2t071 CDC

157 Questions | Total Attempts: 60

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2t071 Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What item identifies a capabilities package in terms of personnel who have certain qualifications and certain types of equipment? 
    • A. 

      Unit type code.

    • B. 

      Unit line number.

    • C. 

      Designed Operational Capability

    • D. 

      Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data

  • 2. 
    What item lists by operation plan all unit type codes a wing is tasked to support and indicates times, movement data, and modes of transport?
    • A. 

      Unit line number

    • B. 

      Unit manning document

    • C. 

      Designed Operational Capability.

    • D. 

      Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data

  • 3. 
    What deployment work center is responsible for the overall control, direction, and supervision of deployments? 
    • A. 

      Motor vehicle operations.

    • B. 

      Deployment control center.

    • C. 

      Cargo deployment function

    • D. 

      Personnel deployment function

  • 4. 
    What category of airlift mission provides air movement of personnel, supplies, and equipment on a sustained, selective, or emergency basis to dispersed sites within a theater of operations?
    • A. 

      Theater

    • B. 

      Strategic.

    • C. 

      Operational support.

    • D. 

      Civil Reserve Air Fleet.

  • 5. 
     What types of orders are self-triggering and become effective upon proclamation of a civil defense emergency by the president? 
    • A. 

      Unit line number deployment orders

    • B. 

      Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data orders

    • C. 

      Air and Space Expeditionary Force deployment orders.

    • D. 

      Interstate Commerce Commission Transportation Mobilization orders

  • 6. 
    What installation-level strategy is designed to support unified and specified command wartime operation plans, as well as major command supporting plans?
    • A. 

      Base support plan

    • B. 

      Wing operations plan.

    • C. 

      Expeditionary site plan

    • D. 

      Resource augmentation plan.

  • 7. 
    Who is responsible to establish a base support planning committee? 
    • A. 

      Installation commander.

    • B. 

      Mission deployment officer

    • C. 

      Mission support group commander.

    • D. 

      Logistics readiness squadron commander.

  • 8. 
    What program can assist commanders in validating, approving, and documenting the need for additional personnel resources to support installation-level requirements? 
    • A. 

      Augmentation.

    • B. 

      Mobilization support.

    • C. 

      Base support planning

    • D. 

      The war reserve materiel joint-use.

  • 9. 
    What term describes using people in other than their assigned control Air Force Specialty Code duties? 
    • A. 

      Mobilization.

    • B. 

      Augmentation

    • C. 

      Implementation.

    • D. 

      Career broadening.

  • 10. 
    What is the agreement between the US Air Force and another service or a Department of Defense component? 
    • A. 

      Host-tenant.

    • B. 

      Interservice.

    • C. 

      Intraservice.

    • D. 

      Intragovernment.

  • 11. 
    The agency that has the primary responsibility for a support agreement program is the installation
    • A. 

      Legal office

    • B. 

      Manpower office.

    • C. 

      Supplier support agreement manager’s office.

    • D. 

      functional area support agreement coordinator’s office.

  • 12. 
    What does the transportation evaluator use to advise the procurement contracting officer regarding the terms in contract solicitations?
    • A. 

      Officially approved charges and rates.

    • B. 

      Other solicitations to ensure all are equal

    • C. 

      Rates most advantageous to the government

    • D. 

      The expiring contract to detect an increase in charges

  • 13. 
    • A. 

      When circumstances require the active force to rapidly expand.

    • B. 

      Only with written approval from the Commander, Air Force Reserves (AFRES)

    • C. 

      When requested 90 days prior to reassignment, and approved by the Commander, AFRES.

    • D. 

      Only with the advanced written approval of the Secretary or Deputy Secretary of Defense.

  • 14. 
    Who validates requests for Air Reserve component augmentation? 
    • A. 

      Secretary of defense.

    • B. 

      Secretary of the Air Force

    • C. 

      Commander of the unit that will perform augmentation duties

    • D. 

      Major command or field operating agency office of primary responsibility.

  • 15. 
    • A. 

      Condition.

    • B. 

      Stock number

    • C. 

      Item description (nomenclature)

    • D. 

      Reference number (part number).

  • 16. 
     What system is the most widely used method for determining an item’s identity? 
    • A. 

      Enterprise Solution Supply (ES-S).

    • B. 

      Federal logistics system (FEDLOG).

    • C. 

      Standard Base Supply System (SBSS).

    • D. 

      Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS).

  • 17. 
     Which of the following is not one of the three elements used to make up a reject phrase?
    • A. 

      A descriptive phrase.

    • B. 

      A descriptive flag

    • C. 

      An action flag

    • D. 

      A reject code

  • 18. 
    How often is the Military Standard Transportation and Movement Procedures (MILSTAMP) Tracer Reconciliation program ran?
    • A. 

      Once a week.

    • B. 

      Twice a week.

    • C. 

      Once a month

    • D. 

      Twice a month

  • 19. 
     How are consolidated shipments identified on the Consolidated Shipment Error List?
    • A. 

      Lead Transportation Control Number (TCN)

    • B. 

      Consolidate Transaction History (CTH).

    • C. 

      National stock number (NSN).

    • D. 

      Transportation Tracer List.

  • 20. 
    What Defense Department (DD) form is used as an accountable document for items received in Base Supply? 
    • A. 

      DD Form 250.

    • B. 

      DD Form 1149.

    • C. 

      DD Form 1348–1A

    • D. 

      DD Form 1384.

  • 21. 
    What is the primary form used to enter cargo into the Defense Transportation System?
    • A. 

      DD Form 250

    • B. 

      DD Form 1149.

    • C. 

      DD Form 1348–1A.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1384.

  • 22. 
    What form, although being phased out, is still used for foreign customs clearance? 
    • A. 

      Transportation Control Movement Document.

    • B. 

      DD Form 1387.

    • C. 

      Government bill of lading

    • D. 

      DD Form 470

  • 23. 
    What form is submitted to the local finance office, and then used to give you obligation authority? 
    • A. 

      AF Form 616.

    • B. 

      DD Form 173–2.

    • C. 

      DD Form 470.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1149.

  • 24. 
    What form is most commonly used to report transportation discrepancies?
    • A. 

      DD Form 361.

    • B. 

      AF Form 1810.

    • C. 

      DD Form 1348–1A.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1384.

  • 25. 
    What form is used to send a request for information concerning a transportation discrepancy?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1348–1A.

    • B. 

      DD Form 1149.

    • C. 

      AF Form 616.

    • D. 

      DD Form 361.

  • 26. 
    What is the four-digit designator used to identify the appropriate service, agency, foreign military sales country, or contractor responsible for funding Defense Transportation System charges? 
    • A. 

      Transportation account code

    • B. 

      First destination transportation code

    • C. 

      Defense Working Capital Fund code

    • D. 

      Second destination transportation code.

  • 27. 
    Which major command maintains a website to determine proper transportation account code assignment based on assigned national stock number? 
    • A. 

      Air Mobility Command.

    • B. 

      Air Force Materiel Command.

    • C. 

      United Stated Transportation Command

    • D. 

      Surface Deployment and Distribution Command.

  • 28. 
    What billing procedure allows offices to cite specific Air Force Working Capital Fund or second destination transportation centrally managed allotment to pay for reparables to a contractor or depot?
    • A. 

      Power Track.

    • B. 

      First party billing

    • C. 

      Second party payment system.

    • D. 

      Third party payment system.

  • 29. 
    How many times a month is the Transportation Tracer Listing (TTL) provided to cargo movement for shipments requiring tracer action or receipt of information? 
    • A. 

      Once.

    • B. 

      Twice.

    • C. 

      Three times

    • D. 

      Four times.

  • 30. 
    What annotation is required when repetitive line items from the previous Transportation Tracer Listing (TTL) are discovered? 
    • A. 

      “TMI action required.”

    • B. 

      “Updated Shipment Status.”

    • C. 

      “DD 361/Message Attached.”

    • D. 

      “Previously Researched by the Cargo Movement Section.”

  • 31. 
    How often does the Management and Systems Flight provide the Cargo Movement Section with the R40? 
    • A. 

      Once a month.

    • B. 

      Once a quarter

    • C. 

      Once every two weeks

    • D. 

      Once a year, at the end of the fiscal year

  • 32. 
    Who reports Transportation Service Provider performance issues/failures that affect the safe, secure, efficient, and cost effective transport of Department of Defense (DOD) owned cargo?
    • A. 

      Surface Deployment Distribution Command (SDDC)

    • B. 

      Air Mobility Command (AMC).

    • C. 

      Shipping activities.

    • D. 

      Receiving activities.

  • 33. 
    What command governs the duration of nationwide Non-use or disqualification actions? 
    • A. 

      Air Mobility Command (AMC).

    • B. 

      Military Sealift Command (MSC).

    • C. 

      The Department of Transportation (DOT).

    • D. 

      Surface Deployment Distribution Command (SDDC).

  • 34. 
    Which hazard is considered the hidden hazard common to all packaging shops? 
    • A. 

      Saws.

    • B. 

      Noise.

    • C. 

      Hand tools

    • D. 

      Warehousing.

  • 35. 
    AFI 91–202, The USAF Mishap Prevention Program, outlines the Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) program which is implemented to protect Air Force personnel from death by 
    • A. 

      Managing risks both on and off duty

    • B. 

      Mastering material handling and storage requirements.

    • C. 

      Listing occupational health criteria for manual material handling equipment.

    • D. 

      Listing occupational health criteria for powered material handling equipment

  • 36. 
    Which term means “deterioration of material due to electrochemical or chemical attack resulting from exposure to natural or induced environmental conditions?”
    • A. 

      Abrasion.

    • B. 

      Corrosion.

    • C. 

      Impairment.

    • D. 

      Deterioration.

  • 37. 
    Which items require level A packaging protection?
    • A. 

      Foreign military sales.

    • B. 

      Containerized overseas shipments.

    • C. 

      Strategic and theater deployment items.

    • D. 

      An item you know will be in closed storage.

  • 38. 
    Which saw is primarily used to make curved cuts, and frequently used for free-hand cutting? 
    • A. 

      Band saw.

    • B. 

      Table saw.

    • C. 

      Panel saw

    • D. 

      Radial arm saw

  • 39. 
    How do you prevent kickbacks while using the portable circular saw?
    • A. 

      Ensure saw depth exceeds ¼ inch beyond depth of material

    • B. 

      Keep the blade away from the edge of the material before starting.

    • C. 

      Proper alignment and tension of the blade on the upper idler wheel.

    • D. 

      Align the yoke slide before each and every cut, engaging the cross cutting safety switch

  • 40. 
    What is the first step in the lockout/tagout procedure? 
    • A. 

      Notify your supervisor

    • B. 

      Fill out AF Form 981, Out of Order Tag

    • C. 

      Immediately unplug the saw from the power source

    • D. 

      Inform all military and civilian employees about the equipment status

  • 41. 
     Which characteristic of cushioning is the time it takes the material to return to its original shape after compression? 
    • A. 

      Liquid absorption capacity

    • B. 

      Rate of recovery.

    • C. 

      Compression set.

    • D. 

      Resilience.

  • 42. 
    Which type of cushioning material has the advantage of good performance in cold temperatures?
    • A. 

      Bound fiber.

    • B. 

      Polyurethane foam

    • C. 

      Polystyrene cushioning.

    • D. 

      Water-resistant cellulose cushioning

  • 43. 
    What common document often lists a special packaging instruction (SPI) for items shipped?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document.

    • B. 

      DD Form 1348–1A, Issue Release/Receipt Document

    • C. 

      SPI-to-national stock number cross-reference list.

    • D. 

      SPI management notice.

  • 44. 
    What item characteristic dictates the cushioning, blocking, and bracing required?
    • A. 

      Size.

    • B. 

      Cost.

    • C. 

      Shape.

    • D. 

      Weight.

  • 45. 
    What is the primary advantage of wooden boxes over fiberboard boxes?
    • A. 

      They are stronger.

    • B. 

      They come prefabricated

    • C. 

      You can easily construct a wooden box to be any size you need

    • D. 

      They are easier to open and reclose because they are nailed, not taped.

  • 46. 
     What maximum outside dimensions (in feet) are most desirable for crates? 
    • A. 

      30 × 9 × 7

    • B. 

      32 × 8 × 8.

    • C. 

      34 × 9 × 7.

    • D. 

      36 × 8 × 8.

  • 47. 
    For at least how many trips should Category II–short life containers be reusable? 
    • A. 

      10.

    • B. 

      50.

    • C. 

      100.

    • D. 

      200.

  • 48. 
    What column is the key to interpreting the special packaging instruction?
    • A. 

      Revisions.

    • B. 

      Reference.

    • C. 

      Description.

    • D. 

      List of materials.

  • 49. 
    Why would you use fiberboard for blocking and bracing?
    • A. 

      Separate multiple items in a box.

    • B. 

      Provide a divider in the container.

    • C. 

      Prevent movement of disassembled parts.

    • D. 

      Provide an easy-to-disassemble packaging

  • 50. 
    What would you use in blocking and bracing operations to provide an opening for desiccant? 
    • A. 

      Fiberboard.

    • B. 

      Polyethylene film.

    • C. 

      Polyurethane foam.

    • D. 

      Any water-vapor-proof barrier material.

  • 51. 
    The general rule for deciding how many bands to use on a wooden box is to use one band at least every
    • A. 

      18″.

    • B. 

      24″.

    • C. 

      30″.

    • D. 

      36″.

  • 52. 
    What height should you make lettering when marking containers? 
    • A. 

      ¼″ – 1″

    • B. 

      ½″ – 1″

    • C. 

      ½″ – 2″

    • D. 

      2″ – 4″

  • 53. 
    As a general rule, you should apply an additional label on the end of a container if the container measures 
    • A. 

      5 cubic feet or larger

    • B. 

      8 cubic feet or larger

    • C. 

      9 cubic feet or larger

    • D. 

      10 cubic feet or larger

  • 54. 
    What type of reaction takes place when you mix isocyanate and resin, the two components of foam-in-place packaging? 
    • A. 

      Exothermic.

    • B. 

      Polymerization.

    • C. 

      Hyperbolic vapor

    • D. 

      Free radical chain

  • 55. 
    What type of foam is well suited for use as cushioning material for lighter, more delicate items?
    • A. 

      Rigid.

    • B. 

      Flexible.

    • C. 

      Semirigid.

    • D. 

      Semiflexible.

  • 56. 
     What would you use to protect an item and prepare it for the foam-in-place process?
    • A. 

      Polymylar film.

    • B. 

      Polystyrene film.

    • C. 

      Polyethylene film

    • D. 

      Polyurethane film

  • 57. 
     Moving synthetic textiles, polyurethane, fiberglass, rubber, or other such common materials can result in electrostatic voltages up to 
    • A. 

      5,000 volts

    • B. 

      10,000 volts.

    • C. 

      15,000 volts

    • D. 

      30,000 volts.

  • 58. 
    What type of barrier material is used to provide electrostatic protection?
    • A. 

      MIL–B–121.

    • B. 

      MIL–PRF–81705.

    • C. 

      MIL–B–131, class I.

    • D. 

      MIL–B–131, class II.

  • 59. 
    • A. 

      HS.

    • B. 

      HM.

    • C. 

      RQ.

    • D. 

      EPA.

  • 60. 
    Hazardous material preparers undergo refresher training every
    • A. 

      12 months

    • B. 

      18 months

    • C. 

      24 months.

    • D. 

      36 months.

  • 61. 
    What is the first step in preparing a hazardous material for transportation? 
    • A. 

      Identify the material

    • B. 

      Determine segregation requirements

    • C. 

      Complete certification documentation

    • D. 

      Determine an authorized packaging configuration.

  • 62. 
    What publication has tables that indicate minimum requirements for placarding trucks carrying hazardous materials?
    • A. 

      International Air Transport Association’s Dangerous Goods Code

    • B. 

      International Maritime Organization Dangerous Goods Code

    • C. 

      49 Code of Federal Regulations.

    • D. 

      AFMAN 24–204(I).

  • 63. 
    What form is used to certify hazardous materials moving by military and commercial air movements?
    • A. 

      Multimodal Dangerous Good Declaration

    • B. 

      Shipper’s Declaration for Dangerous Goods

    • C. 

      Signature and Tally Record.

    • D. 

      Transportation Control and Movement Document.

  • 64. 
    What form is used to document that a vehicle is accepted for loading and transportation of explosives?
    • A. 

      SF 364.

    • B. 

      DD Form 470.

    • C. 

      DD Form 626.

    • D. 

      DD Form 1384.

  • 65. 
    Who ensures all personnel are properly trained to handle controlled material? 
    • A. 

      Distribution Flight Chief.

    • B. 

      LRS Chief Inspector.

    • C. 

      TMO Officer.

    • D. 

      Supervisor.

  • 66. 
    How often will training be conducted to maintain awareness and competence regarding proper procedures for controlled material?
    • A. 

      Weekly.

    • B. 

      Monthly.

    • C. 

      Annually.

    • D. 

      Semiannually.

  • 67. 
    What item is not required for a driver transporting a shipment requiring transportation protective service (TPS)?
    • A. 

      A shot record.

    • B. 

      A driver’s license.

    • C. 

      Employee record card.

    • D. 

      Medical examiner’s certificate.

  • 68. 
    What publication establishes uniform policy for military services for packaging hazardous material? 
    • A. 

      AFMAN 24–206(I)

    • B. 

      AFI 24–210(I).

    • C. 

      AFI 24–202.

    • D. 

      AFI 91–301.

  • 69. 
    What publication do you use when preparing hazardous materials for movement by international vessel?
    • A. 

      International Air Transport Association’s Dangerous Goods Regulations.

    • B. 

      International Maritime Organization Dangerous Goods Code

    • C. 

      National Motor Freight Classification Guide

    • D. 

      Air Force Interservice Manual.

  • 70. 
    The action that begins the cargo movement process is the
    • A. 

      Creation of a shipping document by the shipper

    • B. 

      Creation of a demand or requirement for movement

    • C. 

      Distribution flight transferring custody of the cargo to the carrier.

    • D. 

      Shipper bringing the cargo and documents to the distribution flight

  • 71. 
    What procedures does base supply comply with when issuing items to the cargo movements element for packaging and onward movement?
    • A. 

      Military Standard Requisitioning and Issue Procedures.

    • B. 

      Military Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System.

    • C. 

      Military Supply and Transportation Evaluation Procedures.

    • D. 

      Military Standard Supply and Transportation and Evaluation Procedures.

  • 72. 
    What form is used to accomplish a non-Military Standard Requisitioning and Issue Procedures shipment? 
    • A. 

      DD Form 250.

    • B. 

      DD Form 1149

    • C. 

      . DD Form 1384

    • D. 

      DD Form 1348–1A.

  • 73. 
    What transportation priority is assigned to materiel that may have a supply priority designator of 03 and a blank Required Delivery Date?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 74. 
    Which transportation priority is assigned to a shipment that is non-air-eligible and is moving by military airlift deferred air freight from overseas to the United States?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 75. 
    Which required delivery date code identifies shipments that have the most urgent need?
    • A. 

      444.

    • B. 

      555.

    • C. 

      777.

    • D. 

      999.

  • 76. 
    Which block should you sign when in-checking items on a DD Form 1149? 
    • A. 

      12.

    • B. 

      14.

    • C. 

      16.

    • D. 

      18.

  • 77. 
    What publication is used to classify materiel moving by public highway?
    • A. 

      United Freight Classification.

    • B. 

      National Motor Freight Classification

    • C. 

      International Maritime Organization Dangerous Goods Code.

    • D. 

      International Air Transport Association Dangerous Goods Code

  • 78. 
    What formula is used to determine the breakpoint for each shipment when using the National Motor Freight Classification Guide?
    • A. 

      (TL/LTL)xMW=BP

    • B. 

      (LTL/TL)xMW=BP

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 79. 
    When requested, Surface Deployment and Distribution Command routes shipments
    • A. 

      Only by air.

    • B. 

      Only by rail.

    • C. 

      Via any surface mode

    • D. 

      Only when the gross weight is more than 10,000 pounds

  • 80. 
    What is the preferred commercial mode of transportation for high-priority small packages? 
    • A. 

      Commercial Air.

    • B. 

      Public highway.

    • C. 

      Vessel.

    • D. 

      Rail.

  • 81. 
    What Air Force publication outlines the shipment planning process?
    • A. 

      AFI 24–101.

    • B. 

      AFI 24–203.

    • C. 

      AFMAN 24–206(I).

    • D. 

      AFMAN 24–204(I).

  • 82. 
    When planning a shipment, the commercial mode probably not chosen for a transportation priority 3 item is 
    • A. 

      Air.

    • B. 

      Rail.

    • C. 

      Vessel.

    • D. 

      Public highway

  • 83. 
     Which air dimension code from the Defense Transportation Regulation indicates a shipment is not a consolidation and does not exceed 84 inches in any dimension?
    • A. 

      A.

    • B. 

      C.

    • C. 

      D.

    • D. 

      Z.

  • 84. 
    Which method code from the Defense Transportation Regulation, Part II, indicates the method is motor and less than a truckload? 
    • A. 

      A.

    • B. 

      B.

    • C. 

      C.

    • D. 

      D.

  • 85. 
    Which form is used to process outbound transportation protective service (TPS) material for movement?
    • A. 

      DD Form 4388.

    • B. 

      AF Form 4387.

    • C. 

      DD Form 250

    • D. 

      AF Form 1300

  • 86. 
    What transportation protective service code identifies shipments that require continuous attendance and surveillance by two qualified drivers? 
    • A. 

      DDP.

    • B. 

      MS.

    • C. 

      RG.

    • D. 

      SM.

  • 87. 
    What is the name of the service provided by the Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC) to keep shippers and receivers informed on the location of loaded freight cars from origin to destination? 
    • A. 

      Expedited Service

    • B. 

      Trailer Tracking Service.

    • C. 

      Freight Car Visibility System

    • D. 

      Military Traffic Expediting Service.

  • 88. 
    Which security risk category has the highest sensitivity? 
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 89. 
    Within how many days is the Surface Deployment and Distribution Command (SDDC) required response time for international route orders (IRO) of nonemergency shipments?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      10.

    • C. 

      14.

    • D. 

      30.

  • 90. 
    What determines the size of nails used to block and brace items in or on carrier equipment?
    • A. 

      Project code.

    • B. 

      Size of cargo

    • C. 

      . Weight of cargo

    • D. 

      Thickness of lumber

  • 91. 
    What pertinent information is required when scheduling a carrier to pick up a shipment.
    • A. 

      Weight, cube, and dimensions of item

    • B. 

      National Stock Number of item

    • C. 

      Weight of item only.

    • D. 

      Cube of item only

  • 92. 
    This guide lists special instructions for proper routing and delivery restriction considerations to include delivery hours and secure holding capabilities for cargo.
    • A. 

      AMC Channel Request Guide.

    • B. 

      Transportation Facilities Guide

    • C. 

      Overland Cargo Capability Guide.

    • D. 

      AMC Channel Request Guide.

  • 93. 
    What mandatory computer system supports all Air Force traffic management freight functions? 
    • A. 

      Logistics Module, base level.

    • B. 

      Global Transportation Network.

    • C. 

      Cargo Movements Operation System

    • D. 

      Automated Airlift Load Planning System

  • 94. 
    What two mobility work centers normally use the Cargo Movements Operations System in the exercise mode?
    • A. 

      Deployment Control Center (DCC) and Cargo Deployment Function (CDF).

    • B. 

      CDF and Personnel Deployment Function (PDF).

    • C. 

      DCC and Motor Vehicle Operation (MVO).

    • D. 

      CDF and MVO.

  • 95. 
    Where are electronic messages sent when released from the Cargo Movements Operations System for cargo and passenger movement in active and exercise modes?
    • A. 

      Convergence (IGC)/ GTN/ IDE

    • B. 

      Logistics Module, base level.

    • C. 

      Automated Airlift Load Planning System.

    • D. 

      Air Force Materiel Command Logistic Tracker website.

  • 96. 
    When does the automated outbound cargo process begin?
    • A. 

      With a need established by the customer for the material.

    • B. 

      When the materiel management flight pulls the item from stock.

    • C. 

      With electronic receipt of shipment information from the source activity

    • D. 

      When the materiel management flight representative brings the cargo to the distribution flight

  • 97. 
    What major command creates and issues a Data Environment (IDE)/Global Transportation Network (GTN) Convergence (IGC) user account? 
    • A. 

      Air Mobility Command.

    • B. 

      Air Force Materiel Command.

    • C. 

      United States Transportation Command.

    • D. 

      Surface Deployment and Distribution Command.

  • 98. 
    What system is the scheduled replacement for the Cargo Movements Operations System and will feed data to the Global Transportation Network? 
    • A. 

      Global Air Transportation Execution System

    • B. 

      Department of the Army Movement Management System.

    • C. 

      Transportation Coordinator Automated Command and Control Information System.

    • D. 

      Transportation Coordinators Automated Information for Movement Systems Version II

  • 99. 
    What internet payment system allows commercial business-to-business trading partners to accomplish pre-audit invoice payments? 
    • A. 

      Syncada.

    • B. 

      Integrated Booking System.

    • C. 

      Global Air Transportation Execution System.

    • D. 

      Bank of America’s EAGLS web-based program

  • 100. 
    What major command pays for much of the transportation of Air Force sponsored cargo? 
    • A. 

      Air Combat Command

    • B. 

      Air Mobility Command

    • C. 

      Air Force Space Command.

    • D. 

      Air Force Materiel Command

  • 101. 
     What is the key to avoiding hazardous waste releases?
    • A. 

      Preventive actions

    • B. 

      Environmental activism.

    • C. 

      Posting environmental goals.

    • D. 

      Implementing the pollution prevention program

  • 102. 
    Which Department of Defense-wide program ensures present operations comply with all federal, state, and local environmental standards?
    • A. 

      The Natural Resources Program

    • B. 

      The Pollution Prevention Program

    • C. 

      The Installation Restoration Program

    • D. 

      The Environmental Compliance Program

  • 103. 
     As a supervisor, what is your general goal for training subordinates?
    • A. 

      Complete all core tasks to enable upgrade to next skill level

    • B. 

      Prepare them for deployment in the Air Expeditionary Force.

    • C. 

      Raise their proficiency level to the point where they are mission-ready technicians

    • D. 

      Promote career broadening by conducting training in all areas of the Air Force specialty code

  • 104. 
     Which is the best way to establish work methods?
    • A. 

      Hold periodic staff meetings.

    • B. 

      Create operating instructions

    • C. 

      Demonstrate current procedures

    • D. 

      Send E-mail messages with relevant information.

  • 105. 
     What project oversight tool(s) can give you a visual representation of the project’s critical path?
    • A. 

      Functional chart

    • B. 

      Organizational chart.

    • C. 

      Personal work diagram.

    • D. 

      Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) and Gantt diagram.

  • 106. 
    What criteria do you normally use to stratify your workers?
    • A. 

      Time in grade, based on date of rank.

    • B. 

      Merit, based on performance on the job

    • C. 

      Time in service, based on date of entry into the Air Force

    • D. 

      Qualifications, based on entries in the worker’s Specialty Training Standard (STS).

  • 107. 
    The formal financial management structure consists of how many groups?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 108. 
     Who ensures development, implementation, and maintenance of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)?
    • A. 

      The career field manager

    • B. 

      The Utilization and Training Workshop.

    • C. 

      The Specialty training requirement team.

    • D. 

      The respective United States Air Force director at the Pentagon

  • 109. 
     The Traffic Management Apprentice Course is which type of formal training?
    • A. 

      Advanced.

    • B. 

      On-the-job.

    • C. 

      . Initial skills.

    • D. 

      Supplemental.

  • 110. 
    A formal course to assist in training individuals to perform certain tasks or duties is an example of
    • A. 

      Advanced training

    • B. 

      On-the-job training

    • C. 

      Initial skills training

    • D. 

      supplemental training

  • 111. 
    The 2T071 Career Development Course (CDC) is used to develop the specialty knowledge test for persons seeking promotion to
    • A. 

      E5/E6.

    • B. 

      E6/E7.

    • C. 

      E7/E8.

    • D. 

      E8/E9.

  • 112. 
     Which organization assists trainees with questions concerning their Career Development Course (CDC)?
    • A. 

      Air Force publications website

    • B. 

      Headquarters, United States Air Force

    • C. 

      The Air Force Career Development Academy (AFCDA)

    • D. 

      Headquarters, Air Education and Training Command (HQ AETC).

  • 113. 
    Which skill level can be awarded after satisfactorily completing the 2T051 Career Development Course (CDC)?
    • A. 

      3 level.

    • B. 

      5 level.

    • C. 

      7 level.

    • D. 

      9 level.

  • 114. 
     A person who manages an entire operation normally holds which skill level?
    • A. 

      3 level

    • B. 

      5 level.

    • C. 

      7 level.

    • D. 

      9 level

  • 115. 
    Which item is used to document, monitor, and maintain a comprehensive record of an Air Force member’s training?
    • A. 

      The individual’s personnel file at the military personnel flight (MPF).

    • B. 

      The individual’s personal information file in the unit orderly room.

    • C. 

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • D. 

      Training Business Area (TBA)/training record

  • 116. 
    Which elements comprise the Air Force Logistics Governance?
    • A. 

      Logistics Council only

    • B. 

      The Functional Group only.

    • C. 

      Logistics Council and Logistics Board only

    • D. 

      Logistics Council, Logistics Board, Logistics Working Group, and the Functional Group.

  • 117. 
    Which publication, titled Moving Your Mobile Home, provides information on moving mobile homes?
    • A. 

      AFI 24–501

    • B. 

      AFJI 24–232

    • C. 

      AFJI 24–231

    • D. 

      DTR 4500.9R, Part 4, Attachment K5

  • 118. 
    Which of these publications is produced by Surface Deployment and Distribution Center (SDDC) in two volumes, and is used to determine special instructions or restrictions for personal property shipments being shipped to a particular installation and country?
    • A. 

      The Joint Travel Regulation (JTR).

    • B. 

      DTR 4500.9–R, Part IV, Personal Property.

    • C. 

      The Domestic Personal Property Rate Solicitation Guide (D–7)

    • D. 

      The Personal Property Consignment Instruction Guide (PPCIG).

  • 119. 
     Which personal property shipping office is manned by members of more than one Department of Defense (DOD) component?
    • A. 

      The logistics readiness squadron.

    • B. 

      The personal property shipping office (PPSO)

    • C. 

      The joint personal property shipping office (JPPSO).

    • D. 

      The traffic management flight in the most centrally located air force base.

  • 120. 
    What is the unaccompanied baggage allowance for an Air Force E–5 doing a permanent change of station (PCS) on an unaccompanied tour outside the continental United States (OCONUS)?
    • A. 

      350 pounds

    • B. 

      500 pounds

    • C. 

      600 pounds.

    • D. 

      1,000 pounds.

  • 121. 
     Which publication lists general information such as identifying codes and contact information about continental United States (CONUS) installations and is used when counseling members on personal property shipments?
    • A. 

      The Personal Property Consignment Instruction Guide, Volume 2.

    • B. 

      The Personal Property Consignment Instruction Guide, Volume 1.

    • C. 

      The Joint Travel Regulation (JTR).

    • D. 

      AFI 24–501 Personal Property moving and storage.

  • 122. 
    How many cubic feet are in one measurement ton?
    • A. 

      20 cubic feet.

    • B. 

      40 cubic feet.

    • C. 

      60 cubic feet.

    • D. 

      80 cubic feet

  • 123. 
    Which form, titled “Private Vehicle Shipping Document for Automobile,” is used as an inspection form at the vehicle processing center?
    • A. 

      AF Form 788.

    • B. 

      DD Form 788.

    • C. 

      AF Form 788–1

    • D. 

      DD Form 788–1.

  • 124. 
     What is the authorized household goods weight allowance for eligible heirs of a deceased active duty member?
    • A. 

      14,000 pounds.

    • B. 

      16,000 pounds

    • C. 

      18,000 pounds.

    • D. 

      20,000 pounds.

  • 125. 
     A member is making a permanent change of station (PCS) move and will have an unaccompanied baggage shipment: one lot of personal property to be put into nontemporary storage, one lot of personal property to be sent to a designated location, and one lot of personal property to be shipped to the new permanent duty station overseas. How many applications for shipment and/or storage of personal property (DD Form 1299) will be prepared?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 126. 
    Which shipment code does not require a DD Form 1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document (TCMD)?
    • A. 

      Code 4.

    • B. 

      Code 5.

    • C. 

      Code J

    • D. 

      Code T

  • 127. 
    How many modules does The Defense Personal Property System (DPS) have?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      7

    • D. 

      17

  • 128. 
    Which Defense Personal Property System (DPS) module generates most of the forms necessary for all services after a one-time entry of data?
    • A. 

      Inbound.

    • B. 

      Outbound.

    • C. 

      Counseling.

    • D. 

      Nontemporary storage

  • 129. 
     Which code of service identifies and applies to the domestic movement of household goods in a motor van from origin residence to destination residence?
    • A. 

      Code 1

    • B. 

      Code 2

    • C. 

      Code 4

    • D. 

      Code 5

  • 130. 
    Which code of service applies to the international movement of house hold goods when the TSP provides packing and pickup at origin, and then delivery to Air Mobility Command (AMC), as well as providing port-to-port transportation by air, and finally the carrier provides delivery to the destination residence?
    • A. 

      Code 5

    • B. 

      Code 8

    • C. 

      Code J

    • D. 

      Code T

  • 131. 
    How much free waiting time is authorized before delivery instructions must be given to the carrier for a household goods shipment to be moved more than 200 miles?
    • A. 

      1 hour

    • B. 

      2 hours.

    • C. 

      12 hours.

    • D. 

      24 hours

  • 132. 
    Carriers are required to provide in-transit visibility for Department of Defense (DOD) personal property shipments
    • A. 

      When the shipment is within 5 days of the required delivery date (RDD)

    • B. 

      when the shipment is not delivered to the destination by the RDD

    • C. 

      upon request at any point during the shipment process

    • D. 

      At any point during the line-haul of the shipment.

  • 133. 
     The excess cost adjudication function (ECAF) process begins when
    • A. 

      ECAF computes costs, and then determines if excess costs have been incurred.

    • B. 

      the member’s responsible finance office notifies the member that excess costs were incurred.

    • C. 

      ECAF forwards a DD Form 139, Pay Adjustment Authorization, to the member’s responsible finance office.

    • D. 

      the transportation service provider (TSP) submits the personal property government bill of lading (PPGBL) to DFAS-Ind. to receive payment for services

  • 134. 
    Which form is used for personnel who must pay excess costs but are no longer in pay status?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1131, Cash Collection Voucher.

    • B. 

      DD Form 139, Pay Adjustment Authorization

    • C. 

      DD Form 1164, Service Order For Personal Property..

    • D. 

      DD Form 1299, Application for Shipment and/or Storage of Personal Property.

  • 135. 
    When collecting excess costs, how soon after receipt of the DD Form 139, Pay Adjustment Authorization, will the local finance office normally begin collection actions?
    • A. 

      30 days.

    • B. 

      60 days.

    • C. 

      90 days.

    • D. 

      120 days.

  • 136. 
    What additional document(s) are required if an excess cost rebuttal package is based on professional books, papers, and equipment (PBP&E)?
    • A. 

      Legible copies of the inventories.

    • B. 

      Photographs of all PBP&E that were part of the shipment in question

    • C. 

      A statement from the carrier stating the PBP&E were not weighed correctly

    • D. 

      A statement from the personal property shipping office (PPSO) that an error was made by the carrier while computing the net weight of the personal property shipment.

  • 137. 
    Which shipment code requires household goods containers to comply with federal specifications?
    • A. 

      Code 1.

    • B. 

      Code 2..(4/5/T)

    • C. 

      Code 7.

    • D. 

      Code J.

  • 138. 
     Agents of Department of Defense (DOD)-approved carriers offering containerized service must maintain a mobile lifting device capable of handling
    • A. 

      2,000 pounds at 24-inch centers.

    • B. 

      4,000 pounds at 24-inch centers.

    • C. 

      6,000 pounds at 24-inch centers

    • D. 

      10,000 pounds at 48-inch centers.

  • 139. 
    As long as the carrier has Department of Defense (DOD) approval what two items are retained in the carrier’s performance file?
    • A. 

      Reports on the carrier’s performance and records of shipment reweighs

    • B. 

      Reports on the carrier’s performance and the carrier’s letter of intent (LOI)

    • C. 

      The carrier’s LOI and copies of all communications concerning the carrier performance.

    • D. 

      The carrier’s LOI and a copy of the transportation officer’s (TO) acceptance of the carrier’s LOI.

  • 140. 
    Which publication prescribes policies and procedures and assigns responsibilities for Department of Defense (DOD) activities performing passenger travel functions?
    • A. 

      AFI 24–101, Passenger Movement.

    • B. 

      DTR 4500.9–R, Defense Transportation Regulation, Part 1, Passenger Movement

    • C. 

      AFI 24–501, Personal property moving and storage

    • D. 

      Joint Travel Regulation–Department of Defense Civilian Personne1 (JTR)

  • 141. 
    What agency creates permanent change of station (PCS) travel orders and validates all orders?
    • A. 

      Commercial travel office.

    • B. 

      Traffic management flight.

    • C. 

      Military personnel section.

    • D. 

      Unit commander’s support staff

  • 142. 
     What should the traffic management passenger clerk do when conducting group briefings? a. Speak loudly.
    • A. 

      Use Powerpoint.

    • B. 

      Speak loudly

    • C. 

      Adjust the briefing accordingly to the group.

    • D. 

      Make sure the area is neat, clean, and organized.

  • 143. 
    The traffic management briefing area should always be
    • A. 

      spacious and clean.

    • B. 

      Clean and easy to find.

    • C. 

      Neat, clean, and orderly

    • D. 

      Neat, clean, and present a military image.

  • 144. 
     Which air travel category must you use, if available, for personnel traveling on official orders to overseas outside the continental United States (OCONUS) locations?
    • A. 

      General Service Administration (GSA) international city-pairs.

    • B. 

      Air Mobility Command (AMC) category M

    • C. 

      Commercial, category Z

    • D. 

      . AMC category B

  • 145. 
    Which mode of travel is very limited within the continental United States (CONUS) and does not serve many small cities and towns?
    • A. 

      Air.

    • B. 

      Bus.

    • C. 

      Rail.

    • D. 

      Water.

  • 146. 
    Which category of air travel listed is the most expensive?
    • A. 

      General Services Administration (GSA), international city-pairs

    • B. 

      Air Mobility Command (AMC) category M.

    • C. 

      Commercial, category Z.

    • D. 

      AMC category B

  • 147. 
     In addition to finding out when future flights will be loaded into Global Air Transportation Execution System (GATES), you contact the Air Mobility Command (AMC) passenger reservation center (PRC) by phone to
    • A. 

      Request rate information.

    • B. 

      Request reallocation of seats

    • C. 

      Create a reservation for a group

    • D. 

      create a reservation for an individual

  • 148. 
    Which type of travel is defined as “Air Mobility Command (AMC)-procured plane load charter on commercial aircraft?”
    • A. 

      Category B

    • B. 

      Category M.

    • C. 

      Category Z.

    • D. 

      General Services Administration (GSA) international city-pairs

  • 149. 
    Which type of orders is issued to a member being transferred from home of record to the first permanent duty assignment?
    • A. 

      Return to duty orders.

    • B. 

      Dependent travel orders

    • C. 

      Temporary duty (TDY) orders

    • D. 

      Permanent change of station (PCS) orders

  • 150. 
    Separate dependent travel orders are required for military dependents traveling more than how long after the sponsor’s report no later than date?
    • A. 

      6 months.

    • B. 

      9 months.

    • C. 

      12 months

    • D. 

      No time limit.

  • 151. 
    When an active-duty member outside the continental United States (OCONUS) must travel on emergency leave, which publication requires using government transportation if reasonably available?
    • A. 

      AFI 24–101, Passenger Movement

    • B. 

      Joint Travel Regulation (JTR)

    • C. 

      AFI–501, Personal Property moving and storage

    • D. 

      DTR 4500.9–R, Defense Transportation Regulation

  • 152. 
    Which travel payment method is being phased out and replaced by other payment methods?
    • A. 

      The unit card.

    • B. 

      . The centrally billed account (CBA).

    • C. 

      The individually billed account (IBA).

    • D. 

      The government transportation request (GTR).

  • 153. 
    The preferred method of payment for commercial travel tickets for individual travelers is the
    • A. 

      Transportation account codes (TAC Codes)

    • B. 

      Government transportation request (GTR).

    • C. 

      Second destination transportation account

    • D. 

      individually billed account (IBA).

  • 154. 
    Which identifier do you use to track a space-confirmed Air Mobility Command (AMC) passenger reservation?
    • A. 

      The unique control number (UCN).

    • B. 

      The transportation control number (TCN).

    • C. 

      The traveler’s last name and date of reservation.

    • D. 

      The traveler’s social security account number (SSAN)

  • 155. 
    When individual travelers are funded using the centrally billed account (CBA), the traffic management flight (TMF) must make the CBA payment to the bank within how many days after receiving the bill?
    • A. 

      15 days

    • B. 

      30 days

    • C. 

      45 days.

    • D. 

      60 days

  • 156. 
    Which one do you like?
    • A. 

      Option 1

    • B. 

      Option 2

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 157. 
    People love going