3P071 Volume 2(Air Base Defense)
-
Where is an excellent position to place a marksman in an urban area?
-
A scrape out.
-
A shell crate.
-
Peak of a roof.
-
Under a parked vehicle.
-
VOLUME 2
Quiz Preview
- 2.
The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
-
Arson.
-
Bombing.
-
Hijacking.
-
Assassination.
Correct Answer
A. Bombing.Explanation
The correct answer is bombing. Terrorist groups often employ bombing as a tactic to cause widespread destruction and instill fear among the population. This method allows them to target specific locations or individuals, resulting in casualties and significant damage. Bombings can be carried out in various forms, such as suicide bombings, car bombings, or improvised explosive devices (IEDs). This tactic has been used by numerous terrorist organizations worldwide to achieve their objectives and make a strong impact on society.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
What is a base already possessing resources and an established infrastructure?
-
Bare base (BB).
-
Standby base (SB).
-
Main operating base (MOB).
-
Collocated operating base (COB).
Correct Answer
A. Main operating base (MOB).Explanation
A main operating base (MOB) refers to a base that already has resources and an established infrastructure in place. This means that the base is fully equipped and ready to support various operations. It has the necessary facilities, equipment, and personnel to carry out its functions effectively. The term "main" implies that it is a primary or significant base, indicating its importance and prominence within a larger operational framework.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
When conducting ambushes, units refer to the engagement areas as
-
ENGAGEMENT ZONE.
-
AMBUSH ZONE.
-
DEATH ZONE.
-
KILL ZONE.
Correct Answer
A. KILL ZONE.Explanation
During ambushes, units refer to the engagement areas as "kill zones" because it accurately describes the purpose of this specific area. The kill zone is a designated area where the ambush is set up to maximize the chances of inflicting casualties on the enemy. It is carefully chosen to provide advantageous positions for the ambushers and restrict the movement of the enemy, making it easier to effectively engage and neutralize them. The term "kill zone" emphasizes the primary objective of causing maximum damage to the enemy forces during the ambush operation.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical information?
-
At the earliest possible moment.
-
Only after the subordinate commanders have been notified.
-
Only after the review and approval from higher-head quarters commanders.
-
Never; commanders and planners should not have to identify any critical information.
Correct Answer
A. At the earliest possible moment.Explanation
Commanders and planners should identify mission-critical information at the earliest possible moment. This is important because identifying critical information early allows them to make informed decisions and develop effective strategies. By identifying mission-critical information early, commanders and planners can allocate resources, assess risks, and develop contingency plans to ensure mission success. Delaying the identification of critical information can lead to delays in decision-making and potentially compromise the mission's success. Therefore, it is crucial for commanders and planners to identify mission-critical information as soon as possible.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
Observation post (OP)/listening post (LP) teams are not equipped to
-
Indicate enemy location using flares.
-
Protect themselves.
-
Report information.
-
Observe the area.
Correct Answer
A. Indicate enemy location using flares.Explanation
OP/LP teams are not equipped to indicate enemy location using flares. This means that they do not have the necessary equipment or tools to use flares as a means of signaling or pointing out the location of the enemy. Instead, their primary functions are to protect themselves, report information, and observe the area.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
What is the staff make-up for the S3?
-
The operations officer and staff.
-
Supply noncommissioned officer.
-
First sergeant or section commander.
-
Intelligence officers and security forces investigators.
Correct Answer
A. The operations officer and staff.Explanation
The correct answer is "The operations officer and staff." This is because the question is asking about the staff make-up for the S3, which refers to the operations section of a military unit. The operations officer is responsible for planning and coordinating operations, and the staff consists of personnel who support the operations officer in executing their duties. Therefore, the operations officer and staff are the key components of the S3 staff make-up.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around what three principles?
-
State Department intelligence assessments, threat levels, and threat conditions (THREATCON).
-
Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels.
-
Intelligence gathering, threat level, and THREATCONs.
-
Criminal threat, FPCONs, and the CARVER matrix.
Correct Answer
A. Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels.Explanation
The correct answer is Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels. This answer explains that the USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around three principles: FPCON, which refers to the level of security measures in place to protect military personnel and resources; assessment factors, which are used to evaluate potential threats and vulnerabilities; and threat levels, which indicate the level of risk posed by a specific threat. These three principles work together to ensure the effectiveness of the antiterrorism program in safeguarding against potential threats.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
A terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is
-
Non-state-supported.
-
State-supported.
-
Stated-directed.
-
State-organized.
Correct Answer
A. State-supported.Explanation
The correct answer is "state-supported" because it accurately describes a terrorist group that operates independently but receives support from one or more governments. This implies that the group is not directly controlled or directed by the government(s), but they provide assistance, resources, or funding to the group.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
What provides key information to the defense force commander (DFC) and support staffs (S staff) on specific air base defense (ABD) activities in order to make decisions, and develop and implement tactical plans and orders?
-
Maps.
-
Signals.
-
Reports.
-
Telegrams.
Correct Answer
A. Reports.Explanation
Reports provide key information to the defense force commander and support staffs on specific air base defense activities. These reports contain detailed information about the current situation, including any threats or vulnerabilities that may exist. By analyzing these reports, the DFC and S staff can make informed decisions, develop tactical plans, and issue orders to effectively defend the air base. Maps provide a visual representation of the area, signals are used for communication, and telegrams are a form of written communication, but reports are specifically designed to provide detailed information for decision-making and planning in this context.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
What does not need to be shown on a sketch?
-
Observation post (OP)/listening post (LP) locations and patrol routes, if any.
-
Maximum engagement lines for the light anti-tank weapons (LAW)/AT–4s.
-
Mines (claymores), sensors, and obstacles.
-
Location of home station flight.
Correct Answer
A. Location of home station flight.Explanation
The location of the home station flight does not need to be shown on a sketch. A sketch is typically used to depict specific tactical information such as OP/LP locations, patrol routes, engagement lines, mines, sensors, and obstacles. The location of the home station flight is not relevant to these tactical considerations and therefore does not need to be included in the sketch.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
Where is the best position for you to locate an observation post (OP)/listening post (LP)?
-
In a water tower.
-
In a stand-alone position.
-
In a single small gathering of trees.
-
In a position that doesn’t draw attention.
Correct Answer
A. In a position that doesn’t draw attention.Explanation
The best position for an observation post or listening post is in a position that doesn't draw attention. This is because the purpose of an OP/LP is to gather information covertly without alerting the enemy or drawing attention to oneself. By choosing a position that doesn't draw attention, the chances of being detected or compromised are minimized, allowing for effective surveillance and intelligence gathering.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
Our first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts is
-
Communication security (COMSEC).
-
Computer security (COMPUSEC).
-
Information security (INFOSEC).
-
Operations security (OPSEC).
Correct Answer
A. Operations security (OPSEC).Explanation
The correct answer is operations security (OPSEC). OPSEC refers to the measures taken to protect critical information that could be used by adversaries to compromise our mission. It involves identifying and controlling critical information, analyzing threats, and implementing countermeasures to protect sensitive information from being exploited. OPSEC is crucial in safeguarding our operations and preventing intelligence collection efforts by adversaries. Communication security (COMSEC), computer security (COMPUSEC), and information security (INFOSEC) are important aspects of overall security, but OPSEC specifically focuses on protecting critical information related to operations.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
Compiling and examining all available information concerning potential threats by threat analysts is a/an
-
Annual process.
-
Bi-annual process.
-
Monthly process.
-
Continual process.
Correct Answer
A. Continual process.Explanation
Threat analysts compile and examine all available information concerning potential threats on an ongoing basis, rather than at specific intervals such as annually, bi-annually, or monthly. This is because the threat landscape is constantly evolving, with new threats emerging and existing ones evolving. Therefore, threat analysis is a continual process that requires constant monitoring and updating of information to stay proactive and effectively mitigate potential risks.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
To modify to prevent recognition of the true identity or character of an asset or activity is to
-
Hide.
-
Blend.
-
Decoy.
-
Disguise.
Correct Answer
A. Disguise.Explanation
To modify something in order to prevent its true identity or character from being recognized is to disguise it. Disguising involves altering the appearance or nature of an asset or activity in order to make it appear different or unrecognizable. This can be done through various means such as changing its physical appearance, behavior, or location. Disguise is a common tactic used in espionage, undercover operations, or in situations where concealment is necessary for security or strategic purposes.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
What is one of the fundamental purposes of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC)?
-
Prevent unnecessary suffering.
-
Prevent use of political influence.
-
Maintain a well-defined military plan.
-
Provide equal representation of all combatants.
Correct Answer
A. Prevent unnecessary suffering.Explanation
The Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) serves the fundamental purpose of preventing unnecessary suffering. It aims to establish rules and regulations that govern the conduct of armed forces during armed conflicts, with the objective of minimizing the suffering inflicted on individuals involved in the conflict. By setting limits on the methods and means of warfare, LOAC seeks to protect civilians, prisoners of war, and combatants who are no longer taking part in the hostilities. It emphasizes the importance of humane treatment, proportionality, and respect for human dignity in armed conflicts.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
Based on the integrated base defense (IBD) concept of operations (CONOP), what are all Airmen considered?
-
Detectors.
-
Monitors.
-
Fighters.
-
Sensors.
Correct Answer
A. Sensors.Explanation
Based on the integrated base defense (IBD) concept of operations (CONOP), Airmen are considered sensors. This suggests that their role is to gather information and provide situational awareness to support the overall defense of the base. They are responsible for detecting any potential threats or intrusions and relaying that information to the appropriate personnel for further action.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
Commanders do not use rules of engagement (ROE) to ensure operations
-
Follow the rule of law.
-
Meet manning standards.
-
Follow national policy goals.
-
Follow mission requirements.
Correct Answer
A. Meet manning standards.Explanation
Commanders do not use rules of engagement (ROE) to meet manning standards. ROE are guidelines that dictate how military forces should conduct operations, including the use of force. Manning standards, on the other hand, refer to the required number of personnel needed to effectively carry out a mission. While commanders may consider manning standards when planning operations, ROE are specifically designed to ensure that military actions comply with the rule of law, national policy goals, and mission requirements.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
Guidance on the application of force and exercising of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense is the purpose of the
-
United Nations.
-
Geneva Convention.
-
Joint force commander’s directives.
-
US military’s standing rules of engagement (ROE).
Correct Answer
A. US military’s standing rules of engagement (ROE).Explanation
The purpose of the US military's standing rules of engagement (ROE) is to provide guidance on the application of force and the exercise of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense. These rules outline the circumstances under which military personnel are authorized to use force, including lethal force, in order to protect themselves, their fellow service members, and mission objectives. The ROE ensure that military operations are conducted within legal and ethical boundaries, while still allowing for the effective execution of military missions.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
What should always be your first priority of work?
-
Establish local security.
-
Emplace obstacles and mines.
-
Prepare primary fighting positions.
-
Mark or improve marking for target reference points (TRP).
Correct Answer
A. Establish local security.Explanation
Establishing local security should always be the first priority of work because it ensures the safety and protection of the immediate area. By establishing local security, individuals can identify and mitigate potential threats, allowing them to carry out their work in a secure environment. This step is crucial in preventing any surprise attacks or unauthorized access, providing a solid foundation for further tasks and operations.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
Since unit type codes (UTC) are functionally grouped, what will all security forces UTCs have as a designator?
-
UT.
-
FP.
-
AT.
-
QF.
Correct Answer
A. QF.Explanation
All security forces UTCs will have "QF" as a designator because the question states that unit type codes (UTC) are functionally grouped. This implies that different types of units are categorized and assigned specific designators. Since security forces UTCs fall under a specific functional group, they will all have the same designator, which in this case is "QF".Rate this question:
-
- 22.
When the machine gun is not assigned to the maneuver element, what is its primary mission?
-
Provide covering fire for the assault element.
-
It’s only function is with the maneuver element.
-
Provide over-head fire for maneuvering fire teams.
-
Lay down covering fire for reconnaissance elements.
Correct Answer
A. Provide covering fire for the assault element.Explanation
When the machine gun is not assigned to the maneuver element, its primary mission is to provide covering fire for the assault element. This means that the machine gun is responsible for suppressing the enemy and creating a protective barrier of fire to support the advancing assault element. This allows the assault element to maneuver and close in on the enemy while minimizing their exposure to enemy fire.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
A relatively secure area that allows for positive identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as
-
Exclusion area.
-
Search area.
-
Denial area.
-
Safe area.
Correct Answer
A. Search area.Explanation
A search area is a relatively secure area that allows for positive identification of personnel and vehicles. It is a designated area where thorough searches are conducted to ensure the safety and security of the location. This can involve checking identification, inspecting vehicles, and conducting searches for any prohibited or dangerous items. The purpose of a search area is to prevent unauthorized access and ensure that only authorized personnel and vehicles are allowed entry.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, what is their mission?
-
Determine which other countries support their beliefs.
-
Ensure state funding would continue to finance cause.
-
Destroy as much property as possible in a short period.
-
Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies.
Correct Answer
A. Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies.Explanation
The mission of terrorists when they attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities is to persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies. This means that their goal is to use violence and fear as a means to influence political decisions and force governments to alter their policies in alignment with the terrorists' beliefs or demands. They aim to create enough chaos and disruption through their attacks to compel governments to reconsider their positions and make changes that the terrorists desire.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
A typical organization of a terrorist group consists of
-
Group leader, intelligence officer, explosive specialist, and weapons specialist.
-
Hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support.
-
Hard-core cadre, submissive support, inactive leaders, and low support.
-
Intelligence officer, inactive leaders, and active cadre.
Correct Answer
A. Hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support.Explanation
The correct answer is "hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support." This answer accurately describes the typical organization of a terrorist group. The "hard-core leadership" refers to the core group of leaders who make strategic decisions and provide guidance to the group. The "active cadre" refers to the members who actively participate in carrying out terrorist activities. The "active support" refers to individuals who provide assistance and resources to the group, while the "passive support" refers to individuals who sympathize with the group's cause but do not actively participate in its activities.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
Military operations other than war (MOOTW) missions do not include
-
Quarantine.
-
Peacekeeping.
-
Clandestine infiltration.
-
Humanitarian assistance.
Correct Answer
A. Clandestine infiltration.Explanation
Military operations other than war (MOOTW) are activities carried out by the military that are not traditional combat operations. These missions are typically focused on maintaining peace, providing humanitarian aid, and supporting civil authorities. Quarantine, peacekeeping, and humanitarian assistance are all examples of MOOTW missions as they involve non-combat activities aimed at protecting and assisting civilian populations. However, clandestine infiltration refers to covert operations involving secret entry into enemy territory, which is not a typical MOOTW mission. Instead, it falls under the domain of special operations or intelligence activities.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
You should make restricted areas as small as possible to eliminate the
-
Number of troops required guarding it.
-
Amount of time it would take to patrol the area.
-
Need for securing and maintaining unnecessary terrain.
-
Necessity of care and maintenance required for a larger area.
Correct Answer
A. Need for securing and maintaining unnecessary terrain.Explanation
Making restricted areas as small as possible eliminates the need for securing and maintaining unnecessary terrain. By reducing the size of the restricted areas, there is less land that needs to be protected and maintained, saving resources and manpower. This approach also minimizes the risk of potential breaches or unauthorized access, as the focus is on securing a smaller and more manageable area.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center (BDOC)?
-
S1 and S3.
-
S2 and S4.
-
S2 and S3.
-
S3 and S4.
Correct Answer
A. S2 and S3.Explanation
The base defense operations center (BDOC) is a critical facility for coordinating and managing defense operations. S-functions refer to specific systems or modules that are essential for the functioning of the BDOC. In this case, the correct answer suggests that S2 and S3 are the minimum required S-functions for the BDOC. This implies that these two systems are crucial for the operations and effectiveness of the defense center. The other options, S1 and S3 or S2 and S4 or S3 and S4, are not the minimum required combinations for the BDOC.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
What should the defense force commander (DFC) consider in the sectorization scheme to provide maximum protection for base critical resources?
-
The entire base tactical boundary.
-
The entire air base defense (ABD) plan.
-
The entire tactical area of responsibility (TAOR).
-
The limiting factors to the defense of the air base.
Correct Answer
A. The entire tactical area of responsibility (TAOR).Explanation
The defense force commander (DFC) should consider the entire tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) in the sectorization scheme to provide maximum protection for base critical resources. This means that the DFC should take into account the entire area for which they are responsible for defending, ensuring that all resources within this area are adequately protected. This approach allows for a comprehensive and holistic defense strategy, ensuring that no critical resources are left vulnerable.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
In terms of engagement ranges, machine guns in the base-of-fire element may find themselves firing at targets within how many meters of the element?
-
400.
-
600.
-
800.
-
1,000.
Correct Answer
A. 800.Explanation
In terms of engagement ranges, machine guns in the base-of-fire element may find themselves firing at targets within 800 meters of the element.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
Against what threat levels can close precision engagement (CPE) add significantly to delaying actions by enhancing the standoff capabilities of defense forces?
-
III and IV.
-
II and III.
-
II and IV.
-
I and IV.
Correct Answer
A. II and III.Explanation
Close precision engagement (CPE) can add significantly to delaying actions by enhancing the standoff capabilities of defense forces against threat levels II and III. This means that CPE can effectively contribute to delaying actions when facing moderate to high levels of threats.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
What would necessitate the need to dig hasty firing positions in the field?
-
When you have made contact with the enemy.
-
When time and materials are not a factor.
-
When there is ample natural cover.
-
When aerial strikes are imminent.
Correct Answer
A. When you have made contact with the enemy.Explanation
In a battlefield situation, when a soldier makes contact with the enemy, it becomes crucial to quickly establish firing positions to defend themselves and engage the enemy. This is because being stationary and exposed makes them vulnerable to enemy fire. By digging hasty firing positions, soldiers can take cover and have a stable platform to fire from, increasing their chances of survival and effectively engaging the enemy.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
Which essential element of the integrated base defense (IBD) concept slows the enemy without the need for a massive response at the outset of an engagement?
-
Anticipate.
-
Detect.
-
Delay.
-
Deny.
Correct Answer
A. Delay.Explanation
Delay is the correct answer because it refers to the essential element of the integrated base defense (IBD) concept that slows down the enemy without requiring a large-scale response at the beginning of an engagement. Delaying tactics can involve various strategies and measures, such as establishing obstacles, conducting reconnaissance, and implementing defensive positions, to buy time and hinder the enemy's progress. By delaying the enemy, defenders gain additional time to prepare and respond effectively, potentially reducing the need for an immediate and overwhelming response.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
Avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting military operations is what principle of war?
-
Unity of command.
-
Simplicity.
-
Objective.
-
Offensive.
Correct Answer
A. Simplicity.Explanation
The principle of war that is being described in this question is simplicity. This principle emphasizes the importance of avoiding unnecessary complexity in military operations. By keeping things simple, it becomes easier to organize, prepare, plan, and conduct these operations effectively. Simplicity allows for clear communication, streamlined decision-making, and efficient use of resources. It helps to minimize confusion, reduce the potential for errors, and increase the overall effectiveness of military actions.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
Protective barriers consist of what two major categories?
-
Man-made and fabricated.
-
Natural and structural.
-
Hard and soft.
-
Left and right.
Correct Answer
A. Natural and structural.Explanation
Protective barriers can be categorized into two major categories: natural and structural. Natural barriers refer to naturally occurring features such as cliffs, mountains, or bodies of water that act as barriers against potential threats. On the other hand, structural barriers are man-made constructions like fences, walls, or barricades that are intentionally built to provide protection. This categorization helps to differentiate between barriers that exist naturally and those that are created by human intervention for the purpose of protection.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
The primary mission of a joint operation is
-
Lead host nation forces in defending and securing the rear area.
-
Sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force.
-
Disaster relief operations.
-
Humanitarian operations.
Correct Answer
A. Sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force.Explanation
The primary mission of a joint operation is to sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force. This means that the joint operation is responsible for providing support and resources to ensure the ongoing success of the overall military campaign and the major operations being conducted by the joint force. This could include logistical support, intelligence gathering, coordination of efforts, and other necessary actions to maintain the momentum and effectiveness of the joint force's mission.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of
-
16–24.
-
21–28.
-
23–30.
-
25–32.
Correct Answer
A. 23–30.Explanation
Specially trained terrorists are generally expected to possess above average intelligence and be within a certain age range. The answer 23-30 is the most reasonable choice as it falls within the typical age range for individuals who are physically capable and mentally mature enough to be trained for such activities. This age range also allows for a certain level of experience and maturity that can be advantageous in executing terrorist operations.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?
-
Before execution of attack.
-
Just before departing for the target sight.
-
One week prior to scheduled attack execution.
-
Never; terrorist team members do not conduct rehearsals.
Correct Answer
A. Just before departing for the target sight.Explanation
Terrorist team members are brought together for a final rehearsal just before departing for the target sight. This implies that the team members gather to practice and coordinate their actions shortly before carrying out the attack. This approach ensures that the team members are well-prepared and synchronized before executing their plan.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?
-
Activity.
-
Intentions.
-
Operational capability.
-
Operating environment.
Correct Answer
A. Intentions.Explanation
The factor that is related to the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests is intentions. Intentions refer to the motives or goals of the terrorists, and their desire to carry out attacks against US interests. This factor focuses on the underlying reasons behind the attacks, such as political, ideological, or religious motivations. It does not consider the specific methods or resources used by the terrorists, but rather their intention to cause harm to US interests.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
What is the time limit for an air and space expeditionary force (AEF) package to respond to any unexpected contingency?
-
12 hours.
-
24 hours.
-
48 hours.
-
72 hours.
Correct Answer
A. 72 hours.Explanation
The time limit for an air and space expeditionary force (AEF) package to respond to any unexpected contingency is 72 hours. This means that the AEF package must be prepared and ready to deploy within 72 hours of receiving the order. This timeframe allows for the necessary preparations, including assembling personnel, equipment, and supplies, and conducting any required training or briefings. It ensures that the AEF package can quickly and effectively respond to any unexpected situation or crisis that may arise.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) begins at the
-
Base defense operations center (BDOC).
-
Point of insertion.
-
Base perimeter.
-
Resource.
Correct Answer
A. Resource.Explanation
The correct answer is "resource" because the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) is a designated area where a military unit is responsible for conducting operations and managing resources. The TAOR does not necessarily begin at the base defense operations center (BDOC), point of insertion, or base perimeter, as these are specific locations within the TAOR. Instead, the TAOR encompasses a larger area where resources are allocated and managed.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is
-
Defeating level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base.
-
Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level IV threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
-
Stalling level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
-
Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level I threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.
Correct Answer
A. Defeating level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base.Explanation
The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is to defeat level I threats, which are immediate and direct threats to the air base. Additionally, they are responsible for disrupting or delaying level II threats, which are more significant and require a higher level of response. This is done within the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base, which is the designated operational area for the defense forces.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?
-
Partisans.
-
Terrorists.
-
Sympathizers.
-
Agent activity.
Correct Answer
A. Sympathizers.Explanation
Sympathizers are individuals who support a particular cause or group but may not directly engage in violent activities themselves. They may carry out random acts against targets of opportunity to show their support or solidarity with the cause. This behavior is characteristic of sympathizers rather than partisans, terrorists, or agent activity, which involve more organized and deliberate actions.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
The capability to reduce the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy to protect friendly assets and aim points with materials and equipment that alter or obscure part or all of their multispectral signatures is
-
Cover, camouflage, and deception (CCD).
-
Concealing camouflage deceitfully (CCD).
-
Deceptive camouflage concealment (DCC).
-
Camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD).
Correct Answer
A. Camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD).Explanation
The correct answer is camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD). This refers to the capability of using various techniques such as hiding, blending, disguising, and decoying to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets. By altering or obscuring the multispectral signatures of friendly assets and aim points, CCD aims to protect them from being detected or targeted.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
Fixed bases having well-established perimeters usually have limited
-
Depth.
-
Intelligence.
-
Denial capabilities.
-
All-around defense.
Correct Answer
A. Depth.Explanation
Fixed bases with well-established perimeters are typically designed to have limited depth. This means that they are not built to be deep or extensive in their physical structure. Instead, the focus is on creating a strong and secure perimeter defense. This limited depth allows for efficient use of resources and manpower, as well as easier maintenance and monitoring of the base. It also helps to concentrate defenses on the perimeter, making it harder for adversaries to breach the base's defenses.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
The authority for establishing a national defense area (NDA) is shown with
-
A red line.
-
A temporary sign.
-
Rope marking off the area.
-
Posted guards every 50 feet.
Correct Answer
A. A temporary sign.Explanation
The correct answer is a temporary sign. This is because a temporary sign is commonly used to indicate the establishment of a national defense area (NDA). It is a practical and efficient method to inform people about the restricted area and ensure compliance with the regulations. Unlike a red line, rope marking, or posted guards, a temporary sign can be easily placed and removed as needed, making it a suitable choice for indicating the boundaries of an NDA.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
The political-military nature of military operations other than war (MOOTW) requires you to coordinate your activities
-
Through the Department of State, Drug Enforcement Agency, and Immigration and Naturalization Service.
-
With a number of government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense (DOD).
-
Through the Red Cross, Red Crescent, and Cooperative for Assistance and Relief Everywhere.
-
Through the joint rear area commander (JRAC).
Correct Answer
A. With a number of government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense (DOD).Explanation
The political-military nature of military operations other than war (MOOTW) requires coordination with a number of government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense (DOD) because these operations often involve non-military aspects such as diplomacy, law enforcement, and humanitarian aid. Working with these agencies allows for a comprehensive and integrated approach to addressing the complex challenges of MOOTW, leveraging the expertise and resources of multiple organizations to achieve the mission objectives.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
How long are the majority of security forces (SF) unit type codes (UTC) capable of existing without support?
-
5 days.
-
7 days.
-
14 days.
-
30 days.
Correct Answer
A. 5 days.Explanation
The majority of security forces (SF) unit type codes (UTC) are capable of existing without support for 5 days.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
The environment for security forces (SF) personnel working in the entry control facilities (ECF) must be
-
Protected and guarded.
-
Safe and comfortable.
-
Well lit and elevated.
-
Cool and calm.
Correct Answer
A. Safe and comfortable.Explanation
The correct answer is "safe and comfortable" because security forces personnel working in entry control facilities need an environment that ensures their safety and provides them with comfort. This is important as they are responsible for protecting and guarding the facility. A safe environment ensures that they can carry out their duties effectively without any threats or risks, while a comfortable environment helps them stay focused and perform their tasks efficiently.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Oct 19, 2013Quiz Created by
Catherine Halcomb
Back to top