NCCT - Medical Office Management - Part A - Law & Ethics

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NCCT - Medical Office Management - Part A - Law & Ethics - Quiz

In the following NCCT (National Centre for Competency Testing) exam we’ll look at your general knowledge on the topics of law and ethics – two subjects incredibly important for understanding the basic principles that go toward being a good person and why a person should utilise them. How much do you know about ethics and upholding the law? Let’s find out right now! Good luck, you might need it!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    RIGHT & WRONG CONDUCT IS KNOWN AS?

    • A.

      EMPATHY

    • B.

      CRIMINAL LAW

    • C.

      ETHICS

    • D.

      LICENSURE

    Correct Answer
    C. ETHICS
    Explanation
    Ethics refers to the principles and values that guide individuals in determining what is right or wrong in their conduct. It involves considering the impact of one's actions on others and making decisions that are morally and socially acceptable. In this context, ethics is the correct answer as it encompasses the concept of right and wrong conduct. Empathy, on the other hand, refers to understanding and sharing the feelings of others, while criminal law and licensure are specific legal frameworks and requirements, respectively, that may govern certain behaviors but do not encompass the broader concept of right and wrong conduct.

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  • 2. 

    THE MOST COMMON TYPE OF MEDICAL TORT LIABILITY IS?

    • A.

      NEGLIGENCE

    • B.

      BREACH OF CONTRACT

    • C.

      BREACH OF CONFIDENCE

    • D.

      FRAUD AND DECEIT

    Correct Answer
    A. NEGLIGENCE
    Explanation
    Negligence is the most common type of medical tort liability. Medical professionals have a duty of care towards their patients, and if they fail to meet the accepted standard of care, resulting in harm or injury to the patient, it can be considered negligence. This can include errors in diagnosis, treatment, or failure to warn about potential risks. Negligence claims are based on the principle that healthcare providers have a responsibility to provide competent and reasonable care to their patients, and if they breach this duty, they may be held liable for any resulting damages.

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  • 3. 

    A PERSON BEING SUED IS CALLED THE?

    • A.

      PLAINTIFF

    • B.

      TORT

    • C.

      DEFENDANT

    • D.

      CRIMINAL LAW

    Correct Answer
    C. DEFENDANT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DEFENDANT. In a legal case, the person who is being sued or accused is referred to as the defendant. They are the party that must defend themselves against the claims or charges brought against them. The plaintiff, on the other hand, is the party who initiates the lawsuit or brings the charges against the defendant. "Tort" refers to a civil wrong or injury, and "criminal law" pertains to offenses against society as a whole.

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  • 4. 

    THE WITHDRAWAL OF A PHYSICIAN FROM THE CARE OF A PATIENT WITHOUT REASONABLE NOTICE OF SUCH DISCHARGE FROM THE CASE BY THE PATIENT IS?

    • A.

      CONTRACT

    • B.

      REASONABLE CARE

    • C.

      NEGLIGENCE

    • D.

      ABANDONMENT

    Correct Answer
    D. ABANDONMENT
    Explanation
    Abandonment refers to the withdrawal of a physician from the care of a patient without giving the patient reasonable notice or a valid reason for the discharge. This act is considered unethical and can have serious consequences for the patient's health and well-being. It is important for physicians to provide proper notice and ensure a smooth transition of care to another healthcare provider to avoid abandonment.

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  • 5. 

    AN UNLAWFUL THREAT OR ATTEMPT TO DO BODILY INJURY TO ANTOHER IS?

    • A.

      LITIGATION

    • B.

      ASSAULT

    • C.

      CRIME

    • D.

      LIBEL

    Correct Answer
    B. ASSAULT
    Explanation
    Assault is the correct answer because it refers to an unlawful threat or attempt to do bodily injury to another person. It is a specific crime that involves the intentional act of causing apprehension of harmful or offensive contact. Assault does not necessarily involve physical contact, but rather the intention to cause harm or fear in another person. Litigation refers to the process of taking legal action, crime refers to any illegal activity, and libel refers to a false written statement that damages a person's reputation.

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  • 6. 

    THE HEALTH WORKER IS PROTECTED BY LAW IF IT CAN BE DETERMINED THAT HE OR SHE ACTED REASONABLE AS COMPARED WITH FELLOW WORKERS. THIS IS CALLED?

    • A.

      RESPONDEAT SUPERIOR

    • B.

      REASONABLE CARE

    • C.

      DUTY OF CARE

    • D.

      STATUTE

    Correct Answer
    B. REASONABLE CARE
    Explanation
    The correct answer is REASONABLE CARE. The explanation for this is that the health worker is protected by law if it can be determined that he or she acted reasonably in comparison to fellow workers. This means that the health worker took appropriate and sensible actions in their role, considering the circumstances and the standard of care expected from others in the same profession. By exercising reasonable care, the health worker can avoid liability for any harm or injury caused to a patient.

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  • 7. 

    NEGLIGENCE BY A PROFESSIONAL PERSON IS CALLED?

    • A.

      INVASION OF PRIVACY

    • B.

      SLANDER

    • C.

      MALPRACTICE

    • D.

      TORT

    Correct Answer
    C. MALPRACTICE
    Explanation
    Malpractice refers to the negligence or misconduct by a professional person, such as a doctor or lawyer, in the course of their professional duties. It is the failure to provide the standard of care expected from a professional, resulting in harm or injury to the client or patient. This term is commonly used in the medical and legal fields, but can be applied to any profession where a duty of care is owed to the client or patient.

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  • 8. 

    AN ACT THAT VIOLATES CRIMINAL LAW IS CALLED?

    • A.

      DEFAMATION

    • B.

      CRIME

    • C.

      LIBEL

    • D.

      SLANDER

    Correct Answer
    B. CRIME
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CRIME because an act that violates criminal law is generally referred to as a crime. Criminal laws are established by a governing body to maintain order and protect society, and any action that goes against these laws is considered a criminal offense. Defamation, libel, and slander are all related to civil law, which deals with disputes between individuals rather than criminal offenses.

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  • 9. 

    THE BREAKING OF A LAW, PROMISE, OR DUTY IS CALLED?

    • A.

      STATUTE

    • B.

      BREACH

    • C.

      CONSENT

    • D.

      INCOMPETENT

    Correct Answer
    B. BREACH
    Explanation
    A breach refers to the act of breaking or violating a law, promise, or duty. It implies the failure to fulfill an obligation or commitment. In legal terms, a breach can occur in various contexts, such as breach of contract, breach of trust, or breach of confidentiality. It signifies the infringement or disregard of a legal or moral obligation, resulting in a violation of the established norms or expectations.

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  • 10. 

    THE ABILITY TO SEE THINGS FROM ANOTHER PERSON'S POINT OF VIEW IS?

    • A.

      CONSENT

    • B.

      RESPONDEAT SUPERIOR

    • C.

      EMPATHY

    • D.

      ETHICS

    Correct Answer
    C. EMPATHY
    Explanation
    Empathy is the ability to understand and share the feelings of another person. It involves putting oneself in someone else's shoes and seeing things from their perspective. This skill allows individuals to connect with others on a deeper level, fostering understanding, compassion, and effective communication. Empathy is crucial in building positive relationships, resolving conflicts, and promoting mutual respect and cooperation. It plays a significant role in various aspects of life, including personal relationships, professional settings, and societal interactions.

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  • 11. 

    THE TIME ESTABLISHED FOR FILING LAW SUITS IS?

    • A.

      CIVIL LAW

    • B.

      STATUTE OF LIMITATIONS

    • C.

      CONTRACT

    • D.

      NO CORRECT ANSWER

    Correct Answer
    B. STATUTE OF LIMITATIONS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "STATUTE OF LIMITATIONS." In civil law, there is a specific time period established for filing lawsuits, known as the statute of limitations. This time limit varies depending on the type of case and jurisdiction. Once the statute of limitations has expired, the plaintiff is generally barred from bringing the lawsuit. Therefore, understanding and adhering to the statute of limitations is crucial in civil law cases.

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  • 12. 

    A WRIT THAT COMMANDS A WITNESS TO APPEAR AT A TRIAL OR OTHER PROCEEDING AND TO GIVE TESTIMONY IS A(N)?

    • A.

      HABEAS CORPUS

    • B.

      TORT OF APPEARANCE

    • C.

      SUBPOENA

    • D.

      TORT ET A TRAVERS

    Correct Answer
    C. SUBPOENA
    Explanation
    A writ that commands a witness to appear at a trial or other proceeding and to give testimony is called a subpoena. A subpoena is a legal document issued by a court that requires a person to testify or provide evidence in a legal case. It is used to compel the attendance of witnesses and ensure their cooperation in the proceedings.

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  • 13. 

    A WRONG COMMITTED AGAINST ANOTHER PERSON OR THE PERSON'S PROPERTY IS A?

    • A.

      DEFAMATION

    • B.

      LIBEL

    • C.

      TORT

    • D.

      PLAINTIFF

    Correct Answer
    C. TORT
    Explanation
    A tort refers to a wrongful act committed against another person or their property. It is a legal term that encompasses various types of civil wrongs, such as negligence, assault, battery, and defamation. Defamation and libel are specific types of torts that involve making false statements that harm a person's reputation. Therefore, the correct answer is tort, as it is the broad category that includes all types of wrongful acts committed against others.

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  • 14. 

    HOLDING OR DETAINING A PERSON AGAINST HIS WILL IS?

    • A.

      FALSE IMPRISONMENT

    • B.

      CRIME

    • C.

      INCOMPETENT

    • D.

      DUTY OF CARE

    Correct Answer
    A. FALSE IMPRISONMENT
    Explanation
    False imprisonment refers to the act of unlawfully restraining or confining a person against their will, without any legal justification or authority. It is considered a crime because it violates an individual's freedom and personal liberty. This can involve physical restraint or the threat of force, and it is typically done without legal justification or consent. False imprisonment can result in civil liability and criminal charges against the person responsible for the act.

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  • 15. 

    A VIOLATION OF A PERSON'S RIGHT NOT TO HAVE HIS OR HER NAME, PHOTOGRAPH, OR PRIVATE AFFAIRS EXPOSED OF MADE PUBLIC WITHOUT GIVING CONSENT IS?

    • A.

      FALSE IMPRISONMENT

    • B.

      MALPRACTICE

    • C.

      INVASION OF PRIVACY

    • D.

      STATUTE

    Correct Answer
    C. INVASION OF PRIVACY
    Explanation
    Invasion of privacy refers to the violation of an individual's right to keep their personal information, such as their name, photograph, or private affairs, confidential and not made public without their consent. It involves intruding into someone's personal life or disclosing private information without permission, which is a clear violation of their privacy rights. False imprisonment refers to the illegal confinement of a person against their will, malpractice refers to the negligence or misconduct by a professional, and a statute refers to a law or legislation.

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  • 16. 

    A MAJOR CRIME FOR WHICH GREATER PUNISHMENT IS IMPOSED OTHER THAN A MISDEMEANOR IS?

    • A.

      LICENSURE

    • B.

      CIVIL LAW

    • C.

      TORT

    • D.

      FELONY

    Correct Answer
    D. FELONY
    Explanation
    A felony is a major crime that is punishable by more severe penalties compared to a misdemeanor. It typically involves serious offenses such as murder, rape, robbery, or drug trafficking. Felonies are considered more serious because they pose a greater threat to public safety and often result in significant harm or loss to individuals or society as a whole. As a result, the punishment for a felony is usually more severe, including longer prison sentences, hefty fines, or even the death penalty in some cases.

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  • 17. 

    ONE WHO INSTITUTES A LAWSUIT IS?

    • A.

      DEFENDANT

    • B.

      PLAINTIFF

    • C.

      LITIGATION

    • D.

      RESPONDEAT SUPERIOR

    Correct Answer
    B. PLAINTIFF
    Explanation
    A plaintiff is the person who initiates a lawsuit by bringing a legal action against another party, known as the defendant. The plaintiff is the party who claims to have suffered harm or injury and seeks a legal remedy or compensation from the defendant. In a legal case, the plaintiff presents their case and evidence to prove their claim, while the defendant is the party who must defend against the allegations made by the plaintiff.

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  • 18. 

    A LEGAL STATEMENT OF HOW AN INDIVIDUAL'S PROPERTY IS TO BE DISTRIBUTED AFTER DEATH IS?

    • A.

      CONTRACT

    • B.

      TORT

    • C.

      WILL

    • D.

      JUDGEMENT

    Correct Answer
    C. WILL
    Explanation
    A legal statement of how an individual's property is to be distributed after death is a will. A will is a legal document that outlines the deceased person's wishes regarding the distribution of their assets and the appointment of guardians for any minor children. It allows individuals to have control over the disposition of their property and ensures that their wishes are followed after their death.

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  • 19. 

    INFORMATION GIVEN BY A PATIENT TO MEDICAL PERSONNEL WHICH CANNOT BE DISCLOSED WITHOUT CONSENT OF THE PERSON WHO GAVE IT IS?

    • A.

      DUTY OF CARE

    • B.

      RESPONDEAT SUPERIOR

    • C.

      JUDGEMENT

    • D.

      PRIVILEGED COMMUNICATION

    Correct Answer
    D. PRIVILEGED COMMUNICATION
    Explanation
    Privileged communication refers to the confidential information shared by a patient with medical personnel that cannot be disclosed without the patient's consent. This concept is based on the principle of trust and privacy in the doctor-patient relationship, allowing patients to freely communicate sensitive information without fear of it being shared without their permission. The medical personnel have a legal and ethical obligation to maintain the confidentiality of privileged communication to protect the patient's privacy and promote open communication for effective healthcare.

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  • 20. 

    A RULE OF CONDUCT MADE BY A GOVERNMENT BODY IS?

    • A.

      TORT

    • B.

      LAW

    • C.

      WILL

    • D.

      CONTRACT

    Correct Answer
    B. LAW
    Explanation
    A rule of conduct made by a government body is referred to as a law. Laws are established by the government to regulate and govern the behavior of individuals and society as a whole. They are enforceable and failure to comply with them may result in legal consequences. Laws cover various aspects of life, such as criminal behavior, property rights, contracts, and more. They are essential for maintaining order, protecting rights, and ensuring justice within a society.

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  • 21. 

    FAILURE TO DO SOMETHING THAT A REASONABLE PERSON WOULD DO UNDER ORDINARY CIRCUMSTANCES THAT ENDS UP CAUSING HARM TO ANOTHER PERSON OR A PERSON'S PROPERTY IS?

    • A.

      MALPRACTICE

    • B.

      NEGLIGENCE

    • C.

      SLANDER

    • D.

      DEFAMATION

    Correct Answer
    B. NEGLIGENCE
    Explanation
    Negligence refers to the failure to perform an action that a reasonable person would do in ordinary circumstances, resulting in harm to another person or their property. It involves the lack of proper care and attention that should have been exercised, leading to the unfortunate consequences. Negligence is different from malpractice, which specifically refers to negligence by a professional in their field of expertise. Slander and defamation, on the other hand, involve making false statements about someone that harm their reputation.

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  • 22. 

    PERMISSION GRANTED BY A PERSON VOLUNTARILY AND IN HIS RIGHT MIND IS?

    • A.

      CONSENT

    • B.

      LITIGATION

    • C.

      BREACH

    • D.

      DUTY OF CARE

    Correct Answer
    A. CONSENT
    Explanation
    Consent is the correct answer because it refers to the act of giving permission willingly and consciously. When a person grants permission voluntarily and in their right mind, it means that they have agreed to something without any coercion or manipulation. Consent is an important concept in various areas such as law, medicine, and personal relationships, as it ensures that actions are taken with the full agreement and understanding of all parties involved.

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  • 23. 

    INJURING THE NAME & REPUTATION OF ANOTHER PERSON BY MAKING FALSE STATEMENTS TO A THIRD PERSON IS?

    • A.

      EMPATHY

    • B.

      NEGLIGENCE

    • C.

      DEFAMATION

    • D.

      ETHICS

    Correct Answer
    C. DEFAMATION
    Explanation
    Defamation refers to the act of injuring someone's name and reputation by making false statements to a third person. It involves spreading false information about someone that can harm their reputation and cause damage to their personal or professional life. This can be done through spoken or written words, and it is considered a violation of the person's right to their good name and reputation. Defamation can lead to legal consequences, as it is seen as a form of slander or libel. It is important to be cautious about the information we share about others to avoid engaging in defamatory behavior.

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  • 24. 

    AN AGREEMENT BETWEEN TWO OR MORE PARTIES FOR THE DOING OR NOT DOING OF SOME DEFINITE THING IS?

    • A.

      CONTRACT

    • B.

      LITIGATION

    • C.

      STATUTE

    • D.

      FELONY

    Correct Answer
    A. CONTRACT
    Explanation
    An agreement between two or more parties for the doing or not doing of some definite thing is referred to as a contract. A contract is a legally binding agreement that outlines the rights and obligations of the involved parties. It establishes the terms and conditions under which the parties agree to fulfill their respective obligations. Contracts can be written or verbal, and they are enforceable by law.

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  • 25. 

    LACK OF PHYSICAL OR MENTAL FITNESS IS KNOW AS?

    • A.

      BREACH OF DUTY

    • B.

      ABANDONMENT

    • C.

      COMPETENCE

    • D.

      INCOMPETENCE

    Correct Answer
    D. INCOMPETENCE
    Explanation
    Incompetence refers to the lack of physical or mental fitness. It means that someone is not capable or skilled enough to perform a certain task or fulfill a certain duty. In this context, the correct answer is INCOMPETENCE because it directly relates to the given question about the lack of physical or mental fitness.

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  • 26. 

    THE FINAL DECISION OF A COURT IN AN ACTION OR SUIT IS?

    • A.

      CONSENT

    • B.

      CONTRACT

    • C.

      JUDGEMENT

    • D.

      LICENSURE

    Correct Answer
    C. JUDGEMENT
    Explanation
    The final decision of a court in an action or suit is called a judgment. A judgment is the official ruling or decision made by a judge or jury after considering the evidence and arguments presented in a case. It determines the rights and obligations of the parties involved and is legally binding. Consent, contract, and licensure are not applicable terms in this context and do not refer to the final decision of a court.

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  • 27. 

    RESPONSIBILITY OF AN EMPLOYER FOR THE ACTS OF AN EMPLOYEE IS?

    • A.

      LIBEL

    • B.

      MALPRACTICE

    • C.

      RESPONDEAT SUPERIOR

    • D.

      CIVIL LAW

    Correct Answer
    C. RESPONDEAT SUPERIOR
    Explanation
    Respondeat superior is a legal doctrine that holds an employer responsible for the actions of their employees while they are acting within the scope of their employment. This means that if an employee commits a wrongful act or causes harm to someone during the course of their job, the employer can be held liable for any resulting damages. This doctrine ensures that employers are accountable for the actions of their employees and encourages them to properly train and supervise their staff to prevent any potential harm or wrongdoing.

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  • 28. 

    A LATIN TERM SIGNIFYING THAT A PERSON IS NOT OF SOUND MIND IS?

    • A.

      RES GESTAE

    • B.

      NON COMPOS MENTIS

    • C.

      RES JUDICATA

    • D.

      TECUM

    Correct Answer
    B. NON COMPOS MENTIS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "NON COMPOS MENTIS". This Latin term signifies that a person is not of sound mind. It is often used in legal contexts to describe someone who lacks the mental capacity to understand their actions or make rational decisions.

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  • 29. 

    A PERSON WHO IS NO LONGER UNDER THE CARE, CUSTODY, OR SUPERVISION OF A PARENT IS CALLED A(N)?

    • A.

      EMANCIPATED MINOR

    • B.

      PLAINTIFF

    • C.

      DEFENDANT

    • D.

      TORT

    Correct Answer
    A. EMANCIPATED MINOR
    Explanation
    An emancipated minor is a person who is no longer under the care, custody, or supervision of a parent. Emancipation is a legal process that grants certain rights and responsibilities to minors who are deemed mature and capable of making their own decisions. This status allows them to live independently and make important life choices without parental consent. Therefore, an emancipated minor is the correct answer to the question.

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  • 30. 

    AN IMPARTIAL PANEL ESTABLISHED TO LISTEN TO & INVESTIGATE PATIENT'S COMPLAINTS ABOUT MEDICAL CARE OR EXCESSIVE FEES IS CALLED A _________ COMMITTEE.

    • A.

      MEDICAL ETHICS

    • B.

      MEDICAL GRIEVANCE

    • C.

      CIVIL LAW

    • D.

      NO CORRECT ANSWER

    Correct Answer
    B. MEDICAL GRIEVANCE
    Explanation
    A panel established to listen to and investigate patient's complaints about medical care or excessive fees is called a medical grievance committee. This committee is responsible for addressing and resolving issues related to medical care and fees that patients may have. It provides a platform for patients to voice their concerns and ensures that their grievances are heard and addressed in a fair and impartial manner.

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  • 31. 

    LATIN FOR "THINGS DONE; DEEDS"; THE FACTS & CIRCUMSTANCES ATTENDANT TO THE ACT IN QUESTION WOULD BE CALLED?

    • A.

      RES GESTAE

    • B.

      LOCUM TENEMS

    • C.

      TECUM

    • D.

      NO CORRECT ANSWER

    Correct Answer
    A. RES GESTAE
    Explanation
    The correct answer is RES GESTAE. Res gestae is a Latin term that translates to "things done" or "deeds." It refers to the facts and circumstances that are connected to the act in question. In legal terms, res gestae is used to describe the surrounding events or statements that provide context and help understand the main act or event.

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  • 32. 

    TESTIMONY OF A WITNESS UNDER OATH & WRITTEN DOWN BEFORE TRIAL FOR POSSIBLE USE WHEN THE CASE COMES TO TRIAL IS?

    • A.

      DEPOSITION

    • B.

      CITATION

    • C.

      WARRANT

    • D.

      EXPERT TESTIMONY

    Correct Answer
    A. DEPOSITION
    Explanation
    A deposition is a testimony given by a witness under oath and written down before a trial for possible use when the case comes to trial. It is a formal process where the witness is questioned by attorneys from both sides, and their answers are recorded by a court reporter. Depositions are commonly used in legal proceedings to gather evidence, establish facts, and prepare for trial.

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  • 33. 

    A STATUTE THAT ENFORCES PRIVATE RIGHT & LIABILITIES, AS DIFFERENTIATED FROM CRIMINAL LAW IS CALLED A?

    • A.

      STATUTE OF LIMITATIONS

    • B.

      CIVIL LAW

    • C.

      MEDICAL ARBITRATION

    • D.

      NO CORRECT ANSWER

    Correct Answer
    B. CIVIL LAW
    Explanation
    Civil law is the correct answer because it refers to the body of law that deals with private rights and liabilities between individuals or organizations. It is different from criminal law, which focuses on offenses committed against the state. Civil law encompasses areas such as contracts, property, torts, and family law. This type of law is enforced through statutes, which are laws passed by legislative bodies. The other options, such as statute of limitations and medical arbitration, do not encompass the broad scope of private rights and liabilities that civil law does.

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  • 34. 

    VIOLATION OR OMISSION OF A LEGAL OR MORAL DUTY IS CALLED?

    • A.

      NEGLIGENCE

    • B.

      BREACH OF DUTY

    • C.

      DEFAMATION

    • D.

      MALPRACTICE

    Correct Answer
    B. BREACH OF DUTY
    Explanation
    Breach of duty refers to the violation or omission of a legal or moral duty. It occurs when someone fails to fulfill their obligations or responsibilities, whether it is a legal duty imposed by law or a moral duty based on ethical standards. This can result in legal consequences or harm to others. Negligence, defamation, and malpractice are all examples of breaches of duty in specific contexts, but breach of duty is a broader term that encompasses any violation or omission of a duty.

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  • 35. 

    A DELIBERATE PHYSICAL ATTACK UPON A PERSON IS CALLED?

    • A.

      ASSAULT

    • B.

      BATTERY

    • C.

      SLANDER

    • D.

      CONTRIBUTORY NEGLIGENCE

    Correct Answer
    B. BATTERY
    Explanation
    Battery is the correct answer because it refers to a deliberate physical attack upon a person. It involves the intentional act of physically harming someone without their consent. Assault, on the other hand, refers to the threat or attempt to cause physical harm, while slander refers to making false spoken statements that damage someone's reputation. Contributory negligence is a legal concept that deals with the degree of fault in a personal injury case and is not directly related to a deliberate physical attack.

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  • 36. 

    LATIN FOR "HE WHO ACTS THROUGH ANOTHER ACTS FOR HIMSELF" IS CALLED?

    • A.

      RES GESTAE

    • B.

      QUI FACIT PER ALIUM FACIT PER SE

    • C.

      LOCUM TENEMS

    • D.

      NO CORRECT ANSWER

    Correct Answer
    B. QUI FACIT PER ALIUM FACIT PER SE
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "QUI FACIT PER ALIUM FACIT PER SE." This Latin phrase translates to "he who acts through another acts for himself." It implies that when someone acts on behalf of another person, their actions are considered as if the person themselves had acted. This principle is often applied in legal contexts to hold individuals responsible for the actions of their agents or representatives.

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  • 37. 

    THE BRANCH OF STUDY OF MORAL ISSUES, QUESTIONS, AND PROBLEMS ARISING IN THE PRACTICE OF MEDICINE & BIOMEDICAL RESEARCH IS CALLED?

    • A.

      BIOETHICS

    • B.

      LITIGATION

    • C.

      PHILOSOPHY

    • D.

      PRIVILEGED COMMUNICATION

    Correct Answer
    A. BIOETHICS
    Explanation
    Bioethics is the correct answer because it refers to the branch of study that deals with moral issues, questions, and problems that arise in the practice of medicine and biomedical research. It involves the examination and analysis of ethical dilemmas related to topics such as patient autonomy, informed consent, end-of-life care, genetic research, and the allocation of medical resources. Bioethics aims to provide ethical guidelines and principles to guide healthcare professionals, researchers, and policymakers in making morally sound decisions in the field of medicine and biomedical research.

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  • 38. 

    A STATEMENT GIVEN CONCERNING SOME SCIENTIFIC, TECHINCAL, OR PROFESSIONAL MATTER BY AN EXPERT, SUCH AS A PHYSICIAN IS CALLED?

    • A.

      LITIGATION

    • B.

      EXPERT TESTIMONY

    • C.

      MEDICAL ARBITRATION

    • D.

      BURDEN OF PROOF

    Correct Answer
    B. EXPERT TESTIMONY
    Explanation
    An expert testimony refers to a statement given by an expert in a specific field, such as a physician, regarding a scientific, technical, or professional matter. This testimony is often used in legal proceedings to provide specialized knowledge and opinions that can assist in the resolution of a case. It is considered as a valuable source of information and can greatly influence the outcome of a trial or arbitration.

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  • 39. 

    A PATIENT'S FAILURE TO ACT PRUDENTLY & REASONABLY, OR DOING THAT WHICH A REASONABLE PERSON WOULD NOT DO UNDER SIMILIAR CIRCUMSTANCES IS CALLED?

    • A.

      BREACH OF DUTY

    • B.

      ASSUMPTION OF RISK

    • C.

      CONTRIBUTORY NEGLIGENCE

    • D.

      NO CORRECT ANSWER

    Correct Answer
    C. CONTRIBUTORY NEGLIGENCE
    Explanation
    Contributory negligence refers to a situation where a patient fails to act prudently and reasonably, or does something that a reasonable person would not do under similar circumstances. This term is often used in legal cases to determine the extent to which a patient's own actions contributed to their injury or harm. In such cases, the patient may be held partially responsible for their own injuries, and their compensation or damages may be reduced accordingly.

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  • 40. 

    CONSENT TO TREATMENT BASED ON A FULL UNDERSTANDING OF ALL POSSIBLE RISKS OF UNPREVENTABLE RESULTS OF THAT TREATMENT IS CALLED?

    • A.

      CONTRIBUTORY NEGLIGENCE

    • B.

      FRAUD

    • C.

      ASSUMPTION OF RISK

    • D.

      PROXIMATE CAUSE

    Correct Answer
    C. ASSUMPTION OF RISK
    Explanation
    Assumption of risk refers to the consent given by a patient for a medical treatment, fully understanding and accepting all the potential risks and unavoidable outcomes associated with that treatment. It implies that the patient acknowledges the possible negative consequences and agrees to proceed with the treatment despite those risks. This concept is important in medical ethics and legal considerations, as it ensures that patients have the autonomy to make informed decisions about their own healthcare.

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  • 41. 

    CONDUCT, COURTESY, AND MANNERS THAT ARE CUSTOMARILY USED IN A MEDICAL OFFICE BY MEDICAL PROFESSIONALS ARE KNOWN AS?

    • A.

      ETHICS

    • B.

      MORAL THERAPY

    • C.

      PRECOCITY

    • D.

      MEDICAL ETIQUETTE

    Correct Answer
    D. MEDICAL ETIQUETTE
    Explanation
    Medical etiquette refers to the conduct, courtesy, and manners that are customary in a medical office by medical professionals. It includes professional behavior, communication skills, respect for patient's privacy and confidentiality, and maintaining a professional appearance. Following medical etiquette is essential for establishing trust and maintaining a positive doctor-patient relationship.

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  • 42. 

    AN INTENTIONAL PERVERSION OF TRUTH FOR THE PURPOSE OF INDUCING ANOTHER IN RELIANCE UPON IT TO PART WITH SOME VALUABLE THING BELONGING TO HIM OR TO SURRENDER A LEGAL RIGHT IS CALLED?

    • A.

      FRAUD

    • B.

      NEGLIGENCE

    • C.

      ASSUMPTION OF RISK

    • D.

      CONTRIBUTORY NEGLIGENCE

    Correct Answer
    A. FRAUD
    Explanation
    Fraud is the intentional perversion of truth with the purpose of deceiving someone into giving up something valuable or relinquishing a legal right. It involves deliberate deceit and manipulation to induce another person's reliance and cause them harm. Negligence, assumption of risk, and contributory negligence are not applicable in this context as they do not involve intentional deception or inducement.

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  • 43. 

    TO INTERRUPT OR DISCONTINUE A SUIT TEMPORARILY WITH THE INTENTION OR RESUMPTION AT A LATER DATE, OR TO ASK FOR A CONTINUANCE IS CALLED A?

    • A.

      SUSPENSION

    • B.

      JUDGEMENT

    • C.

      CIVIL LAW

    • D.

      DEPOSITION

    Correct Answer
    A. SUSPENSION
    Explanation
    A suspension refers to the temporary interruption or discontinuation of a suit with the intention of resuming it at a later date. It is a procedural mechanism used in legal proceedings to pause the progress of a case. This can be done for various reasons, such as allowing time for further investigation, settlement negotiations, or the unavailability of key parties or witnesses. By granting a suspension, the court acknowledges the need for a temporary break in the proceedings while still leaving the option open for the case to be continued at a later date.

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  • 44. 

    LATIN FOR "THINGS DECIDED"---- THAT IS, A MATTER ALREADY DECIDED BY JUDICIAL AUTHORITY IS CALLED?

    • A.

      RES JUDICATA

    • B.

      RESPONDEAT SUPERIOR

    • C.

      LOCUM TENEMS

    • D.

      NO CORRECT ANSWER

    Correct Answer
    A. RES JUDICATA
    Explanation
    Res judicata is the correct answer because it is a Latin term that means "things decided." It refers to a legal principle that once a matter has been decided by a court, it cannot be litigated again between the same parties. This principle promotes finality and certainty in legal proceedings, preventing parties from re-litigating the same issues repeatedly.

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  • 45. 

    THAT WHICH IN  NATURAL & CONTINUOUS SEQUENCE, UNBROKEN BY ANY NEW INDEPENDENT CAUSE, PRODUCES AN EVENT, AND WITHOUT WHICH THE INJURY WOULD NOT HAVE OCCURRED IS CALLED?

    • A.

      NEGLIGENCE

    • B.

      PROXIMATE CAUSE

    • C.

      ASSUMPTION OF RISK

    • D.

      ASSAULT

    Correct Answer
    B. PROXIMATE CAUSE
    Explanation
    Proximate cause refers to the action or event that directly leads to an injury or harm. It is the primary cause that sets in motion a sequence of events, without which the injury would not have occurred. In this context, negligence refers to a failure to exercise reasonable care, assumption of risk refers to voluntarily accepting the potential dangers of a situation, and assault refers to intentionally causing apprehension of harmful or offensive contact. None of these options directly address the concept of a cause that produces an event without which the injury would not have occurred, making proximate cause the correct answer.

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  • 46. 

    THE PRESUMPTION OF INFERENCE OF NEGLIGENCE WHEN AN ACCIDENT IS OTHERWISE UNABLE TO BE EXPLAINED IN TERMS OF ORDINARY & KNOWN EXPERIENCE IS CALLED?

    • A.

      RES JUDICATA

    • B.

      RES IPSA LOQUITUR

    • C.

      LOCUM TENEMS

    • D.

      RES GESTAE

    Correct Answer
    B. RES IPSA LOQUITUR
    Explanation
    Res ipsa loquitur is a legal doctrine that allows a court to infer negligence based on the circumstances of an accident when there is no direct evidence of negligence. It means "the thing speaks for itself" in Latin. This doctrine applies when the accident is of a type that would not normally occur without negligence, and the defendant has exclusive control over the instrumentality that caused the accident. In such cases, the burden of proof shifts to the defendant to prove that they were not negligent.

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  • 47. 

    FAILURE TO ACHIEVE AN AGREED UPON RESULT, EVEN WHEN THE HIGHEST DEGREE OF SKILL HAS BEEN USED, IS CALLED?

    • A.

      BREACH OF CONTRACT

    • B.

      NEGLIGENCE

    • C.

      PROXIMATE CAUSE

    • D.

      ETHICS

    Correct Answer
    A. BREACH OF CONTRACT
    Explanation
    Breach of contract refers to the failure to achieve an agreed-upon result, even when the highest degree of skill has been used. It occurs when one party fails to fulfill their obligations as stated in a contract, resulting in a violation of the terms and conditions agreed upon by both parties. This can include failing to deliver goods or services, not meeting deadlines, or providing substandard work. Breach of contract can lead to legal consequences and the non-breaching party may seek remedies such as compensation or termination of the contract.

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  • 48. 

    WHAT LICENSE MUST A PHYSICIAN HAVE TO DISPENSE, PRESCRIBE OR ADMINISTER CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES?

    • A.

      LAWYERS

    • B.

      NARCOTIC

    • C.

      BUSINESS

    • D.

      OCCUPATIONAL

    Correct Answer
    B. NARCOTIC
    Explanation
    To dispense, prescribe, or administer controlled substances, a physician must have a narcotic license. This license allows them to handle and distribute drugs that are classified as narcotics, which are substances that have the potential for abuse and can cause addiction or dependence. It ensures that physicians are knowledgeable and qualified to handle these substances safely and responsibly, following the regulations and guidelines set by the authorities.

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  • 49. 

    UNAUTHORIZED DISCLOSURE OF INFORMATION REGARDING ANY PATIENT TO A THIRD PARTY MAY RESULT IN?

    • A.

      CIVIL LAW LIABILITY

    • B.

      MEDICAL LIABILITY

    • C.

      INVASION OF PRIVACY

    • D.

      DEFAMATION OF CHARACTER

    Correct Answer
    C. INVASION OF PRIVACY
    Explanation
    Unauthorized disclosure of information regarding any patient to a third party may result in invasion of privacy. This is because the unauthorized disclosure of patient information violates the patient's right to privacy, which is protected by laws and regulations. The disclosure of such information without the patient's consent can be considered an invasion of their privacy, and the responsible party may face legal consequences for their actions.

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  • 50. 

    MEDICAL RESEARCH IS OFTEN PUBLISHED IN MEDICAL JOURNALS THAT ARE EVALUATED BY MEMBERS OF THE MEDICAL COMMUNITY THROUGH A PROCESS KNOWN AS?

    • A.

      PROFESSIONAL REVIEW

    • B.

      HOSPITAL REVIEW

    • C.

      PEER REVIEW

    • D.

      PROMETHIUM REVIEW

    Correct Answer
    C. PEER REVIEW
    Explanation
    Medical research is often published in medical journals that are evaluated by members of the medical community through a process known as peer review. In this process, experts in the field review the research article to ensure its quality, accuracy, and validity before it is published. This helps to maintain the integrity of the research and ensures that only high-quality and reliable information is disseminated to the medical community and the public.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Sep 18, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 04, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Gladys102103
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