Safety Quiz: Safety And Environmental Policy For Workers

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Safety Quiz: Safety And Environmental Policy For Workers - Quiz

In every job, it is the mandate of the employer to ensure that the company abides to all safety regulations. The safety quiz below dives deeper into the health, safety and environmental policy for workers. All the best.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    HSE policy at unit level signed by

    • A.

      OIC and General Manager (Maintenance)

    • B.

      OIC and Factory Manager

    • C.

      Occupier and Factory Manager

    • D.

      CMD and Factory Manager.

    Correct Answer
    C. Occupier and Factory Manager
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Occupier and Factory Manager". In terms of HSE (Health, Safety, and Environment) policy at the unit level, it is important for the occupier of the unit and the factory manager to sign the policy. This ensures that both parties are aware of and committed to implementing and maintaining a safe and environmentally friendly workplace. The occupier is responsible for the overall operations of the unit, while the factory manager is responsible for the day-to-day management. By having both of them sign the policy, it ensures accountability and a shared commitment to HSE practices.

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  • 2. 

    A reportable accident is one that makes person disable to perform duty for more than

    • A.

      24 hrs

    • B.

      48 hrs

    • C.

      36 hrs

    • D.

      12 hrs

    Correct Answer
    B. 48 hrs
    Explanation
    A reportable accident is defined as an accident that results in a person being unable to perform their duty for more than a certain period of time. In this case, the correct answer is 48 hrs, meaning that if an accident causes a person to be unable to perform their duty for more than 48 hours, it is considered a reportable accident. This suggests that accidents resulting in longer periods of incapacitation are considered more severe or significant in terms of their impact on a person's ability to work.

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  • 3. 

    Permissible exposure limit for the continuous noise per eight hours working is

    • A.

      90 DB

    • B.

      80 DB

    • C.

      95 DB

    • D.

      85 DB

    Correct Answer
    A. 90 DB
    Explanation
    The permissible exposure limit for continuous noise per eight hours of working is 90 dB. This means that workers should not be exposed to noise levels exceeding 90 dB for more than eight hours in a day. Exposure to higher noise levels for extended periods can lead to hearing damage and other health issues. It is important for employers to implement measures to control and reduce noise levels in the workplace to protect the health and safety of their employees.

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  • 4. 

    Which part of the foot accounts for maximum percentage of disability injury occurring in industry?

    • A.

      Heel

    • B.

      Toe

    • C.

      Ankle

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    B. Toe
    Explanation
    The toe is the part of the foot that accounts for the maximum percentage of disability injuries occurring in the industry. This could be due to various reasons such as the toe being more vulnerable to being crushed or injured by heavy objects, or the toe being more prone to fractures or sprains. The specific details or statistics regarding this claim are not provided in the question.

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  • 5. 

    For electrical jobs, use

    • A.

      Ordinary gloves

    • B.

      Special hand gloves approved for electrical jobs

    • C.

      Asbestos hand gloves

    • D.

      PVC hand gloves

    Correct Answer
    B. Special hand gloves approved for electrical jobs
    Explanation
    Special hand gloves approved for electrical jobs should be used for electrical jobs because they are specifically designed to provide protection against electrical hazards. These gloves are made from materials that offer insulation and can withstand high voltage levels. Ordinary gloves may not provide adequate protection and can put the person at risk of electric shock or other injuries. Asbestos hand gloves are not suitable for electrical jobs as they can release harmful fibers when damaged. PVC hand gloves may offer some level of protection but may not be as effective as special gloves specifically designed for electrical work.

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  • 6. 

    What type of apron should be used for providing protection of the body while working with chemicals & solvents?

    • A.

      PVC

    • B.

      Leather

    • C.

      Asbestos hand gloves

    • D.

      Chorme leather

    Correct Answer
    A. PVC
    Explanation
    PVC aprons are commonly used for providing protection of the body while working with chemicals and solvents. PVC (polyvinyl chloride) is a synthetic material that is resistant to many chemicals and solvents, making it ideal for such tasks. PVC aprons are durable, waterproof, and provide a barrier against hazardous substances, preventing them from coming into contact with the skin and causing harm.

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  • 7. 

    Date of Bhopal Disaster

    • A.

      1st December 1984

    • B.

      1st December 1985

    • C.

      3rd December 1984

    • D.

      3rd December 1985

    Correct Answer
    C. 3rd December 1984
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3rd December 1984. This date refers to the Bhopal Disaster, which was a gas leak incident that occurred in Bhopal, India. On this day, a pesticide plant released a toxic gas known as methyl isocyanate, resulting in the deaths of thousands of people and causing severe health issues for many others. The disaster is considered one of the world's worst industrial accidents.

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  • 8. 

    Off site emergency planning is the responsibility of

    • A.

      Factory Manager

    • B.

      Factory Occupier

    • C.

      Director of Factories

    • D.

      District Collector

    Correct Answer
    D. District Collector
    Explanation
    The off-site emergency planning refers to the preparation and coordination of actions to be taken in the event of an emergency that may affect the surrounding community or environment. The District Collector is responsible for overseeing and managing emergency situations within their district, including off-site emergencies that may occur at factories. They have the authority and resources to coordinate with various stakeholders, such as emergency services, government agencies, and the factory occupier, to ensure a prompt and effective response to any emergency situation.

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  • 9. 

    In case of emergency in unit, Incident controller will be

    • A.

      ED

    • B.

      GM (Operations)

    • C.

      Unit-In-Charge

    • D.

      HOD (F&S)

    Correct Answer
    C. Unit-In-Charge
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Unit-In-Charge." In case of an emergency in a unit, the Unit-In-Charge is responsible for taking control of the situation and coordinating the necessary actions. They are in charge of managing the incident and ensuring the safety of everyone involved. The Unit-In-Charge has the authority and expertise to make decisions and direct the response efforts effectively.

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  • 10. 

    What is the threshold limit valve of carbon monooxide.

    • A.

      25 PPM

    • B.

      50 PPM

    • C.

      75 PPM

    • D.

      100 PPM

    Correct Answer
    B. 50 PPM
    Explanation
    The threshold limit value of carbon monoxide is 50 PPM. This means that exposure to carbon monoxide levels above 50 parts per million can be harmful to human health.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is not a notifiable dieases as per factory act.

    • A.

      Poisioning by nitrous fumes

    • B.

      Anthrax

    • C.

      Pathological manifestiation due to X-ray

    • D.

      Tuberculosis

    Correct Answer
    D. Tuberculosis
    Explanation
    Tuberculosis is not a notifiable disease as per the Factory Act. Notifiable diseases are those that are required by law to be reported to public health authorities. This is to ensure that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent the spread of the disease and protect public health. While poisoning by nitrous fumes, anthrax, and pathological manifestation due to X-ray are all examples of notifiable diseases, tuberculosis is not included in the list.

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  • 12. 

    How many types of notifiable diseases in appropriate schedule of factory act ?

    • A.

      25

    • B.

      27

    • C.

      29

    • D.

      26

    Correct Answer
    C. 29
    Explanation
    The appropriate schedule of the factory act includes a list of notifiable diseases that must be reported. The question is asking how many types of notifiable diseases are included in this schedule. The correct answer is 29, indicating that there are 29 different types of diseases that are required to be reported under the factory act.

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  • 13. 

    The potential of chemical substances to give toxic effect on single/sudden exposure

    • A.

      Chonic

    • B.

      Acute

    • C.

      Mutagen

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    B. Acute
    Explanation
    Acute toxicity refers to the potential of a chemical substance to cause harmful effects on an organism after a single or sudden exposure. This can include immediate health effects such as skin irritation, respiratory distress, or even death. Chronic toxicity, on the other hand, refers to the long-term effects of repeated or continuous exposure to a substance over a prolonged period. Mutagenicity refers to the ability of a substance to cause genetic mutations. Therefore, the correct answer in this case is "Acute" as it specifically pertains to the immediate toxic effects of a substance.

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  • 14. 

    Which electrical equipment is best suited for Zone 0 as per classification of flammable atmosphere.

    • A.

      Flame proof fittings

    • B.

      Increased safety

    • C.

      Intrinsically safe euipment

    • D.

      Non sparking proof

    Correct Answer
    C. Intrinsically safe euipment
    Explanation
    Intrinsically safe equipment is best suited for Zone 0 as per the classification of flammable atmosphere. Zone 0 is the most hazardous area, where explosive gases or vapors are present continuously or for long periods. Intrinsically safe equipment is designed to prevent the release of sufficient electrical or thermal energy to ignite a hazardous atmosphere. It ensures that even in the presence of flammable gases, sparks or excessive heat are not generated, making it the safest choice for Zone 0 environments.

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  • 15. 

    How you define class A petroleum products as per Indian Petroleum Act.

    • A.

      Flash point less than 23 degree C

    • B.

      Flash point less than 68 degree C and greater than 23 degree C.

    • C.

      Flash point less than 10 degree C

    • D.

      Flash point more than 68 degree C

    Correct Answer
    A. Flash point less than 23 degree C
    Explanation
    Class A petroleum products are defined as those with a flash point less than 23 degrees Celsius according to the Indian Petroleum Act. The flash point is the lowest temperature at which the vapors of a substance can ignite when exposed to an open flame or heat source. Therefore, any petroleum product with a flash point below 23 degrees Celsius is considered highly flammable and falls under Class A.

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  • 16. 

    Expand HIRA sheet, applicalbe for OHSAS 18001

    • A.

      Hazop identification and Risk assessment

    • B.

      Hazard information and Risk assessment

    • C.

      Hazard identification and Risk analysis

    • D.

      Hazard identification and Risk assessment.

    Correct Answer
    D. Hazard identification and Risk assessment.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Hazard identification and Risk assessment." This answer is correct because HIRA stands for Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment. HIRA is a systematic process used to identify potential hazards and assess the associated risks in a workplace or project. It involves identifying hazards, evaluating their potential consequences, and determining the likelihood of those consequences occurring. This information is then used to prioritize and implement appropriate control measures to mitigate the identified risks. OHSAS 18001 is a standard for occupational health and safety management systems, and HIRA is an important component of this standard.

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  • 17. 

    Oxygen contents in confined space shall not be less than

    • A.

      20%

    • B.

      19.5%

    • C.

      21%

    • D.

      20.5%

    Correct Answer
    C. 21%
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 21% because oxygen levels in a confined space should not be less than this percentage. Oxygen is necessary for humans to breathe, and a lower percentage can lead to oxygen deprivation or asphyxiation. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that the oxygen content in a confined space is at least 21% to maintain a safe environment for individuals inside.

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  • 18. 

    Before loading of any hydrocarbon like LPG tanker, maximum oxygen content should be ensured

    • A.

      0.005

    • B.

      0.007

    • C.

      0.0075

    • D.

      0.01

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.005
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 0.005 because before loading any hydrocarbon like LPG tanker, it is important to ensure that the oxygen content is kept to a minimum. This is because oxygen can react with the hydrocarbon and cause combustion or explosion. Therefore, a maximum oxygen content of 0.005 is necessary to maintain safety during the loading process.

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  • 19. 

    If a computer catches fire then the most appropriate type of extinguishers to be used

    • A.

      DCP

    • B.

      Co2

    • C.

      Water

    • D.

      Sand

    Correct Answer
    B. Co2
    Explanation
    CO2 (carbon dioxide) extinguishers are the most appropriate type to be used when a computer catches fire. This is because CO2 extinguishers are specifically designed for electrical fires, which are common in computer-related incidents. CO2 extinguishers work by displacing oxygen, which helps to smother the fire and prevent it from spreading. Additionally, CO2 extinguishers do not leave any residue or cause damage to the computer equipment, making them a suitable choice for extinguishing fires in this scenario.

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  • 20. 

    When gas is rapidly released from a cylinder of compressed gas, the temperature of the cylinder will

    • A.

      Increase

    • B.

      Decrease

    • C.

      Stay the same

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    B. Decrease
    Explanation
    When gas is rapidly released from a cylinder of compressed gas, the temperature of the cylinder will decrease. This is because the rapid release of gas causes a decrease in pressure, which in turn leads to a decrease in temperature. According to the ideal gas law, when the pressure of a gas decreases, its temperature also decreases. This phenomenon is known as the Joule-Thomson effect. Therefore, when gas is rapidly released from a compressed cylinder, the temperature of the cylinder will decrease.

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  • 21. 

    Frequency of internal safety audit is

    • A.

      Monthly

    • B.

      Quarterly

    • C.

      Half Yearly

    • D.

      Annually

    Correct Answer
    B. Quarterly
    Explanation
    The frequency of internal safety audit is quarterly, meaning that it is conducted every three months. This allows for regular assessments of the safety protocols and procedures in place within an organization. Conducting audits on a quarterly basis ensures that any potential safety issues are identified and addressed in a timely manner, reducing the risk of accidents or incidents occurring. It also allows for the monitoring of the effectiveness of safety measures and the implementation of any necessary improvements.

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  • 22. 

    Investigation of an accident is

    • A.

      Statutory requirement

    • B.

      Fault finding

    • C.

      Prevent reoccurrence

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    C. Prevent reoccurrence
    Explanation
    Investigation of an accident is conducted to prevent reoccurrence. This means that the purpose of the investigation is to identify the causes and contributing factors of the accident in order to implement measures and strategies that will prevent similar accidents from happening in the future. By understanding what went wrong and why, steps can be taken to address any deficiencies or hazards, improve safety procedures, and mitigate risks. This helps to ensure the safety and well-being of individuals and prevent the occurrence of similar accidents in the future.

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  • 23. 

    National Safety day observed on

    • A.

      6th March

    • B.

      4th March

    • C.

      7th March

    • D.

      9th March

    Correct Answer
    B. 4th March
    Explanation
    National Safety Day is observed on 4th March. This day is dedicated to creating awareness about the importance of safety in various aspects of life, including workplaces, roads, and homes. It aims to educate people about safety measures, accident prevention, and emergency preparedness. The observance of National Safety Day helps in promoting a culture of safety and reducing accidents and injuries.

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  • 24. 

    What are extra requirement to safety shoes for work in gas atmosphere?

    • A.

      Oil resistant sole

    • B.

      Protection against high current and antistatic electricity

    • C.

      Securing of toe and heat on the shoe

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    B. Protection against high current and antistatic electricity
    Explanation
    Safety shoes for work in a gas atmosphere require protection against high current and antistatic electricity. This is because in a gas atmosphere, there is a higher risk of electrical hazards and static electricity buildup. Therefore, it is important for safety shoes to have features that can prevent the buildup of static electricity and provide protection against high currents to ensure the safety of the wearer in such environments. The other options mentioned, such as oil resistant sole and securing of toe and heat on the shoe, may be important for other work environments but are not specifically required for work in a gas atmosphere.

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  • 25. 

    Name two primary means of protecting employees from work place hazards prior to considering personnel protective equipments

    • A.

      Engineering controls and work place controls

    • B.

      Personal Hygiene and Task risk assessment

    • C.

      Work place controls and job safety analysis

    • D.

      Task Risk Assessment and Job Safety analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Engineering controls and work place controls
    Explanation
    Engineering controls and workplace controls are two primary means of protecting employees from workplace hazards. Engineering controls involve modifying the workplace or equipment to eliminate or reduce hazards, such as installing ventilation systems to remove harmful fumes or using machine guards to prevent injuries. Workplace controls refer to implementing policies and procedures that minimize hazards, such as implementing safety protocols and providing training to employees. These measures aim to create a safe working environment and prevent accidents or injuries before considering the use of personal protective equipment.

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  • 26. 

    In case of emergency, all non essential personnel are to assembled at location known as

    • A.

      Outside Security Gate

    • B.

      Assembly point

    • C.

      Control Room

    • D.

      Fire Station

    Correct Answer
    B. Assembly point
    Explanation
    In case of an emergency, it is important to have a designated location where all non-essential personnel can gather and be accounted for. This location is commonly known as an assembly point. It serves as a central meeting place where individuals can gather safely and await further instructions or assistance. By assembling at the designated assembly point, emergency responders can easily locate and ensure the safety of all non-essential personnel.

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  • 27. 

    Sketch diagram of emergency procedure displayed at various location known as

    • A.

      Assembly chart

    • B.

      Emergency action plan

    • C.

      Safety display

    • D.

      Safety information

    Correct Answer
    B. Emergency action plan
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Emergency action plan". An emergency action plan is a sketch diagram that is displayed at various locations to provide clear instructions on what actions to take in case of an emergency. It outlines the necessary steps to be followed to ensure the safety and well-being of individuals during an emergency situation. This plan helps to minimize confusion and panic by providing a clear and organized approach to handling emergencies.

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  • 28. 

    The range of current, which provide painful shock/muscler control loss on human body

    • A.

      Upto 1 mA

    • B.

      16-50 mA

    • C.

      51-200 mA

    • D.

      200 mA and above

    Correct Answer
    B. 16-50 mA
    Explanation
    The range of current between 16-50 mA is the correct answer because within this range, the current is strong enough to cause painful shocks and muscle control loss in the human body. Currents below 16 mA may be felt but are unlikely to cause significant harm, while currents above 50 mA can lead to more severe injuries. Therefore, the range of 16-50 mA is the critical threshold where the current becomes dangerous and can cause painful shocks and loss of muscle control.

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  • 29. 

    Chemical can enter in the human body through

    • A.

      Inhalation

    • B.

      Inhalation and ingestion

    • C.

      Inhalation, ingestion & skin absorption

    • D.

      Ingestion

    Correct Answer
    C. Inhalation, ingestion & skin absorption
    Explanation
    Chemicals can enter the human body through inhalation, ingestion, and skin absorption. Inhalation refers to the process of breathing in chemical substances present in the air, which can then be absorbed into the bloodstream through the lungs. Ingestion involves consuming chemicals through the mouth, such as by eating or drinking contaminated substances. Skin absorption occurs when chemicals come into contact with the skin and are absorbed into the bloodstream through the skin's pores. Therefore, the correct answer is inhalation, ingestion, and skin absorption, as all three routes can allow chemicals to enter the human body.

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  • 30. 

    What is abbreviation of LD 50?

    • A.

      Lethal dose 50

    • B.

      Limited dose 50

    • C.

      Loop dose 50

    • D.

      Local dose 50

    Correct Answer
    A. Lethal dose 50
    Explanation
    LD 50 stands for Lethal Dose 50. This term is commonly used in toxicology to represent the dose of a substance that is lethal to 50% of the test population. It is a measure of the toxicity of a substance and helps in determining the potential harm it can cause.

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  • 31. 

    HCL is considered as

    • A.

      Toxic

    • B.

      Toxic and corrosive

    • C.

      Corrosive

    • D.

      Flammable

    Correct Answer
    B. Toxic and corrosive
    Explanation
    HCL (hydrochloric acid) is considered as toxic and corrosive. This is because it is a strong acid that can cause severe burns and tissue damage upon contact. It is also toxic when inhaled or ingested, leading to respiratory and digestive system issues. The combination of its corrosive and toxic properties makes it a highly hazardous substance that should be handled with extreme caution and proper safety measures.

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  • 32. 

    HAZOP study stands for

    • A.

      Hazard and operatibility study

    • B.

      Hazard and operation study

    • C.

      Hazard and Occupational study

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. Hazard and operatibility study
    Explanation
    HAZOP study stands for Hazard and Operability Study. It is a systematic and structured approach used to identify and analyze potential hazards and operability issues in a process plant or system. This study involves a multidisciplinary team that examines the process design, equipment, and operating procedures to identify deviations that may lead to hazardous situations or operational problems. The purpose of the HAZOP study is to assess risks, propose mitigation measures, and improve the overall safety and operability of the system.

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  • 33. 

    Minimum ignition energy required for methane

    • A.

      0.25 MJ

    • B.

      5 MJ

    • C.

      1 MJ

    • D.

      7 MJ

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.25 MJ
    Explanation
    The minimum ignition energy required for methane is 0.25 MJ. This means that in order for methane to ignite, it needs a minimum energy input of 0.25 MJ. This energy can come from various sources such as sparks, flames, or electrical discharges. The lower the minimum ignition energy, the easier it is for methane to ignite. In this case, with a minimum ignition energy of 0.25 MJ, methane is relatively easy to ignite compared to the other options provided.

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  • 34. 

    TOR, a hazard analysis process

    • A.

      Technique of Operational Review

    • B.

      Technique of Operations Risk

    • C.

      Technique of Oversight Risk

    • D.

      Technique of Overpressure Risk of Operation

    Correct Answer
    A. Technique of Operational Review
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Technique of Operational Review. TOR is a hazard analysis process that involves reviewing and analyzing the operational procedures and practices of an organization to identify potential hazards and risks. It focuses on reviewing the operational aspects of a system or process to ensure that it is functioning effectively and safely. This technique helps in identifying any weaknesses or vulnerabilities in the operations and allows for appropriate measures to be taken to mitigate the risks.

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  • 35. 

    The best suitable chemical for solvent fire

    • A.

      Water

    • B.

      Foam

    • C.

      DCP

    • D.

      CO2

    Correct Answer
    B. Foam
    Explanation
    Foam is the best suitable chemical for solvent fire because it creates a thick blanket that covers the fuel surface, preventing oxygen from reaching the fire and extinguishing it. Foam also helps to cool down the fire, reducing the heat and preventing re-ignition. It is effective for both polar and non-polar solvents and is widely used in industries where solvent fires are a common hazard. Water is not suitable for solvent fires as it can spread the fire and may cause an explosion. DCP (Dry Chemical Powder) and CO2 (Carbon Dioxide) are effective for some types of fires but may not be as suitable for solvent fires as foam.

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  • 36. 

    What type of fire extinguishers is used to put off electrical fires

    • A.

      Water

    • B.

      Foam

    • C.

      DCP

    • D.

      CO2

    Correct Answer
    D. CO2
    Explanation
    CO2 fire extinguishers are used to put off electrical fires because they do not conduct electricity. When CO2 is discharged onto an electrical fire, it displaces the oxygen, effectively smothering the fire and extinguishing it. This type of fire extinguisher is safe to use on electrical equipment and does not leave any residue behind, making it a suitable choice for electrical fires.

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  • 37. 

    LEL and UEL of LPG

    • A.

      2% to 8%

    • B.

      1% - 10%

    • C.

      10% - 40%

    • D.

      1.5% - 10.2%

    Correct Answer
    A. 2% to 8%
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2% to 8%. LEL (Lower Explosive Limit) and UEL (Upper Explosive Limit) are the concentration ranges of a gas or vapor in the air that can produce a fire or explosion. For LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas), the LEL is typically around 2% and the UEL is around 8%. This means that if the concentration of LPG in the air is below 2% or above 8%, it will not ignite or explode. However, if the concentration is within this range, there is a potential for fire or explosion.

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  • 38. 

    Expand MCP in respect of emergency communication

    • A.

      Master control point

    • B.

      Manual call point

    • C.

      Master computer processor

    • D.

      Mutual communication point

    Correct Answer
    A. Master control point
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Master control point. In the context of emergency communication, MCP refers to Master Control Point. This is a centralized location or system that controls and coordinates emergency communication activities. It serves as a hub for managing and directing emergency communications, ensuring efficient and effective response during emergencies. The MCP is responsible for receiving, processing, and disseminating emergency information to the relevant parties, such as emergency responders, authorities, and the public. It plays a crucial role in facilitating quick and coordinated communication in emergency situations.

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  • 39. 

    Standard ISO 18001 is concerned for

    • A.

      QMS

    • B.

      OHSAS

    • C.

      EMS

    • D.

      SMS

    Correct Answer
    B. OHSAS
    Explanation
    Standard ISO 18001 is concerned with OHSAS, which stands for Occupational Health and Safety Assessment Series. This standard focuses on establishing and maintaining an effective occupational health and safety management system within an organization. It provides a framework for identifying and controlling health and safety risks, promoting a safe working environment, and ensuring compliance with relevant laws and regulations. OHSAS helps organizations to prevent work-related injuries, illnesses, and fatalities, and to continually improve their occupational health and safety performance.

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  • 40. 

    Accidents are

    • A.

      Preventable

    • B.

      Costly

    • C.

      Part of life

    • D.

      Preventable & Costly

    Correct Answer
    D. Preventable & Costly
    Explanation
    Accidents are preventable because they can be avoided by taking necessary precautions and following safety guidelines. However, they are also costly because they result in financial expenses such as medical bills, property damage, and legal fees. Therefore, accidents can be both preventable and costly, emphasizing the importance of taking preventive measures to avoid unnecessary expenses and harm.

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  • 41. 

    Which is not an Industrial PPE

    • A.

      Splash Proof Goggle

    • B.

      Crash Helmet

    • C.

      Face Shield

    • D.

      Ear Muff

    Correct Answer
    B. Crash Helmet
    Explanation
    A crash helmet is not considered an industrial personal protective equipment (PPE) because it is primarily designed for protection in high-impact activities such as motorcycling or cycling, rather than for industrial work environments. Industrial PPE typically includes equipment that provides protection against specific workplace hazards, such as splash proof goggles for eye protection, face shields for face protection, and ear muffs for hearing protection. Crash helmets are not specifically designed or regulated for industrial use and therefore do not fall under the category of industrial PPE.

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  • 42. 

    Safety Goggle protects against

    • A.

      Sunheat & UV rays

    • B.

      Exposure to sharp objects

    • C.

      Dust, Flying particles and chemical splash

    • D.

      Falling object or rolling substance

    Correct Answer
    C. Dust, Flying particles and chemical splash
    Explanation
    Safety goggles protect against dust, flying particles, and chemical splash. These hazards can cause serious eye injuries if they come into contact with the eyes. Dust and flying particles can cause irritation, scratches, or even corneal abrasions. Chemical splash can cause chemical burns or damage to the eyes. Therefore, wearing safety goggles is important in environments where there is a risk of these hazards to ensure the safety and protection of the eyes.

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  • 43. 

    Hazards from Hot, Wet or slippery surface can be eliminated by

    • A.

      Using carpet

    • B.

      Applying sand on surface

    • C.

      Wearing gum boots

    • D.

      Wearing safety shoes

    Correct Answer
    D. Wearing safety shoes
    Explanation
    Wearing safety shoes is the correct answer because they are specifically designed to provide protection and prevent hazards from hot, wet, or slippery surfaces. Safety shoes typically have slip-resistant soles that provide better traction on slippery surfaces, reducing the risk of slips and falls. They also have heat-resistant properties, protecting the feet from hot surfaces. Additionally, safety shoes are often made of waterproof materials, keeping the feet dry in wet conditions. Wearing safety shoes can therefore eliminate the hazards associated with hot, wet, or slippery surfaces.

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  • 44. 

    While handling chlorine leakage, what should be used

    • A.

      Cotton dress, safety shoes, safety helmet

    • B.

      Rain coat, gumboots and safety helmet

    • C.

      PVC apron with hood, BA set, Gum boots

    • D.

      Aluminised proximity suit, BA Set

    Correct Answer
    C. PVC apron with hood, BA set, Gum boots
    Explanation
    When handling chlorine leakage, it is important to prioritize personal safety. Chlorine is a highly toxic and corrosive substance that can cause severe harm if it comes into contact with the skin or is inhaled. Therefore, the correct answer suggests using a PVC apron with a hood to protect the body, a BA (breathing apparatus) set to provide clean air, and gum boots to prevent direct contact with the chemical. This combination of protective gear ensures maximum safety and minimizes the risk of exposure to chlorine.

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  • 45. 

    The following is utilised to identify the direction of wind?

    • A.

      Wind stand

    • B.

      Wind blower

    • C.

      Wind sock

    • D.

      Wind flag

    Correct Answer
    C. Wind sock
    Explanation
    A wind sock is a device that is commonly used to identify the direction of wind. It is typically made of a long, tapered fabric tube with an opening at one end. The wind causes the fabric to fill up and point in the direction from which the wind is coming. This makes it a useful tool for pilots, meteorologists, and others who need to know the wind direction for various purposes such as aviation, weather forecasting, and outdoor activities.

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  • 46. 

    Press statement during emergency is approved by?

    • A.

      Main Incident Controller

    • B.

      Incident Controller

    • C.

      Welfare & media controller

    • D.

      Head office personal

    Correct Answer
    A. Main Incident Controller
    Explanation
    The main incident controller is responsible for approving press statements during an emergency. They have the authority and expertise to assess the situation and determine the appropriate information that should be shared with the media and the public. As the person in charge of managing the incident, the main incident controller ensures that accurate and timely information is provided to the media, while also considering the welfare and safety of those involved. Therefore, they are the most suitable person to approve press statements in such situations.

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  • 47. 

    Mutual Aid Partner of GAIL Khera is

    • A.

      HPCL

    • B.

      BPCL

    • C.

      IOCL

    • D.

      MP Govt

    Correct Answer
    C. IOCL
    Explanation
    The correct answer is IOCL because IOCL, also known as Indian Oil Corporation Limited, is a mutual aid partner of GAIL Khera. GAIL, which stands for Gas Authority of India Limited, is a natural gas processing and distribution company in India. IOCL is one of the largest oil refining and marketing companies in India and has a partnership with GAIL Khera for mutual aid and support in their respective operations.

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  • 48. 

    The maximum speed limit prescribed inside plant premises

    • A.

      30 Km/Hr

    • B.

      20 Km/Hr

    • C.

      25 Km/Hr

    • D.

      40 Km/Hr

    Correct Answer
    B. 20 Km/Hr
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 20 Km/Hr because the question asks for the maximum speed limit inside plant premises. This means that vehicles should not exceed a speed of 20 Km/Hr while driving within the plant premises for safety reasons.

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  • 49. 

    The unit of measurement of intensity of an ionizing source of radiation.

    • A.

      RAD

    • B.

      ROENTGEN

    • C.

      RBE

    • D.

      REM

    Correct Answer
    A. RAD
    Explanation
    RAD stands for Radiation Absorbed Dose and is a unit of measurement used to quantify the amount of energy absorbed by a material or tissue when exposed to ionizing radiation. It represents the amount of radiation energy deposited per unit mass of the material. The RAD unit is commonly used in radiation therapy and radiation protection to assess the potential biological effects of ionizing radiation on living organisms.

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  • 50. 

    Testing of hoisting tools & tackles shall be undertaken

    • A.

      Once in a year

    • B.

      Twice in year

    • C.

      Once in a five year

    • D.

      Never

    Correct Answer
    A. Once in a year
    Explanation
    Hoisting tools and tackles are subject to wear and tear due to regular use, which can compromise their safety and efficiency. Therefore, it is necessary to conduct regular testing to ensure their proper functioning. Testing once a year allows for the identification of any potential issues and ensures that the hoisting tools and tackles are in good working condition. This periodic testing helps to prevent accidents and maintain a safe working environment.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 06, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Praveengail
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