2S051 Volume 3 Ure's

58 Questions | By Smallito | Updated: Mar 19, 2022 | Attempts: 320

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Unit Review Exercise's from Volume 3 of the 2S051 CDC's. Up to date as of 10/2013

Questions and Answers

1.

Who serves as the Base equipment reviews and authorization activity?
- A.
  
  Equipment accountability office
- B.
  
  Stock fund manager
- C.
  
  Accountable officer
- D.
  
  Property custodian
2.

The selection of property custodians requires mutual agreement between
- A.
  
  The Equipment Accountability Office (EAO) and organizational commanders.
- B.
  
  The previous custodian and equipment management element (EME)
- C.
  
  Organization commanders and the previous custodian
- D.
  
  The accountable officer and organization commanders
3.

What element within an allowance standard establishes the number of items that can be issued to an individual, activity, or organization?
- A.
  
  Allowance standard
- B.
  
  Authorization
- C.
  
  Basis of issue
- D.
  
  Unit of issue
4.

Which expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) identifies non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment items?
- A.
  
  NF1
- B.
  
  ND1
- C.
  
  XB3
- D.
  
  XD2
5.

The equipment custodian uses which Air Force form to request non-equipment authorization inventory data items?
- A.
  
  2005
- B.
  
  2003
- C.
  
  2001
- D.
  
  2000
6.

Which Air Force Form is used to request a change to an allowance standard or to request an item that requires approval under miscallaneous allowance source code?
- A.
  
  AF 600
- B.
  
  AF601
- C.
  
  AF 2001
- D.
  
  AF 2005
7.

Which turn-in method is used to process the TIN before picking up the property?
- A.
  
  Automatic
- B.
  
  Post-post
- C.
  
  Directed
- D.
  
  Pre-post
8.

What activity code is used to process non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-in's?
- A.
  
  E
- B.
  
  P
- C.
  
  R
- D.
  
  X
9.

What activity code is used to process equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-in's?
- A.
  
  E
- B.
  
  P
- C.
  
  R
- D.
  
  X
10.

When a piece of equipment is no longer required or authorized, the equipment management section processes what input to reduce or delete an authorization?
- A.
  
  FCD
- B.
  
  FIC
- C.
  
  FCI
- D.
  
  FID
11.

Which listing is used to identify out of balance conditions?
- A.
  
  Q10
- B.
  
  Q09
- C.
  
  M14
- D.
  
  D04
12.

When signed by the property custodian which listing serves as a custody receipt?
- A.
  
  Allowance source code listing
- B.
  
  Consolidated transaction register
- C.
  
  Consolidated inventory document register
- D.
  
  Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing
13.

Which special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) asset is used to detect of isolate a fault or problem in online equipment?
- A.
  
  Training spares
- B.
  
  Test station spares
- C.
  
  Shop standard spares
- D.
  
  Fault isolation spares
14.

Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load, change, or delete a special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) detail?
- A.
  
  1XA
- B.
  
  1UB
- C.
  
  1WD
- D.
  
  1BS
15.

Which report provides a liting of all items authorized, on-hand, and due-out, for organizations authorized special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets?
- A.
  
  D04
- B.
  
  M10
- C.
  
  R25
- D.
  
  R43
16.

When your base weapon assets are increased or decreased, what report do you send to the Small Arms Registry at Robins Air Force Base?
- A.
  
  DSM
- B.
  
  MMC
- C.
  
  SRC
- D.
  
  XHA
17.

What Material Management computer listing do you use to reconcile communications security and weapons assets?
- A.
  
  Conversion Audit List (R22)
- B.
  
  Daily Weapon/COMSEC Report (D21)
- C.
  
  Weapon/COMSEC Reconciliation (R46)
- D.
  
  Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10)
18.

What stock leveling term represents the maximum quantity that should be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations?
- A.
  
  Economic order quantity (EOQ)
- B.
  
  Condemned quantity (NCQ)
- C.
  
  Requisition objective (RO)
- D.
  
  Safety-level quantity (SLQ)
19.

Whe one-for-one stock requistioning is not needed, which adjusted minimum level should be used?
- A.
  
  D
- B.
  
  C
- C.
  
  B
- D.
  
  A
20.

A request for an adjusted stock level is made on what Air Force form?
- A.
  
  86
- B.
  
  1991
- C.
  
  1996
- D.
  
  2005
21.

Which Material Management System program is used to review and validate adjusted stock levels?
- A.
  
  R26
- B.
  
  R35
- C.
  
  R43
- D.
  
  R45
22.

Readiness-based level details are identified by
- A.
  
  Type detail L, activity code A.
- B.
  
  Type detail L, activity code B.
- C.
  
  Type detail C, activity code A.
- D.
  
  Type detail C, activity code B.
23.

Which Material Management System listing is use dot identify a possilbe readiness-based level (RBL) misallocation?
- A.
  
  R35
- B.
  
  R39
- C.
  
  R43
- D.
  
  R47
24.

When item managers send directives by telephone, letter, or message communications, or in the normal redistribution order (DIC A2* or A4*) formats, what is the redistribution type?
- A.
  
  Special
- B.
  
  Transfer
- C.
  
  Directed
- D.
  
  Non-Directed
25.

What document identification code indicates a denial to a redistribution order sent by Air Force Material Command item managers?
- A.
  
  B7*
- B.
  
  BLO
- C.
  
  FTR
- D.
  
  RDO