU complex component allows rapid loading and storing of software programs for the avionics control computers?

Which ALQ–161A Defensive Avionic System subsystem contains the ECM transmitting hardware?

The AAR–47 Missile Warning Set uses how many optical sensor converters?

) When the ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver System is in PRIORITY mode, how is the operator notified when six or more high priority threats exist?

What detection subsystem component of the ALQ–161A Defensive Avionic System converts the RF signal into a digital data word?

The MPLC of the ALE–50 TDS is in what mode of operation when –2035 VDC power is sent to the deployed decoy?

The10-High Infrared Countermeasures System transmitter faces the rear and is located

What is heard in the audio headsets when jamming a target with the AN/AAQ–24 DIRCM System?

What control do you adjust to put the ALR–20 Panoramic Receiver System into the AUTO tuning mode?

Which B–2 DMS component performs electronic order-of-battle correlation?

Which subsystem of the ALQ–161A Defensive Avionic System acquires threat radar signals from the environment?

What supplies the operator control interface for the Hawk CS–2010 DF/Receiver system?

Which control is not located under the protective panel on the front of the ALR–20 Panoramic Receiver System indicator?

How many of the ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver indicator control unit’s lamp switches control modes of operation?

Providing two independently selectable and individually tunable RF signals is the primary function of the ALT–32A’s

What does a steady deploy indicator on the ALE–50 TDS’s CDU mean?

) Which of these devices did not contribute to increased tuning speeds for the ALR–20 Panoramic Receiver System?

The ALR–69 Radar Warning Receiver component that has blanking circuits which allow it to distinguish TACAN output pulses and friendly radar to prevent their display on the azimuth indicator is the

Direction finding in the ALQ–172(V)1 Countermeasures Set is accomplished by the

The ALR–20 Panoramic Receiver System jammer control unit allows the operator to look through

The ALQ–161A LRU that controls and monitors the EMUX system and components is the

ALE–47 Countermeasures System dispense signals are routed to breechplate contact pins by the

What B–2 defensive management system antennas provide backlobe suppression?

The subsystem of the ALQ–161A Defensive Avionic System that contains the controlling hardware for expendable countermeasures is

Which AN/AAQ–24 DIRCM system BIT verifies the CIU signal processor interface?