Module 1 - Networking Fundamentals

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OSI Model Quizzes & Trivia

Overview of the OSI Model and networking fundamentals


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Name and describe the three distinct functions of Switching. (3 points will be allocated according to content and accuracy of answer)

  • 2. 

    What does VLAN stand for and what functions does it provide within a network? (3 points will be allocated according to content and accuracy of answer)

  • 3. 

    Fundamentally what are the main difference between Access Links and Trunk Links? (3 points will be allocated according to content and accuracy of answer)

  • 4. 

    Under what circumstances might 2.4 GHz Wi-Fi hardware be considered better than 5 GHz? (Minimum of 3 reasons - explain in detail)  (3 points will be allocated according to content and accuracy of answer)

  • 5. 

    Within Layer 2 (Data Link) of the OSI Model, there are two sub layers. Provide their Names and a brief description of their functions. (Both Abbreviations = 1 point, Both Full Names = 1 point, Both Descriptions = 1 point)

  • 6. 

    Under what circumstances might 5 GHz Wi-Fi hardware be considered better than 2.4 GHz? (Minimum of 3 reasons - explain in detail)  (3 points will be allocated according to content and accuracy of answer)

  • 7. 

    What does OSI stand for in the OSI Model?

    • A.

      Open System Interconnection Model

    • B.

      Open System Interconnect Model

    • C.

      Open Service Interconnection Model

    • D.

      Open Service Interconnect Model

    Correct Answer
    A. Open System Interconnection Model
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Open System Interconnection Model. The OSI Model is a conceptual framework that standardizes the functions of a communication system into seven different layers. These layers help in understanding and implementing network protocols and technologies. The OSI Model provides a systematic approach to network design and troubleshooting by dividing the communication process into smaller, manageable layers.

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  • 8. 

    As data travels down the OSI layers it reaches the _______ layer which is responsible for its bit conversion and actual transmission to other computers?

    • A.

      Network

    • B.

      Application

    • C.

      Physical

    • D.

      Transport

    Correct Answer
    C. Physical
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Physical because the Physical layer of the OSI model is responsible for converting the data into bits and transmitting it over the network. This layer deals with the actual transmission of data, including the physical medium, cables, connectors, and electrical signals. It ensures that the data is transmitted reliably and accurately between the computers.

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  • 9. 

    What is the maximum theoretical data rate per stream achievable under the IEEE 802.11g standard?  

    • A.

      6 Mbps

    • B.

      11 Mbps

    • C.

      22 Mbps

    • D.

      54 Mbps

    Correct Answer
    D. 54 Mbps
    Explanation
    The maximum theoretical data rate per stream achievable under the IEEE 802.11g standard is 54 Mbps. This standard was introduced in 2003 and offered higher data rates compared to its predecessor, IEEE 802.11b. The 54 Mbps data rate is achieved using Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM) modulation technique, which allows for higher throughput and better performance in wireless networks. However, it is important to note that the actual data rate experienced by users may be lower due to various factors such as distance, interference, and network congestion.

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  • 10. 

    The IEEE standard 802.3af states the specifications for which of the following?

    • A.

      Quality of Service

    • B.

      VLANs

    • C.

      Routing tables

    • D.

      Power over Ethernet

    Correct Answer
    D. Power over Ethernet
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Power over Ethernet. The IEEE standard 802.3af defines the specifications for Power over Ethernet (PoE), which is a technology that allows network devices to receive power and data over the same Ethernet cable. This standard enables devices such as IP phones, wireless access points, and network cameras to be powered without the need for separate power cables or outlets.

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  • 11. 

    The maximum power delivered by 802.3at Power Sourcing Equipment is approximately 35 W.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The 802.3at Power Sourcing Equipment is capable of delivering a maximum power of approximately 35 W.

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  • 12. 

    Name the unique physical address assigned by the NIC manufacturer.

    • A.

      Subnet Mask

    • B.

      IP Address

    • C.

      MAC Address

    • D.

      NIC Address

    Correct Answer
    C. MAC Address
    Explanation
    The MAC Address, also known as the Media Access Control Address, is a unique physical address assigned by the NIC (Network Interface Card) manufacturer. It is used to identify network devices, such as computers or routers, on a local network. Each device connected to a network has a different MAC Address, allowing for the identification and communication between devices. The MAC Address is hardcoded into the NIC and cannot be changed, making it a reliable and unique identifier for network devices.

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  • 13. 

    What is the frequency range of the IEEE 802.11g standard?

    • A.

      2.4 Gbps

    • B.

      5 Gbps

    • C.

      2.4 GHz

    • D.

      5 GHz

    Correct Answer
    C. 2.4 GHz
    Explanation
    The frequency range of the IEEE 802.11g standard is 2.4 GHz. This standard operates in the 2.4 GHz frequency band, which is commonly used for Wi-Fi communication. The 2.4 GHz frequency range allows for a good balance between range and data transfer speed, making it suitable for most wireless networking applications.

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  • 14. 

    What best practice design principle would lead you to disable support for Channel 12 in the 2.4GHz band?

    • A.

      Channel 12 should be disabled because it is affected in most parts of the world by 802.11h restrictions.

    • B.

      In certain configuration setups, the WLAN system dynamically enables or disables supported channels whenever co-channel interference occurs and more channels are needed.

    • C.

      Channel 12 is not part of the 802.11b/g-supported bands and should never be used in indoor deployments.

    • D.

      Channel 12 is not part of the unlicensed OFDM frequency range. An operator’s license is required to use this channel.

    • E.

      Channel 12 is not supported by all 802.11b/g client devices. Enabling channel 12 when some clients don’t support it may create a coverage gap for those clients.

    Correct Answer
    E. Channel 12 is not supported by all 802.11b/g client devices. Enabling channel 12 when some clients don’t support it may create a coverage gap for those clients.
    Explanation
    Enabling channel 12 when some clients don't support it may create a coverage gap for those clients. This means that if channel 12 is enabled and some devices in the network do not support it, those devices will not be able to connect to the network. This could result in a coverage gap where certain devices are unable to access the network or experience poor connectivity. Therefore, it is best practice to disable support for channel 12 in order to ensure consistent and reliable connectivity for all devices in the network.

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  • 15. 

    Select three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three)

    • A.

      VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks

    • B.

      VLANs utilize packet filtering to enhance network security

    • C.

      VLANs provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks

    • D.

      VLANs provide a low-latency internetworking alternative to routed networks

    • E.

      VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location

    • F.

      VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks
    E. VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location
    F. VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network
    Explanation
    The three advantages of VLANs are:
    1. VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks: By dividing a network into VLANs, broadcast traffic is contained within each VLAN, reducing the overall broadcast traffic on the network.
    2. VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location: VLANs can be configured to allow specific departments or groups to access certain network services, regardless of their physical location.
    3. VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network: With VLANs, hosts can be easily added, moved, or changed without the need for physical reconfiguration, making network management more flexible and efficient.

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  • 16. 

    What is a router?

    • A.

      A hardware device that connects dissimilar physical networks

    • B.

      A network host that reads the source and destination addresses in the packet header and makes decisions about where to forward the packet

    • C.

      A network host that can forward LAN-based email messages onto the Internet, after repackaging them into the SMTP format

    • D.

      A software system that can translate one application protocol in to another application protocol

    Correct Answer
    B. A network host that reads the source and destination addresses in the packet header and makes decisions about where to forward the packet
    Explanation
    A router is a network host that reads the source and destination addresses in the packet header and makes decisions about where to forward the packet. It functions as a hardware device that connects dissimilar physical networks, allowing data to be transmitted between them. By analyzing the packet header information, the router determines the most efficient path for the packet to reach its destination, forwarding it accordingly. This enables the router to effectively route data between different networks and ensure proper delivery.

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  • 17. 

    The RJ-45 connector used in UTP networks typically terminates ____ wires?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      8

    • D.

      12

    Correct Answer
    C. 8
    Explanation
    The RJ-45 connector used in UTP networks typically terminates 8 wires. The RJ-45 connector is commonly used for Ethernet connections and has 8 pins or positions for wires to be connected. Each pin is assigned to a specific wire in the UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) cable, allowing for the transmission of data. Therefore, the correct answer is 8.

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  • 18. 

    Switches operate at the _______________ OSI level

    • A.

      Top Layer

    • B.

      Transport Layer

    • C.

      Network Layer

    • D.

      Data Link Layer

    • E.

      The Packet Layer

    Correct Answer
    D. Data Link Layer
    Explanation
    Switches operate at the Data Link Layer of the OSI model. The Data Link Layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between nodes on a network. Switches use MAC addresses to forward data packets within a local area network (LAN). They analyze the destination MAC address of incoming packets and use their forwarding table to determine the appropriate port to send the packet to. This layer also handles error detection and correction, ensuring the integrity of data transmission.

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  • 19. 

    Select two benefits which are provided by creating VLANs? (Choose two)

    • A.

      Added security

    • B.

      Dedicated bandwidth

    • C.

      Provides segmentation

    • D.

      Allows switches to route traffic between subinterfaces

    • E.

      Contains collisions

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Added security
    C. Provides segmentation
    Explanation
    Creating VLANs provides added security by separating network traffic into different virtual networks, reducing the risk of unauthorized access and potential data breaches. It also provides segmentation, allowing network administrators to logically divide the network into smaller, more manageable segments, improving network performance and reducing network congestion.

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  • 20. 

    Layer 1 of the OSI Model defines the methods of moving data between hardware. It includes cabling, interface cards and other physical means. Typically NICs, hubs and cabling are are common components in this category. What is this layer named?

    • A.

      Protocol

    • B.

      Primary

    • C.

      Physical

    • D.

      Processing

    Correct Answer
    C. Physical
    Explanation
    Layer 1 of the OSI Model is named "Physical" because it is responsible for defining the physical means of moving data between hardware. This includes cabling, interface cards, and other physical components such as NICs and hubs. It focuses on the transmission and reception of raw data bits over a physical medium.

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  • 21. 

    Layer 2 of the OSI Model transfers data between adjacent (i.e. directly connected) nodes in a network. It is a direct and reliable point-to-point connection. Switches operate in this layer; Ethernet is a protocol which exists in this layer. Information in data packets is encoded and decoded into data frames (Link Layer Header followed by a packet within this layer. What is this Layer called?

    • A.

      Link Layer

    • B.

      Logical Layer

    • C.

      Data Layer

    • D.

      Data Link Layer

    Correct Answer
    D. Data Link Layer
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Data Link Layer. This layer of the OSI Model is responsible for transferring data between directly connected nodes in a network. It establishes a direct and reliable point-to-point connection. Switches operate in this layer, and the Ethernet protocol exists within this layer. Information in data packets is encoded and decoded into data frames, which consist of a Link Layer Header followed by a packet within this layer.

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  • 22. 

    Layer 3 of the OSI Model uses switching and routing technologies, along with the (IP) Internet Protocol to ensure that each piece of data gets to where it needs to go on the network. Delivery is not guaranteed. Frames from Layer 2 become packets in this Layer. Most routing occurs here. What is this Layer called? 

    • A.

      Routing Layer

    • B.

      Network Layer

    • C.

      Switching Layer

    • D.

      Transport Layer

    Correct Answer
    B. Network Layer
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Network Layer. This layer in the OSI Model is responsible for routing and switching technologies, as well as using the Internet Protocol (IP) to ensure that data is delivered to its intended destination on the network. It is where frames from Layer 2 are transformed into packets, and it is the layer where most routing occurs.

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  • 23. 

    Layer 7 of the OSI Model supports application and end-user protocols. Device Operating Systems have Applications Programming Interfaces (API) which programmers can use to make their programs network aware from within this Layer. File transfers, email and Telnet are some examples of things performed within this Layer. What is this layer called?

    • A.

      Operations Layer

    • B.

      Application Layer

    • C.

      Applications Programming Layer

    • D.

      Users Layer

    Correct Answer
    B. Application Layer
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Application Layer. This layer of the OSI Model supports application and end-user protocols. It is responsible for allowing programmers to make their programs network aware through the use of Device Operating Systems' Applications Programming Interfaces (API). File transfers, email, and Telnet are examples of activities that occur within this layer.

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  • 24. 

    DNS, DHCP, SSH, HTTP, FTP & SMTP are all protocols which are commonly found in which OSI Model Layer?

    Correct Answer
    Layer 7
    7
    Application
    Application Layer
    7 Application
    Layer 7 Application
    Layer 7 - Application
    Layer 7 - Application Layer
    Explanation
    These protocols, DNS, DHCP, SSH, HTTP, FTP, and SMTP, are all commonly found in the Application Layer of the OSI Model. The Application Layer is responsible for providing network services to user applications. These protocols are specifically designed to support various application-level functions such as domain name resolution (DNS), dynamic IP address allocation (DHCP), secure remote access (SSH), web browsing (HTTP), file transfer (FTP), and email communication (SMTP). Therefore, the correct answer is Layer 7, Application Layer, or any variation that includes both Layer 7 and Application.

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  • 25. 

    ICMP, IPv4, IPSec, RIP & ARP are all protocols which are commonly found in which OSI Model Layer?

    Correct Answer
    Layer 3
    3
    Network
    Network Layer
    3 Network
    Layer 3 Network
    Layer 3 - Network
    Layer 3 - Network Layer
    Explanation
    ICMP, IPv4, IPSec, RIP, and ARP are all protocols commonly found in the Network Layer of the OSI Model. This layer is responsible for logical addressing, routing, and the delivery of data packets across different networks. These protocols operate at the Network Layer to perform tasks such as network addressing, error detection and reporting, security, and routing decisions. Therefore, the correct answer is any variation that includes the term "Network Layer," such as "Network," "Layer 3 Network," or "Layer 3 - Network Layer."

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  • 26. 

    Select four (4) protocols which you WOULD NOT typically find in the Application Layer.

    • A.

      DHCP

    • B.

      ISDN

    • C.

      SSH

    • D.

      TCP

    • E.

      HTTP

    • F.

      FTP

    • G.

      ICMP

    • H.

      SSL

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. ISDN
    D. TCP
    G. ICMP
    H. SSL
    Explanation
    The protocols typically found in the Application Layer are DHCP, SSH, HTTP, and FTP. ISDN, TCP, ICMP, and SSL are not typically found in this layer. ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) is a protocol used for digital transmission of voice, video, and data over traditional telephone lines. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is a transport layer protocol responsible for establishing and maintaining a reliable connection between devices. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is a network layer protocol used for error reporting and diagnostic purposes. SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) is a cryptographic protocol used for secure communication over the internet. These protocols operate at different layers of the network stack and are not typically associated with the Application Layer.

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  • 27. 

    Which protocol prevents undesirable switching loops (e.g. multiple paths between end stations) in a network?

    Correct Answer(s)
    STP
    Spanning Tree Protocol
    STP Spanning Tree Protocol
    STP - Spanning Tree Protocol
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). STP is a network protocol that prevents undesirable switching loops in a network by creating a loop-free logical topology. It achieves this by dynamically selecting a root bridge and calculating the shortest path to the root bridge for each switch in the network. STP disables redundant links and blocks certain ports to eliminate loops and ensure a single active path between end stations.

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  • 28. 

    Within Ethernet networks, how many active logical paths may exist at any time between any two stations, for the network to function properly?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      1

    • D.

      100

    • E.

      1000

    • F.

      3

    Correct Answer
    C. 1
    Explanation
    In Ethernet networks, only one active logical path may exist at any time between any two stations for the network to function properly. This is because Ethernet networks use a single path or link to transmit data between stations. Having multiple active logical paths between stations can lead to collisions and data loss, which can disrupt the network's functioning. Therefore, to ensure proper functioning, Ethernet networks typically have only one active logical path between stations.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following best describes what Spanning Tree Protocol does?

    • A.

      Aggregates links across multiple switches

    • B.

      Blocks broadcast traffic between switches

    • C.

      Allows switches to span multiple Broadcast Domains

    • D.

      Blocks redundant paths that may cause loops in the network

    Correct Answer
    D. Blocks redundant paths that may cause loops in the network
    Explanation
    Spanning Tree Protocol is a network protocol that prevents loops in a network by blocking redundant paths. It ensures that there is only one active path between any two network devices, thus preventing broadcast storms and network congestion. By blocking redundant paths, Spanning Tree Protocol helps to maintain a loop-free and stable network topology.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following best describes what switches do?

    • A.

      Move packets between devices

    • B.

      Switch sessions on and off

    • C.

      Move frames between devices

    • D.

      Switch Layers as required in the network

    Correct Answer
    A. Move packets between devices
    Explanation
    Switches are networking devices that are responsible for moving packets between devices in a network. They receive packets from one device and forward them to the appropriate destination device based on the destination MAC address. This allows for efficient and direct communication between devices in a network. Switches operate at the data link layer of the OSI model and are essential for creating local area networks (LANs) by connecting multiple devices together.

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  • 31. 

    Client devices (e.g. PCs or laptops) receive the correct VLAN packets because hardware such as switches only allow certain VLANs to pass through that port. The client is actually unaware of what the VLAN is.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Client devices receive the correct VLAN packets because switches restrict the passage of VLANs through specific ports. This means that only certain VLANs are allowed to reach the client devices, while others are blocked. The client devices themselves are not aware of which VLAN they are receiving, as this is managed by the hardware switches.

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  • 32. 

    Client devices (e.g. PCs or laptops) only receive the correct VLAN packets because they actively block all other VLANs.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Client devices (e.g. PCs or laptops) do not actively block all other VLANs. In fact, client devices are typically unaware of VLANs and are not responsible for filtering or blocking VLAN packets. VLAN filtering and blocking is usually done at the network switch level, where the switch determines which VLAN packets to forward to which ports based on their VLAN tags. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 33. 

    Ports on switches which are configured as Access Links are usually configured with only one VLAN per port.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Access links on switches are typically used to connect end devices, such as computers or printers, to the network. These links are usually configured with only one VLAN per port. This allows the switch to send and receive traffic for a specific VLAN, ensuring that the connected device is only part of that particular VLAN. By limiting each access link to a single VLAN, network administrators can control and separate traffic between different VLANs more effectively. Therefore, the given answer, "True," is correct.

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  • 34. 

    Ports on switches which are configured as Access Links are able to be configured with multiple VLANs per port.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Ports on switches which are configured as Access Links can only be configured with a single VLAN per port. Access Links are used to connect end devices to the switch and allow traffic from only one VLAN to pass through the port. This helps to segregate network traffic and ensure that devices in different VLANs do not interfere with each other. Therefore, the statement that Access Links can be configured with multiple VLANs per port is false.

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  • 35. 

    Ports on switches which are configured as Trunk Links may be configured with multiple VLANs per port.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Trunk links on switches allow for the transmission of multiple VLANs over a single physical connection. This means that multiple VLANs can be configured on a single port, allowing for efficient use of network resources. Trunk links are commonly used in scenarios where there is a need to carry multiple VLANs between switches, such as in a large network with multiple subnets or in a virtualized environment. By configuring multiple VLANs on a trunk link, network administrators can effectively manage and control the flow of traffic between different VLANs on the network.

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  • 36. 

    Select three benefits of Multicasting in a Network. (Choose 3)

    • A.

      The same data is broadcast simultaneeously to every machine on the network

    • B.

      Individual host machines decide whether they wish to participate in a multicast group

    • C.

      Multicast traffic is only generated on request from host machines

    • D.

      Multicast traffic creates maximum traffic through every port on the network

    • E.

      Multicast traffic creates efficiency and saves bandwidth on the network by only transmitting data when and where it is requested

    • F.

      Multicast allows multiple computers to connect to the same port on a switch

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Individual host machines decide whether they wish to participate in a multicast group
    C. Multicast traffic is only generated on request from host machines
    E. Multicast traffic creates efficiency and saves bandwidth on the network by only transmitting data when and where it is requested
    Explanation
    Multicasting in a network offers several benefits. Firstly, individual host machines have the freedom to decide whether they want to participate in a multicast group, allowing for greater flexibility and control. Secondly, multicast traffic is only generated when requested by host machines, minimizing unnecessary network traffic and optimizing bandwidth usage. Lastly, multicast traffic creates efficiency and saves bandwidth by transmitting data only when and where it is needed, reducing network congestion and improving overall performance.

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  • 37. 

    VLAN Tagging, also known as Frame Tagging helps identify packets travelling through trunk links. Tags are added inside frame headers to identify the VLAN to which it belogs

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    VLAN Tagging, also known as Frame Tagging, is a process that adds tags inside frame headers to identify the VLAN to which a packet belongs. This helps in distinguishing and managing packets as they travel through trunk links. By assigning a specific tag to each packet, network administrators can ensure that the packets are correctly routed to their respective VLANs, allowing for efficient network management and segregation of traffic. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct.

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  • 38. 

    What are the two forms of equipment that PoE may be found in?

    • A.

      Power Delivery

    • B.

      Powered Device

    • C.

      Power Supply Equipment

    • D.

      Power Utilisation Device

    • E.

      Powered Access Device

    • F.

      Power Sourcing Equipment

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Powered Device
    F. Power Sourcing Equipment
    Explanation
    PoE (Power over Ethernet) can be found in two forms of equipment: Powered Device and Power Sourcing Equipment. A Powered Device refers to any device that receives power through the Ethernet cable, such as IP phones, wireless access points, or IP cameras. On the other hand, Power Sourcing Equipment refers to the equipment that provides power to the Powered Devices, such as PoE switches or injectors. These two forms of equipment work together to enable the transmission of power and data over the Ethernet cable.

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  • 39. 

    When a POE device is a Switch, it is commonly called an Endspan.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    When a Power over Ethernet (POE) device is a Switch, it is commonly referred to as an Endspan. This means that the switch is capable of providing power to connected devices through the Ethernet cable itself, eliminating the need for separate power cables. This is in contrast to a Midspan, which is a separate device that is installed between the switch and the powered devices to provide power. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 40. 

    A POE device such as an external POE Injector, is commonly known as a midspan device.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A POE device, such as an external POE Injector, is commonly known as a midspan device. This means that it is a device that can be added to an existing network infrastructure to provide Power over Ethernet capabilities to devices that do not have built-in POE support. Midspan devices are typically used when there is a need to upgrade or add POE functionality to a network without replacing all the existing network switches. Therefore, the statement "A POE device such as an external POE Injector, is commonly known as a midspan device" is true.

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  • 41. 

    The maximum power delivered by 802.3af Power Sourcing Equipment is approximately 15 W.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The 802.3af Power Sourcing Equipment is a standard used for Power over Ethernet (PoE) applications. It specifies that the maximum power that can be delivered by this equipment is approximately 15 W. Therefore, the statement "The maximum power delivered by 802.3af Power Sourcing Equipment is approximately 15 W" is true.

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  • 42. 

    The maximum power delivered by 802.3af Power Sourcing Equipment is approximately 48 W.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The maximum power delivered by 802.3af Power Sourcing Equipment is not approximately 48 W. The correct answer is False.

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  • 43. 

    The maximum power delivered by 802.3at Power Sourcing Equipment is approximately 48 W.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The given statement is false. The maximum power delivered by 802.3at Power Sourcing Equipment is not approximately 48 W. The actual maximum power delivered by 802.3at Power Sourcing Equipment is 30 W.

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  • 44. 

    Typically in Australia, the DC Voltage supplied via 802.3af or 802.3at is approximately what?

    • A.

      12 Volts

    • B.

      24 Volts

    • C.

      36 Volts

    • D.

      48 Volts

    Correct Answer
    D. 48 Volts
    Explanation
    In Australia, the DC voltage supplied via 802.3af or 802.3at is typically 48 Volts.

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  • 45. 

    What is the maximum distance over which POE power can be guaranteed delivery along certified Cat 6 cable?

    • A.

      6 metres

    • B.

      10 metres

    • C.

      100 metres

    • D.

      1000 metres

    Correct Answer
    C. 100 metres
    Explanation
    The maximum distance over which POE power can be guaranteed delivery along certified Cat 6 cable is 100 metres. This is because Cat 6 cable is designed to support Ethernet connections up to 1000 Mbps and has a maximum length specification of 100 metres. Beyond this distance, there may be signal degradation and power loss, resulting in unreliable POE power delivery.

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  • 46. 

    What is the smallest number of cables that are required in order to successfully transmit 802.3af POE over standard UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) cable?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    B. 4
    Explanation
    To successfully transmit 802.3af POE over standard UTP cable, four cables are required. This is because 802.3af POE requires two pairs of wires for power transmission and the remaining two pairs for data transmission. Therefore, a minimum of four cables are needed to transmit both power and data effectively.

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  • 47. 

    What is the maximum theoretical data rate per stream achievable under the IEEE 802.11n standard with 20 MHz wide channels?  

    • A.

      6 Mbps

    • B.

      11 Mbps

    • C.

      72.2 Mbps

    • D.

      54 Mbps

    Correct Answer
    C. 72.2 Mbps
    Explanation
    The maximum theoretical data rate per stream achievable under the IEEE 802.11n standard with 20 MHz wide channels is 72.2 Mbps. This standard supports multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO) technology, which allows for the use of multiple antennas to transmit and receive data simultaneously. The 72.2 Mbps data rate is achieved using a 64-QAM modulation scheme with a coding rate of 5/6, which provides a higher level of data encoding and faster transmission speeds.

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  • 48. 

    What is the frequency range of the IEEE 802.11n standard?

    • A.

      2.4 GHz & 5 GHz

    • B.

      2.4 GHz

    • C.

      5 GHz

    Correct Answer
    A. 2.4 GHz & 5 GHz
    Explanation
    The IEEE 802.11n standard operates in the frequency range of both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. This means that devices using this standard can connect to wireless networks in either of these frequency bands. The 2.4 GHz band is commonly used and has a longer range, while the 5 GHz band offers faster speeds but has a shorter range. Having both frequency options allows for more flexibility and compatibility with different types of devices and network environments.

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  • 49. 

    Within IEEE 802.11, what does MIMO stand for?

    Correct Answer
    Multiple In Multiple Out
    Multiple Input Multiple Output
    Explanation
    MIMO stands for Multiple Input Multiple Output in IEEE 802.11. It refers to a technology that uses multiple antennas at both the transmitting and receiving ends of a wireless communication system. This allows for multiple data streams to be transmitted and received simultaneously, increasing the overall data throughput and improving the system's reliability and performance.

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  • 50. 

    IEEE 802.11ac is a recent Wi-Fi specification which has been fully ratified as a standard. Therefore all existing Wi-Fi hardware is automatically compatible with 802.11ac and can achieve these new fast speeds.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The explanation for the given answer "False" is that IEEE 802.11ac is a recent Wi-Fi specification that requires specific hardware to support its features. Therefore, not all existing Wi-Fi hardware is automatically compatible with 802.11ac and cannot achieve the new fast speeds without upgrading to compatible hardware.

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