Nursing Practice I -foundation Of Professional Nursing Practice (Practice Mode)

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Nurse Amy has documented an entry regarding client care in the client’s medical record. When checking the entry, the nurse realizes that incorrect information was documented. How does the nurse correct this error?

    • Erases the error and writes in the correct information.
    • Uses correction fluid to cover up the incorrect information and writes in the correct information.
    • Draws one line to cross out the incorrect information and then initials the change.
    • Covers up the incorrect information completely using a black pen and writes in the correct information
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Mark the letter of the letter of choice then click on the next button. Answer will be revealed after each question. No time limit to finish the exam. Good luck!

Nursing Practice I -foundation Of Professional Nursing Practice (Practice Mode) - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Nurse Gail places a client in a four-point restraint following orders from the physician. The client care plan should include:

    • Assess temperature frequently.

    • Provide diversional activities.

    • Check circulation every 15-30 minutes.

    • Socialize with other patients once a shift.

    Correct Answer
    A. Check circulation every 15-30 minutes.
    Explanation
    Restraints encircle the limbs, which place the client at risk for circulation being restricted to the distal areas of the extremities. Checking the client’s circulation every 15-30 minutes will allow the nurse to adjust the restraints before injury from decreased blood flow occurs.

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  • 3. 

    Nurse Patricia is reconstituting a powdered medication in a vial. After adding the solution to the powder, she nurse should:

    • Do nothing.

    • Invert the vial and let it stand for 3 to 5 minutes.

    • Shake the vial vigorously.

    • Roll the vial gently between the palms.

    Correct Answer
    A. Roll the vial gently between the palms.
    Explanation
    Rolling the vial gently between the palms produces heat, which helps dissolve the medication. Doing nothing or inverting the vial wouldn't help dissolve the medication. Shaking the vial vigorously could cause the medication to break down, altering its action.

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  • 4. 

    A newly admitted female client was diagnosed with agranulocytosis. The nurse formulates which priority nursing diagnosis?

    • Constipation

    • Diarrhea

    • Risk for infection

    • Deficient knowledge

    Correct Answer
    A. Risk for infection
    Explanation
    Agranulocytosis is characterized by a reduced number of leukocytes (leucopenia) and neutrophils (neutropenia) in the blood. The client is at high risk for infection because of the decreased body defenses against microorganisms. Deficient knowledge related to the nature of the disorder may be appropriate diagnosis but is not the priority.

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  • 5. 

    The nurse prepares to administer a cleansing enema. What is the most common client position used for this procedure?

    • Lithotomy

    • Supine

    • Prone

    • Sims’ left lateral

    Correct Answer
    A. Sims’ left lateral
    Explanation
    The Sims' left lateral position is the most common position used to administer a cleansing enema because it allows gravity to aid the flow of fluid along the curve of the sigmoid colon. If the client can't assume this position nor has poor sphincter control, the dorsal recumbent or right lateral position may be used. The supine and prone positions are inappropriate and uncomfortable for the client.

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  • 6. 

    The doctor orders hourly urine output measurement for a postoperative male client. The nurse Trish records the following amounts of output for 2 consecutive hours: 8 a.m.: 50 ml; 9 a.m.: 60 ml. Based on these amounts, which action should the nurse take?

    • Increase the I.V. fluid infusion rate

    • Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter

    • Notify the physician

    • Continue to monitor and record hourly urine output

    Correct Answer
    A. Continue to monitor and record hourly urine output
    Explanation
    Normal urine output for an adult is approximately 1 ml/minute (60 ml/hour). Therefore, this client's output is normal. Beyond continued evaluation, no nursing action is warranted.

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  • 7. 

    Nurse Janah is collecting a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity testing from a client who has a productive cough. Nurse Janah plans to implement which intervention to obtain the specimen?

    • Ask the client to expectorate a small amount of sputum into the emesis basin.

    • Ask the client to obtain the specimen after breakfast.

    • Use a sterile plastic container for obtaining the specimen.

    • Provide tissues for expectoration and obtaining the specimen.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use a sterile plastic container for obtaining the specimen.
    Explanation
    Sputum specimens for culture and sensitivity testing need to be obtained using sterile techniques because the test is done to determine the presence of organisms. If the procedure for obtaining the specimen is not sterile, then the specimen is not sterile, then the specimen would be contaminated and the results of the test would be invalid.

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  • 8. 

    Nurse Michelle witnesses a female client sustain a fall and suspects that the leg may be broken. The nurse takes which priority action?

    • Takes a set of vital signs.

    • Call the radiology department for X-ray.

    • Reassure the client that everything will be alright.

    • Immobilize the leg before moving the client.

    Correct Answer
    A. Immobilize the leg before moving the client.
    Explanation
    If the nurse suspects a fracture, splinting the area before moving the client is imperative. The nurse should call for emergency help if the client is not hospitalized and call for a physician for the hospitalized client.

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  • 9. 

    Nurse Len refers a female client with terminal cancer to a local hospice. What is the goal of this referral?

    • To help the client find appropriate treatment options.

    • To provide support for the client and family in coping with terminal illness.

    • To ensure that the client gets counseling regarding health care costs.

    • To teach the client and family about cancer and its treatment.

    Correct Answer
    A. To provide support for the client and family in coping with terminal illness.
    Explanation
    Hospices provide supportive care for terminally ill clients and their families. Hospice care doesn’t focus on counseling regarding health care costs. Most client referred to hospices have been treated for their disease without success and will receive only palliative care in the hospice.

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  • 10. 

    Nurse Ron is assisting with transferring a client from the operating room table to a stretcher. To provide safety to the client, the nurse should:

    • Moves the client rapidly from the table to the stretcher.

    • Uncovers the client completely before transferring to the stretcher.

    • Secures the client safety belts after transferring to the stretcher.

    • Instructs the client to move self from the table to the stretcher.

    Correct Answer
    A. Secures the client safety belts after transferring to the stretcher.
    Explanation
    During the transfer of the client after the surgical procedure is complete, the nurse should avoid exposure of the client because of the risk for potential heat loss. Hurried movements and rapid changes in the position should be avoided because these predispose the client to hypotension. At the time of the transfer from the surgery table to the stretcher, the client is still affected by the effects of the anesthesia; therefore, the client should not move self. Safety belts can prevent the client from falling off the stretcher.

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  • 11. 

    Marion is aware that the sampling method that gives equal chance to all units in the population to get picked is:

    • Random

    • Accidental

    • Quota

    • Judgment

    Correct Answer
    A. Random
    Explanation
    Random sampling gives equal chance for all the elements in the population to be picked as part of the sample.

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  • 12. 

    Which dietary guidelines are important for nurse Oliver to implement in caring for the client with burns?

    • Provide high-fiber, high-fat diet

    • Provide high-protein, high-carbohydrate diet.

    • Monitor intake to prevent weight gain.

    • Provide ice chips or water intake.

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide high-protein, high-carbohydrate diet.
    Explanation
    A positive nitrogen balance is important for meeting metabolic needs, tissue repair, and resistance to infection. Caloric goals may be as high as 5000 calories per day.

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  • 13. 

     A male client is admitted and diagnosed with acute pancreatitis after a holiday celebration of excessive food and alcohol. Which assessment finding reflects this diagnosis?

    • Blood pressure above normal range.

    • Presence of crackles in both lung fields.

    • Hyperactive bowel sounds

    • Sudden onset of continuous epigastric and back pain.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sudden onset of continuous epigastric and back pain.
    Explanation
    The autodigestion of tissue by the pancreatic enzymes results in pain from inflammation, edema, and possible hemorrhage. Continuous, unrelieved epigastric or back pain reflects the inflammatory process in the pancreas.

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  • 14. 

    Nurse Myrna is providing instructions to a nursing assistant assigned to give a bed bath to a client who is on contact precautions. Nurse Myrna instructs the nursing assistant to use which of the following protective items when giving bed bath?

    • Gown and goggles

    • Gown and gloves

    • Gloves and shoe protectors

    • Gloves and goggles

    Correct Answer
    A. Gown and gloves
    Explanation
    Contact precautions require the use of gloves and a gown if direct client contact is anticipated. Goggles are not necessary unless the nurse anticipates the splashes of blood, body fluids, secretions, or excretions may occur. Shoe protectors are not necessary.

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  • 15. 

    The nursing theorist who developed transcultural nursing theory is:

    • Florence Nightingale

    • Madeleine Leininger

    • Albert Moore

    • Sr. Callista Roy

    Correct Answer
    A. Madeleine Leininger
    Explanation
    Madeleine Leininger developed the theory on transcultural theory based on her observations on the behavior of selected people within a culture.

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  • 16. 

    Which nursing intervention takes highest priority when caring for a newly admitted client who's receiving a blood transfusion?

    • Instructing the client to report any itching, swelling, or dyspnea.

    • Informing the client that the transfusion usually take 1 ½ to 2 hours.

    • Documenting blood administration in the client care record.

    • Assessing the client’s vital signs when the transfusion ends.

    Correct Answer
    A. Instructing the client to report any itching, swelling, or dyspnea.
    Explanation
    Because administration of blood or blood products may cause serious adverse effects such as allergic reactions, the nurse must monitor the client for these effects. Signs and symptoms of life-threatening allergic reactions include itching, swelling, and dyspnea. Although the nurse should inform the client of the duration of the transfusion and should document its administration, these actions are less critical to the client's immediate health. The nurse should assess vital signs at least hourly during the transfusion.

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  • 17. 

     Which instruction should nurse Tom give to a male client who is having external radiation therapy:

    • Protect the irritated skin from sunlight.

    • Eat 3 to 4 hours before treatment.

    • Wash the skin over regularly.

    • Apply lotion or oil to the radiated area when it is red or sore.

    Correct Answer
    A. Protect the irritated skin from sunlight.
    Explanation
    Irradiated skin is very sensitive and must be protected with clothing or sunblock. The priority approach is the avoidance of strong sunlight.

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  • 18. 

    A female client was recently admitted. She has fever, weight loss, and watery diarrhea is being admitted to the facility. While assessing the client, Nurse Hazel inspects the client’s abdomen and notice that it is slightly concave. Additional assessment should proceed in which order:

    • Palpation, auscultation, and percussion.

    • Percussion, palpation, and auscultation.

    • Palpation, percussion, and auscultation.

    • Auscultation, percussion, and palpation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Auscultation, percussion, and palpation.
    Explanation
    The correct order of assessment for examining the abdomen is inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation. The reason for this approach is that the less intrusive techniques should be performed before the more intrusive techniques. Percussion and palpation can alter natural findings during auscultation.

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  • 19. 

    A newly admitted female client was diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis. Which nursing diagnosis should receive the highest priority?

    • Ineffective peripheral tissue perfusion related to venous congestion.

    • Risk for injury related to edema.

    • Excess fluid volume related to peripheral vascular disease.

    • Impaired gas exchange related to increased blood flow.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ineffective peripheral tissue perfusion related to venous congestion.
    Explanation
    Ineffective peripheral tissue perfusion related to venous congestion takes the highest priority because venous inflammation and clot formation impede blood flow in a client with deep vein thrombosis.

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  • 20. 

    When caring for a male client with a 3-cm stage I pressure ulcer on the coccyx, which of the following actions can the nurse institute independently?

    • Massaging the area with an astringent every 2 hours.

    • Applying an antibiotic cream to the area three times per day.

    • Using normal saline solution to clean the ulcer and applying a protective dressing as necessary.

    • Using a povidone-iodine wash on the ulceration three times per day.

    Correct Answer
    A. Using normal saline solution to clean the ulcer and applying a protective dressing as necessary.
    Explanation
    Washing the area with normal saline solution and applying a protective dressing are within the nurse’s realm of interventions and will protect the area. Using a povidone-iodine wash and an antibiotic cream require a physician’s order. Massaging with an astringent can further damage the skin.

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  • 21. 

    Nurse Meredith is in the process of giving a client a bed bath. In the middle of the procedure, the unit secretary calls the nurse on the intercom to tell the nurse that there is an emergency phone call. The appropriate nursing action is to:

    • Immediately walk out of the client’s room and answer the phone call.

    • Cover the client, place the call light within reach, and answer the phone call.

    • Finish the bed bath before answering the phone call.

    • Leave the client’s door open so the client can be monitored and the nurse can answer the phone call.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cover the client, place the call light within reach, and answer the phone call.
    Explanation
    Because telephone call is an emergency, the nurse may need to answer it. The other appropriate action is to ask another nurse to accept the call. However, is not one of the options. To maintain privacy and safety, the nurse covers the client and places the call light within the client’s reach. Additionally, the client’s door should be closed or the room curtains pulled around the bathing area.

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  • 22. 

    Dr. Garcia writes the following order for the client who has been recently admitted “Digoxin .125 mg P.O. once daily.” To prevent a dosage error, how should the nurse document this order onto the medication administration record?

    • “Digoxin .1250 mg P.O. once daily”

    • “Digoxin 0.1250 mg P.O. once daily”

    • “Digoxin 0.125 mg P.O. once daily”

    • “Digoxin .125 mg P.O. once daily”

    Correct Answer
    A. “Digoxin 0.125 mg P.O. once daily”
    Explanation
    The nurse should always place a zero before a decimal point so that no one misreads the figure, which could result in a dosage error. The nurse should never insert a zero at the end of a dosage that includes a decimal point because this could be misread, possibly leading to a tenfold increase in the dosage.

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  • 23. 

    A child of 10 years old is to receive 400 cc of IV fluid in an 8 hour shift. The IV drip factor is 60. The IV rate that will deliver this amount is:

    • 50 cc/ hour

    • 55 cc/ hour

    • 24 cc/ hour

    • 66 cc/ hour

    Correct Answer
    A. 50 cc/ hour
    Explanation
    A rate of 50 cc/hr. The child is to receive 400 cc over a period of 8 hours = 50 cc/hr.

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  • 24. 

    The physician prescribes meperidine (Demerol), 75 mg I.M. every 4 hours as needed, to control a client’s postoperative pain. The package insert is “Meperidine, 100 mg/ml.” How many milliliters of meperidine should theclient receive?

    • 0.75

    • 0.6

    • 0.5

    • 0.25

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.75
    Explanation
    To determine the number of milliliters the client should receive, the nurse uses the fraction method in the following equation.
    75 mg/X ml = 100 mg/1 ml
    To solve for X, cross-multiply:
    75 mg x 1 ml = X ml x 100 mg
    75 = 100X
    75/100 = X
    0.75 ml (or Âľ ml) = X

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  • 25. 

    Nurse Linda prepares to perform an otoscopic examination on a female client. For proper visualization, the nurse should position the client's ear by:

    • Pulling the lobule down and back

    • Pulling the helix up and forward

    • Pulling the helix up and back

    • Pulling the lobule down and forward

    Correct Answer
    A. Pulling the helix up and back
    Explanation
    To perform an otoscopic examination on an adult, the nurse grasps the helix of the ear and pulls it up and back to straighten the ear canal. For a child, the nurse grasps the helix and pulls it down to straighten the ear canal. Pulling the lobule in any direction wouldn't straighten the ear canal for visualization.

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  • 26. 

    The maximum transfusion time for a unit of packed red blood cells (RBCs) is:

    • 6 hours

    • 4 hours

    • 3 hours

    • 2 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 4 hours
    Explanation
    A unit of packed RBCs may be given over a period of between 1 and 4 hours. It shouldn't infuse for longer than 4 hours because the risk of contamination and sepsis increases after that time. Discard or return to the blood bank any blood not given within this time, according to facility policy.

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  • 27. 

    Monica is aware that there are times when only manipulation of study variables is possible and the elements of control or randomization are not attendant. Which type of research is referred to this?

    • Field study

    • Quasi-experiment

    • Solomon-Four group design

    • Post-test only design

    Correct Answer
    A. Quasi-experiment
    Explanation
    Quasi-experiment is done when randomization and control of the variables are not possible.

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  • 28. 

    When a nurse in-charge causes an injury to a female patient and the injury caused becomes the proof of the negligent act, the presence of the injury is said to exemplify the principle of:

    • Force majeure

    • Respondeat superior

    • Res ipsa loquitor

    • Holdover doctrine

    Correct Answer
    A. Res ipsa loquitor
    Explanation
    Res ipsa loquitor literally means the thing speaks for itself. This means in operational terms that the injury caused is the proof that there was a negligent act.

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  • 29. 

    A female client is to be discharged from an acute care facility after treatment for right leg thrombophlebitis. The Nurse Betty notes that the client's leg is pain-free, without redness or edema. The nurse's actions reflect which step of the nursing process?

    • Assessment

    • Diagnosis

    • Implementation

    • Evaluation

    Correct Answer
    A. Evaluation
    Explanation
    The nursing actions described constitute evaluation of the expected outcomes. The findings show that the expected outcomes have been achieved. Assessment consists of the client's history, physical examination, and laboratory studies. Analysis consists of considering assessment information to derive the appropriate nursing diagnosis. Implementation is the phase of the nursing process where the nurse puts the plan of care into action.

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  • 30. 

    Nurse Betty is assigned to the following clients. The client that the nurse would see first after endorsement?

    • A 34 year-old post operative appendectomy client of five hours who is complaining of pain.

    • A 44 year-old myocardial infarction (MI) client who is complaining of nausea.

    • A 26 year-old client admitted for dehydration whose intravenous (IV) has infiltrated.

    • A 63 year-old post operative’s abdominal hysterectomy client of three days whose incisional dressing is saturated with serosanguinous fluid.

    Correct Answer
    A. A 44 year-old myocardial infarction (MI) client who is complaining of nausea.
    Explanation
    Nausea is a symptom of impending myocardial infarction (MI) and should be assessed immediately so that treatment can be instituted and further damage to the heart is avoided.

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  • 31. 

    When Nurse Trish is providing care to his patient, she must remember that her duty is bound not to do doing any action that will cause the patient harm. This is the meaning of the bioethical principle:

    • Non-maleficence

    • Beneficence

    • Justice

    • Solidarity

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-maleficence
    Explanation
    Non-maleficence means do not cause harm or do any action that will cause any harm to the patient/client. To do good is referred as beneficence.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following theory addresses the four modes of adaptation?

    • Madeleine Leininger

    • Sr. Callista Roy

    • Florence Nightingale

    • Jean Watson

    Correct Answer
    A. Sr. Callista Roy
    Explanation
    Sr. Callista Roy developed the Adaptation Model which involves the physiologic mode, self-concept mode, role function mode and dependence mode.

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  • 33. 

    Which type of medication order might read "Vitamin K 10 mg I.M. daily Ă— 3 days?"

    • Single order

    • Standard written order

    • Standing order

    • Stat order

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard written order
    Explanation
    This is a standard written order. Prescribers write a single order for medications given only once. A stat order is written for medications given immediately for an urgent client problem. A standing order, also known as a protocol, establishes guidelines for treating a particular disease or set of symptoms in special care areas such as the coronary care unit. Facilities also may institute medication protocols that specifically designate drugs that a nurse may not give.

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  • 34. 

    Asking the questions to determine if the person understands the health teaching provided by the nurse would be included during which step of the nursing process?

    • Assessment

    • Evaluation

    • Implementation

    • Planning and goals

    Correct Answer
    A. Evaluation
    Explanation
    Evaluation includes observing the person, asking questions, and comparing the patient’s behavioral responses with the expected outcomes.

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  • 35. 

    A 45 year old client, has no family history of breast cancer or other risk factors for this disease. Nurse John should instruct her to have mammogram how often?

    • Twice per year

    • Once per year

    • Every 2 years

    • Once, to establish baseline

    Correct Answer
    A. Once per year
    Explanation
    Yearly mammograms should begin at age 40 and continue for
    as long as the woman is in good health. If health risks, such as family history, genetic tendency, or past breast cancer, exist, more frequent examinations may be necessary.

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  • 36. 

    The physician orders dextrose 5 % in water, 1,000 ml to be infused over 8 hours. The I.V. tubing delivers 15 drops/ml. Nurse John should run the I.V. infusion at a rate of:

    • 30 drops/minute

    • 32 drops/minute

    • 20 drops/minute

    • 18 drops/minute

    Correct Answer
    A. 32 drops/minute
    Explanation
    Giving 1,000 ml over 8 hours is the same as giving 125 ml over 1 hour (60 minutes). Find the number of milliliters per minute as follows:
    125/60 minutes = X/1 minute
    60X = 125 = 2.1 ml/minute
    To find the number of drops per minute:
    2.1 ml/X gtt = 1 ml/ 15 gtt
    X = 32 gtt/minute, or 32 drops/minute

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  • 37. 

    Harry knows that he has to protect the rights of human research subjects. Which of the following actions of Harry ensures anonymity?

    • Keep the identities of the subject secret

    • Obtain informed consent

    • Provide equal treatment to all the subjects of the study.

    • Release findings only to the participants of the study

    Correct Answer
    A. Keep the identities of the subject secret
    Explanation
    Keeping the identities of the research subject secret will ensure anonymity because this will hinder providing link between the information given to whoever is its source.

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  • 38. 

    Nurse Michelle hears the alarm sound on the telemetry monitor. The nurse quickly looks at the monitor and notes that a client is in a ventricular tachycardia. The nurse rushes to the client’s room. Upon reaching the client’s bedside, the nurse would take which action first?

    • Prepare for cardioversion

    • Prepare to defibrillate the client

    • Call a code

    • Check the client’s level of consciousness

    Correct Answer
    A. Check the client’s level of consciousness
    Explanation
    Determining unresponsiveness is the first step assessment action to take. When a client is in ventricular tachycardia, there is a significant decrease in cardiac output. However, checking the unresponsiveness ensures whether the client is affected by the decreased cardiac output.

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  • 39. 

    She finds out that some managers have benevolent-authoritative style of management. Which of the following behaviors will she exhibit most likely?

    • Have condescending trust and confidence in their subordinates.

    • Gives economic and ego awards.

    • Communicates downward to staffs.

    • Allows decision making among subordinates.

    Correct Answer
    A. Have condescending trust and confidence in their subordinates.
    Explanation
    Benevolent-authoritative managers pretentiously show their trust and confidence to their followers.

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  • 40. 

    A male client has the following arterial blood gas values: pH 7.30; Pao2 89 mmHg; Paco2 50 mmHg; and HCO3 26mEq/L. Based on these values, Nurse Patricia should expect which condition?

    • Respiratory acidosis

    • Respiratory alkalosis

    • Metabolic acidosis

    • Metabolic alkalosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Respiratory acidosis
    Explanation
    The client has a below-normal (acidic) blood pH value and an above-normal partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (Paco2) value, indicating respiratory acidosis. In respiratory alkalosis, the pH value is above normal and in the Paco2 value is below normal. In metabolic acidosis, the pH and bicarbonate (Hco3) values are below normal. In metabolic alkalosis, the pH and Hco3 values are above normal.

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  • 41. 

    When the license of nurse Krina is revoked, it means that she:

    • Is no longer allowed to practice the profession for the rest of her life

    • Will never have her/his license re-issued since it has been revoked

    • May apply for re-issuance of his/her license based on certain conditions stipulated in RA 9173

    • Will remain unable to practice professional nursing

    Correct Answer
    A. May apply for re-issuance of his/her license based on certain conditions stipulated in RA 9173
    Explanation
    RA 9173 sec. 24 states that for equity and justice, a revoked license maybe re-issued provided that the following conditions are met: a) the cause for revocation of license has already been corrected or removed; and, b) at least four years has elapsed since the license has been revoked.

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  • 42. 

    A female client with a fecal impaction frequently exhibits which clinical manifestation?

    • Increased appetite

    • Loss of urge to defecate

    • Hard, brown, formed stools

    • Liquid or semi-liquid stools

    Correct Answer
    A. Liquid or semi-liquid stools
    Explanation
    Passage of liquid or semi-liquid stools results from seepage of unformed bowel contents around the impacted stool in the rectum. Clients with fecal impaction don't pass hard, brown, formed stools because the feces can't move past the impaction. These clients typically report the urge to defecate (although they can't pass stool) and a decreased appetite.

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  • 43. 

    Nurse May attends an educational conference on leadership styles. The nurse is sitting with a nurse employed at a large trauma center who states that the leadership style at the trauma center is task-oriented and directive. The nurse determines that the leadership style used at the trauma center is:

    • Autocratic.

    • Laissez-faire.

    • Democratic.

    • Situational

    Correct Answer
    A. Autocratic.
    Explanation
    The autocratic style of leadership is a task-oriented and directive.

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  • 44. 

    Nurse Amy has an order to obtain a urinalysis from a male client with an indwelling urinary catheter. The nurse avoids which of the following, which contaminate the specimen?

    • Wiping the port with an alcohol swab before inserting the syringe.

    • Aspirating a sample from the port on the drainage bag.

    • Clamping the tubing of the drainage bag.

    • Obtaining the specimen from the urinary drainage bag.

    Correct Answer
    A. Obtaining the specimen from the urinary drainage bag.
    Explanation
    A urine specimen is not taken from the urinary drainage bag. Urine undergoes chemical changes while sitting in the bag and does not necessarily reflect the current client status. In addition, it may become contaminated with bacteria from opening the system.

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  • 45. 

    Mary finally decides to use judgment sampling on her research. Which of the following actions of is correct?

    • Plans to include whoever is there during his study.

    • Determines the different nationality of patients frequently admitted and decides to get representations samples from each.

    • Assigns numbers for each of the patients, place these in a fishbowl and draw 10 from it.

    • Decides to get 20 samples from the admitted patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Determines the different nationality of patients frequently admitted and decides to get representations samples from each.
    Explanation
    Judgment sampling involves including samples according to the knowledge of the investigator about the participants in the study.

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  • 46. 

    Ensuring that there is an informed consent on the part of the patient before a surgery is done, illustrates the bioethical principle of:

    • Beneficence

    • Autonomy

    • Veracity

    • Non-maleficence

    Correct Answer
    A. Autonomy
    Explanation
    Informed consent means that the patient fully understands about the surgery, including the risks involved and the alternative solutions. In giving consent it is done with full knowledge and is given freely. The action of allowing the patient to decide whether a surgery is to be done or not exemplifies the bioethical principle of autonomy.

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  • 47. 

    Cherry notes down ideas that were derived from the description of an investigation written by the person who conducted it. Which type of reference source refers to this?

    • Footnote

    • Bibliography

    • Primary source

    • Endnotes

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary source
    Explanation
    This refers to a primary source which is a direct account of the investigation done by the investigator. In contrast to this is a secondary source, which is written by someone other than the original researcher.

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  • 48. 

    The leader of the study knows that certain patients who are in a specialized research setting tend to respond psychologically to the conditions of the study. This referred to as :

    • Cause and effect

    • Hawthorne effect

    • Halo effect

    • Horns effect

    Correct Answer
    A. Hawthorne effect
    Explanation
    Hawthorne effect is based on the study of Elton Mayo and company about the effect of an intervention done to improve the working conditions of the workers on their productivity. It resulted to an increased productivity but not due to the intervention but due to the psychological effects of being observed. They performed differently because they were under observation.

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  • 49. 

    A male client who has severe burns is receiving H2 receptor antagonist therapy. The nurse In-charge knows the purpose of this therapy is to:

    • Prevent stress ulcer

    • Block prostaglandin synthesis

    • Facilitate protein synthesis.

    • Enhance gas exchange

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevent stress ulcer
    Explanation
    Curling’s ulcer occurs as a generalized stress response in burn patients. This results in a decreased production of mucus and increased secretion of gastric acid. The best treatment for this prophylactic use of antacids and H2 receptor blockers.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • May 08, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    RNpedia.com
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