3P071 Volume 2(Air Base Defense)

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| By Catherine Halcomb
Catherine Halcomb
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1. Where is an excellent position to place a marksman in an urban area?

Explanation

The peak of a roof is an excellent position to place a marksman in an urban area because it offers a high vantage point, allowing the marksman to have a clear view of the surroundings and potential targets. Being elevated on a roof provides better visibility and a wider field of fire, making it easier for the marksman to engage targets effectively while remaining concealed. Additionally, the peak of a roof provides some protection and cover, making it a strategic position for a marksman to operate from.

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3P071 Quizzes & Trivia

VOLUME 2

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2. The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is

Explanation

The correct answer is bombing. Terrorist groups often employ bombing as a tactic to cause widespread destruction and instill fear among the population. This method allows them to target specific locations or individuals, resulting in casualties and significant damage. Bombings can be carried out in various forms, such as suicide bombings, car bombings, or improvised explosive devices (IEDs). This tactic has been used by numerous terrorist organizations worldwide to achieve their objectives and make a strong impact on society.

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3. What is a base already possessing resources and an established infrastructure?

Explanation

A main operating base (MOB) refers to a base that already has resources and an established infrastructure in place. This means that the base is fully equipped and ready to support various operations. It has the necessary facilities, equipment, and personnel to carry out its functions effectively. The term "main" implies that it is a primary or significant base, indicating its importance and prominence within a larger operational framework.

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4. When conducting ambushes, units refer to the engagement areas as

Explanation

During ambushes, units refer to the engagement areas as "kill zones" because it accurately describes the purpose of this specific area. The kill zone is a designated area where the ambush is set up to maximize the chances of inflicting casualties on the enemy. It is carefully chosen to provide advantageous positions for the ambushers and restrict the movement of the enemy, making it easier to effectively engage and neutralize them. The term "kill zone" emphasizes the primary objective of causing maximum damage to the enemy forces during the ambush operation.

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5. When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical information?

Explanation

Commanders and planners should identify mission-critical information at the earliest possible moment. This is important because identifying critical information early allows them to make informed decisions and develop effective strategies. By identifying mission-critical information early, commanders and planners can allocate resources, assess risks, and develop contingency plans to ensure mission success. Delaying the identification of critical information can lead to delays in decision-making and potentially compromise the mission's success. Therefore, it is crucial for commanders and planners to identify mission-critical information as soon as possible.

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6. Observation post (OP)/listening post (LP) teams are not equipped to

Explanation

OP/LP teams are not equipped to indicate enemy location using flares. This means that they do not have the necessary equipment or tools to use flares as a means of signaling or pointing out the location of the enemy. Instead, their primary functions are to protect themselves, report information, and observe the area.

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7. What is the staff make-up for the S3?

Explanation

The correct answer is "The operations officer and staff." This is because the question is asking about the staff make-up for the S3, which refers to the operations section of a military unit. The operations officer is responsible for planning and coordinating operations, and the staff consists of personnel who support the operations officer in executing their duties. Therefore, the operations officer and staff are the key components of the S3 staff make-up.

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8. The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around what three principles?

Explanation

The correct answer is Force protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels. This answer explains that the USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around three principles: FPCON, which refers to the level of security measures in place to protect military personnel and resources; assessment factors, which are used to evaluate potential threats and vulnerabilities; and threat levels, which indicate the level of risk posed by a specific threat. These three principles work together to ensure the effectiveness of the antiterrorism program in safeguarding against potential threats.

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9. A terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is

Explanation

The correct answer is "state-supported" because it accurately describes a terrorist group that operates independently but receives support from one or more governments. This implies that the group is not directly controlled or directed by the government(s), but they provide assistance, resources, or funding to the group.

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10. What provides key information to the defense force commander (DFC) and support staffs (S staff) on specific air base defense (ABD) activities in order to make decisions, and develop and implement tactical plans and orders?

Explanation

Reports provide key information to the defense force commander and support staffs on specific air base defense activities. These reports contain detailed information about the current situation, including any threats or vulnerabilities that may exist. By analyzing these reports, the DFC and S staff can make informed decisions, develop tactical plans, and issue orders to effectively defend the air base. Maps provide a visual representation of the area, signals are used for communication, and telegrams are a form of written communication, but reports are specifically designed to provide detailed information for decision-making and planning in this context.

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11. What does not need to be shown on a sketch?

Explanation

The location of the home station flight does not need to be shown on a sketch. A sketch is typically used to depict specific tactical information such as OP/LP locations, patrol routes, engagement lines, mines, sensors, and obstacles. The location of the home station flight is not relevant to these tactical considerations and therefore does not need to be included in the sketch.

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12. Where is the best position for you to locate an observation post (OP)/listening post (LP)?

Explanation

The best position for an observation post or listening post is in a position that doesn't draw attention. This is because the purpose of an OP/LP is to gather information covertly without alerting the enemy or drawing attention to oneself. By choosing a position that doesn't draw attention, the chances of being detected or compromised are minimized, allowing for effective surveillance and intelligence gathering.

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13. Our first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts is

Explanation

The correct answer is operations security (OPSEC). OPSEC refers to the measures taken to protect critical information that could be used by adversaries to compromise our mission. It involves identifying and controlling critical information, analyzing threats, and implementing countermeasures to protect sensitive information from being exploited. OPSEC is crucial in safeguarding our operations and preventing intelligence collection efforts by adversaries. Communication security (COMSEC), computer security (COMPUSEC), and information security (INFOSEC) are important aspects of overall security, but OPSEC specifically focuses on protecting critical information related to operations.

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14. Compiling and examining all available information concerning potential threats by threat analysts is a/an

Explanation

Threat analysts compile and examine all available information concerning potential threats on an ongoing basis, rather than at specific intervals such as annually, bi-annually, or monthly. This is because the threat landscape is constantly evolving, with new threats emerging and existing ones evolving. Therefore, threat analysis is a continual process that requires constant monitoring and updating of information to stay proactive and effectively mitigate potential risks.

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15. To modify to prevent recognition of the true identity or character of an asset or activity is to

Explanation

To modify something in order to prevent its true identity or character from being recognized is to disguise it. Disguising involves altering the appearance or nature of an asset or activity in order to make it appear different or unrecognizable. This can be done through various means such as changing its physical appearance, behavior, or location. Disguise is a common tactic used in espionage, undercover operations, or in situations where concealment is necessary for security or strategic purposes.

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16. What is one of the fundamental purposes of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC)?

Explanation

The Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC) serves the fundamental purpose of preventing unnecessary suffering. It aims to establish rules and regulations that govern the conduct of armed forces during armed conflicts, with the objective of minimizing the suffering inflicted on individuals involved in the conflict. By setting limits on the methods and means of warfare, LOAC seeks to protect civilians, prisoners of war, and combatants who are no longer taking part in the hostilities. It emphasizes the importance of humane treatment, proportionality, and respect for human dignity in armed conflicts.

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17. Based on the integrated base defense (IBD) concept of operations (CONOP), what are all Airmen considered?

Explanation

Based on the integrated base defense (IBD) concept of operations (CONOP), Airmen are considered sensors. This suggests that their role is to gather information and provide situational awareness to support the overall defense of the base. They are responsible for detecting any potential threats or intrusions and relaying that information to the appropriate personnel for further action.

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18. Commanders do not use rules of engagement (ROE) to ensure operations

Explanation

Commanders do not use rules of engagement (ROE) to meet manning standards. ROE are guidelines that dictate how military forces should conduct operations, including the use of force. Manning standards, on the other hand, refer to the required number of personnel needed to effectively carry out a mission. While commanders may consider manning standards when planning operations, ROE are specifically designed to ensure that military actions comply with the rule of law, national policy goals, and mission requirements.

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19. Guidance on the application of force and exercising of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense is the purpose of the

Explanation

The purpose of the US military's standing rules of engagement (ROE) is to provide guidance on the application of force and the exercise of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense. These rules outline the circumstances under which military personnel are authorized to use force, including lethal force, in order to protect themselves, their fellow service members, and mission objectives. The ROE ensure that military operations are conducted within legal and ethical boundaries, while still allowing for the effective execution of military missions.

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20. What should always be your first priority of work?

Explanation

Establishing local security should always be the first priority of work because it ensures the safety and protection of the immediate area. By establishing local security, individuals can identify and mitigate potential threats, allowing them to carry out their work in a secure environment. This step is crucial in preventing any surprise attacks or unauthorized access, providing a solid foundation for further tasks and operations.

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21. Since unit type codes (UTC) are functionally grouped, what will all security forces UTCs have as a designator?

Explanation

All security forces UTCs will have "QF" as a designator because the question states that unit type codes (UTC) are functionally grouped. This implies that different types of units are categorized and assigned specific designators. Since security forces UTCs fall under a specific functional group, they will all have the same designator, which in this case is "QF".

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22. When the machine gun is not assigned to the maneuver element, what is its primary mission?

Explanation

When the machine gun is not assigned to the maneuver element, its primary mission is to provide covering fire for the assault element. This means that the machine gun is responsible for suppressing the enemy and creating a protective barrier of fire to support the advancing assault element. This allows the assault element to maneuver and close in on the enemy while minimizing their exposure to enemy fire.

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23. A relatively secure area that allows for positive identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as

Explanation

A search area is a relatively secure area that allows for positive identification of personnel and vehicles. It is a designated area where thorough searches are conducted to ensure the safety and security of the location. This can involve checking identification, inspecting vehicles, and conducting searches for any prohibited or dangerous items. The purpose of a search area is to prevent unauthorized access and ensure that only authorized personnel and vehicles are allowed entry.

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24. When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, what is their mission?

Explanation

The mission of terrorists when they attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities is to persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies. This means that their goal is to use violence and fear as a means to influence political decisions and force governments to alter their policies in alignment with the terrorists' beliefs or demands. They aim to create enough chaos and disruption through their attacks to compel governments to reconsider their positions and make changes that the terrorists desire.

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25. A typical organization of a terrorist group consists of

Explanation

The correct answer is "hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support." This answer accurately describes the typical organization of a terrorist group. The "hard-core leadership" refers to the core group of leaders who make strategic decisions and provide guidance to the group. The "active cadre" refers to the members who actively participate in carrying out terrorist activities. The "active support" refers to individuals who provide assistance and resources to the group, while the "passive support" refers to individuals who sympathize with the group's cause but do not actively participate in its activities.

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26. Military operations other than war (MOOTW) missions do not include

Explanation

Military operations other than war (MOOTW) are activities carried out by the military that are not traditional combat operations. These missions are typically focused on maintaining peace, providing humanitarian aid, and supporting civil authorities. Quarantine, peacekeeping, and humanitarian assistance are all examples of MOOTW missions as they involve non-combat activities aimed at protecting and assisting civilian populations. However, clandestine infiltration refers to covert operations involving secret entry into enemy territory, which is not a typical MOOTW mission. Instead, it falls under the domain of special operations or intelligence activities.

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27. You should make restricted areas as small as possible to eliminate the

Explanation

Making restricted areas as small as possible eliminates the need for securing and maintaining unnecessary terrain. By reducing the size of the restricted areas, there is less land that needs to be protected and maintained, saving resources and manpower. This approach also minimizes the risk of potential breaches or unauthorized access, as the focus is on securing a smaller and more manageable area.

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28. At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center (BDOC)?

Explanation

The base defense operations center (BDOC) is a critical facility for coordinating and managing defense operations. S-functions refer to specific systems or modules that are essential for the functioning of the BDOC. In this case, the correct answer suggests that S2 and S3 are the minimum required S-functions for the BDOC. This implies that these two systems are crucial for the operations and effectiveness of the defense center. The other options, S1 and S3 or S2 and S4 or S3 and S4, are not the minimum required combinations for the BDOC.

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29. What should the defense force commander (DFC) consider in the sectorization scheme to provide maximum protection for base critical resources?

Explanation

The defense force commander (DFC) should consider the entire tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) in the sectorization scheme to provide maximum protection for base critical resources. This means that the DFC should take into account the entire area for which they are responsible for defending, ensuring that all resources within this area are adequately protected. This approach allows for a comprehensive and holistic defense strategy, ensuring that no critical resources are left vulnerable.

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30. In terms of engagement ranges, machine guns in the base-of-fire element may find themselves firing at targets within how many meters of the element?

Explanation

In terms of engagement ranges, machine guns in the base-of-fire element may find themselves firing at targets within 800 meters of the element.

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31. Against what threat levels can close precision engagement (CPE) add significantly to delaying actions by enhancing the standoff capabilities of defense forces?

Explanation

Close precision engagement (CPE) can add significantly to delaying actions by enhancing the standoff capabilities of defense forces against threat levels II and III. This means that CPE can effectively contribute to delaying actions when facing moderate to high levels of threats.

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32. What would necessitate the need to dig hasty firing positions in the field?

Explanation

In a battlefield situation, when a soldier makes contact with the enemy, it becomes crucial to quickly establish firing positions to defend themselves and engage the enemy. This is because being stationary and exposed makes them vulnerable to enemy fire. By digging hasty firing positions, soldiers can take cover and have a stable platform to fire from, increasing their chances of survival and effectively engaging the enemy.

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33. Which essential element of the integrated base defense (IBD) concept slows the enemy without the need for a massive response at the outset of an engagement?

Explanation

Delay is the correct answer because it refers to the essential element of the integrated base defense (IBD) concept that slows down the enemy without requiring a large-scale response at the beginning of an engagement. Delaying tactics can involve various strategies and measures, such as establishing obstacles, conducting reconnaissance, and implementing defensive positions, to buy time and hinder the enemy's progress. By delaying the enemy, defenders gain additional time to prepare and respond effectively, potentially reducing the need for an immediate and overwhelming response.

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34. Avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting military operations is what principle of war?

Explanation

The principle of war that is being described in this question is simplicity. This principle emphasizes the importance of avoiding unnecessary complexity in military operations. By keeping things simple, it becomes easier to organize, prepare, plan, and conduct these operations effectively. Simplicity allows for clear communication, streamlined decision-making, and efficient use of resources. It helps to minimize confusion, reduce the potential for errors, and increase the overall effectiveness of military actions.

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35. Protective barriers consist of what two major categories?

Explanation

Protective barriers can be categorized into two major categories: natural and structural. Natural barriers refer to naturally occurring features such as cliffs, mountains, or bodies of water that act as barriers against potential threats. On the other hand, structural barriers are man-made constructions like fences, walls, or barricades that are intentionally built to provide protection. This categorization helps to differentiate between barriers that exist naturally and those that are created by human intervention for the purpose of protection.

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36. The primary mission of a joint operation is

Explanation

The primary mission of a joint operation is to sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force. This means that the joint operation is responsible for providing support and resources to ensure the ongoing success of the overall military campaign and the major operations being conducted by the joint force. This could include logistical support, intelligence gathering, coordination of efforts, and other necessary actions to maintain the momentum and effectiveness of the joint force's mission.

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37. Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of

Explanation

Specially trained terrorists are generally expected to possess above average intelligence and be within a certain age range. The answer 23-30 is the most reasonable choice as it falls within the typical age range for individuals who are physically capable and mentally mature enough to be trained for such activities. This age range also allows for a certain level of experience and maturity that can be advantageous in executing terrorist operations.

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38. When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?

Explanation

Terrorist team members are brought together for a final rehearsal just before departing for the target sight. This implies that the team members gather to practice and coordinate their actions shortly before carrying out the attack. This approach ensures that the team members are well-prepared and synchronized before executing their plan.

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39. What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?

Explanation

The factor that is related to the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests is intentions. Intentions refer to the motives or goals of the terrorists, and their desire to carry out attacks against US interests. This factor focuses on the underlying reasons behind the attacks, such as political, ideological, or religious motivations. It does not consider the specific methods or resources used by the terrorists, but rather their intention to cause harm to US interests.

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40. What is the time limit for an air and space expeditionary force (AEF) package to respond to any unexpected contingency?

Explanation

The time limit for an air and space expeditionary force (AEF) package to respond to any unexpected contingency is 72 hours. This means that the AEF package must be prepared and ready to deploy within 72 hours of receiving the order. This timeframe allows for the necessary preparations, including assembling personnel, equipment, and supplies, and conducting any required training or briefings. It ensures that the AEF package can quickly and effectively respond to any unexpected situation or crisis that may arise.

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41. The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) begins at the

Explanation

The correct answer is "resource" because the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) is a designated area where a military unit is responsible for conducting operations and managing resources. The TAOR does not necessarily begin at the base defense operations center (BDOC), point of insertion, or base perimeter, as these are specific locations within the TAOR. Instead, the TAOR encompasses a larger area where resources are allocated and managed.

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42. The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is

Explanation

The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is to defeat level I threats, which are immediate and direct threats to the air base. Additionally, they are responsible for disrupting or delaying level II threats, which are more significant and require a higher level of response. This is done within the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base, which is the designated operational area for the defense forces.

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43. Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?

Explanation

Sympathizers are individuals who support a particular cause or group but may not directly engage in violent activities themselves. They may carry out random acts against targets of opportunity to show their support or solidarity with the cause. This behavior is characteristic of sympathizers rather than partisans, terrorists, or agent activity, which involve more organized and deliberate actions.

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44. The capability to reduce the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy to protect friendly assets and aim points with materials and equipment that alter or obscure part or all of their multispectral signatures is

Explanation

The correct answer is camouflage, concealment, and deception (CCD). This refers to the capability of using various techniques such as hiding, blending, disguising, and decoying to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets. By altering or obscuring the multispectral signatures of friendly assets and aim points, CCD aims to protect them from being detected or targeted.

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45. Fixed bases having well-established perimeters usually have limited

Explanation

Fixed bases with well-established perimeters are typically designed to have limited depth. This means that they are not built to be deep or extensive in their physical structure. Instead, the focus is on creating a strong and secure perimeter defense. This limited depth allows for efficient use of resources and manpower, as well as easier maintenance and monitoring of the base. It also helps to concentrate defenses on the perimeter, making it harder for adversaries to breach the base's defenses.

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46. The authority for establishing a national defense area (NDA) is shown with

Explanation

The correct answer is a temporary sign. This is because a temporary sign is commonly used to indicate the establishment of a national defense area (NDA). It is a practical and efficient method to inform people about the restricted area and ensure compliance with the regulations. Unlike a red line, rope marking, or posted guards, a temporary sign can be easily placed and removed as needed, making it a suitable choice for indicating the boundaries of an NDA.

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47. The political-military nature of military operations other than war (MOOTW) requires you to coordinate your activities

Explanation

The political-military nature of military operations other than war (MOOTW) requires coordination with a number of government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense (DOD) because these operations often involve non-military aspects such as diplomacy, law enforcement, and humanitarian aid. Working with these agencies allows for a comprehensive and integrated approach to addressing the complex challenges of MOOTW, leveraging the expertise and resources of multiple organizations to achieve the mission objectives.

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48. How long are the majority of security forces (SF) unit type codes (UTC) capable of existing without support?

Explanation

The majority of security forces (SF) unit type codes (UTC) are capable of existing without support for 5 days.

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49. The environment for security forces (SF) personnel working in the entry control facilities (ECF) must be

Explanation

The correct answer is "safe and comfortable" because security forces personnel working in entry control facilities need an environment that ensures their safety and provides them with comfort. This is important as they are responsible for protecting and guarding the facility. A safe environment ensures that they can carry out their duties effectively without any threats or risks, while a comfortable environment helps them stay focused and perform their tasks efficiently.

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50. What group routinely manages the risk assessment process for commanders?

Explanation

Force protection (FP) working routinely manages the risk assessment process for commanders. This group is responsible for identifying potential threats and vulnerabilities, evaluating the level of risk, and implementing measures to mitigate those risks. They work closely with commanders to ensure the safety and security of personnel, facilities, and operations. By regularly assessing and managing risks, the FP working group helps commanders make informed decisions and take appropriate actions to protect their forces.

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51. Directing your operation toward a defined and attainable objective that contributes to operational and tactical claim is what principle of war?

Explanation

The principle of war that aligns with the given correct answer, "Objective," is the idea of directing operations towards a defined and attainable goal that contributes to operational and tactical success. This principle emphasizes the importance of having a clear objective in order to guide decision-making, planning, and execution of military operations. By focusing on a specific objective, commanders can ensure that their forces are working towards a common purpose and can effectively allocate resources and coordinate actions to achieve success.

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52. What operations are key to assembling an accurate picture of the battle space

Explanation

Intelligence is the key operation for assembling an accurate picture of the battle space. Ground defense refers to the protection of specific areas, while clandestine operations involve secret or covert activities. Aerial operations relate to activities conducted in the air. However, intelligence operations involve gathering, analyzing, and interpreting information to provide a comprehensive understanding of the battle space, including enemy capabilities, intentions, and vulnerabilities. By collecting and analyzing intelligence, military forces can make informed decisions and develop effective strategies to achieve their objectives.

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53. What is the main mission of the machine gun?

Explanation

The main mission of the machine gun is to protect and defend through defensive and offensive missions. This means that the machine gun is used to provide cover and suppress enemy attacks, as well as to actively engage and eliminate enemy forces. It plays a crucial role in both defensive operations, by fortifying positions and repelling enemy advances, and offensive operations, by supporting the assault and providing firepower to overcome enemy defenses.

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54. What is an engagement priority for machine gun gunners to direct their fire?

Explanation

The engagement priority for machine gun gunners to direct their fire is crew-served automatic weapons. This means that their main focus should be on targeting and neutralizing enemy weapons that require a crew to operate, such as heavy machine guns or automatic grenade launchers. These weapons pose a significant threat and can cause a high level of casualties, so it is crucial for machine gunners to prioritize engaging and suppressing them to effectively support their own troops and gain a tactical advantage.

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55. Because the danger increases with the size of the weapons, how should artillery be used when integrating indirect suppressive fires to support the breach and assault?

Explanation

Artillery should be used to isolate the objective when integrating indirect suppressive fires to support the breach and assault. This means that the artillery should be directed towards enemy positions that are located away from the breach site. By doing so, the artillery fire creates a buffer zone around the objective, making it difficult for the enemy to reinforce or support their positions. This strategy helps to weaken the enemy's defenses and increase the chances of a successful breach and assault.

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56. The immediate impression the entry control facility (ECF) must impart through its design is one of       

Explanation

The entry control facility (ECF) is responsible for ensuring the security and safety of a location. To achieve this, the ECF must convey a sense of professionalism and commitment. This means that the facility should be designed in a way that reflects a serious and dedicated approach to its responsibilities. It should prioritize efficiency, accuracy, and adherence to protocols. By emphasizing professionalism and commitment, the ECF can establish trust and confidence among those entering the location, as they will feel assured that their safety is being taken seriously.

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57. What assessment addresses the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets, and should be conducted periodically?

Explanation

The correct answer is Vulnerability. Vulnerability assessment is the process of identifying, quantifying, and prioritizing vulnerabilities in a system, organization, or facility. It addresses the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets. It should be conducted periodically to ensure that any weaknesses or vulnerabilities are identified and addressed to mitigate potential risks and threats.

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58. What unit type code (UTC) is composed of one home station-validated explosive detection dog and an assigned handler?

Explanation

The correct answer is QFEBR. The unit type code (UTC) QFEBR refers to a unit composed of one home station-validated explosive detection dog and an assigned handler. This UTC is likely used in military or security contexts where the dog and handler team is responsible for detecting and preventing explosive threats.

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59. What pre-deployment factor is considered a constant?

Explanation

Treaties are considered a constant pre-deployment factor because they are legally binding agreements between countries that outline specific rights and obligations. Unlike weather, which can change rapidly, treaties are typically long-term agreements that remain in effect unless modified or terminated by the parties involved. Intelligence and political climate can also fluctuate over time, making them less constant compared to treaties. Therefore, treaties are the most appropriate answer as they provide a stable framework for military operations and international relations.

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60. What two factors add depth to the battle outside the perimeter, allowing the base to continue its primary mission with minimal interference?

Explanation

Counter-reconnaissance refers to the measures taken to detect and counter enemy reconnaissance efforts, such as gathering intelligence or surveillance. By effectively countering enemy reconnaissance, the base can maintain situational awareness and prevent the enemy from gathering information that could interfere with its primary mission. Additionally, counterattack refers to the offensive actions taken by the base to disrupt and neutralize enemy forces. By launching counterattacks, the base can push back the enemy and minimize their interference with the primary mission. Therefore, both counter-reconnaissance and counterattack contribute to adding depth to the battle outside the perimeter and allowing the base to continue its primary mission with minimal interference.

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61. Proper machine gun placement maximizes fire in

Explanation

Proper machine gun placement maximizes fire in width and depth. This means that the machine gun is positioned in such a way that it covers a wide area (width) and reaches a significant distance (depth). By doing so, the machine gun can effectively suppress and engage targets across a larger area, increasing its overall effectiveness in combat situations.

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62. A "call for fire" is a message

Explanation

A "call for fire" is a message that is prepared by an observer. This message is used to request artillery or air support in a military operation. The observer, who is typically located near the front lines, is responsible for identifying targets and providing the necessary information to accurately engage them. Therefore, it is the observer's role to prepare the "call for fire" message and communicate it to the appropriate unit or personnel who can provide the requested support.

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63. What are the two types of obstacles you may encounter?

Explanation

Existing and reinforcing are the two types of obstacles that one may encounter. Existing obstacles refer to those barriers or challenges that are already present and need to be navigated or overcome. Reinforcing obstacles, on the other hand, are additional barriers or challenges that are introduced or strengthened in order to impede progress or hinder success. These two types of obstacles can pose significant challenges and require different strategies or approaches to overcome them.

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64. When establishing base sectors, you must ensure critical resources and areas are

Explanation

When establishing base sectors, it is important to ensure that critical resources and areas are evenly grouped. This means that these resources and areas should be distributed in a balanced manner across different sectors. This ensures that no single sector becomes overloaded or vulnerable, and that the base as a whole remains functional and secure. By evenly grouping these resources and areas, the base can effectively allocate and manage its critical assets, ensuring optimal operations and defense capabilities.

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65. When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC is required, who may initiate the action for the change?

Explanation

Any level may initiate the action for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC. This means that individuals at any level within the organization have the authority to propose and initiate the necessary actions for these changes. It is not limited to a specific level such as unit level, major command level, or Air Staff level.

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66. What is the list of all unit type codes (UTC) approved for use in planning?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Air Force-Wide Unit Type Code Availability System (AFWUS)". This is the correct answer because the question is asking for the list of all unit type codes approved for use in planning, and the AFWUS is the system that provides this information. The other options mentioned, such as AUTD, AFWUR, and AUTSS, are not specifically related to providing a list of approved unit type codes for planning purposes.

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67. What does the Air Force maintain to support the on-call air and space expeditionary force (AEF), as well as on-call lead wings to open expeditionary bases?

Explanation

The Air Force maintains five bomber group leads (BGLs) to support the on-call air and space expeditionary force (AEF) and on-call lead wings to open expeditionary bases. These BGLs provide leadership and coordination for bomber units during deployments and ensure the successful execution of missions. Having five BGLs allows for increased flexibility and capacity to support the expeditionary force and establish bases in various locations.

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68. Once fully implemented, what will the Integrated Base Defense Security System (IBDSS) greatly enhance in base defensive operations?

Explanation

The Integrated Base Defense Security System (IBDSS) will greatly enhance detection and security in base defensive operations. This means that the system will improve the ability to identify and recognize potential threats or intrusions, as well as enhance the overall security measures in place to protect the base. By combining advanced detection technologies and comprehensive security protocols, the IBDSS will provide a more robust and effective defense system for the base.

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69. What placement allows for redundancy in observation and better sector coverage?

Explanation

The placement that allows for redundancy in observation and better sector coverage is "In-depth." This placement involves conducting a thorough and comprehensive analysis of a particular area or subject, ensuring that all aspects and angles are examined. By adopting an in-depth approach, there is a higher chance of identifying any potential gaps or weaknesses in the observation process, leading to improved sector coverage and a more comprehensive understanding of the situation.

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70. What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with UTCs QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ staff support for a medium to large (130 – 180 personnel) deployed security forces (SF) unit?

Explanation

The correct answer is QFEBA. When deployed with UTCs QFEBB and QFEBS, QFEBA provides HQ staff support for a medium to large deployed security forces (SF) unit consisting of 130-180 personnel.

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71. Which threat level uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km)?

Explanation

Threat level III uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km).

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72. As a Total Force organization, a typical air and space expeditionary force (AEF) is responsive and capable of

Explanation

The correct answer is "deploying to conduct broad range operations with minimum warning time." This answer is supported by the statement that the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) is "responsive and capable of deploying to conduct broad range operations with minimum warning time." This suggests that the AEF is able to quickly and effectively respond to a variety of operations, indicating a high level of readiness and flexibility.

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73. What unit type code (UTC) consists of a 3-person team of specially trained and equipped security forces (SF) personnel, who deploy as mission essential ground personnel (MEGP) on airlift aircraft transiting or operating out of high-risk locations?

Explanation

The correct answer is QFEPR. This unit type code (UTC) consists of a 3-person team of specially trained and equipped security forces (SF) personnel. They are deployed as mission essential ground personnel (MEGP) on airlift aircraft transiting or operating out of high-risk locations.

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74. Which threat spectrum level consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerrillas?

Explanation

Threat spectrum level II consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerrillas. This level represents a lower level of threat compared to other levels. Guerrilla warfare involves unconventional tactics and small-scale operations carried out by irregular forces. These forces typically operate in small units and are often difficult to detect and counter. Therefore, threat spectrum level II is the correct answer as it encompasses these characteristics.

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75. The key to force protection (FP) countermeasure planning is

Explanation

The correct answer is protecting sensitive information. Force protection countermeasure planning involves taking measures to safeguard military personnel and assets from potential threats. One crucial aspect of this planning is protecting sensitive information, as it helps prevent adversaries from gaining access to critical intelligence and using it against the forces. By ensuring the security of sensitive information, the military can maintain a strategic advantage and effectively counter potential threats.

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76. What is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners?

Explanation

Flexibility is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners because it allows for adaptability and responsiveness in various situations. Planners need to consider the ever-changing dynamics and uncertainties in the environment, and having flexible forces enables them to quickly adjust and respond to emerging challenges or opportunities. Flexibility also ensures that forces can be deployed and utilized efficiently in different scenarios, maximizing their effectiveness and achieving desired outcomes.

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77. During peacetime operation, what unit type code (UTC) would provide the initial security for USAF resources and personnel, conduct convoys; and defend local and other security missions as required?

Explanation

During peacetime operation, the unit type code (UTC) QFEB2 would provide the initial security for USAF resources and personnel, conduct convoys, and defend local and other security missions as required.

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78. What unit type code (UTC) is essential to direct the fire of and provide support for the mortar teams?

Explanation

The correct answer is QFEBK. The question is asking for the unit type code (UTC) that is essential for directing the fire of and providing support for the mortar teams. The UTC QFEBK is the correct answer because it is the code specifically designated for this purpose. The other options (QFEBR, QFEBJ, QFERT) are not the correct UTCs for this particular task.

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79. The primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is to

Explanation

The primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is to support the commander by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC. This means that the program is designed to assist the commander in implementing and maintaining effective OPSEC measures within the command or organization. By actively practicing OPSEC, the command or organization can protect sensitive information and prevent adversaries from gaining access to critical information. The program aims to enhance the overall security posture of the command or organization by promoting OPSEC awareness and adherence among its members.

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80. In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?

Explanation

Subordinate joint force commands can organize either by service component or function. This means that they can be structured based on the different branches of the military (such as Army, Navy, Air Force) or based on specific functions (such as logistics, intelligence, operations). This allows for a more efficient and effective command structure, as it ensures that each component or function is properly represented and can work together towards a common goal.

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81. What does security forces (SF) provide for the Integrated Base Defense (IBD) concept?

Explanation

The Integrated Base Defense (IBD) concept is supported by security forces (SF) by providing a foundation. This means that SF plays a crucial role in establishing the groundwork for the IBD concept. They ensure the security and protection of the base by implementing various measures such as perimeter security, access control, surveillance, and response to threats. SF acts as the backbone of the IBD concept, providing the necessary support and framework for its successful implementation.

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82. What does the risk management process allow the commander to determine?

Explanation

The risk management process allows the commander to determine the countermeasures options. This means that by going through the risk management process, the commander can identify and evaluate various strategies and actions that can be taken to mitigate or eliminate risks. This allows the commander to make informed decisions and choose the most effective countermeasures to minimize potential hazards and ensure the safety and success of the mission.

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83. What unit type code (UTC) is a 4-person team designed to provide 24-hour security forces (SF) augmentation to immediate headquarters for ground defense and weapons systems security functions?

Explanation

A 4-person team designed to provide 24-hour security forces (SF) augmentation to immediate headquarters for ground defense and weapons systems security functions would likely be classified as QFDB9.

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84. An expeditionary military force is defined as a force that conducts military operations

Explanation

An expeditionary military force is a force that is able to conduct military operations on short notice in response to crises. The force is specifically tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives. This means that the force is designed to respond quickly and effectively to a crisis situation, with a clear understanding of what needs to be accomplished. The force is not intended to achieve unlimited or unclear objectives, but rather to focus on specific goals. The ability to respond within a short timeframe is crucial in order to address and mitigate the impact of a crisis as quickly as possible.

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85. What is not an example of a routine in defense measure?

Explanation

The options provided in the question are examples of routines in defense measures, except for "Assign sectors of fire." Assigning sectors of fire is not a routine, but rather a tactical decision made by military personnel to allocate specific areas for firing weapons. It is not a recurring task or activity performed as part of regular defense measures.

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86. Missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities are what threat spectrum level?

Explanation

Missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities are classified under threat spectrum level II. This means that these missions are focused on countering the threat posed by nuclear weapons and their associated facilities. Threat spectrum level II indicates a higher level of risk and a more significant threat compared to levels III and IV.

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87. Which military operations other than war (MOOTW) principle never permits hostile factions to acquire a military, political, or informational advantage?

Explanation

Security is the MOOTW principle that never permits hostile factions to acquire a military, political, or informational advantage. This principle emphasizes the protection of friendly forces, resources, and information from any potential threats or attacks. By maintaining a strong security posture, MOOTW operations can prevent hostile factions from gaining any advantage that could be detrimental to the mission's success. This principle ensures that all necessary measures are taken to safeguard the interests and assets of the friendly forces involved in the operation.

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88. Which principle of indirect fire aims to destroy enemy soldiers and degrade the effectiveness of enemy vehicles by causing them to fight buttoned-up?

Explanation

The principle of indirect fire that aims to destroy enemy soldiers and degrade the effectiveness of enemy vehicles by causing them to fight buttoned-up is the "Required effect." This principle focuses on achieving the desired outcome, which in this case is to neutralize enemy soldiers and vehicles by forcing them to fight from a protected position. By causing the enemy to fight buttoned-up, their ability to engage effectively is reduced, making them more vulnerable to counterattacks.

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89. What three subordinate areas are search areas divided into?

Explanation

The three subordinate areas that search areas are divided into are personnel, vehicle, and reaction force. This division allows for a comprehensive approach to searching, covering both individuals and vehicles, as well as the necessary response force to handle any potential situations that may arise during the search.

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90. The key to optimizing peacetime participation of the traditional guardsman and reservists who must balance military duties with full-time civilian employment is

Explanation

The key to optimizing peacetime participation of the traditional guardsman and reservists who must balance military duties with full-time civilian employment is predictability. Predictability refers to having a clear and consistent schedule that allows these individuals to effectively plan and manage their time between their military and civilian responsibilities. With predictability, guardsmen and reservists can better coordinate their work and military commitments, reducing conflicts and ensuring they can fulfill both obligations without sacrificing one over the other. This ultimately leads to increased participation and effectiveness in their military duties while maintaining stable employment in their civilian lives.

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