6c051 02
6C051 URE Vol 02
- 1.
(201) The purpose of acquisition planning is to
- A.
Provide for the acquisition of noncommercial items.
- B.
Determine the applicable provisions and clauses
- C.
Identify evaluation factors
- D.
Maximize competition
Correct Answer
D. Maximize competition -
- 2.
(201) Planning must take place
- A.
Upon receipt of funds.
- B.
Once a purchase request is received
- C.
As soon as an agency need is identified
- D.
Immediately upon completion of the source selection plan
Correct Answer
C. As soon as an agency need is identified -
- 3.
(201) According to OMB Circular A-76, during competitive sourcing the government competes with
- A.
Industry.
- B.
State government
- C.
Foreign governments.
- D.
General Services Administration
Correct Answer
A. Industry. -
- 4.
(201) Leadership of an acquisition team may be shared between the CO and
- A.
The head of the Contracting Agency
- B.
A contract specialist
- C.
The program manager
- D.
The technical team
Correct Answer
C. The program manager -
- 5.
(201) Which of the following acquisition team members provides cost proposal analysis support?
- A.
Technical specialist
- B.
Resource manager
- C.
Program manager
- D.
Auditor.
Correct Answer
D. Auditor. -
- 6.
(201) An SASS is required for acquisitions with a dollar value
- A.
Exceeding $2,500
- B.
Exceeding $25,000
- C.
Between $8M and $25M
- D.
Between the SAT and $8M.
Correct Answer
D. Between the SAT and $8M. -
- 7.
(201) Strategic sourcing focus areas are identified by
- A.
Site surveys
- B.
Trend analysis.
- C.
Spend analysis
- D.
Competitive sourcing
Correct Answer
C. Spend analysis -
- 8.
(201) In order to understand the constant changes in organizational spend the process of strategic sourcing must be performed
- A.
Continuously.
- B.
Randomly.
- C.
Quarterly.
- D.
Annually.
Correct Answer
A. Continuously. -
- 9.
(201) In what phase of the strategic sourcing process is a solicitation issued?
- A.
Standup.
- B.
Execution.
- C.
Management performance
- D.
CSS development
Correct Answer
B. Execution. -
- 10.
(202) When conducting market research, the extent of research is normally based on
- A.
Type of contract to be used
- B.
Urgency of the requirement
- C.
End of fiscal year constraints
- D.
Availability of small businesses
Correct Answer
B. Urgency of the requirement -
- 11.
(202) Market research may be used to
- A.
Support the continued use of sole source requirements
- B.
Promote the use of noncommercial items.
- C.
Determine if a price is fair and reasonable
- D.
Identify non-responsive offers
Correct Answer
C. Determine if a price is fair and reasonable -
- 12.
(202) What specific information is included in a market research report?
- A.
Constraints to competition
- B.
Review of offeror past performance
- C.
Detailed analysis of cost and pricing data
- D.
Identification of source selection evaluation criteria
Correct Answer
A. Constraints to competition -
- 13.
(203) When evaluating purchase requests, ensure descriptions are defined in terms that
- A.
Encourage the use of commercial items
- B.
Require the use of military specifications
- C.
Promote other than full and open competition.
- D.
Allow only the most qualified offerors to compete
Correct Answer
A. Encourage the use of commercial items -
- 14.
(203) What action should a CO take when a purchase request contains an unreasonable delivery date?
- A.
Cancel the purchase request
- B.
Use a 30-day delivery standard
- C.
Consult with customer and document discussions.
- D.
Include delivery terms in accordance with industry standards.
Correct Answer
C. Consult with customer and document discussions. -
- 15.
(203) An IGE is required for all construction requirements exceeding
- A.
$2,000.
- B.
$2,500.
- C.
$100,000.
- D.
$150,000.
Correct Answer
D. $150,000. -
- 16.
(203) When conducting an initial review of a requirements document ensure that purchase descriptions
- A.
Maximize the use of acronyms
- B.
Are arranged in a logical manner
- C.
Use the term “should” to describe mandatory requirements
- D.
Use vague and ambiguous terms to describe non-technical requirements
Correct Answer
B. Are arranged in a logical manner -
- 17.
(203) Failure to use clear and concise language may increase the
- A.
Contractor’s performance
- B.
Potential for a contract claim
- C.
Ability for small businesses to compete
- D.
Government’s likelihood of winning a protest
Correct Answer
B. Potential for a contract claim -
- 18.
(203) Construction specifications follow which format?
- A.
Simplified contract format
- B.
UCF
- C.
MIL-STD format
- D.
CSI format
Correct Answer
D. CSI format -
- 19.
(203) A properly written statement of work facilitates
- A.
Preparation of the contractor’s quality assurance plan
- B.
Use of the UCF.
- C.
Use of other than full and open competition
- D.
Preparation of responsive proposals
Correct Answer
D. Preparation of responsive proposals -
- 20.
(203) A PWS normally includes which of the following elements?
- A.
Instructions to offerors
- B.
Performance requirements
- C.
Provisions and clauses
- D.
Evaluation criteria
Correct Answer
B. Performance requirements -
- 21.
(203) Which requirements document cites key agency goals and allows maximum flexibility of an offeror to propose an innovative approach?
- A.
PWS.
- B.
SDS.
- C.
SOO.
- D.
SOW.
Correct Answer
C. SOO. -
- 22.
(203) A lease versus purchase determination is required when equipment will be leased for more than
- A.
14 days
- B.
60 days
- C.
45 days
- D.
30 days
Correct Answer
B. 60 days -
- 23.
(203) Why are contractors required to mark supplies, or otherwise furnish notice with the supplies, of the existence of a warranty?
- A.
Inform government personnel who store, stock, or use the supplies
- B.
Decrease the cost of repair or replacement of defective supplies
- C.
Inform government personnel responsible for contract award
- D.
Decrease cost of shipping insurance
Correct Answer
A. Inform government personnel who store, stock, or use the supplies -
- 24.
(203) The implied warranty of merchantability provides that an item
- A.
Can be repaired by any authorized merchant that sells the product
- B.
Will endure normal wear and tear for at least one year from receipt
- C.
Is reasonably fit for the ordinary purposes for which such items are used.
- D.
Has undergone quality assurance testing procedures by the manufacturer
Correct Answer
C. Is reasonably fit for the ordinary purposes for which such items are used. -
- 25.
(203) The principal purpose of a warranty is to delineate the rights and obligations of the contractor and the government for defective items and services and to
- A.
Expedite delivery
- B.
Allow refunds for defects
- C.
Foster quality performance
- D.
Provide for product replacements
Correct Answer
C. Foster quality performance -
- 26.
(203) Brand name requirements must be supported by a
- A.
Determination and finding
- B.
Justification and approval
- C.
Memorandum approved by the Competition Advocate
- D.
Small business dissolution approved by the Small Business specialist.
Correct Answer
B. Justification and approval -
- 27.
(203) Brand name justifications should describe unique capabilities and
- A.
At least three suggested sources
- B.
The wing commander’s preference
- C.
The impact on the mission if substituted
- D.
Alternative brands that may be considered
Correct Answer
C. The impact on the mission if substituted -
- 28.
(203) Who has the final authority for determining adequacy of a sole source justification?
- A.
Technical expert
- B.
Contracting officer.
- C.
Competition advocate
- D.
Requiring activity’s unit commander
Correct Answer
B. Contracting officer. -
- 29.
(204) Which online business system provides data on federal contract actions over $3,000?
- A.
EPLS.
- B.
CCR.
- C.
PPIRS.
- D.
FPDS-NG
Correct Answer
D. FPDS-NG -
- 30.
(205) What FAR part prescribes policy for contracting with small businesses?
- A.
FAR Part 12
- B.
FAR Part 17.
- C.
FAR Part 19
- D.
FAR Part 26
Correct Answer
C. FAR Part 19 -
- 31.
(205) Small business size standards are established on an industry-by-industry basis according to the
- A.
NAICS.
- B.
FSC.
- C.
FSG.
- D.
PSC.
Correct Answer
A. NAICS. -
- 32.
(205) Which socio-economic category includes the 8(a) program?
- A.
HUBZone.
- B.
SDB.
- C.
WOSB.
- D.
SDVOSB.
Correct Answer
B. SDB. -
- 33.
(206) Designating a competition advocate for each contracting activity is a requirement of the
- A.
Small Business Act
- B.
Regulatory Flexibility Act.
- C.
National Defense Authorization Act.
- D.
Office of Federal Procurement Policy Act
Correct Answer
D. Office of Federal Procurement Policy Act -
- 34.
(206) The approval authority for justification and approval (J&A) actions over $650,000, but not exceeding $12.5 million?
- A.
SAF/AQC
- B.
Contracting officer
- C.
Competition advocate
- D.
HCA.
Correct Answer
C. Competition advocate -
- 35.
(206) When placing an order against a federal supply schedule expected to exceed the SAT, the CO is required to place the order
- A.
With any schedule holder
- B.
On a competitive basis
- C.
On a competitive basis using e-Buy
- D.
On a competitive basis using FedBizOpps
Correct Answer
C. On a competitive basis using e-Buy -
- 36.
(206) Which of the following scenarios require the CO to promote competition to the maximum extent practicable?
- A.
$2,500 construction requirement
- B.
$3,500 open market supply purchase
- C.
$75,000 order placed against a federal supply schedule
- D.
$160,000 delivery order against an IDIQ contract previously awarded using FAR Part 6 procedures
Correct Answer
B. $3,500 open market supply purchase -
- 37.
(206) All of the following are examples of competitive procedures except
- A.
Sealed bids
- B.
Two-step sealed bidding
- C.
Brand name requirements
- D.
Requirements using FAR Part 15
Correct Answer
C. Brand name requirements -
- 38.
(206) Which of the following exceptions to full and open competition must be supported by a determination and finding?
- A.
Section 8(a) competition
- B.
Set-aside for small business concerns
- C.
Establishing or maintaining alternative sources
- D.
Set-aside for local firms during a major disaster or emergency
Correct Answer
C. Establishing or maintaining alternative sources -
- 39.
(206) Small business specialists are required to review all acquisitions at what minimum threshold?
- A.
$3,000
- B.
$10,000
- C.
$25,000
- D.
$150,000
Correct Answer
B. $10,000 -
- 40.
(206) What dollar amount is automatically reserved for small business concerns?
- A.
$3,000 and below
- B.
Between $3,000 and $150,000
- C.
Between $150,000 and $650,000
- D.
$650,000 and above
Correct Answer
B. Between $3,000 and $150,000 -
- 41.
(206) What FAR Part 6 exception satisfies the requirement for sole source and brand name justifications?
- A.
Public interest
- B.
National security
- C.
Unusual and compelling urgency
- D.
Only one responsible source will satisfy agency requirements
Correct Answer
D. Only one responsible source will satisfy agency requirements -
- 42.
(206) What FAR Part 6 exception must be supported by a determination and finding?
- A.
Public interest
- B.
National security
- C.
International agreement
- D.
Authorized or required by statute
Correct Answer
A. Public interest -
- 43.
(207) What special form of written approval is used by an authorized official as a prerequisite to taking certain contracting actions?
- A.
Memorandum for record.
- B.
Justification and approval
- C.
Determination and finding
- D.
Determination of circumstance
Correct Answer
C. Determination and finding -
- 44.
(207) The “findings” in determination and findings means that
- A.
It is required by statute or regulation
- B.
A special form of written approval by an authorized official.
- C.
Conclusions of decisions supported by statute or regulation
- D.
A statement of fact or rationale essential to support the determination
Correct Answer
D. A statement of fact or rationale essential to support the determination -
- 45.
(207) A determination and finding does not include
- A.
A description of action being approved
- B.
Identification of the contracting activity
- C.
A specific contract type and contract amount
- D.
Citing of the appropriate statute and or regulation
Correct Answer
C. A specific contract type and contract amount -
- 46.
(207) Within how many days after contract award must a J&A be made available to the public through the GPE?
- A.
7 days
- B.
14 days
- C.
30 days
- D.
45 days
Correct Answer
B. 14 days -
- 47.
(208) Which form of security ensures that a bidder will not withdraw a bid within the period specified for acceptance?
- A.
Bid affirmation
- B.
Payment bond
- C.
Performance bond
- D.
Irrevocable Letter of Credit
Correct Answer
D. Irrevocable Letter of Credit -
- 48.
(208) Which act requires performance and payment bonds for any domestic construction contract expected to exceed the SAT?
- A.
Miller Act
- B.
Walsh-Healy Act
- C.
Davis-Bacon Act
- D.
Competition in Contracting Act.
Correct Answer
A. Miller Act -
- 49.
(208) Which form of protection guarantees payment to all persons supplying labor or material in performing contract work?
- A.
Bid bond
- B.
Payment bond
- C.
Performance bond
- D.
Liability insurance
Correct Answer
B. Payment bond -
- 50.
(208) When clause 52.228-5 is included in a contract, COs request and receive proof of insurance
- A.
Before the contractor begins work.
- B.
With the offerors bid or proposal.
- C.
Within seven days after work begins
- D.
Within 10 days after work begins
Correct Answer
A. Before the contractor begins work. -
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