Neuropsychology MCQs Quiz Questions And Answers

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Neuropsychology MCQs Quiz Questions And Answers - Quiz

Are you studying neuropsychology, or have you studied it already? In both cases, you can revise your memory with this short 'Neuropsychology MCQs quiz' given below. As you would know, neuropsychology is a branch of psychology that is concerned with studying how the cognition and behavior of a person are related to the brain and the nervous system. In this quiz, we'll be testing your knowledge about this topic. So, if you've studied Neuropsychology, then you must try this quiz.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

      ______ type of brain injury/event typically has the worst rehab outcome (group data)

    • A.

      Focal injuries

    • B.

      Viral infections

    • C.

      Anoxic encephalopathy

    • D.

      Stroke

    Correct Answer
    C. Anoxic encephalopathy
    Explanation
    Anoxic encephalopathy typically has the worst rehab outcome among the given options. Anoxic encephalopathy refers to a condition where the brain is deprived of oxygen, leading to damage and impairment of brain function. This type of brain injury can occur due to various causes such as cardiac arrest, suffocation, or severe respiratory failure. The lack of oxygen to the brain can result in significant and widespread damage, affecting multiple areas and functions of the brain. As a result, the rehabilitation process for individuals with anoxic encephalopathy can be challenging and may have limited success in restoring normal brain function.

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  • 2. 

    _____ and _____ are types of structural imaging techniques.

    • A.

      MRI, CT

    • B.

      SPECT, MRI (f, s)

    • C.

      SPECT, PET (f,f)

    • D.

      PET, CT (f, s)

    Correct Answer
    A. MRI, CT
    Explanation
    MRI and CT are both types of structural imaging techniques. MRI stands for Magnetic Resonance Imaging and uses a strong magnetic field and radio waves to generate detailed images of the body's internal structures. CT stands for Computed Tomography and uses X-rays to create cross-sectional images of the body. Both techniques are commonly used in medical imaging to diagnose and monitor various conditions and diseases.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following cognitive skills is usually preserved in chronic alcoholics?

    • A.

      Visual Spatial—rt hemi

    • B.

      Problem Solving—frontal

    • C.

      Executive functions—frontal

    • D.

      Verbal

    Correct Answer
    D. Verbal
    Explanation
    Verbal cognitive skills are usually preserved in chronic alcoholics. While chronic alcohol abuse can lead to various cognitive impairments, such as deficits in problem-solving, executive functions, and visual-spatial abilities, verbal skills tend to remain relatively intact. This means that individuals with alcoholism may still have the ability to understand and produce language, including speaking, reading, and writing, despite other cognitive deficits they may experience.

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  • 4. 

    Most primary brain tumors occur in the neurons. True or false? 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    False. Most primary brain tumors actually occur in the glial cells, which are the supportive cells of the brain. Neurons, on the other hand, are the nerve cells responsible for transmitting signals in the brain. While it is possible for tumors to develop in neurons, they are less common compared to tumors in glial cells.

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  • 5. 

    Petit Mal and Grand Mal seizures are forms of generalized seizures.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Petit Mal and Grand Mal seizures are both types of generalized seizures. Petit Mal seizures, also known as absence seizures, are characterized by brief periods of unconsciousness or staring spells. Grand Mal seizures, also known as tonic-clonic seizures, involve loss of consciousness, convulsions, and muscle rigidity. Both types of seizures involve abnormal electrical activity throughout the entire brain, affecting both sides. Therefore, the statement that Petit Mal and Grand Mal seizures are forms of generalized seizures is true.

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  • 6. 

    The Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery is an example of a _______ testing approach.

    • A.

      Fixed battery

    • B.

      Process

    • C.

      Developmental

    • D.

      Lurian

    Correct Answer
    A. Fixed battery
    Explanation
    The Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery is an example of a fixed battery testing approach. A fixed battery refers to a standardized set of tests that are administered in a specific order and format to assess various cognitive functions. This approach allows for consistent and reliable assessment across individuals, as the same tests are administered to everyone. The Halstead-Reitan Battery is a well-known and widely used fixed battery that assesses various aspects of brain functioning, including attention, memory, language, and motor skills.

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  • 7. 

    The production of __ is commonly reported to be reduced in Alzheimer's disease.

    • A.

      Acetylcholine

    • B.

      Dopamine

    • C.

      Epinephrine

    • D.

      GABA

    Correct Answer
    A. Acetylcholine
    Explanation
    Acetylcholine is commonly reported to be reduced in Alzheimer's disease. This neurotransmitter is involved in various cognitive functions such as memory, learning, and attention. In Alzheimer's disease, there is a progressive loss of acetylcholine-producing neurons in the brain, leading to a decrease in acetylcholine levels. This reduction in acetylcholine is believed to contribute to the cognitive decline and memory impairment observed in individuals with Alzheimer's disease.

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  • 8. 

    Which one of the following is not considered a symptom of children with nonverbal disabilities?

    • A.

      Poor reading decoding

    • B.

      Poor math skills

    • C.

      Poor social skills

    • D.

      Poor visual spatial functioning

    Correct Answer
    A. Poor reading decoding
    Explanation
    Poor reading decoding is not considered a symptom of children with nonverbal disabilities. Nonverbal disabilities typically refer to difficulties in understanding and using nonverbal communication, such as body language and facial expressions. Poor reading decoding, on the other hand, is related to difficulties in recognizing and pronouncing words accurately. While poor reading decoding can be a symptom of other learning disabilities, it is not specifically associated with nonverbal disabilities.

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  • 9. 

    A stroke in which there is excessive bleeding is called a ___ stroke.

    • A.

      Anoxic-no O2

    • B.

      Ischemic-thrombosis, emboli

    • C.

      Diffuse

    • D.

      Hemorrhagic

    Correct Answer
    D. Hemorrhagic
    Explanation
    A stroke in which there is excessive bleeding is called a hemorrhagic stroke. This type of stroke occurs when a blood vessel in the brain ruptures or leaks, leading to bleeding and damage to the surrounding brain tissue. Hemorrhagic strokes can be caused by conditions such as high blood pressure, aneurysms, or arteriovenous malformations. Unlike an ischemic stroke, which is caused by a blockage in a blood vessel, a hemorrhagic stroke requires immediate medical attention to stop the bleeding and prevent further damage to the brain.

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  • 10. 

    The __ lobe is responsible for processing vision.

    • A.

      Frontal

    • B.

      Temporal

    • C.

      Parietal

    • D.

      Occipital

    Correct Answer
    D. Occipital
    Explanation
    The occipital lobe is responsible for processing vision. It is located at the back of the brain and contains the primary visual cortex, which receives and processes visual information from the eyes. This lobe plays a crucial role in interpreting and perceiving visual stimuli, allowing us to see and recognize objects, colors, shapes, and movements. Damage to the occipital lobe can result in visual impairments or even blindness.

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  • 11. 

    A GCS score of 8 (at the scene of an accident would be indicative of a __ injury.

    • A.

      Mild

    • B.

      Moderate

    • C.

      Severe

    • D.

      Profound

    Correct Answer
    C. Severe
    Explanation
    A GCS score of 8 indicates a severe injury. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a neurological scale that assesses a person's level of consciousness after a brain injury. It evaluates eye-opening, verbal response, and motor response. A score of 8 suggests that the person is experiencing significant neurological impairment and is likely to have severe damage to the brain.

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  • 12. 

    Neural proliferations occurs at __ during embryogenesis.

    • A.

      3-7 weeks

    • B.

      5-6 weeks

    • C.

      2-4 months

    • D.

      6 months

    Correct Answer
    C. 2-4 months
    Explanation
    During embryogenesis, neural proliferations occur at 2-4 months. This is the period when the neural tube is forming and neural cells are rapidly dividing and proliferating. This process is crucial for the development of the central nervous system. After this stage, neural cells continue to differentiate and migrate to their final positions, forming the complex structure of the brain and spinal cord.

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  • 13. 

    At 9 months of age an infant should be able to do all of the following except:

    • A.

      Creep

    • B.

      Say mama and dada

    • C.

      Make a pincer movement with thumb and finger

    • D.

      Stand alone/without support

    Correct Answer
    D. Stand alone/without support
    Explanation
    At 9 months of age, most infants are not able to stand alone or without support. This is because their leg muscles and balance are still developing, and they may not have the necessary strength and coordination to maintain an upright position without assistance. However, by this age, infants should be able to creep (crawl on hands and knees), say simple words like "mama" and "dada," and make a pincer movement with their thumb and finger to pick up small objects.

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  • 14. 

    Dyslexia has been associated with abnormal symmetry of the __ area.

    • A.

      Insular cortex

    • B.

      Broca's area

    • C.

      Planum Temporale

    • D.

      Postcentral gyrus

    Correct Answer
    C. Planum Temporale
    Explanation
    Dyslexia has been associated with abnormal symmetry of the Planum Temporale. The Planum Temporale is a region of the brain that is involved in language processing and auditory functions. Studies have shown that individuals with dyslexia often have differences in the size and symmetry of the Planum Temporale compared to individuals without dyslexia. This abnormal symmetry may contribute to difficulties in reading and language processing that are characteristic of dyslexia.

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  • 15. 

    The __ area of the brain continues the myelination process into the 2nd and 3rd decades of life.

    • A.

      Prefrontal

    • B.

      Limbic

    • C.

      Occipital

    • D.

      Precentral gyrus

    Correct Answer
    A. Prefrontal
    Explanation
    The prefrontal area of the brain is responsible for higher cognitive functions such as decision-making, problem-solving, and impulse control. It is known to continue the myelination process, which is the formation of a protective sheath around nerve fibers, into the 2nd and 3rd decades of life. This ongoing myelination process in the prefrontal area is crucial for the development of executive functions and the maturation of cognitive abilities during adolescence and early adulthood.

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  • 16. 

    HIV is known as a ___.

    • A.

      Demylinating disease

    • B.

      Slow virus

    • C.

      Retro virus

    • D.

      Herpes simplex virus

    Correct Answer
    C. Retro virus
    Explanation
    HIV is known as a retrovirus because it belongs to a family of RNA viruses that replicate using reverse transcription. This means that the virus converts its RNA genome into DNA and integrates it into the host cell's DNA. Retroviruses, including HIV, have the ability to persist in the body for long periods of time and can cause chronic infections.

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  • 17. 

    Which subtest on the WAIS-III is most sensitive to brain impairment?

    • A.

      Vocab

    • B.

      Information

    • C.

      Block design

    • D.

      Digit symbol coding

    Correct Answer
    D. Digit symbol coding
    Explanation
    The digit symbol coding subtest on the WAIS-III is most sensitive to brain impairment because it requires the individual to quickly and accurately match symbols with specific numbers. This subtest assesses cognitive processing speed, attention, and visual-motor coordination, which are all functions that can be affected by brain impairment. Impairments in these areas can result from various conditions such as traumatic brain injury, stroke, or neurodegenerative diseases. Therefore, a decline in performance on the digit symbol coding subtest may indicate the presence of brain impairment.

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  • 18. 

    In the __ phase of embryogenesis, the neural place folds over itself to form the neural tube.

    • A.

      Dorsal induction

    • B.

      Ventral induction

    • C.

      Migration

    • D.

      Mylenation

    Correct Answer
    A. Dorsal induction
    Explanation
    During the dorsal induction phase of embryogenesis, the neural plate undergoes a process called neurulation. This is when the edges of the neural plate fold inwards and fuse together to form the neural tube. The neural tube eventually develops into the brain and spinal cord. Therefore, the correct answer is dorsal induction.

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  • 19. 

    You would expect dysfunction in the __ in Parkinson's disease.

    • A.

      Hippocampus

    • B.

      Hypothalamus

    • C.

      Caudate nucleus

    • D.

      Cerebellum

    Correct Answer
    C. Caudate nucleus
    Explanation
    In Parkinson's disease, dysfunction in the caudate nucleus is expected. The caudate nucleus is a part of the basal ganglia, which plays a crucial role in movement control. Parkinson's disease is characterized by the degeneration of dopamine-producing cells in the substantia nigra, leading to a dopamine deficiency in the caudate nucleus. This dopamine deficiency results in the motor symptoms associated with Parkinson's disease, such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Dysfunction in other brain regions, such as the hippocampus, hypothalamus, or cerebellum, is not typically associated with Parkinson's disease.

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  • 20. 

    Depression is typically associated with __ functioning of the __ area of the brain.

    • A.

      Reduced, left frontal

    • B.

      Reduced, right frontal

    • C.

      Increased, left frontal

    • D.

      Increased, right frontal

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduced, left frontal
    Explanation
    Depression is typically associated with reduced functioning of the left frontal area of the brain. This is supported by research that indicates decreased activity in the left frontal cortex in individuals with depression. The left frontal area of the brain is involved in regulating emotions and mood, so reduced functioning in this region can contribute to the symptoms of depression.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following biological changes has not been found in patients with an eating disorder?

    • A.

      Decrease in dopamine

    • B.

      Decrease in norepinephrine

    • C.

      Hypercortisolism

    • D.

      Reduced left basal ganglia functioning

    Correct Answer
    D. Reduced left basal ganglia functioning
    Explanation
    Patients with eating disorders have been found to have various biological changes, including a decrease in dopamine, a decrease in norepinephrine, and hypercortisolism. However, reduced left basal ganglia functioning has not been found in patients with an eating disorder. The basal ganglia are involved in various functions such as movement, motivation, and reward processing, but there is no evidence to suggest that reduced functioning in the left basal ganglia is specifically associated with eating disorders.

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  • 22. 

    Which neuroradiological test is most useful in diagnosing seizures?

    • A.

      EMG

    • B.

      MRI

    • C.

      SPECT

    • D.

      EEG

    Correct Answer
    D. EEG
    Explanation
    EEG (electroencephalogram) is the most useful neuroradiological test in diagnosing seizures. This test measures the electrical activity in the brain and can detect abnormal patterns associated with seizures. Unlike other options such as EMG (electromyography), MRI (magnetic resonance imaging), and SPECT (single-photon emission computed tomography), EEG specifically focuses on brain activity and can provide valuable information about the type and location of seizures. Therefore, EEG is the preferred test for diagnosing seizures.

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  • 23. 

    A ___ seizure is one in which there is a bilateral symmetrical attack without local onset.

    • A.

      Generalized

    • B.

      Complex partial

    • C.

      Focal

    • D.

      Lurian

    Correct Answer
    A. Generalized
    Explanation
    A generalized seizure is a type of seizure that involves both sides of the brain simultaneously, resulting in a bilateral symmetrical attack without a specific local onset. This means that the seizure activity affects the entire brain from the beginning, rather than starting in a specific area and spreading. Generalized seizures can cause loss of consciousness, convulsions, and other widespread symptoms.

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  • 24. 

    Korsajoff's syndrome is a result of a ___ deficiency combined ( in some cases) with the excessive use of alcohol.

    • A.

      Iron

    • B.

      Vitamin B1

    • C.

      Vitamin B12

    • D.

      Oxygen

    Correct Answer
    B. Vitamin B1
    Explanation
    Korsakoff's syndrome is a neurological disorder that is primarily caused by a deficiency in vitamin B1 (thiamine). This deficiency can be further exacerbated by the excessive consumption of alcohol. Thiamine plays a crucial role in the proper functioning of the nervous system, and its deficiency can lead to a range of symptoms such as memory loss, confusion, and difficulty in learning new information. Therefore, the correct answer is vitamin B1.

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  • 25. 

    A 75-year-old woman enters your office complaining of visual hallucinations, which started 6 months ago.  She has no previous psychological/psychiatric history and never had hallucinations before.  She worked successfully for many years and raised a family.  Which one of the following diagnoses would not likely be responsible for her symptoms?

    • A.

      Vascular disease

    • B.

      Temporal lobe epilepsy

    • C.

      Temporal lobe tumor

    • D.

      Schizophrenia

    Correct Answer
    D. Schizophrenia
    Explanation
    The correct answer is schizophrenia because the patient has no previous psychological/psychiatric history and never had hallucinations before. Schizophrenia is a chronic mental disorder characterized by hallucinations, delusions, and other cognitive impairments. However, in this case, the patient's symptoms started recently and there is no evidence of a previous psychiatric history, making schizophrenia less likely. The other options (vascular disease, temporal lobe epilepsy, temporal lobe tumor) can all cause visual hallucinations and should be considered as potential diagnoses.

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  • 26. 

    Depression is associated with hypoperfusion (reduced metabolic activity) in which areas of the brain?

    • A.

      Left frontal and left caudate nucleus

    • B.

      Left frontal and left parietal lobe

    • C.

      Left frontal and right caudate nucleus

    • D.

      Right partial and right caudate nucleus

    Correct Answer
    A. Left frontal and left caudate nucleus
    Explanation
    Depression is associated with hypoperfusion, which refers to reduced metabolic activity, in the left frontal and left caudate nucleus areas of the brain.

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  • 27. 

    The primary function of the thalamus is ___

    • A.

      Memory

    • B.

      Maintaining body homeostasis

    • C.

      Arousal

    • D.

      Relaying info to/from the body from/to the brain

    Correct Answer
    D. Relaying info to/from the body from/to the brain
    Explanation
    The thalamus serves as a relay station for sensory information traveling to and from the body and the brain. It receives sensory input from various parts of the body and relays it to the appropriate areas in the brain for further processing. Similarly, it also relays motor commands from the brain to the body, allowing for voluntary movement. Therefore, the primary function of the thalamus is to relay information to and from the body and the brain.

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  • 28. 

    Which one of the following symptoms would you not expect in HIV dementia?

    • A.

      Slow processing speed

    • B.

      Personality changes

    • C.

      Receptive language problems

    • D.

      Motor disturbances

    Correct Answer
    C. Receptive language problems
    Explanation
    Receptive language problems would not be expected in HIV dementia because this condition primarily affects cognitive and motor functions rather than language abilities. HIV dementia is characterized by symptoms such as slow processing speed, personality changes, and motor disturbances. Receptive language problems typically indicate a different type of neurological disorder and are not commonly associated with HIV dementia.

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  • 29. 

    If a patient looks at a picture of a beaver and says that it is an animal that cuts down trees with his teeth. This is an example of a ___ paraphasic errors found in patients with ___ Dementia.

    • A.

      Semantic, vascular

    • B.

      Literal, alzheimer's

    • C.

      Literal, vascular

    • D.

      Semantic, alzheimers

    Correct Answer
    D. Semantic, alzheimers
    Explanation
    This is an example of a semantic paraphasic error found in patients with Alzheimer's dementia. In Alzheimer's dementia, there is a decline in semantic memory, which is the ability to recall and understand the meaning of words and concepts. The patient's error in associating the beaver with cutting down trees with its teeth demonstrates a loss of semantic knowledge and an inability to accurately categorize and label objects.

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  • 30. 

    Schizophrenia is associated with hyper functionality (inc. function) of the ___ lobe in PET imaging.

    • A.

      Temporal

    • B.

      Frontal

    • C.

      Occipital

    • D.

      Parietal

    Correct Answer
    A. Temporal
    Explanation
    Schizophrenia is associated with hyper functionality of the temporal lobe in PET imaging. This means that there is increased activity in the temporal lobe of the brain in individuals with schizophrenia. The temporal lobe is responsible for various functions such as memory, language, and auditory processing. The hyper functionality of the temporal lobe in schizophrenia may contribute to the symptoms experienced by individuals with this disorder, including hallucinations and delusions.

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  • 31. 

    Which type of dopamine receptor has been found to be hypersensitive in schizophrenia and amenable to change with a majority of antipsychotic medications?

    • A.

      D1

    • B.

      D2

    • C.

      D3

    • D.

      D4

    Correct Answer
    B. D2
    Explanation
    The D2 dopamine receptor has been found to be hypersensitive in schizophrenia and can be altered with the majority of antipsychotic medications. This receptor is involved in regulating dopamine levels in the brain, and abnormalities in its functioning have been implicated in the development of schizophrenia. Antipsychotic medications work by blocking or modulating the activity of D2 receptors, helping to alleviate symptoms of the disorder. Therefore, the D2 receptor is the correct answer as it is the receptor type that is hypersensitive in schizophrenia and targeted by antipsychotic medications.

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  • 32. 

    Which one of the following is not a stage in a generalized seizure?

    • A.

      Tonic

    • B.

      Clonic

    • C.

      Postical

    • D.

      Epilecticus

    Correct Answer
    D. Epilecticus
    Explanation
    The term "epilecticus" is not a recognized stage in a generalized seizure. Generalized seizures typically involve tonic (muscle stiffness), clonic (muscle jerking), and postictal (recovery) stages. The term "epilecticus" does not correspond to any known stage in the seizure process.

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  • 33. 

    Which two areas of the brain are typically most affected in traumatic brain injury resulting from motor vehicle accidents?

    • A.

      Frontal and occipital

    • B.

      Frontal and parietal

    • C.

      Frontal and mesial temporal

    • D.

      Frontal and lateral temporal

    Correct Answer
    C. Frontal and mesial temporal
    Explanation
    Traumatic brain injury resulting from motor vehicle accidents typically affects the frontal and mesial temporal areas of the brain. The frontal lobe is responsible for executive functions, such as decision-making and problem-solving, as well as personality and behavior. The mesial temporal lobe, which includes the hippocampus, is involved in memory formation and emotional regulation. Motor vehicle accidents often involve high-impact forces and sudden deceleration, leading to frontal lobe contusions and damage to the mesial temporal lobe due to its proximity to bony structures like the skull.

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  • 34. 

    Downs syndrome is thought to be due to a breakdown at which stage of neural development.

    • A.

      Ventral induction

    • B.

      Migration

    • C.

      Organization

    • D.

      Mylenation

    Correct Answer
    C. Organization
    Explanation
    Down syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. This additional genetic material disrupts the normal organization of cells during neural development. Organization refers to the process of cells arranging themselves into specific patterns and structures. In the case of Down syndrome, this organization is disrupted, leading to abnormalities in the development of the nervous system. Therefore, organization is the stage of neural development that is thought to be affected in Down syndrome.

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  • 35. 

    At which stage of neural development does the brain split into two hemispheres?

    • A.

      Ventral induction

    • B.

      Dorsal induction

    • C.

      Neural proliferation

    • D.

      Migration

    Correct Answer
    C. Neural proliferation
    Explanation
    During neural proliferation, the brain undergoes rapid cell division and growth. This stage occurs early in neural development and is responsible for the formation of the neural tube, which eventually develops into the brain and spinal cord. As the cells continue to divide, the brain eventually splits into two hemispheres, with each hemisphere containing specialized regions responsible for different functions. Therefore, neural proliferation is the stage at which the brain splits into two hemispheres.

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  • 36. 

    A touch to the right knee is first perceived in the ____

    • A.

      Left postcentral gyrus

    • B.

      Left precentral gyrus

    • C.

      Occipital lobe

    • D.

      Temporal lobe

    Correct Answer
    A. Left postcentral gyrus
    Explanation
    The left postcentral gyrus is responsible for processing sensory information from the right side of the body, including touch. When a touch is felt on the right knee, the sensory information is sent to the left postcentral gyrus for perception and interpretation. The other options, such as the left precentral gyrus, occipital lobe, and temporal lobe, are not directly involved in processing touch sensations from the knee.

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  • 37. 

    A tumor that starts in the brain is called a ___ tumor.

    • A.

      Primary

    • B.

      Secondary

    • C.

      Metastic

    • D.

      Meningioma

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary
    Explanation
    A tumor that starts in the brain is called a primary tumor because it originates in the brain itself. Secondary tumors refer to tumors that have spread to the brain from another part of the body, while metastatic tumors refer to tumors that have spread from their original site to other parts of the body. Meningioma is a specific type of primary brain tumor that arises from the meninges, the protective membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord.

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  • 38. 

    Which area of the brain is relatively spared in Alzheimer's disease?

    • A.

      Frontal lobe

    • B.

      Temporal lobe

    • C.

      Parietal lobe

    • D.

      Occipital lobe

    Correct Answer
    D. Occipital lobe
    Explanation
    In Alzheimer's disease, the occipital lobe is relatively spared. This means that this specific area of the brain is less affected by the disease compared to other lobes such as the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. The occipital lobe is primarily responsible for visual processing and perception, so its relative preservation may explain why individuals with Alzheimer's disease often maintain some visual abilities even in the later stages of the disease.

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  • 39. 

    Schizophrenia is associated with hypo functionality (dec. functioning) of the __lobe on PET imaging.

    • A.

      Temporal

    • B.

      Frontal

    • C.

      Occipital

    • D.

      Parietal

    Correct Answer
    B. Frontal
    Explanation
    Schizophrenia is associated with hypo functionality (decreased functioning) of the frontal lobe on PET imaging. PET imaging is a neuroimaging technique that measures brain activity by detecting the uptake of a radioactive tracer. Studies have shown that individuals with schizophrenia often exhibit decreased metabolic activity in the frontal lobe, which is involved in various cognitive functions such as decision-making, problem-solving, and social behavior. This hypo functionality in the frontal lobe may contribute to the cognitive and behavioral symptoms observed in schizophrenia.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following is NOT one of the top 3 areas of the body that produce metastatic brain tumors?

    • A.

      Breast

    • B.

      Colon

    • C.

      Stromach

    • D.

      Lung

    Correct Answer
    C. Stromach
    Explanation
    The question asks for the area of the body that does NOT produce metastatic brain tumors. The correct answer is "stromach" (stomach) because it is not one of the top 3 areas that commonly produce metastatic brain tumors. The top 3 areas are breast, colon, and lung.

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  • 41. 

    Migration of neurons in embryogenesis occurs at ___

    • A.

      3-7 weeks gestational age

    • B.

      3-5 months gestational age

    • C.

      6-8 months gestational age

    • D.

      8 months gestational age to infancy

    Correct Answer
    D. 8 months gestational age to infancy
    Explanation
    During embryogenesis, the migration of neurons occurs from around 8 months gestational age to infancy. This is the period when neurons move from their place of origin to their final location in the developing brain. It is a crucial process for the proper formation and organization of the nervous system.

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  • 42. 

    Neuritic plaques frond in the neurons of patient's with Alzheimer's disease related to ___

    • A.

      Elevated aluminum level

    • B.

      Cowdry A bodies

    • C.

      Reduced acetylcholine production

    • D.

      Increased presence of B-amyloid protein

    Correct Answer
    D. Increased presence of B-amyloid protein
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Increased presence of B-amyloid protein." Neuritic plaques, a hallmark of Alzheimer's disease, are formed by the accumulation of B-amyloid protein in the brain. These plaques are found in the neurons of patients with Alzheimer's disease and are believed to contribute to the neurodegeneration and cognitive decline seen in the disease. Elevated aluminum levels, Cowdry A bodies, and reduced acetylcholine production are not directly related to the formation of neuritic plaques in Alzheimer's disease.

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  • 43. 

    Aricept in a (n) ____.

    • A.

      Acetylcholine antagonist

    • B.

      GABA antagonist

    • C.

      Acytylcholineesterase Inhibitor

    • D.

      Acytylcholineesterase facilatatator

    Correct Answer
    C. Acytylcholineesterase Inhibitor
    Explanation
    Aricept is classified as an Acetylcholinesterase Inhibitor. This means that it works by blocking the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, which breaks down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. By inhibiting this enzyme, Aricept increases the levels of acetylcholine in the brain, which can help improve cognitive function in conditions such as Alzheimer's disease.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is not a risk factor for vascular dementia?

    • A.

      High blood pressure

    • B.

      Elevated cholesterol

    • C.

      Alzheimer's disease

    • D.

      Smoking

    Correct Answer
    C. Alzheimer's disease
    Explanation
    Alzheimer's disease is not a risk factor for vascular dementia because they are two distinct types of dementia. While both conditions can cause cognitive impairment, vascular dementia is caused by reduced blood flow to the brain due to damaged blood vessels, while Alzheimer's disease is characterized by the buildup of abnormal proteins in the brain. Therefore, having Alzheimer's disease does not increase the risk of developing vascular dementia.

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  • 45. 

    Which area of the brain is relatively spared in individuals with chronic alcohol abuse?

    • A.

      Subcortical

    • B.

      Temporal

    • C.

      Frontal

    • D.

      Right hemisphere

    Correct Answer
    B. Temporal
    Explanation
    Individuals with chronic alcohol abuse often experience significant damage to the brain, particularly in the frontal and subcortical regions. However, the temporal lobe is relatively spared from the effects of alcohol abuse. This may be due to the fact that the temporal lobe is less vulnerable to the toxic effects of alcohol compared to other brain regions. The sparing of the temporal lobe may help to explain why individuals with chronic alcohol abuse can still have intact memory and language functions, which are primarily controlled by this area of the brain.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following would be considered abnormal in an 18-month-old child?

    • A.

      Walking independenly

    • B.

      Moro response present

    • C.

      Moro response absent

    • D.

      6-20 word vocabulary

    Correct Answer
    B. Moro response present
    Explanation
    The Moro response is a primitive reflex that is typically present in newborns and gradually disappears by the age of 6 months. Therefore, if the Moro response is still present in an 18-month-old child, it would be considered abnormal. This reflex involves the baby's arms extending outwards and then bringing them back in when they feel a sudden change in their position or a loud noise. Its persistence beyond the expected age range could indicate a neurological or developmental issue.

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  • 47. 

    A GCS score of 4 (at the scene of an accident would be indicative of a ___ injury.

    • A.

      Mild

    • B.

      Moderate

    • C.

      Severe

    • D.

      Prfound

    Correct Answer
    C. Severe
    Explanation
    A GCS score of 4 indicates a severe injury. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess a person's level of consciousness after a head injury or trauma. It evaluates eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. A score of 4 suggests that the person is in a deep state of unconsciousness and is unable to open their eyes, make any verbal response, or exhibit any purposeful movement. This level of impairment signifies a severe injury that requires immediate medical attention.

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  • 48. 

    ____ is when the post synaptic cell develops a heightened sensitivity to a neurotransmitter following a brain injury.

    • A.

      Regeneration

    • B.

      Sprouting

    • C.

      Denervation supersensitivity

    • D.

      Dishinibition of compensatory zone

    Correct Answer
    C. Denervation supersensitivity
    Explanation
    Denervation supersensitivity is when the post synaptic cell becomes more sensitive to a neurotransmitter after a brain injury. This heightened sensitivity occurs because the nerve fibers that normally release the neurotransmitter are damaged or lost, leading to an increased responsiveness of the remaining receptors on the post synaptic cell. This phenomenon can result in abnormal neuronal activity and potentially contribute to the development of neurological symptoms following a brain injury.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following is NOT a common neuropathological finding in Autism?

    • A.

      Cerebellar atrophy

    • B.

      Low activitation of fronto-parietal regions

    • C.

      Increased ventricular size

    • D.

      Reduced brainstem activity

    Correct Answer
    D. Reduced brainstem activity
    Explanation
    Reduced brainstem activity is not a common neuropathological finding in Autism. Autism is typically associated with abnormalities in brain structure and function, including increased ventricular size, low activation of fronto-parietal regions, and cerebellar atrophy. However, reduced brainstem activity is not commonly observed in individuals with Autism.

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  • 50. 

    Holopronsencephaly is likely a result of a deviation in which stage of enbryogeneis

    • A.

      Ventral induction

    • B.

      Secondary neurolation

    • C.

      Organization

    • D.

      Migration

    Correct Answer
    A. Ventral induction
    Explanation
    Holoprosencephaly is a developmental disorder characterized by incomplete separation of the forebrain during embryogenesis. Ventral induction refers to the process by which the ventral (bottom) structures of the brain are formed. Therefore, a deviation in ventral induction could lead to abnormalities in the development of the brain, potentially resulting in holoprosencephaly. This suggests that ventral induction is the stage of embryogenesis that is likely affected in individuals with holoprosencephaly.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • May 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 08, 2009
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    Vwproprofs
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