2S051 Volume 3 Ure's

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  • 1/58 Questions

    Who serves as the Base equipment reviews and authorization activity?

    • Equipment accountability office
    • Stock fund manager
    • Accountable officer
    • Property custodian
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2S051 Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

Unit Review Exercise's from Volume 3 of the 2S051 CDC's.

Up to date as of 10/2013

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  • 2. 

    The selection of property custodians requires mutual agreement between

    • The Equipment Accountability Office (EAO) and organizational commanders.

    • The previous custodian and equipment management element (EME)

    • Organization commanders and the previous custodian

    • The accountable officer and organization commanders

    Correct Answer
    A. The Equipment Accountability Office (EAO) and organizational commanders.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Equipment Accountability Office (EAO) and organizational commanders. The selection of property custodians requires mutual agreement between these two parties. This suggests that both the EAO and organizational commanders have a say in the selection process and must come to an agreement on who will be chosen as the property custodian.

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  • 3. 

    What element within an allowance standard establishes the number of items that can be issued to an individual, activity, or organization?

    • Allowance standard

    • Authorization

    • Basis of issue

    • Unit of issue

    Correct Answer
    A. Basis of issue
    Explanation
    The basis of issue within an allowance standard establishes the number of items that can be issued to an individual, activity, or organization. This means that the basis of issue determines the quantity of items that can be distributed to each recipient, ensuring a fair and consistent distribution of resources.

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  • 4. 

    Which expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) identifies non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment items?

    • NF1

    • ND1

    • XB3

    • XD2

    Correct Answer
    A. NF1
    Explanation
    The ERRCD NF1 identifies non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment items.

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  • 5. 

    The equipment custodian uses which Air Force form to request non-equipment authorization inventory data items?

    • 2005

    • 2003

    • 2001

    • 2000

    Correct Answer
    A. 2005
    Explanation
    The equipment custodian uses Air Force form 2005 to request non-equipment authorization inventory data items.

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  • 6. 

    Which Air Force Form is used to request a change to an allowance standard or to request an item that requires approval under miscallaneous allowance source code?

    • AF 600

    • AF601

    • AF 2001

    • AF 2005

    Correct Answer
    A. AF601
    Explanation
    AF601 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force Form used to request a change to an allowance standard or to request an item that requires approval under miscellaneous allowance source code.

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  • 7. 

    Which turn-in method is used to process the TIN before picking up the property?

    • Automatic

    • Post-post

    • Directed

    • Pre-post

    Correct Answer
    A. Pre-post
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Pre-post". This turn-in method is used to process the TIN before picking up the property. It suggests that the TIN is processed in advance, prior to the property being picked up. This allows for smoother and more efficient handling of the TIN and ensures that it is ready for pickup when needed.

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  • 8. 

    What activity code is used to process non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-in's?

    • E

    • P

    • R

    • X

    Correct Answer
    A. P
    Explanation
    The activity code "P" is used to process non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-in's.

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  • 9. 

    What activity code is used to process equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-in's?

    • E

    • P

    • R

    • X

    Correct Answer
    A. E
    Explanation
    The activity code used to process equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-in's is E.

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  • 10. 

    When a piece of equipment is no longer required or authorized, the equipment management section processes what input to reduce or delete an authorization?

    • FCD

    • FIC

    • FCI

    • FID

    Correct Answer
    A. FCI
    Explanation
    The correct answer is FCI. When a piece of equipment is no longer required or authorized, the equipment management section processes the input of FCI to reduce or delete an authorization.

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  • 11. 

    Which listing is used to identify out of balance conditions?

    • Q10

    • Q09

    • M14

    • D04

    Correct Answer
    A. Q10
    Explanation
    Q10 is the correct answer because it is the only option that is related to identifying out of balance conditions. The other options (Q09, M14, D04) do not have any relevance to identifying out of balance conditions.

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  • 12. 

    When signed by the property custodian which listing serves as a custody receipt?

    • Allowance source code listing

    • Consolidated transaction register

    • Consolidated inventory document register

    • Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing

    Correct Answer
    A. Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing
    Explanation
    The custodian authorization/custody receipt listing serves as a custody receipt when signed by the property custodian. This listing is a document that authorizes the custodian to take custody of certain items and serves as a record of their responsibility for those items. By signing this listing, the custodian acknowledges that they have received the items and are accountable for their safekeeping.

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  • 13. 

    Which special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) asset is used to detect of isolate a fault or problem in online equipment?

    • Training spares

    • Test station spares

    • Shop standard spares

    • Fault isolation spares

    Correct Answer
    A. Fault isolation spares
    Explanation
    Fault isolation spares are special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets that are used to detect or isolate faults or problems in online equipment. These spares are specifically designed to help identify and troubleshoot issues in equipment, allowing for efficient maintenance and repair. By using fault isolation spares, technicians can quickly identify the source of the problem and take appropriate actions to resolve it, minimizing downtime and ensuring the equipment is back in operation as soon as possible.

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  • 14. 

    Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load, change, or delete a special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) detail?

    • 1XA

    • 1UB

    • 1WD

    • 1BS

    Correct Answer
    A. 1XA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1XA. This transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load, change, or delete a special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) detail.

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  • 15. 

    Which report provides a liting of all items authorized, on-hand, and due-out, for organizations authorized special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets?

    • D04

    • M10

    • R25

    • R43

    Correct Answer
    A. R25
    Explanation
    Report R25 provides a listing of all items authorized, on-hand, and due-out for organizations authorized special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets.

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  • 16. 

    When your base weapon assets are increased or decreased, what report do you send to the Small Arms Registry at Robins Air Force Base?

    • DSM

    • MMC

    • SRC

    • XHA

    Correct Answer
    A. DSM
    Explanation
    DSM stands for Defense Standardization Management, which is a report that is sent to the Small Arms Registry at Robins Air Force Base when there are changes in the base weapon assets. This report helps in maintaining standardized and accurate records of the small arms inventory at the base.

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  • 17. 

    What Material Management computer listing do you use to reconcile communications security and weapons assets?

    • Conversion Audit List (R22)

    • Daily Weapon/COMSEC Report (D21)

    • Weapon/COMSEC Reconciliation (R46)

    • Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10)

    Correct Answer
    A. Weapon/COMSEC Reconciliation (R46)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Weapon/COMSEC Reconciliation (R46)". This computer listing is used for reconciling communications security and weapons assets. It helps in ensuring that the inventory of weapons and communications security equipment matches the records, thus maintaining accurate and up-to-date information about these assets. The other options mentioned are not specifically related to reconciling communications security and weapons assets.

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  • 18. 

    What stock leveling term represents the maximum quantity that should be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations?

    • Economic order quantity (EOQ)

    • Condemned quantity (NCQ)

    • Requisition objective (RO)

    • Safety-level quantity (SLQ)

    Correct Answer
    A. Requisition objective (RO)
    Explanation
    The requisition objective (RO) represents the maximum quantity that should be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations. This term is used to determine the optimal level of inventory needed to meet demand and avoid stockouts or excess inventory. It helps in maintaining a balance between carrying costs and stockouts, ensuring that the necessary quantity is available without tying up excessive capital in inventory.

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  • 19. 

    Whe one-for-one stock requistioning is not needed, which adjusted minimum level should be used?

    • D

    • C

    • B

    • A

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    When one-for-one stock requisitioning is not needed, the adjusted minimum level that should be used is A.

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  • 20. 

    A request for an adjusted stock level is made on what Air Force form?

    • 86

    • 1991

    • 1996

    • 2005

    Correct Answer
    A. 1996
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1996.

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  • 21. 

    Which Material Management System program is used to review and validate adjusted stock levels?

    • R26

    • R35

    • R43

    • R45

    Correct Answer
    A. R35
    Explanation
    R35 is the correct answer because it is the Material Management System program that is used specifically for reviewing and validating adjusted stock levels. This program likely has features and functionalities that allow users to access and analyze stock data, make adjustments, and ensure that the stock levels are accurate and up-to-date.

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  • 22. 

    Readiness-based level details are identified by

    • Type detail L, activity code A.

    • Type detail L, activity code B.

    • Type detail C, activity code A.

    • Type detail C, activity code B.

    Correct Answer
    A. Type detail L, activity code A.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "type detail L, activity code A." This is because readiness-based level details are identified by the combination of type detail L and activity code A.

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  • 23. 

    Which Material Management System listing is use dot identify a possilbe readiness-based level (RBL) misallocation?

    • R35

    • R39

    • R43

    • R47

    Correct Answer
    A. R47
    Explanation
    The possible readiness-based level (RBL) misallocation can be identified by using the Material Management System listing R47.

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  • 24. 

    When item managers send directives by telephone, letter, or message communications, or in the normal redistribution order (DIC A2* or A4*) formats, what is the redistribution type?

    • Special

    • Transfer

    • Directed

    • Non-Directed

    Correct Answer
    A. Directed
    Explanation
    When item managers send directives by telephone, letter, or message communications, or in the normal redistribution order formats (DIC A2* or A4*), the redistribution type is considered "Directed." This means that the managers are specifically instructing the redistribution of items to a certain location or recipient.

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  • 25. 

    What document identification code indicates a denial to a redistribution order sent by Air Force Material Command item managers?

    • B7*

    • BLO

    • FTR

    • RDO

    Correct Answer
    A. B7*
    Explanation
    The document identification code "B7*" indicates a denial to a redistribution order sent by Air Force Material Command item managers.

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  • 26. 

    Which redistribution results when local management decides to force shipment and/or redistribution of base operating stocks?

    • Return

    • Lateral

    • Automatic

    • Nondirected

    Correct Answer
    A. Nondirected
    Explanation
    When local management decides to force shipment and/or redistribution of base operating stocks, it means that they are not specifically directing the redistribution to a particular location or direction. Instead, they are allowing the stocks to be redistributed in a non-directed or unrestricted manner. This could involve sending the stocks to multiple locations or allowing different departments or units to decide where they need the stocks the most. Hence, the correct answer is "Nondirected".

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  • 27. 

    What transaction exception code is used to process a return for an item damaged in shipment?

    • P

    • Q

    • R

    • Z

    Correct Answer
    A. P
    Explanation
    The transaction exception code "P" is used to process a return for an item damaged in shipment. This code indicates that the item is being returned due to damage during the shipping process.

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  • 28. 

    Which shipment exception code is used for assets frozen - do not ship?

    • A

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    Shipment exception code 1 is used for assets that are frozen and should not be shipped. This code indicates that there is a restriction or legal issue preventing the shipment of the assets.

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  • 29. 

    An automatic requisition to the souce of supply is identified by what document identification code?

    • AO*

    • Due Out (DUO)

    • Special Requisition (SPR)

    • Due-in Cancellation (REC)

    Correct Answer
    A. AO*
    Explanation
    An automatic requisition to the source of supply is identified by the document identification code "AO*". This code is used to initiate a request for supplies or materials from the source of supply without the need for manual intervention. It ensures a streamlined and efficient process by automatically generating the requisition and sending it to the appropriate source of supply.

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  • 30. 

    Program control uses what system to assign a requisiton priority for each requisition?

    • Core Automated Maintenance System (CAMS)

    • Military Standard Tracer Recociliation Program (MILSTAMP)

    • Military Standard Requisitioning and Issue Procedures (MILSTRIP)

    • Uniform Material Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Uniform Material Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS)
    Explanation
    The Uniform Material Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS) is used by program control to assign a requisition priority for each requisition. This system helps determine the urgency and importance of each request, allowing for efficient allocation of resources and timely fulfillment of orders. It ensures that critical items are prioritized and expedited, while non-essential items are given lower priority. UMMIPS helps streamline the process of requisitioning and issuing materials, optimizing the overall supply chain management.

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  • 31. 

    What codes are used to determine the requisitioning priority designator used at the source of supply?

    • Force activity designator (FAD), delivery priority.

    • FAD, Urgency-of-need designator (UND).

    • Urgency justification code (UJC), FAD.

    • UND, delivery priority.

    Correct Answer
    A. FAD, Urgency-of-need designator (UND).
    Explanation
    The codes used to determine the requisitioning priority designator used at the source of supply are FAD and Urgency-of-need designator (UND). These codes help in prioritizing the requisitions based on the force activity designator and the urgency of need. The FAD indicates the specific force activity or military service, while the UND indicates the urgency level of the requirement. By using these codes, the source of supply can effectively prioritize and process the requisitions accordingly.

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  • 32. 

    What coed is assigned to the item record to indicate the source of supply has cancelled a requisition?

    • SPC 5

    • SPC 1

    • REX 5

    • REX 1

    Correct Answer
    A. REX 1
    Explanation
    The correct answer, REX 1, is assigned to the item record to indicate that the source of supply has cancelled a requisition.

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  • 33. 

    Which type of military standard requisitioning and issue procedures (MILSTRIP) status results from out-of-stock conditions, new requirements, and other conditions that stop the supply source from filling the requisition exactly as it was requested?

    • Positive

    • Cancellation

    • Exception/other

    • Intransit/shipped

    Correct Answer
    A. Exception/other
    Explanation
    The MILSTRIP status "Exception/other" results from out-of-stock conditions, new requirements, and other conditions that prevent the supply source from fulfilling the requisition as requested. This status indicates that there are circumstances beyond the control of the supply source that have led to a deviation from the original request. It could include situations such as equipment failure, delays in transportation, or changes in operational priorities.

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  • 34. 

    Military Management System programs create cancellation requests to control

    • Stock replenishment.

    • Excess stockage.

    • Substitutions.

    • Back orders.

    Correct Answer
    A. Excess stockage.
    Explanation
    Military Management System programs create cancellation requests to control excess stockage. This means that when there is an excessive amount of stock in the inventory, the system generates cancellation requests to reduce the stock levels. This helps in managing and optimizing the inventory by preventing overstocking, which can lead to wastage and inefficiency. By canceling orders for excess stock, the system ensures that the inventory is maintained at an optimal level, minimizing costs and improving overall efficiency.

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  • 35. 

    What reconciliation flag on the status detail record indicates that the transaction identification code AFC action is to request improved status on a requisition?

    • A

    • C

    • F

    • R

    Correct Answer
    A. C
    Explanation
    The reconciliation flag "C" on the status detail record indicates that the transaction identification code AFC action is to request improved status on a requisition.

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  • 36. 

    Supply difficulty for Air Force-managed items are reported on which Air Force Form?

    • 1230

    • 1250

    • 1530

    • 1667

    Correct Answer
    A. 1667
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1667.

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  • 37. 

    To identify shipments that meet the tracer criteria, the military standard transportation and movement procedures (MILSTAMP) tracer reconciliation program (GV597) run at least

    • Once a month

    • Twice a month

    • Quarterly

    • Semianually

    Correct Answer
    A. Twice a month
    Explanation
    The MILSTAMP tracer reconciliation program (GV597) is run twice a month in order to identify shipments that meet the tracer criteria. This regular frequency allows for timely identification and resolution of any issues or discrepancies in the shipments. Running the program twice a month ensures that any potential problems can be addressed promptly and efficiently, minimizing any potential disruptions or delays in military transportation and movement procedures.

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  • 38. 

    Due-ins that have been received but remain in the computers because the receipts have not been completely cleared are included on which transportation tracer list?

    • Parcel post tracer list

    • Transportation tracer list

    • Receipt acknowledged error list

    • Consolidated shipment error list

    Correct Answer
    A. Receipt acknowledged error list
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Receipt acknowledged error list. This list includes due-ins that have been received but are still in the computers because the receipts have not been completely cleared. It helps to track and resolve any errors or issues related to the acknowledgment of receipts.

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  • 39. 

    Which material management program identifies all claims receivable/claims payable details that require follow-up, a report of discrepancy (ROD) or a supply discrepancy report (SDR)?

    • NVG567

    • NVG577

    • NVG587

    • NVG597

    Correct Answer
    A. NVG587
    Explanation
    The material management program NVG587 identifies all claims receivable/claims payable details that require follow-up, a report of discrepancy (ROD) or a supply discrepancy report (SDR).

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  • 40. 

    Which two listings are used to perform due-out review and validation?

    • D18 and R01

    • Q12 and R01

    • Q12 and M37

    • M37 and D18

    Correct Answer
    A. D18 and R01
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D18 and R01. These two listings, D18 and R01, are used to perform due-out review and validation.

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  • 41. 

    Hoe often are UND C due-outs validated?

    • Daily

    • Weekly

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    Correct Answer
    A. Quarterly
    Explanation
    UND C due-outs are validated on a quarterly basis. This means that the validation process occurs every three months. This frequency allows for regular checks and updates to ensure that all UND C due-outs are accurate and up-to-date. Quarterly validation helps maintain the integrity and reliability of the UND C due-out system.

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  • 42. 

    What transaction exception code is coded on the due-out detail and will prevent an automatic due-out release of assets?

    • 1, 8, H, U, X or .(period)

    • 1, 8, H, U, X or *

    • 7, 8, B, H, U or .(period)

    • 7, 8, B, H, U or *

    Correct Answer
    A. 1, 8, H, U, X or .(period)
    Explanation
    The transaction exception code that is coded on the due-out detail and will prevent an automatic due-out release of assets is 1, 8, H, U, X or .(period).

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  • 43. 

    The factors involved in the due-out release sequence are FAD, UJC, project code and

    • Receipt processing date

    • Document number date

    • Requisition number date

    • Receipt and requisitioning date

    Correct Answer
    A. Document number date
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "document number date" because the question mentions that the factors involved in the due-out release sequence are FAD, UJC, project code, and document number date. This implies that the document number date is one of the factors that determine the due-out release sequence.

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  • 44. 

    When a due-out cancellation was processed in the Core Automated Maintenance System (CAMS), what review code is used on the due-out cancellation input?

    • C

    • D

    • I

    • M

    Correct Answer
    A. M
    Explanation
    The review code "M" is used on the due-out cancellation input in the Core Automated Maintenance System (CAMS).

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  • 45. 

    How often is FEDLOG updated?

    • Daily

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Quarterly
    Explanation
    FEDLOG is updated on a quarterly basis. This means that the information in FEDLOG is reviewed and refreshed every three months. This regular update ensures that the data in FEDLOG remains current and accurate for users who rely on it for their work or research. Quarterly updates also allow for any changes or additions to be made to the information in FEDLOG, ensuring that it is always up to date with the latest data and resources.

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  • 46. 

    What CD-ROM based research system can be used to cross relate part numbers and stock numbers?

    • Core automated maintenance system (CAMS)

    • MICAP asset sourcing system (MASS)

    • FED-LOG

    • D043A

    Correct Answer
    A. FED-LOG
    Explanation
    FED-LOG is the correct answer because it is a CD-ROM based research system that can be used to cross relate part numbers and stock numbers. It is commonly used in military and government organizations to access and retrieve information about federal logistics data.

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  • 47. 

    What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to access the FEDLOG interface from a material management system environment?

    • FIL

    • 1RH

    • 1RL

    • ISU

    Correct Answer
    A. 1RH
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1RH. This TRIC is used to access the FEDLOG interface from a material management system environment.

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  • 48. 

    Illustrated parts breakdowns (IPBs) are normally identified and published by

    • Figure and index

    • Model number and series

    • -4 series of technical orders

    • -7 series of technical orders

    Correct Answer
    A. -4 series of technical orders
    Explanation
    Illustrated parts breakdowns (IPBs) are typically identified and published by a series of technical orders, specifically the -4 series. This means that the correct answer is "-4 series of technical orders."

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  • 49. 

    Which position of the source, maintenance and recoverability code (SMR) reflects the disposition action for unserviceable assets?

    • Depot

    • Source

    • Maintenance

    • Recoverability

    Correct Answer
    A. Recoverability
    Explanation
    The position of the source, maintenance, and recoverability code (SMR) that reflects the disposition action for unserviceable assets is the "Recoverability" position. This means that the code in the recoverability position determines whether the asset can be repaired, reconditioned, or salvaged for parts. If the code indicates that the asset is not recoverable, it will be disposed of or scrapped.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 28, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Smallito

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