3D152 Vol. 3

1. The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability,

Circumvention, and confidentiality

Circumvention, and disclosure

Confidentiality, and integrity

Disclosure, and integrity

2. How is information recorded or stored on videotape?

Series of magnetic patterns

Series of edited electrical patterns

Transferred current indents

Transferred voltage indents

3. What is the main purpose of a boundary fence?

Provides security forces (SF) personnel a safe place to work

Keep wildlife out of the perimeter detection zone

Facilitate the detection of intruders

To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry

4. What function in a video tape recorder (VTR) is accomplished by transporting the videotape across the head gap at the same speed at which it was recorded?

Fast forward

Playback

Erasure

Rewind

5. The next generation receive terminal (NGRT) accepts feeds from which two satellite bands?

Ku, Ka

C, X

Ku, X

Ka, C

6. What is the beginning of a cable system called?

Head-end

Trunk line

Receiver

Decoder

7. What is the primary driving factor behind the invention of the telephone exchange?

Point-to-point telephone access caused cabling issues

The invention of the multi-line telephone

Military communication requirements

Radio communication requirements

8. What must a line of detection detect?

Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping through the line of detection

Wakling, runnig, rolling, crawling, or jumping outside the line of detection

Potential for intruder to bypass the system

Possibility of equipment failures

9. Base cables normally enter the central office (CO) facility through a

Cable manhole

Telecommunications cable closet

Building cable raceway

Cable vault

10. You can compare a video taperecorder (VTR) head to a/an

Magnet

Conductor

Electromagnet

Charged capacitor

11. What type alarm occurs when if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is removed?

None

Tamper

Intruder

Equipment fault

12. Which sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders?

Ultrasonic

Microwave

Passive infrared

Daul-phenomenology

13. The basic configuration if the entry control facility (ECF) includes a

Gatehouse, vehicle parking area, and personnel entry gate

Gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, and vehicle entrapment area

Personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, backup generator, and gatehouse

Location for security personnel to perform shift change and receive their weapon

14. The primary reason you should measure the voltage across terminal or distribution frame protectors before removing and replacing them is to

Verify the circuit is not in use

Prevent interruptions to critical circuits

Ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line

Avoid activating alarm circuits

15. What role does the Private Branch Exchange (PBX) play in the telephony industry?

A medium scale switch that handles traffic for a small city

A very small scale switch that is also known as a key system

A large scale switch that handles the traffic for a metropolitan area

A small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organization

16. If all deployed and fixed locations use global positioning system (GPS) referenced clocks, we can eliminate crypto-sync loss due to

Synchronization

Buffer overflow

Timing slips

Data speeds

17. Trend analysis is a program that trends all of these outage data except

Outage times

Reason for outage

Number of outages

Preempted outages

18. Broadband technology uses all of these transmission mediums except?

Telephone lines

Television cable lines

Satellite systems

Laser light

19. What is one path high frequency (HF) transmissions follow from the antenna to the distant end?

Lightwave

Microwave

Soundwave

Groundwave

20. What is the means of measuring the amount of time that has been played or recorded on a video tape recorder (VTR)?

Tape meter

Tracker

Counter

Display clock

21. What is the primiary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor

Beam break

Signal fade margin

Multipath defelction

Dual-phenomena reflection

22. What is a major advantage of digital recording over analog recording?

Material can be edited generation after generation without noticeable degradation in quality

Material can be regenerated when the signal is converted to a different digital domain

The material recorded can be cloned with noticeable loss of quality

The recorded material can be converted to a different digital domain

23. Which models of the digital multiplex system (DMS) family are commenly used at Air Force bases to provide base telephone services?

DMS-100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100

DMS-100/200 and MSL-100

DMS-100/200 and DMS-200

DMS-200 and MSL-100

24. What is the most serious threat to voice network system integrity?

Subversion

Unauthorized monitoring

Inexperienced switch technicians

Inadequate maintenance practices

25. Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility is responsible for creating and maintaing tables of data in a controlled manner?

Journal file

Table control

Dump/restore

Pending order file

26. The red, green, and blue (RGB) outputs from the camera go to the

Encoder

Decoder

Multiplexer

Demultiplexer

27. What part of the video switcher allows titles or other video scenes to be inserted into a full screen background?

Effects keyer

Effects preview multiplier

Effects program multiplier

Transition pattern generator

28. Within how many normal duty hours of completion action on the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) must the circuit control office (CCO) submit an in-effect report

72

48

24

12

29. Trend analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds (MT) on what basis?

Daily

Weekly

Monthly

Annual

30. What is not a factor in determining the refractive index of air?

Atmoshperic pressure

Propogation medium

Temperature

Moisture

31. How many lines of video are discarded in high-definition 1080 line video encoded with 1920x1088 pixel frames prior to display?

2

4

6

8

32. Which is not a disadvantage of laser light transmission?

No need for careful alignment of transmitter and receiver

Cannot penetrate even very thin curtains of paper

Sensitive to atmospheric interference

Strictly line-of-sight (LOS) transmission

33. How many B and D channels does the standard configuration in North American Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) primary rate interface (PRI) application use?

2, 1

30, 2

1, 24

23, 1

34. How many miles above Earth are satellites placed into orbit?

2,230

2,320

22,300

23,200

35. Which piece of the recieve broadcast manager (RBM) functions as a common television set-top converter box?

Managed ethernet switch (MES)

Display and keyboard

Video converter

RBM server

36. The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) configuration normally used to connect switches together is the

Basic rate interface

Primary rate interface

Trunk rate interface

Switch rate interface

37. What is the means of measuring the amount of time that has been played or recorded on a video tape recorder (VTR)?

Tape meter

Tracker

Counter

Display clock

38. Broadband refers to a technology that can transmit

A relatively wide range of frequencies

Only high frequency information

A relatively wide range of amplitudes

Only high amplitude information

39. What link is used to connect the digital multiplex system (DSM)-core to the DMS-bus?

DS-1

DS-30

DS-30A

DS-512

40. One disadvantage of microwave wavelengths is that the frequencies are susceptible to

Line noise

Weather effects

Frequency distortion

Electromagnetic interference

41. How many inches is the beam width at the widest portion of the infrared perimeter detection sensor?

0.5

1

2

4

42. The security lighting inside the restricted area is used to

Provide the security forces personnel a safe working environment during night time errors

Identify wildlife inside the perimeter detection zone

Facilitate the detection and tracking of intruders

Present a means of deterring unauthorized entry

43. What modulation technique is used by the Advanced Television Systems Committee (ATSC) system?

4-quadraplex sideband (4-QSB)

8-vestigal sideband (8-VSB)

4-vestigal modulation (4-VM)

8-quadrature modulation (8-QM)

44. What configuration does the Red Data Module normally operate in?

Stand alone

Client only

Gateway only

Gateway/client

45. To transmit an audio signal over radio frequency (RF), it first has to be

Phase shifted

Transmitted

Modulated

Encoded

46. What is the interior intrusion destection system (IIDS) is designed to detect intruders attempting to enter a shelter, storage igloo, or building?

AN/GSS-42

AN/GSS-41

AN/GSS-29

AN/GSS-39

47. What recieve broadcast manager (RBM) processes military specific and classified information?

Military

Type one

Managed

Classified

48. Which satellite communications system is used to transmit space operations?

Milstar Communication System

Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS)

Air Force Satellite Communications (AFSATCOM)

Ground Mobile Forces Satellite Communications (GMFSC)

49. The determining factor in calculating the correct size of a waveguide is

Frequency

Power output

Bandwidth of the transmission medium

Distance between equipment and transmitter

50. What component carries the signal to individual subscribers?

Head-end

Trunk line

Receiver

Coax RJ-6

51. If a circuit fails its management threshold (MT), what test might be performed?

Quality control (QC)

Test and acceptance (T&A)

Operations and maintenance(O&M)

Operational acceptance

52. How many card slots does the FCC-100 have, and how many of them are available for user configuration?

16, 8

12, 10

13, 8

13, 10

53. Between what ranges can you adjust the SDI-76 microwave sensor?

15-50 feet

15-75 feet

25-75 feet

30-90 feet

54. Where do incoming unswitched circuits from a peripheral module (PM) enter the NT9X35A cross-point card matrix

Vertical bus

Horizontal bus

Clock/message card

Enhanced network (ENET) processor

55. What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all required parameters and the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority advises that the circuit is accepted for service?

In-effect report

Exception

Acceptance

Delayed services

56. For a theater deployable communications (TDC) network design that has the crypto interface module (CIM) and the promina multiplexer (P-MUX) in separate locations, which piece of equipment is necessary?

KIV 19

KIV-7HS/B

CV-2048-8448-D

Cisco 3745 router

57. Which major component of the NorTel digital switching system (DSS) interfaces line and trunk subscribers?

Central control

Input/output (I/O)

Peripheral module (PM)

Peripheral subsystem (PS)

58. At what distance does the detection pattern of the infrared perimeter detection sensor (IPDS) transmitters change, and to what pattern does it change?

100 feet; signal transmitted to one receiver

150 feet; signal transmitted to one receiver

100 feet; singal transmitted to two receivers

150 feet; signal transmitted to two receivers

59. For either secure or nonsecure data network in theater deployable communications (TDC), the crypto interface module 's router normally acts as the

Management console

Internal firewall

External firewall

Internal router

60. What type of signal is sent to the fence protection system (FPS) signal processor when an alarm is detected?

Alternate current (AC)

Direct current (DC)

Digital

Analog

61. In the event of a power failure, how many hours can the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) remain operational?

2

4

8

10

62. Why are the R-Y and the B-Y signals shifted 33 degress counterclockwise?

To align R-Y and B-Y with their respective primary colors

To align R-Y and B-Y with their respective complementary colors

R-Y was shifted to minimum and B-Y was shifted to maximum color acuity, respectively for human vision

R-Y was shifted to maximum and B-Y was shifted to minimum color acuity, respectively for human vision

63. The first position of the trunk indentifier indicates the

Responsible operatoins and maintenance (O&M) agency

"from" (sending) station

"to" (receiving) station

Type of trunk

64. Which module provides encryption/decryption of traffic into and out of the theater deployable communications access package (TDC/ICAP) network?

Crypto interface

Basic access

Red data

Crypto

65. Which Defense Information Systems Agency Circular(s) (DISAC) contain information needed to assign a temporary command communications service designator (CCSD)

310-55-1 only

310-175-9 only

310-70-1 and 310-55-1

310-70-1 and 300-175-9

66. What components are directly connected to the input/output controller (IOC)?

Printers, visual display unit (VDU), and tape drives

A pair of SuperNode message controllers and the device controllers

A maintenance and administration postion (MAP)

The central processing unit (CPU) and keyboard

67. A status acquistition message (SAM) is sent from

Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)

Defense Information Technology Contracting Office (DITCO)

The systems control facility (SCF)

The end user

68. What is the range of the alternate current (AC) presence time delay relay in the AN/GSS-39 system before a power loss is reported?

1.5 to 10 seconds

1.5 to 15 seconds

3 to 10 seconds

5 to 15 seconds

69. When a telephone network is circuit switched , each call

Is broadcast over multiple paths between switches

Is packetized and transmitted in circuitous

Has a dedeicated circuit created by the switch

Requires a dedicated switch to make the connection

70. What device is used to combine TV channels into a single line

Multiplexer

Demodulator

Modulator

Decoder

71. Because the enhanced network (ENET) is a matrix, any input channel has access to any available

Computing mode channel

Peripheral channel

H-bus channel

Output channel

72. What is the maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensir (VTWS)?

150 feet

200 feet

328 feet

425 feet

73. What annunciator is used with the Advisor VII control unit?

Small annunciator system (SMAS)

Standard annunciator system (STAS)

Small permanent communications and displsy segment (SPCDS)

Security monitoring and reporting terminal

74. The integrated services digital network (ISDN) gateway exchange (IGX) switch allows for stacks of up to 8 IGX switches, while the Avaya Prologix switch can operate in a stack of

4

6

8

2

75. Asymmetric trunk operation provides more efficient use of bandwidth by

Using two trunk cards in one promina

Configuring a bundle consisting of 24 DSOs

Not utilizing the bandwidth in the opposite directoin of a one-way call

Consuming bandwidth equally in both directions while preserving one-way communication

76. Which elements make up the control component of the SuperNode central control?

Computing mode (CM) and message switches (MS)

CM and system load module (SLM)

Central processing unit (CPU) and control monitor unit (CMU)

CPU, digital signal (DS), and peripheral module (PM)

77. What are the frequencies at which two common node nulling adjustments are set in the video distribution amplifier?

60Hz and 15,750Hz

60Hz and 5.5MHz

15,750Hz and 4.5MHz

15,750Hz and 5.5MHz

78. Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility provides facilities for storing data modifications orders (DMO) and for retrieving them at a specified time for execution?

Journal file

Table control

Dump/restore

Pending order file

79. The tactical interface gateway (TIG) uses what protocol to allow backwards compatibility between the Avaya Prologix and legacy Triservice Tactical Communications (TRI-TAC) equipment?

Transmission control

User datagram

File transfer

Internet

80. Circuits that fail to meet all parameters specified in the appropriate technical schedule when test and acceptance (T&A) is done may not be accepted for service without the express approval of

The user

Circuit control office

Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)

The Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority

81. What is the operating frequency of the synchronizing oscillator in the "A" sensor post of the infrared pulsed intrusion detection system (IPIDS)?

100 hertz (Hz)

800Hz

1000Hz

1200Hz

82. How many serial data interface ports does ther Meridian Option 11C Small System Controller have?

32

12

3

1

83. Which is not a selectable option of the E-flex II system?

Alarm duration

Number of cuts

Cable sensitivity

Sector reporting priority

84. Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility provides facilities for preserving data modifications orders (DMO) and for retrieving them at a specified time for execution?

Journal file

Table control

Dump/restore

Pending order file

85. What important concept to understand is that digital video is merely an alternate means for

Minimizing video loss

Carrying a video waveform

Minimized signal dropout

Transmitting an analog waveform

86. What modulation technique is used for Digital Video Broadcasting- Cable transmission?

MPEG-1

MPEG-2

MPEG-3

MPEG-4

87. How does the T-bus relate to the function of the promina?

The processor communicates with the other cards in the module via the T-bus

The T-bus connects the promina to the other modules in the TDC suite

The front card communicates with the rear card through the T-bus

The information that is multiplexed/demultiplexed travels over the T-bus

88. Which digital video tape format uses a 4:2:2 standard, with an 8 bit sampling rate, 19mm wide tape, and has a 94 minute recording recording time?

D1

D2

D3

D4

89. What voice mail interface has the capability to support the temporary absence greeting (TAG) feature?

Administration and maintenance interface

Voice messaging user interface forum

Meridian mail user interface

Message service interface

90. Which office or system confirms a restoration priority?

Circuit control office (CCO)

National communications system (NCS)

Systems control facility (SCF)

Defense communications system (DCS)

91. What voice mail interface allows a user's mailbox to be partitioned into a main mailbox and up to eight submailboxes?

Administration and maintenance interface

Voice messaging user interface forum

Meridian mail user interface

Message service interface

92. What are the two parts/priorities to the telecommunications service priority (TSP)?

Provisioning and restoration

Provisioning and recovery

Procurement and recovery

Procurement and recovery priority

93. What does the AN/GSS-39 system use to monitor the integrity of all sensor wiring to the control panel?

End-of-line resistor

Line termination unit

End-of-line module

Tamper interface unit

94. The GVG-110 video switcher serial interface allows

Remote control of switcher transitions

Remote programming of all switcher functions

Serial interface programming with the switcher effects memory

Remote control of the switcher by a personal computer or digital picture manipulator

95. Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility provides facilities for preserving data modifications orders (DMO) on tape or disk so that data tables can be restored if the system should fail?

Journal file

Table control

Dump/restore

Pending order file

96. A standard Air Force E-flex II monitors how many meters?

100

150

200

300

97. What is the maximum number of channels of voice and/or data traffic that the FCC-100 can handle?

12

16

24

32

98. What is themaximum length of the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS)?

150 feet

200 feet

328 feet

425 feet

99. When aligning a microwave fence sensor, what reading do you look for from the automatic gain control (AGC) using a multimeter?

Lowest possible

Highest possible

Equal to the phase lock look (PLL)

Midpoint

100. The GVG-110 video switcher effects key fills with

Linear signal and chroma signal from the effects keyer

Key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal

Key bus keying signal or an internally-generated color matte signal

Luminance signal and chroma key signal from the effects keyer

3D152 Vol. 3

1. The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability,

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. How is information recorded or stored on videotape?

3. What is the main purpose of a boundary fence?

4. What function in a video tape recorder (VTR) is accomplished by transporting the videotape across the head gap at the same speed at which it was recorded?

5. The next generation receive terminal (NGRT) accepts feeds from which two satellite bands?

6. What is the beginning of a cable system called?

7. What is the primary driving factor behind the invention of the telephone exchange?

8. What must a line of detection detect?

9. Base cables normally enter the central office (CO) facility through a

10. You can compare a video taperecorder (VTR) head to a/an

11. What type alarm occurs when if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is removed?

12. Which sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders?

13. The basic configuration if the entry control facility (ECF) includes a

14. The primary reason you should measure the voltage across terminal or distribution frame protectors before removing and replacing them is to

15. What role does the Private Branch Exchange (PBX) play in the telephony industry?

16. If all deployed and fixed locations use global positioning system (GPS) referenced clocks, we can eliminate crypto-sync loss due to

17. Trend analysis is a program that trends all of these outage data except

18. Broadband technology uses all of these transmission mediums except?

19. What is one path high frequency (HF) transmissions follow from the antenna to the distant end?

20. What is the means of measuring the amount of time that has been played or recorded on a video tape recorder (VTR)?

21. What is the primiary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor

22. What is a major advantage of digital recording over analog recording?

23. Which models of the digital multiplex system (DMS) family are commenly used at Air Force bases to provide base telephone services?

24. What is the most serious threat to voice network system integrity?

25. Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility is responsible for creating and maintaing tables of data in a controlled manner?

26. The red, green, and blue (RGB) outputs from the camera go to the

27. What part of the video switcher allows titles or other video scenes to be inserted into a full screen background?

28. Within how many normal duty hours of completion action on the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) must the circuit control office (CCO) submit an in-effect report

29. Trend analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds (MT) on what basis?

30. What is not a factor in determining the refractive index of air?

31. How many lines of video are discarded in high-definition 1080 line video encoded with 1920x1088 pixel frames prior to display?

32. Which is not a disadvantage of laser light transmission?

33. How many B and D channels does the standard configuration in North American Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) primary rate interface (PRI) application use?

34. How many miles above Earth are satellites placed into orbit?

35. Which piece of the recieve broadcast manager (RBM) functions as a common television set-top converter box?

36. The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) configuration normally used to connect switches together is the

37. What is the means of measuring the amount of time that has been played or recorded on a video tape recorder (VTR)?

38. Broadband refers to a technology that can transmit

39. What link is used to connect the digital multiplex system (DSM)-core to the DMS-bus?

40. One disadvantage of microwave wavelengths is that the frequencies are susceptible to

41. How many inches is the beam width at the widest portion of the infrared perimeter detection sensor?

42. The security lighting inside the restricted area is used to

43. What modulation technique is used by the Advanced Television Systems Committee (ATSC) system?

44. What configuration does the Red Data Module normally operate in?

45. To transmit an audio signal over radio frequency (RF), it first has to be

46. What is the interior intrusion destection system (IIDS) is designed to detect intruders attempting to enter a shelter, storage igloo, or building?

47. What recieve broadcast manager (RBM) processes military specific and classified information?

48. Which satellite communications system is used to transmit space operations?

49. The determining factor in calculating the correct size of a waveguide is

50. What component carries the signal to individual subscribers?

51. If a circuit fails its management threshold (MT), what test might be performed?

52. How many card slots does the FCC-100 have, and how many of them are available for user configuration?

53. Between what ranges can you adjust the SDI-76 microwave sensor?

54. Where do incoming unswitched circuits from a peripheral module (PM) enter the NT9X35A cross-point card matrix

55. What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all required parameters and the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority advises that the circuit is accepted for service?

56. For a theater deployable communications (TDC) network design that has the crypto interface module (CIM) and the promina multiplexer (P-MUX) in separate locations, which piece of equipment is necessary?

57. Which major component of the NorTel digital switching system (DSS) interfaces line and trunk subscribers?

58. At what distance does the detection pattern of the infrared perimeter detection sensor (IPDS) transmitters change, and to what pattern does it change?

59. For either secure or nonsecure data network in theater deployable communications (TDC), the crypto interface module 's router normally acts as the

60. What type of signal is sent to the fence protection system (FPS) signal processor when an alarm is detected?

61. In the event of a power failure, how many hours can the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) remain operational?

62. Why are the R-Y and the B-Y signals shifted 33 degress counterclockwise?

63. The first position of the trunk indentifier indicates the

64. Which module provides encryption/decryption of traffic into and out of the theater deployable communications access package (TDC/ICAP) network?

65. Which Defense Information Systems Agency Circular(s) (DISAC) contain information needed to assign a temporary command communications service designator (CCSD)

66. What components are directly connected to the input/output controller (IOC)?

67. A status acquistition message (SAM) is sent from

68. What is the range of the alternate current (AC) presence time delay relay in the AN/GSS-39 system before a power loss is reported?

69. When a telephone network is circuit switched , each call

70. What device is used to combine TV channels into a single line

71. Because the enhanced network (ENET) is a matrix, any input channel has access to any available

72. What is the maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensir (VTWS)?

73. What annunciator is used with the Advisor VII control unit?

74. The integrated services digital network (ISDN) gateway exchange (IGX) switch allows for stacks of up to 8 IGX switches, while the Avaya Prologix switch can operate in a stack of

75. Asymmetric trunk operation provides more efficient use of bandwidth by

76. Which elements make up the control component of the SuperNode central control?

77. What are the frequencies at which two common node nulling adjustments are set in the video distribution amplifier?