Preparing For The Airman Study? Take The CDC Quiz !!

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Preparing For The Airman Study? Take The CDC Quiz !! - Quiz

Check out the online quiz which is more like a study guide to help airman study for there end of course test. It is related to SOF/PR Electronic Warfare Systems Journeyman, Volume 1. Electronic Warfare Principles and Support Equipment. Take the quiz and gauge your preperation.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    1. (001) To attend Airman Leadership School, you must have how many months of time-in-service in the Air Force?

    • A.

      A. 6.

    • B.

      B. 12.

    • C.

      C. 24.

    • D.

      D. 48.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 48.
    Explanation
    To attend Airman Leadership School, you must have 48 months of time-in-service in the Air Force. This means that you need to have served for at least 4 years in order to be eligible to attend the school.

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  • 2. 

    2. (001) The minimum on-the-job training time required for upgrade to the 7-skill level is

    • A.

      A. 6 months.

    • B.

      B. 12 months.

    • C.

      C. 24 months.

    • D.

      D. 48 months.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 6 months.
    Explanation
    The minimum on-the-job training time required for upgrade to the 7-skill level is 6 months. This means that an individual must complete at least 6 months of on-the-job training in order to be eligible for the upgrade.

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  • 3. 

    3. (002) The Air Force Instruction (AFI) that governs the current wing organization and operation is

    • A.

      A. 53–3.

    • B.

      B. 39–1.

    • C.

      C. 21–166.

    • D.

      D. 21–101.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 21–101.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. 21–101. This Air Force Instruction (AFI) governs the current wing organization and operation.

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  • 4. 

    4. (003) Who ensures the wing’s quality assurance program is viable and implemented?

    • A.

      A. Wing commander.

    • B.

      B. Maintenance group commander.

    • C.

      C. Operations group commander.

    • D.

      D. Maintenance squadron commander.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Maintenance group commander.
    Explanation
    The maintenance group commander is responsible for ensuring the wing's quality assurance program is viable and implemented. This role involves overseeing the maintenance operations of the wing and ensuring that all maintenance activities are conducted in accordance with established standards and procedures. The maintenance group commander works closely with other commanders and personnel within the wing to ensure that the quality assurance program is effective in maintaining the readiness and reliability of the wing's aircraft and equipment.

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  • 5. 

    5. (003) Who monitors new requirements for training, equipment authorizations, special tools, work space, facilities, and manning?

    • A.

      A. Section chief.

    • B.

      B. Squadron commander.

    • C.

      C. Flight commander/chief.

    • D.

      D. Maintenance officer/maintenance supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Squadron commander.
    Explanation
    The squadron commander is responsible for monitoring new requirements for training, equipment authorizations, special tools, work space, facilities, and manning. This includes ensuring that all necessary resources are available and that the personnel are properly trained and equipped to carry out their duties. The squadron commander is in a position of authority and oversight, making them the appropriate individual to monitor and manage these requirements.

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  • 6. 

    6. (003) Who is responsible for directing the maintenance effort using available resources and participating in the development and execution of the monthly, weekly flying and maintenance schedules/plans?

    • A.

      A. Production superintendent.

    • B.

      B. Maintenance officer.

    • C.

      C. Quality assurance.

    • D.

      D. Wing commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Production superintendent.
    Explanation
    The production superintendent is responsible for directing the maintenance effort using available resources and participating in the development and execution of the monthly, weekly flying and maintenance schedules/plans. This role involves overseeing the maintenance operations, ensuring that resources are allocated effectively, and coordinating with other departments to ensure smooth execution of maintenance schedules. The production superintendent plays a crucial role in ensuring that maintenance tasks are carried out efficiently and in a timely manner.

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  • 7. 

    7. (004) Whose role is it to assesses, analyze, and identify problem areas that may exist; assess the quality of training; determine aircraft and equipment condition; and improve reliability/maintainability of aircraft and support equipment?

    • A.

      A. Wing commander.

    • B.

      B. Quality assurance.

    • C.

      C. Weapons standardization.

    • D.

      D. Maintenance operations center.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Quality assurance.
    Explanation
    Quality assurance is responsible for assessing, analyzing, and identifying problem areas, as well as assessing the quality of training and determining aircraft and equipment condition. They also work to improve the reliability and maintainability of aircraft and support equipment. The other options, such as the wing commander, weapons standardization, and maintenance operations center, do not have the specific role of assessing and improving these areas.

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  • 8. 

    8. (004) Who or what coordinating/facilitating entity is responsible for monitoring and supporting the flight line maintenance effort?

    • A.

      A. Wing Operations Center (WOC).

    • B.

      B. Operations commander (OG/CC).

    • C.

      C. Maintenance operations center (MOC).

    • D.

      D. Maintenance group commander (MXG/CC).

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Maintenance operations center (MOC).
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Operations Center (MOC) is responsible for monitoring and supporting the flight line maintenance effort. They coordinate and facilitate the maintenance activities, ensuring that resources and personnel are properly allocated and that maintenance operations run smoothly. The MOC acts as a central hub for communication and coordination between maintenance personnel, flight line crews, and other support functions. They also track maintenance status, provide updates and support, and ensure that all maintenance tasks are completed efficiently and effectively.

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  • 9. 

    9. (004) What flight in the maintenance squadron primarily performs off equipment maintenance of avionics components and electronic warfare systems?

    • A.

      A. Avionics.

    • B.

      B. Accessory.

    • C.

      C. Maintenance Support.

    • D.

      D. Test Measurement, and Diagnostic Equipment (TMDE).

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Avionics.
    Explanation
    The flight in the maintenance squadron that primarily performs off equipment maintenance of avionics components and electronic warfare systems is the Avionics flight. This flight is responsible for the repair, inspection, and calibration of avionics equipment, such as radar systems, communication systems, and electronic countermeasures. They ensure that these systems are functioning properly and are ready for use in aircraft. The other options, Accessory, Maintenance Support, and TMDE, are not specifically focused on avionics and electronic warfare systems maintenance.

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  • 10. 

    10. (005) Supply discipline is best described as

    • A.

      A. protection given to AF resources.

    • B.

      B. command-directed supply procedures.

    • C.

      C. instructions given to protect AF resources.

    • D.

      D. extra consideration to get the most from available resources.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. extra consideration to get the most from available resources.
    Explanation
    Supply discipline is best described as the practice of carefully managing and utilizing available resources in order to maximize their effectiveness and efficiency. It involves taking extra consideration and being mindful of how resources are used, ensuring that they are not wasted or misused. This includes following established procedures and guidelines, as well as being responsible for the protection and preservation of Air Force resources.

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  • 11. 

    11. (006) Property accountability is the obligation to

    • A.

      A. safeguard property from theft.

    • B.

      B. account for equipment ordered.

    • C.

      C. maintain the condition of property.

    • D.

      D. keep accurate, auditable records of property.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. keep accurate, auditable records of property.
    Explanation
    Property accountability refers to the responsibility of keeping accurate and auditable records of property. This means that individuals or organizations are required to maintain detailed and reliable documentation of all property they possess or are responsible for. This includes recording information such as the description, quantity, value, location, and condition of the property. By doing so, property can be properly tracked, monitored, and audited, ensuring that it is accounted for and preventing loss, theft, or misuse.

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  • 12. 

    12. (006) Who is accountable for equipment items?

    • A.

      A. Supply personnel and equipment custodians.

    • B.

      B. Resource advisers and equipment custodians.

    • C.

      C. Maintenance personnel and resource advisors.

    • D.

      D. Equipment manufacturers and supply personnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Supply personnel and equipment custodians.
    Explanation
    Supply personnel and equipment custodians are accountable for equipment items. They are responsible for managing the inventory, tracking the movement of equipment, maintaining records, and ensuring that equipment is properly stored and maintained. They are also responsible for conducting regular inspections and audits to ensure that equipment is accounted for and in good working condition. By holding these individuals accountable, the organization can ensure that equipment is properly managed and available when needed.

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  • 13. 

    13. (006) One way you can be relieved of property responsibility is to

    • A.

      A. turn the property in to Supply.

    • B.

      B. have the property declared surplus.

    • C.

      C. have the property declared unserviceable.

    • D.

      D. call the base equipment management office.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. turn the property in to Supply.
    Explanation
    To be relieved of property responsibility, one option is to turn the property in to Supply. This means that you return the property to the supply department, indicating that you no longer need to be responsible for it. This allows the supply department to take over the responsibility of managing and maintaining the property. It is a standard procedure for transferring property responsibility within an organization.

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  • 14. 

    14. (006) When a person who is responsible for property is transferred, and the property remains with the organization, property responsibility

    • A.

      A. is dropped.

    • B.

      B. remains with the person.

    • C.

      C. stays in the organization.

    • D.

      D. is transferred to the supply squadron.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. stays in the organization.
    Explanation
    When a person who is responsible for property is transferred, and the property remains with the organization, property responsibility stays in the organization. This means that even though the person responsible for the property has changed, the organization is still accountable for the property and must continue to ensure its proper management and maintenance. The transfer of the person does not absolve the organization of its responsibility for the property.

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  • 15. 

    15. (006) What document is used to explain and record the circumstances involving the loss, damage, or destruction of a government equipment item that cost more than $500?

    • A.

      A. A report of survey.

    • B.

      B. A statement of charges.

    • C.

      C. DD Form 114, Military Pay Order.

    • D.

      D. DD Form 362, Statement of Charges for Government Property Lost, Damage, or Destroyed.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. A report of survey.
    Explanation
    A report of survey is used to explain and record the circumstances involving the loss, damage, or destruction of a government equipment item that cost more than $500. This document provides a detailed account of the incident and helps determine the responsibility and accountability for the loss. It is an important tool for conducting investigations and ensuring proper financial management of government property.

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  • 16. 

    16. (007) Responsibility for monitoring outstanding product quality deficiency reports (PQDR) rests with the personnel in the

    • A.

      A. originating point.

    • B.

      B. screening point.

    • C.

      C. support point.

    • D.

      D. action point.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. screening point.
    Explanation
    The personnel in the screening point are responsible for monitoring outstanding product quality deficiency reports (PQDR). This means that they are in charge of keeping track of any reported issues or deficiencies with the product's quality and ensuring that they are addressed and resolved. The screening point is typically the initial point of contact for these reports, where they are reviewed and assessed before being forwarded to the appropriate personnel for action. Therefore, it is their responsibility to monitor and manage the PQDR process.

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  • 17. 

    17. (007) The personnel in the screening point have received a draft Category (CAT) I product quality deficiency report (PQDR). They must now submit a finalized PQDR to the personnel in the action point within how many hours?

    • A.

      A. 12.

    • B.

      B. 24.

    • C.

      C. 48.

    • D.

      D. 72.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 72.
    Explanation
    The personnel in the screening point have received a draft Category I product quality deficiency report (PQDR). They must now submit a finalized PQDR to the personnel in the action point within 72 hours. This means that they have three days to review and complete the PQDR before submitting it. It is important for them to finalize and submit the PQDR within this timeframe to ensure that any product quality issues are addressed and resolved in a timely manner.

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  • 18. 

    18. (007) Which situation would result in a Category (CAT) II product quality deficiency report (PQDR)?

    • A.

      A. A defect that impairs combat readiness.

    • B.

      B. A product that does not conform to specifications.

    • C.

      C. A deficiency that, if left uncorrected, could cause death.

    • D.

      D. A deficiency that, if left uncorrected, could cause major damage to equipment.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. A product that does not conform to specifications.
    Explanation
    A Category II Product Quality Deficiency Report (PQDR) is issued when a product does not conform to specifications. This means that the product does not meet the required standards or requirements set for it. This type of deficiency may not directly impair combat readiness or cause death or major damage to equipment, but it still represents a quality issue that needs to be addressed and corrected.

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  • 19. 

    19. (008) After discovering a Category (CAT) II product quality deficiency report (PQDR), how long does the discoverer have to forward a draft copy of the PQDR to the folks in the screening point?

    • A.

      A. 1 day.

    • B.

      B. 3 days.

    • C.

      C. 5 days.

    • D.

      D. 7 days.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. 3 days.
    Explanation
    After discovering a Category (CAT) II product quality deficiency report (PQDR), the discoverer has 3 days to forward a draft copy of the PQDR to the folks in the screening point.

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  • 20. 

    20. (008) In addition to filling out a Standard Form 368, Product Quality Deficiency Report, what other forms must be completed?

    • A.

      A. DD Form 2332 and DD Form 1575.

    • B.

      B. AFTO Form 350 and DD Form 2332.

    • C.

      C. AF Form 2005 and AFTO Form 135.

    • D.

      D. DD Form 1348–1A and AFTO Form 350.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. DD Form 2332 and DD Form 1575.
  • 21. 

    21. (009) What section of the security classification guide is used to determine the classification level of system components?

    • A.

      A. Hardware.

    • B.

      B. Operational data.

    • C.

      C. Ground support equipment.

    • D.

      D. Performance and capabilities.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Operational data.
    Explanation
    The classification level of system components is determined by the section of the security classification guide that covers operational data. This section provides guidelines and criteria for classifying information based on its sensitivity and potential impact if disclosed. It includes information such as mission capabilities, vulnerabilities, and operational procedures. By assessing the operational data, the classification level of system components can be determined to ensure appropriate protection and handling of classified information.

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  • 22. 

    22. (009) Which security classification guide section would list the transmit frequency of an electronic warfare system?

    • A.

      A. Hardware.

    • B.

      B. Operational data.

    • C.

      C. Performance and capabilities.

    • D.

      D. Funding, procurement, and production.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Performance and capabilities.
    Explanation
    The transmit frequency of an electronic warfare system is an important aspect of its performance and capabilities. Knowing the transmit frequency allows for effective planning and coordination of electronic warfare operations. Therefore, it would be listed in the Performance and capabilities section of the security classification guide.

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  • 23. 

    23. (010) What do you need to receive custody of a Top-Secret classified asset from supply?

    • A.

      A. Have a valid need to know.

    • B.

      B. Be listed on an authorized roster.

    • C.

      C. Hold a secret security clearance.

    • D.

      D. Have a military identification card.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Be listed on an authorized roster.
    Explanation
    To receive custody of a Top-Secret classified asset from supply, you need to be listed on an authorized roster. This means that your name must be included on a list of individuals who have been granted permission to access and handle such classified assets. Being listed on an authorized roster ensures that only authorized personnel have access to sensitive information and materials, maintaining the security and integrity of the asset. This requirement helps prevent unauthorized individuals from obtaining or mishandling classified information.

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  • 24. 

    24. (011) What safeguarding is necessary for top-secret equipment installed aboard an aircraft without priority A designation?

    • A.

      A. Use an intrusion detection system.

    • B.

      B. Check the aircraft every three hours.

    • C.

      C. Park the aircraft in a restricted area for priority B.

    • D.

      D. Take no further action if owner/user stays with aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Use an intrusion detection system.
  • 25. 

    25. (012) At what point do you erase symbols you entered on the AFTO Form 781A?

    • A.

      A. When you enter them in error.

    • B.

      B. When you find them to be incorrect.

    • C.

      C. When you must correct a discrepancy.

    • D.

      D. Never, even if you entered them in error.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Never, even if you entered them in error.
    Explanation
    According to the given answer, symbols entered on the AFTO Form 781A should never be erased, even if they were entered in error. This is because erasing symbols can lead to the loss of important information and can create confusion or discrepancies in the form. It is recommended to cross out the incorrect symbols and write the correct ones next to them, ensuring that the original entry is still visible.

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  • 26. 

    26. (012) Who ensures the job control number (when assigned) is entered on the AFTO Form 781A?

    • A.

      A. Specialist.

    • B.

      B. Supervisor.

    • C.

      C. Crew chief.

    • D.

      D. Pilot.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Crew chief.
    Explanation
    The crew chief ensures that the job control number (when assigned) is entered on the AFTO Form 781A. The crew chief is responsible for overseeing the maintenance and repair of aircraft, and part of their duties includes properly documenting and tracking work performed on the aircraft. The job control number is an important identifier that helps keep track of maintenance actions and ensures accountability. Therefore, it is the crew chief's responsibility to ensure that this number is correctly entered on the form.

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  • 27. 

    27. (012) What is required in the corrective action block of the AFTO Form 781A?

    • A.

      A. Detailed description of the corrective action.

    • B.

      B. Technical order references.

    • C.

      C. Technician’s signature.

    • D.

      D. Supervisor’s signature.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Detailed description of the corrective action.
    Explanation
    In the corrective action block of the AFTO Form 781A, a detailed description of the corrective action is required. This means that the person filling out the form must provide specific and comprehensive information about what action was taken to address the issue or problem identified. This could include steps taken, parts replaced, adjustments made, or any other relevant details that explain how the issue was resolved. This information is important for documentation and tracking purposes, as well as for future reference and analysis.

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  • 28. 

    28. (013) Which AFTO form provides the avionics configuration and load status?

    • A.

      A. 781B.

    • B.

      B. 781C.

    • C.

      C. 781H.

    • D.

      D. 781K.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. 781C.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 781C. The 781C AFTO form provides the avionics configuration and load status.

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  • 29. 

    29. (014) Which AFTO form is used to document maintenance status and servicing information?

    • A.

      A. 781A.

    • B.

      B. 781B.

    • C.

      C. 781H.

    • D.

      D. 781J.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 781H.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. 781H. The AFTO form 781H is used to document maintenance status and servicing information. This form is specifically designed for recording the maintenance history of an aircraft or equipment, including inspections, repairs, modifications, and servicing. It provides a comprehensive record of the maintenance activities performed on the item, allowing maintenance personnel to track its maintenance history and ensure that all necessary maintenance tasks are completed.

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  • 30. 

    30. (014) Who is responsible for documenting engine cycles on an AFTO Form 781H?

    • A.

      A. Pilot.

    • B.

      B. Crew chief.

    • C.

      C. Engine technician.

    • D.

      D. Production supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Pilot.
    Explanation
    The pilot is responsible for documenting engine cycles on an AFTO Form 781H. This form is used to record information about the engine's operating time and cycles, such as takeoffs and landings. The pilot is in the best position to accurately document this information as they are directly involved in the operation of the aircraft and have access to the necessary data. The crew chief, engine technician, and production supervisor may have other responsibilities related to the engine, but it is ultimately the pilot's responsibility to document engine cycles.

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  • 31. 

    31. (015) Block G on the AFTO Form 781K is used to document

    • A.

      A. all immediate and urgent action time compliance technical orders (TCTO) upon compliance.

    • B.

      B. inspection items that require inspection/testing at a specified time/period.

    • C.

      C. the status of depot inspections.

    • D.

      D. higher authority inspections.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. all immediate and urgent action time compliance technical orders (TCTO) upon compliance.
    Explanation
    Good luck finding Block G it's not there. So just remember if it was there it would have all immediate and urgent action time compliance technical orders (TCTO) upon compliance.

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  • 32. 

    32. (015) How do you mark out the red dash item in the 781K when transferred?

    • A.

      A. Mark an X over the red dash.

    • B.

      B. Put your signature over the red dash.

    • C.

      C. Initial the red dash.

    • D.

      D. Draw a line above or below the red dash.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Draw a line above or below the red dash.
    Explanation
    When transferring the 781K, the correct way to mark out the red dash item is to draw a line above or below the red dash. This is done to clearly indicate that the item has been accounted for and is no longer part of the transfer. Marking an X over the red dash, putting a signature over it, or initialing it may not provide as clear and visible indication of the item being marked out. Drawing a line above or below the red dash ensures that it is easily noticeable and distinguishes it from the rest of the items on the form.

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  • 33. 

    33. (016) Malfunctions documented on an AFTO Forms 244, Equipment Maintenance Record, are the responsibility of

    • A.

      A. aerospace ground equipment (AGE) mechanics.

    • B.

      B. avionics backshop personnel.

    • C.

      C. propulsion mechanics.

    • D.

      D. flight line technicians.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. aerospace ground equipment (AGE) mechanics.
    Explanation
    Malfunctions documented on an AFTO Forms 244, Equipment Maintenance Record, are the responsibility of aerospace ground equipment (AGE) mechanics. This means that the AGE mechanics are responsible for maintaining and repairing the equipment mentioned in the form. Avionics backshop personnel, propulsion mechanics, and flight line technicians may have their own responsibilities, but the AFTO Forms 244 specifically pertain to the AGE mechanics.

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  • 34. 

    34. (016) How many parts does a 244 have?

    • A.

      A. 2.

    • B.

      B. 3.

    • C.

      C. 4.

    • D.

      D. 5.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 5.
    Explanation
    A 244 can be divided into five equal parts.

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  • 35. 

    35. (017) To ―flag‖ a condition on an aircraft that could cause damage or injury if ignored, use

    • A.

      A. AFTO Form 244.

    • B.

      B. AFTO Form 781K.

    • C.

      C. AF Form 1492, WARNING tag.

    • D.

      D. AF Form 979, DANGER tag.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. AF Form 1492, WARNING tag.
    Explanation
    To "flag" a condition on an aircraft that could cause damage or injury if ignored, the appropriate form to use is the AF Form 1492, WARNING tag. This form is specifically designed to indicate a warning or cautionary condition that needs attention to prevent potential harm. The other options listed, AFTO Form 244, AFTO Form 781K, and AF Form 979, are not specifically designed for this purpose and may not convey the same level of urgency or importance.

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  • 36. 

    36. (017) What appropriate symbol(s) do you use for all AFTO Form 781A ―Warning‖ Tag entries?

    • A.

      A. Red diagonal or red circle.

    • B.

      B. Red dash or red diagonal.

    • C.

      C. Red diagonal or red X.

    • D.

      D. Red dash or red X.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Red diagonal or red X.
    Explanation
    The appropriate symbol(s) to use for all AFTO Form 781A "Warning" Tag entries are a red diagonal or red X.

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  • 37. 

    37. (018) The Air Force technical order (TO) numbering system is explained in detail in TO

    • A.

      A. 0–4–2.

    • B.

      B. 0–1–01.

    • C.

      C. 00–5–1.

    • D.

      D. 00–5–18.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 00–5–18.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. 00–5–18. The Air Force technical order (TO) numbering system is explained in detail in TO 00–5–18.

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  • 38. 

    38. (018) Air Force technical order (TO) numbers are limited to how many positions?

    • A.

      A. 25.

    • B.

      B. 33.

    • C.

      C. 42.

    • D.

      D. 71.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 71.
    Explanation
    Air Force technical order (TO) numbers are limited to 71 positions. This means that the TO number can have a maximum of 71 characters or digits. This limit ensures that the TO number remains manageable and allows for efficient organization and retrieval of technical orders within the Air Force.

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  • 39. 

    39. (018S) The fourth group of characters in Air Force technical order (TO) number 1B–1B–2–6 identifies the

    • A.

      A. kind of TO.

    • B.

      B. specific item of equipment.

    • C.

      C. section of a sectionalized TO.

    • D.

      D. equipment model or part number.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. section of a sectionalized TO.
    Explanation
    The fourth group of characters in the Air Force technical order (TO) number 1B-1B-2-6 identifies the section of a sectionalized TO. This means that the TO is divided into different sections, and the fourth group of characters indicates which section the TO belongs to. This helps in organizing and navigating through the TO, making it easier to find the specific information needed.

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  • 40. 

    40. (019) Air Force technical manuals used in conjunction with troubleshooting requirements to isolate malfunctions on aircraft are called

    • A.

      A. aircraft technical orders (TOs).

    • B.

      B. other equipment TOs.

    • C.

      C. commercial manuals.

    • D.

      D. job guides.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. job guides.
    Explanation
    Air Force technical manuals used in conjunction with troubleshooting requirements to isolate malfunctions on aircraft are called job guides. These guides provide step-by-step instructions and procedures for diagnosing and fixing issues with the aircraft. They are specific to the job or task at hand and are designed to assist technicians in efficiently and effectively resolving problems.

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  • 41. 

    41. (019) Air Force technical manuals that contain data for the operation and servicing of aircraft equipment are called

    • A.

      A. aircraft technical orders (TOs).

    • B.

      B. other equipment TOs.

    • C.

      C. commercial manuals.

    • D.

      D. job guides.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. job guides.
    Explanation
    Air Force technical manuals that contain data for the operation and servicing of aircraft equipment are not called "job guides." The correct answer is a. aircraft technical orders (TOs).

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  • 42. 

    42. (019) Publications that contain instructions for use of equipment, in addition to data contained in other manuals, are identified as

    • A.

      A. supplements.

    • B.

      B. supplemental manuals.

    • C.

      C. commercial off-the-shelf manuals.

    • D.

      D. other equipment technical orders (TOs).

    Correct Answer
    B. B. supplemental manuals.
    Explanation
    Supplemental manuals are publications that contain instructions for the use of equipment, in addition to the data contained in other manuals. These manuals provide additional information and guidance on the proper use and operation of the equipment. They are separate from the main manuals and are meant to supplement the existing information. Therefore, the correct answer is b. supplemental manuals.

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  • 43. 

    43. (019) In the Air Force, commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) technical manuals are normally identified by an

    • A.

      A. equipment part number.

    • B.

      B. Air Force stock number.

    • C.

      C. assigned technical order (TO) number.

    • D.

      D. equipment manufacturer identification (ID) number.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. assigned technical order (TO) number.
    Explanation
    Commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) technical manuals in the Air Force are typically identified by an assigned technical order (TO) number. This means that the manuals are given a specific TO number for easy reference and identification. This helps ensure that the correct manual is being used for a particular piece of equipment or system. Using TO numbers also allows for standardized documentation and improves the efficiency of maintenance and repair operations.

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  • 44. 

    44. (020) What type of time compliance technical order (TCTO) is used to correct conditions that could result in fatal or serious injury?

    • A.

      A. Urgent.

    • B.

      B. Routine.

    • C.

      C. Immediate.

    • D.

      D. Emergency.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Immediate.
    Explanation
    An immediate time compliance technical order (TCTO) is used to correct conditions that could result in fatal or serious injury. This type of TCTO requires immediate action to ensure the safety of personnel and prevent any potential harm. It is the highest priority level for TCTOs and must be addressed immediately to mitigate any risks or hazards.

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  • 45. 

    45. (020) What type of time compliance technical order (TCTO) can be identified by red border markings—either red Xs or circled red Xs alternately spaced?

    • A.

      A. Routine and urgent.

    • B.

      B. Immediate and urgent.

    • C.

      C. Routine and emergency.

    • D.

      D. Emergency and immediate.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Immediate and urgent.
    Explanation
    TCTOs with red border markings, either red Xs or circled red Xs alternately spaced, indicate immediate and urgent time compliance. This means that the actions specified in the TCTO must be completed as soon as possible, as they are critical for the safety or operational readiness of the equipment.

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  • 46. 

    46. (020) Interim time compliance technical orders (TCTO) are normally replaced by formal TCTOs within a maximum time period of

    • A.

      A. 36 hours.

    • B.

      B. 48 hours.

    • C.

      C. 7 days.

    • D.

      D. 10 days.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 10 days.
    Explanation
    Interim Time Compliance Technical Orders (TCTOs) are temporary measures implemented to address urgent safety or operational issues. They are typically replaced by formal TCTOs within a maximum time period of 10 days. This allows for a thorough evaluation and implementation of a permanent solution to the identified problem. The longer time frame of 10 days allows for proper planning and coordination to ensure the effectiveness and sustainability of the solution.

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  • 47. 

    47. (021S) Methods and procedures technical orders (TO) normally pertain to

    • A.

      A. checklist procedures.

    • B.

      B. inspection sequence charts.

    • C.

      C. aircraft and administrative duties.

    • D.

      D. supervisory and administrative duties.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. supervisory and administrative duties.
    Explanation
    Methods and procedures technical orders (TO) typically cover supervisory and administrative duties. This means that they provide guidance and instructions for tasks related to managing and overseeing operations, rather than specific checklist procedures or inspection sequence charts. These TOs are likely to include information on responsibilities, reporting structures, and administrative processes that need to be followed within an organization.

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  • 48. 

    48. (021) The index that lists all Air Force methods and procedures technical orders (TO) is TO

    • A.

      A. 0–1–1.

    • B.

      B. 0–1–02.

    • C.

      C. 00–1–02.

    • D.

      D. 00–1–20.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 0–1–1.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. 0-1-1. The index that lists all Air Force methods and procedures technical orders (TO) is TO 0-1-1.

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  • 49. 

    49. (021) Which is not an abbreviated technical order (TO)?

    • A.

      A. Checklist.

    • B.

      B. Automation guide.

    • C.

      C. Inspection work card.

    • D.

      D. Inspection sequence chart.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Automation guide.
    Explanation
    An automation guide is not an abbreviated technical order (TO) because it is not a specific set of instructions or procedures for performing a task or operation. A TO typically provides step-by-step instructions, diagrams, and other relevant information to guide individuals in completing a specific task or operation. In contrast, an automation guide is more general and may provide information on automation principles, best practices, or guidelines, but it does not provide specific instructions for a particular task or operation.

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  • 50. 

    50. (021) The numerical designator of a checklist technical order (TO) contains what letters?

    • A.

      A. CL.

    • B.

      B. LC.

    • C.

      C. WC.

    • D.

      D. CW.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. CL.
    Explanation
    The numerical designator of a checklist technical order (TO) contains the letters "CL".

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 15, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 22, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Darren
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