F-04 Fire Guard Certification Exam Practice Test

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F-04 Fire Guard Certification Exam Practice Test - Quiz

Welcome to this ultimate practice test for the official F-04 Fire Guard Certification exam. It is designed for Temporary Indoor/Out Door Place of Assembly Safety Personnel. I mean, the Fire Guard is present at any hosting of a temporary place of assembly such as public gatherings, festivals, indoor or outdoor concerts, etc.
If you are looking towards being certified with this specialty, then this test is a perfect practice session you should attempt.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Safety Personnel are required at indoor public gathers with ___ or more members.

    • A.

      75

    • B.

      25

    • C.

      60

    • D.

      70

    Correct Answer
    A. 75
    Explanation
    Safety personnel are required at indoor public gatherings with 75 or more members. This means that if there are fewer than 75 people attending the gathering, safety personnel may not be necessary. However, once the number of attendees reaches 75 or more, it becomes important to have safety personnel present to ensure the well-being and security of all individuals at the event.

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  • 2. 

    For the TPA events, the safety personnel are recommended to arrive at the premises at least 1 hour prior to the event and stay until all audience members leave.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement suggests that for TPA events, it is recommended for safety personnel to arrive at least 1 hour before the event starts and stay until all audience members have left. This implies that safety personnel play a crucial role in ensuring the safety and well-being of the attendees. By arriving early and staying until the end, they can effectively monitor and address any potential safety concerns or emergencies that may arise during the event. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 3. 

    In new office occupancies, fire drills must be conducted every __ months for the first 2 years.

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      6

    • C.

      2

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    In new office occupancies, fire drills must be conducted every 3 months for the first 2 years. This is important to ensure that all employees are familiar with the evacuation procedures and can respond effectively in case of a fire emergency. Conducting regular fire drills helps to identify any weaknesses in the evacuation plan and allows for necessary improvements to be made. It also helps to create a culture of safety and preparedness within the office environment.

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  • 4. 

    The quick check inspection should check if: 1) the fire extinguisher is fully charged 2) it is in it's designated place 3) it has not been actuated or tampered with 4) there is no obvious or physical damage or condition to prevent it's operation.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The quick check inspection should include checking if the fire extinguisher is fully charged, in its designated place, not actuated or tampered with, and free from any obvious or physical damage or condition that could prevent its operation. This means that all four conditions should be met in order for the fire extinguisher to pass the quick check inspection. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct.

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  • 5. 

    In existing office occupancies, fire drills are required to be conducted every __ months.

    • A.

      6

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      2

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    A. 6
    Explanation
    Fire drills are required to be conducted every 6 months in existing office occupancies. This is important for ensuring the safety of the occupants in case of a fire emergency. Regular fire drills help to familiarize the occupants with the evacuation procedures, emergency exits, and the location of fire extinguishers. By conducting drills every 6 months, the occupants can practice their response to a fire situation, identify any potential issues or obstacles, and improve their overall preparedness. This regular practice ensures that everyone is well-prepared and can safely evacuate the building in case of a real fire emergency.

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  • 6. 

    In all hotels fire drills must be conducted at least once every __ months on each shift.

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      6

    • C.

      9

    • D.

      12

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    Fire drills are an essential safety measure in hotels to ensure that employees are prepared and trained to respond effectively in the event of a fire. Conducting fire drills at least once every 3 months on each shift helps to reinforce fire safety protocols, familiarize employees with evacuation procedures, and identify any potential issues or improvements in the emergency response plan. Regular fire drills also help to create a culture of safety and preparedness among hotel staff, reducing the risk of injuries or fatalities in case of a fire emergency.

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  • 7. 

    Safety personnel are primarily to maintain the safety of the occupants during a gathering and assist in implementing the evacuation plan in the event of emergency.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Safety personnel play a crucial role in maintaining the safety of occupants during a gathering. They are responsible for ensuring that safety protocols are followed and are prepared to respond to emergencies. One of their key responsibilities is to assist in implementing evacuation plans in the event of an emergency. By being trained and equipped to handle emergencies, safety personnel can help protect the well-being of the people attending the gathering and ensure a prompt and orderly evacuation if necessary. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 8. 

    The acronym ESCAPE may be used as a reminder for doing the pre-event inspection:

    • A.

      Exits, Storage, Capacity, Aisles, Protection, Emergency

    • B.

      Exits, Storage, Calm, Aisles, People, Evacuate

    • C.

      Entrance, Space, Capacity, Ask, Protection, Exit

    • D.

      Exits, Storage, Capacity, Aisles, Protection, Entrance

    Correct Answer
    A. Exits, Storage, Capacity, Aisles, Protection, Emergency
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Exits, Storage, Capacity, Aisles, Protection, Emergency. This acronym serves as a reminder for conducting a pre-event inspection. It highlights the important areas that need to be checked before an event, such as the exits, storage areas, capacity limits, aisles, and emergency measures in place. By following this checklist, event organizers can ensure the safety and security of attendees and be prepared for any emergency situations that may arise.

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  • 9. 

    You are not required to monitor overcrowding in your area of assembly.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement implies that you are not responsible for monitoring overcrowding in your area of assembly, which is incorrect. As a responsible individual or authority, it is important to ensure the safety and well-being of people in your area of assembly, which includes monitoring and managing overcrowding to prevent any potential hazards or risks. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 10. 

    Required aisles must be:

    • A.

      Unobstructed

    • B.

      Monitored

    • C.

      Occupied

    • D.

      Unoccupied

    Correct Answer
    A. Unobstructed
    Explanation
    The required aisles must be unobstructed in order to ensure clear and easy passage. This means that there should be no objects, barriers, or obstacles blocking the aisles, allowing people to move freely without any hindrance.

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  • 11. 

    The event coordination should make an audio announcement not more than 10 minutes prior to the start of each performance or program informing the occupants of the location of exits.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because making an audio announcement prior to the start of each performance or program is an effective way to inform the occupants of the location of exits. This announcement ensures that the attendees are aware of the emergency exits and can evacuate safely in case of any unforeseen circumstances. It is crucial for event coordination to prioritize the safety of the attendees and provide clear instructions regarding emergency procedures.

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  • 12. 

    Smoking is allowed during indoor public gatherings.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Smoking is not allowed during indoor public gatherings. This is because smoking poses health risks to both smokers and non-smokers, and can lead to secondhand smoke exposure. Many countries and jurisdictions have implemented laws and regulations prohibiting smoking in indoor public places to protect public health and ensure a smoke-free environment for everyone. Therefore, the statement that smoking is allowed during indoor public gatherings is false.

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  • 13. 

    Space to be occupied by standing audience members must be separated from the space to be left clear for passage by a rope, tape, barriers, barricades, fencing or other suitable materials at a height of not less than ___ feet nor more than 4 feet above the floor.

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      6

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    Space to be occupied by standing audience members must be separated from the space to be left clear for passage by a rope, tape, barriers, barricades, fencing or other suitable materials at a height of not less than 3 feet nor more than 4 feet above the floor. This means that the height of the separation material should be at least 3 feet but no more than 4 feet. This ensures that there is a clear distinction between the area for the audience and the area that needs to be kept clear for passage.

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  • 14. 

    If the passageway is more than ___ feet and less than ___ feet deep, persons may stand therein, provided an unobstructed passageway of at least 6 feet in depth is left open and there are no more than four rows of persons standing.

    • A.

      3, 12

    • B.

      4, 16

    • C.

      6, 16

    • D.

      5, 10

    Correct Answer
    C. 6, 16
    Explanation
    If the passageway is more than 6 feet and less than 16 feet deep, persons may stand therein, provided an unobstructed passageway of at least 6 feet in depth is left open and there are no more than four rows of persons standing. This means that the passageway must be at least 6 feet deep to accommodate the standing persons, but it cannot exceed 16 feet in depth. Additionally, there should be no more than four rows of people standing to ensure that the passageway remains unobstructed.

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  • 15. 

    If the passageway is more than ___ feet deep any number of persons or rows of persons may stand therein provided that an unobstructed passageway of at least 10 feet in depth is left open.

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      16

    Correct Answer
    D. 16
    Explanation
    If the passageway is more than 16 feet deep, any number of persons or rows of persons may stand therein, as long as there is an unobstructed passageway of at least 10 feet in depth left open.

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  • 16. 

    Out-of-service fire alarm, sprinkler or standpipe systems shall be reported immediately to your supervisor and at least one ___ Fire guard must be present.

    • A.

      F-04

    • B.

      F-03

    • C.

      F01

    • D.

      F-00

    Correct Answer
    C. F01
    Explanation
    In this scenario, when the fire alarm, sprinkler, or standpipe systems are out of service, it is crucial to report it immediately to the supervisor. Additionally, at least one F01 fire guard must be present. The F01 fire guard is responsible for monitoring the area and ensuring the safety of the premises in case of a fire emergency.

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  • 17. 

    During the event the sponsor shall provide a site plan approved by the Department of Buildings.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because it states that the sponsor shall provide a site plan approved by the Department of Buildings during the event. However, it is more likely that the sponsor would provide the approved site plan before the event takes place, not during the event.

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  • 18. 

    Every safety personnel posted at an exit shall be equipped with a:

    • A.

      Two way radio

    • B.

      Bull horn

    • C.

      Flash Light

    • D.

      Hand-held counter

    Correct Answer
    A. Two way radio
    Explanation
    Safety personnel posted at an exit need to be able to communicate effectively with other personnel and coordinate their efforts. A two-way radio allows for instant communication between the personnel at the exit and other team members, enabling them to quickly relay important information, request assistance, or coordinate an evacuation if necessary. This communication tool ensures efficient and timely response in emergency situations, making it the most suitable option for safety personnel at an exit.

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  • 19. 

    Every safety personnel posted at an event entrance shall be equipped with a :

    • A.

      Two way radio

    • B.

      Bull horn

    • C.

      Flash Light

    • D.

      Scanner or Hand-held counter

    Correct Answer
    D. Scanner or Hand-held counter
    Explanation
    Safety personnel posted at an event entrance need to be equipped with a scanner or hand-held counter to ensure the accurate counting of attendees entering the event. This helps in maintaining crowd control and ensuring that the venue does not exceed its capacity limit. A scanner or hand-held counter allows the personnel to efficiently keep track of the number of people entering the event, ensuring the safety and security of all attendees.

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  • 20. 

    Chairs should be ganged.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    "Chairs should be ganged" means that chairs should be grouped or connected together in some way. This can be done by physically attaching them or by arranging them in a way that they are close together and form a cohesive seating arrangement. Ganging chairs has several benefits, such as creating a more organized and uniform look, maximizing space efficiency, and preventing chairs from being moved or rearranged easily. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 21. 

    Electric wires should be secured by cord covers.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Electric wires should be secured by cord covers to prevent them from being damaged or causing accidents. Cord covers provide a protective barrier that helps to prevent tripping hazards and keeps the wires safe from being chewed on by pets or damaged by furniture or other objects. They also help to organize and conceal the wires, improving the overall safety and appearance of the area. Therefore, it is important to secure electric wires with cord covers.

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  • 22. 

    Unsecured or un-ganged chairs do not pose a hazard in the event of emergency.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Unsecured or un-ganged chairs can pose a hazard in the event of an emergency. If chairs are not properly secured or ganged (connected together), they can easily tip over or become obstacles, obstructing escape routes and causing potential injuries during an emergency situation. Therefore, the statement is false.

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  • 23. 

    Compressed Gas and Flammable Liquids are prohibited at outdoor public gatherings.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Compressed gas and flammable liquids are prohibited at outdoor public gatherings for safety reasons. These substances can pose a significant risk of fire or explosion in crowded areas, where there may be a higher chance of accidents or mishandling. Therefore, it is necessary to prohibit their presence in such events to ensure the well-being and safety of the attendees.

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  • 24. 

    You should prevent overcrowding by monitoring the amount of people in your area of assembly.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The given statement suggests that it is important to monitor the number of people in a specific area to avoid overcrowding. This is a valid measure to ensure the safety and well-being of individuals in crowded spaces. By keeping track of the number of people, authorities can take necessary actions such as limiting entry or implementing crowd control measures to prevent overcrowding. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 25. 

    A telephone call must always be made to 911 after sounding a fire alarm.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    In case of a fire alarm, it is crucial to immediately call 911. This is because 911 is the emergency hotline that connects individuals with the appropriate emergency services, such as the fire department. By calling 911, the fire department can be alerted promptly, allowing them to respond quickly to the fire and potentially save lives and property. Therefore, it is essential to always make a telephone call to 911 after sounding a fire alarm.

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  • 26. 

    Double action stations require two steps in order to activate the alarm.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Double action stations are designed to prevent accidental activation of the alarm. They require two separate actions or steps to activate the alarm, such as pushing a button or pulling a lever. This ensures that the alarm is only activated intentionally and not by mistake. Therefore, the statement that double action stations require two steps to activate the alarm is true.

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  • 27. 

    The two types of manual fire alarm pull stations are called single action and double action stations.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because there are indeed two types of manual fire alarm pull stations: single action and double action stations. Single action stations require only one action to activate the alarm, such as pulling a lever or pushing a button. Double action stations, on the other hand, require two separate actions to activate the alarm, such as pulling a lever and then pushing a button.

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  • 28. 

    Once activated, the fire alarm must be re-set at the Fire Alarm Control Panel.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Once the fire alarm is activated, it needs to be reset at the Fire Alarm Control Panel. This implies that the alarm system is designed to automatically trigger an alarm when it detects a fire, and once the fire has been addressed or the alarm has been investigated, it must be manually reset at the control panel to ensure that the system is ready to detect and respond to any future fire incidents.

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  • 29. 

    All fire alarm pull stations should be installed so that the handle is approximately ___ feet from the floor and is located within 5 feet of the exit doorway opening.

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      5

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      6

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    Fire alarm pull stations should be installed so that the handle is approximately 4 feet from the floor and located within 5 feet of the exit doorway opening. This positioning ensures that the pull stations are easily accessible in case of an emergency and allows for quick and efficient evacuation. A height of 4 feet is suitable for most individuals to reach and operate the pull station effectively. Additionally, placing the pull stations within 5 feet of the exit doorway opening ensures that they are easily visible and can be located without much difficulty.

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  • 30. 

    When the sprinkler head opens they are said to have:

    • A.

      Opened

    • B.

      Spayed

    • C.

      Leaked

    • D.

      Fused

    Correct Answer
    D. Fused
    Explanation
    When the sprinkler head opens, it is said to have fused. This means that the components of the sprinkler head have joined or merged together, allowing water to flow out and activate the sprinkler system. The term "fused" is commonly used in the context of sprinkler systems to describe the opening of the sprinkler head.

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  • 31. 

    Standpipes are installed as stand alone systems which act like building-specific:

    • A.

      Sprinkler systems

    • B.

      Fire Hydrants

    • C.

      Alarm systems

    • D.

      Signal initiating devices

    Correct Answer
    B. Fire Hydrants
    Explanation
    Standpipes are installed as stand-alone systems that act like building-specific fire hydrants. Fire hydrants are essential for providing a reliable water supply to firefighters during emergencies. Similarly, standpipes are designed to provide a readily available water source for firefighting operations within a building. They are connected to the building's water supply and have outlets on each floor, allowing firefighters to quickly access water to combat fires. Therefore, the comparison between standpipes and fire hydrants is appropriate as they both serve the purpose of providing water for firefighting.

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  • 32. 

    Dry standpipe systems consist of a series of pipes which bring water to various points in a building when it is used by Fire Fighters.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Dry standpipe systems are designed to provide water supply to firefighters in buildings during a fire emergency. These systems consist of pipes that are empty of water until they are connected to a water source, such as a fire hydrant or a fire engine. When the system is activated, water is brought to various points in the building through these pipes, allowing firefighters to access water quickly and easily to extinguish the fire. Therefore, the given statement is true.

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  • 33. 

    Wet systems are "charged", meaning that they are always filled with water.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Wet systems in fire protection refer to sprinkler systems that are constantly filled with water. This means that water is always present in the pipes and ready to be discharged in the event of a fire. This is in contrast to dry systems, which are not filled with water until a fire is detected. Therefore, the statement that wet systems are "charged" and always filled with water is true.

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  • 34. 

    Fire alarm systems are classified as automatic,  manually activated or both.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Fire alarm systems can be classified as automatic, manually activated, or both. This means that fire alarm systems can be designed to automatically detect and activate in the event of a fire, or they can be manually activated by individuals. Additionally, some fire alarm systems may have both automatic and manual activation capabilities, providing an extra layer of safety and flexibility in emergency situations. Therefore, the statement "Fire alarm systems are classified as automatic, manually activated or both" is true.

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  • 35. 

    In case of major spill you do not need to contact the Fire Department.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    In case of a major spill, it is important to contact the Fire Department. Major spills can pose serious risks, such as fire hazards or the release of hazardous substances. The Fire Department has the necessary expertise and resources to handle such situations effectively and safely. Therefore, it is crucial to reach out to them for assistance and guidance in order to minimize potential harm and ensure proper containment and cleanup of the spill.

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  • 36. 

    Fire extinguishers are allowed on the floor.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Fire extinguishers are not allowed on the floor. They need to be mounted on walls or placed in designated fire extinguisher cabinets. This is to ensure that they are easily accessible in case of a fire emergency and to prevent them from being obstructed or damaged on the floor.

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  • 37. 

    The top of the fire extinguisher must not be more than 5 feet above the floor.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because fire extinguishers should be easily accessible in case of an emergency. Placing them too high above the floor would make it difficult for people to reach them quickly. By keeping the top of the fire extinguisher within 5 feet of the floor, it ensures that it is at a convenient height for anyone to grab and use effectively.

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  • 38. 

    The bottom of the extinguisher must be at least 4 inches above the floor.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The bottom of the extinguisher must be at least 4 inches above the floor to ensure that it is easily accessible and visible in case of an emergency. Placing the extinguisher higher than the floor level also helps to prevent it from being accidentally kicked or obstructed. This requirement is a safety measure to ensure that the extinguisher can be quickly and effectively used when needed.

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  • 39. 

    In the event of a fire extinguisher has been discharged, a fully charged replacement is required before work can resume.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    When a fire extinguisher has been discharged, it means that it has been used to put out a fire. In such cases, the fire extinguisher is no longer fully charged and cannot be used again until it is recharged or replaced. Therefore, in order to ensure the safety of the workplace and be prepared for any future fire emergencies, a fully charged replacement fire extinguisher is required before work can continue. This statement is true.

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  • 40. 

    The trained Certificate of Fitness holder should only consider extinguishing fires that are limited in size.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement suggests that a trained Certificate of Fitness holder should only attempt to extinguish fires that are limited in size. This implies that they have the knowledge and skills to handle smaller fires safely. It is important for them to assess the size and potential danger of a fire before deciding to intervene. This ensures that they do not put themselves or others at risk by attempting to extinguish a fire that is beyond their capabilities. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 41. 

    Pass is the acronym for:

    • A.

      Press, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

    • B.

      Pass, Aim, Sweep, Squeeze

    • C.

      Pull, Aim, Sweep, Squeeze

    • D.

      Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

    Correct Answer
    D. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep." This is the correct order of actions to follow when using a fire extinguisher. "Pull" refers to pulling the pin to unlock the extinguisher, "Aim" means aiming the nozzle or hose at the base of the fire, "Squeeze" is about squeezing the handle to release the extinguishing agent, and "Sweep" means sweeping the nozzle or hose from side to side to cover the entire fire area.

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  • 42. 

    Combustible materials such as wood, paper and cloth require what class of fire extinguisher.

    • A.

      Class A

    • B.

      Class B

    • C.

      Class C

    • D.

      Class D

    Correct Answer
    A. Class A
    Explanation
    Combustible materials such as wood, paper, and cloth can be extinguished using a Class A fire extinguisher. Class A fire extinguishers are specifically designed to tackle fires involving ordinary combustible materials. These extinguishers contain water or foam as the extinguishing agent, which helps to cool down the fire and suppress the flames. They are not suitable for fires involving flammable liquids, electrical equipment, or metals.

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  • 43. 

    Fires caused by flammable liquids require this type of fire extinguisher.

    • A.

      Class A

    • B.

      Class B

    • C.

      Class C

    • D.

      Class D

    Correct Answer
    B. Class B
    Explanation
    Class B fires are caused by flammable liquids such as gasoline, oil, and grease. These fires require a fire extinguisher specifically designed to extinguish flammable liquid fires. Class B fire extinguishers use a special type of extinguishing agent, such as foam or carbon dioxide, which can smother the fire and prevent it from spreading. Therefore, a Class B fire extinguisher is necessary to effectively extinguish fires caused by flammable liquids.

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  • 44. 

    Fires involving electrical equipment require this type of fire extinguisher.

    • A.

      Class A

    • B.

      Class B

    • C.

      Class C

    • D.

      Class D

    Correct Answer
    C. Class C
    Explanation
    Class C fire extinguishers are specifically designed to extinguish fires involving electrical equipment. This is because Class C fires are caused by energized electrical equipment, such as appliances, wiring, or circuit breakers. These fires cannot be extinguished with water or other conductive extinguishing agents, as they can conduct electricity and pose a risk of electric shock. Class C fire extinguishers contain non-conductive agents, such as carbon dioxide or dry chemical, which smother the fire and remove the oxygen needed to sustain it. Therefore, Class C fire extinguishers are the appropriate choice for dealing with fires involving electrical equipment.

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  • 45. 

    Fires caused by ignitable metals require this type of fire extinguisher.

    • A.

      Class A

    • B.

      Class B

    • C.

      Class C

    • D.

      Class D

    Correct Answer
    D. Class D
    Explanation
    Class D fire extinguishers are specifically designed to extinguish fires caused by ignitable metals. These metals, such as magnesium, titanium, and sodium, have unique properties that make them difficult to extinguish with traditional fire extinguishers. Class D extinguishers contain a special extinguishing agent, usually a dry powder or sand, that is able to smother the fire and prevent the metal from reigniting. Therefore, Class D fire extinguishers are the most appropriate choice for fires caused by ignitable metals.

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  • 46. 

    There is no such thing as a multi-purpose dry chemical fire extinguisher.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because there is indeed such a thing as a multi-purpose dry chemical fire extinguisher. This type of extinguisher is designed to put out different classes of fires, including those caused by flammable liquids, electrical equipment, and ordinary combustibles. It is a versatile option that can be used in various settings, making it a valuable tool in fire safety.

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  • 47. 

    Fire extinguishers used in commercial kitchens are class K.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Fire extinguishers used in commercial kitchens are classified as class K extinguishers. Class K extinguishers are specifically designed to handle fires involving cooking oils, fats, and grease, which are commonly found in commercial kitchen settings. These extinguishers use a special extinguishing agent that reacts with the hot oils and creates a soapy foam, effectively smothering the fire and preventing re-ignition. Therefore, the statement "Fire extinguishers used in commercial kitchens are class K" is true.

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  • 48. 

    Fire extinguishers are required to be inspected (quick check):

    • A.

      Daily

    • B.

      Weekly

    • C.

      Monthly

    • D.

      Yearly

    Correct Answer
    C. Monthly
    Explanation
    Fire extinguishers are required to be inspected monthly. This is because regular inspections help ensure that the fire extinguishers are in proper working condition and ready to be used in case of an emergency. Monthly inspections allow for the detection of any potential issues such as damage, leaks, or expired contents, and prompt maintenance or replacement can be carried out accordingly. Regular inspections also help to comply with safety regulations and maintain a safe environment.

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  • 49. 

    At least once per year, all fire extinguishers must be maintained by a FDNY approved company and a W-96 Certificate of Fitness Holder.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because according to FDNY regulations, fire extinguishers need to be maintained annually by an approved company and a W-96 Certificate of Fitness Holder. This ensures that the fire extinguishers are in proper working condition and can effectively be used in case of a fire emergency. Regular maintenance helps to identify any potential issues and ensures that the extinguishers are ready for use at all times.

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  • 50. 

    Generally, from the orientation, the safety personnel should know the location of exits and the means of communication with FDNY and occupants in the case of emergency.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The explanation for the given correct answer is that safety personnel should be aware of the location of exits and how to communicate with both the FDNY (Fire Department of New York) and occupants in case of an emergency. This knowledge is crucial for their role in ensuring the safety of people and coordinating emergency response effectively.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 12, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 20, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Mike McClean
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