2t071 CDC
.
- 1.
What item identifies a capabilities package in terms of personnel who have certain qualifications and certain types of equipment?
- A.
Unit type code.
- B.
Unit line number.
- C.
Designed Operational Capability
- D.
Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data
Correct Answer
A. Unit type code. -
- 2.
What item lists by operation plan all unit type codes a wing is tasked to support and indicates times, movement data, and modes of transport?
- A.
Unit line number
- B.
Unit manning document
- C.
Designed Operational Capability.
- D.
Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data
Correct Answer
D. Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data -
- 3.
What deployment work center is responsible for the overall control, direction, and supervision of deployments?
- A.
Motor vehicle operations.
- B.
Deployment control center.
- C.
Cargo deployment function
- D.
Personnel deployment function
Correct Answer
B. Deployment control center. -
- 4.
What category of airlift mission provides air movement of personnel, supplies, and equipment on a sustained, selective, or emergency basis to dispersed sites within a theater of operations?
- A.
Theater
- B.
Strategic.
- C.
Operational support.
- D.
Civil Reserve Air Fleet.
Correct Answer
A. Theater -
- 5.
What types of orders are self-triggering and become effective upon proclamation of a civil defense emergency by the president?
- A.
Unit line number deployment orders
- B.
Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data orders
- C.
Air and Space Expeditionary Force deployment orders.
- D.
Interstate Commerce Commission Transportation Mobilization orders
Correct Answer
D. Interstate Commerce Commission Transportation Mobilization orders -
- 6.
What installation-level strategy is designed to support unified and specified command wartime operation plans, as well as major command supporting plans?
- A.
Base support plan
- B.
Wing operations plan.
- C.
Expeditionary site plan
- D.
Resource augmentation plan.
Correct Answer
A. Base support plan -
- 7.
Who is responsible to establish a base support planning committee?
- A.
Installation commander.
- B.
Mission deployment officer
- C.
Mission support group commander.
- D.
Logistics readiness squadron commander.
Correct Answer
A. Installation commander. -
- 8.
What program can assist commanders in validating, approving, and documenting the need for additional personnel resources to support installation-level requirements?
- A.
Augmentation.
- B.
Mobilization support.
- C.
Base support planning
- D.
The war reserve materiel joint-use.
Correct Answer
A. Augmentation. -
- 9.
What term describes using people in other than their assigned control Air Force Specialty Code duties?
- A.
Mobilization.
- B.
Augmentation
- C.
Implementation.
- D.
Career broadening.
Correct Answer
B. Augmentation -
- 10.
What is the agreement between the US Air Force and another service or a Department of Defense component?
- A.
Host-tenant.
- B.
Interservice.
- C.
Intraservice.
- D.
Intragovernment.
Correct Answer
B. Interservice. -
- 11.
The agency that has the primary responsibility for a support agreement program is the installation
- A.
Legal office
- B.
Manpower office.
- C.
Supplier support agreement manager’s office.
- D.
functional area support agreement coordinator’s office.
Correct Answer
C. Supplier support agreement manager’s office. -
- 12.
What does the transportation evaluator use to advise the procurement contracting officer regarding the terms in contract solicitations?
- A.
Officially approved charges and rates.
- B.
Other solicitations to ensure all are equal
- C.
Rates most advantageous to the government
- D.
The expiring contract to detect an increase in charges
Correct Answer
A. Officially approved charges and rates. -
- 13.
When can equipment owned by the Air Reserve Components be reassigned to the active force for the Security Assistance Program?
- A.
When circumstances require the active force to rapidly expand.
- B.
Only with written approval from the Commander, Air Force Reserves (AFRES)
- C.
When requested 90 days prior to reassignment, and approved by the Commander, AFRES.
- D.
Only with the advanced written approval of the Secretary or Deputy Secretary of Defense.
Correct Answer
D. Only with the advanced written approval of the Secretary or Deputy Secretary of Defense. -
- 14.
Who validates requests for Air Reserve component augmentation?
- A.
Secretary of defense.
- B.
Secretary of the Air Force
- C.
Commander of the unit that will perform augmentation duties
- D.
Major command or field operating agency office of primary responsibility.
Correct Answer
D. Major command or field operating agency office of primary responsibility. -
- 15.
What characteristic is not included in an item’s identity?
- A.
Condition.
- B.
Stock number
- C.
Item description (nomenclature)
- D.
Reference number (part number).
Correct Answer
D. Reference number (part number). -
- 16.
What system is the most widely used method for determining an item’s identity?
- A.
Enterprise Solution Supply (ES-S).
- B.
Federal logistics system (FEDLOG).
- C.
Standard Base Supply System (SBSS).
- D.
Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS).
Correct Answer
B. Federal logistics system (FEDLOG). -
- 17.
Which of the following is not one of the three elements used to make up a reject phrase?
- A.
A descriptive phrase.
- B.
A descriptive flag
- C.
An action flag
- D.
A reject code
Correct Answer
B. A descriptive flag -
- 18.
How often is the Military Standard Transportation and Movement Procedures (MILSTAMP) Tracer Reconciliation program ran?
- A.
Once a week.
- B.
Twice a week.
- C.
Once a month
- D.
Twice a month
Correct Answer
D. Twice a month -
- 19.
How are consolidated shipments identified on the Consolidated Shipment Error List?
- A.
Lead Transportation Control Number (TCN)
- B.
Consolidate Transaction History (CTH).
- C.
National stock number (NSN).
- D.
Transportation Tracer List.
Correct Answer
A. Lead Transportation Control Number (TCN) -
- 20.
What Defense Department (DD) form is used as an accountable document for items received in Base Supply?
- A.
DD Form 250.
- B.
DD Form 1149.
- C.
DD Form 1348–1A
- D.
DD Form 1384.
Correct Answer
C. DD Form 1348–1A -
- 21.
What is the primary form used to enter cargo into the Defense Transportation System?
- A.
DD Form 250
- B.
DD Form 1149.
- C.
DD Form 1348–1A.
- D.
DD Form 1384.
Correct Answer
C. DD Form 1348–1A. -
- 22.
What form, although being phased out, is still used for foreign customs clearance?
- A.
Transportation Control Movement Document.
- B.
DD Form 1387.
- C.
Government bill of lading
- D.
DD Form 470
Correct Answer
C. Government bill of lading -
- 23.
What form is submitted to the local finance office, and then used to give you obligation authority?
- A.
AF Form 616.
- B.
DD Form 173–2.
- C.
DD Form 470.
- D.
DD Form 1149.
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 616. -
- 24.
What form is most commonly used to report transportation discrepancies?
- A.
DD Form 361.
- B.
AF Form 1810.
- C.
DD Form 1348–1A.
- D.
DD Form 1384.
Correct Answer
A. DD Form 361. -
- 25.
What form is used to send a request for information concerning a transportation discrepancy?
- A.
DD Form 1348–1A.
- B.
DD Form 1149.
- C.
AF Form 616.
- D.
DD Form 361.
Correct Answer
D. DD Form 361. -
- 26.
What is the four-digit designator used to identify the appropriate service, agency, foreign military sales country, or contractor responsible for funding Defense Transportation System charges?
- A.
Transportation account code
- B.
First destination transportation code
- C.
Defense Working Capital Fund code
- D.
Second destination transportation code.
Correct Answer
A. Transportation account code -
- 27.
Which major command maintains a website to determine proper transportation account code assignment based on assigned national stock number?
- A.
Air Mobility Command.
- B.
Air Force Materiel Command.
- C.
United Stated Transportation Command
- D.
Surface Deployment and Distribution Command.
Correct Answer
B. Air Force Materiel Command. -
- 28.
What billing procedure allows offices to cite specific Air Force Working Capital Fund or second destination transportation centrally managed allotment to pay for reparables to a contractor or depot?
- A.
Power Track.
- B.
First party billing
- C.
Second party payment system.
- D.
Third party payment system.
Correct Answer
D. Third party payment system. -
- 29.
How many times a month is the Transportation Tracer Listing (TTL) provided to cargo movement for shipments requiring tracer action or receipt of information?
- A.
Once.
- B.
Twice.
- C.
Three times
- D.
Four times.
Correct Answer
B. Twice. -
- 30.
What annotation is required when repetitive line items from the previous Transportation Tracer Listing (TTL) are discovered?
- A.
“TMI action required.”
- B.
“Updated Shipment Status.”
- C.
“DD 361/Message Attached.”
- D.
“Previously Researched by the Cargo Movement Section.”
Correct Answer
D. “Previously Researched by the Cargo Movement Section.” -
- 31.
How often does the Management and Systems Flight provide the Cargo Movement Section with the R40?
- A.
Once a month.
- B.
Once a quarter
- C.
Once every two weeks
- D.
Once a year, at the end of the fiscal year
Correct Answer
C. Once every two weeks -
- 32.
Who reports Transportation Service Provider performance issues/failures that affect the safe, secure, efficient, and cost effective transport of Department of Defense (DOD) owned cargo?
- A.
Surface Deployment Distribution Command (SDDC)
- B.
Air Mobility Command (AMC).
- C.
Shipping activities.
- D.
Receiving activities.
Correct Answer
C. Shipping activities. -
- 33.
What command governs the duration of nationwide Non-use or disqualification actions?
- A.
Air Mobility Command (AMC).
- B.
Military Sealift Command (MSC).
- C.
The Department of Transportation (DOT).
- D.
Surface Deployment Distribution Command (SDDC).
Correct Answer
D. Surface Deployment Distribution Command (SDDC). -
- 34.
Which hazard is considered the hidden hazard common to all packaging shops?
- A.
Saws.
- B.
Noise.
- C.
Hand tools
- D.
Warehousing.
Correct Answer
B. Noise. -
- 35.
AFI 91–202, The USAF Mishap Prevention Program, outlines the Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) program which is implemented to protect Air Force personnel from death by
- A.
Managing risks both on and off duty
- B.
Mastering material handling and storage requirements.
- C.
Listing occupational health criteria for manual material handling equipment.
- D.
Listing occupational health criteria for powered material handling equipment
Correct Answer
A. Managing risks both on and off duty -
- 36.
Which term means “deterioration of material due to electrochemical or chemical attack resulting from exposure to natural or induced environmental conditions?”
- A.
Abrasion.
- B.
Corrosion.
- C.
Impairment.
- D.
Deterioration.
Correct Answer
B. Corrosion. -
- 37.
Which items require level A packaging protection?
- A.
Foreign military sales.
- B.
Containerized overseas shipments.
- C.
Strategic and theater deployment items.
- D.
An item you know will be in closed storage.
Correct Answer
C. Strategic and theater deployment items. -
- 38.
Which saw is primarily used to make curved cuts, and frequently used for free-hand cutting?
- A.
Band saw.
- B.
Table saw.
- C.
Panel saw
- D.
Radial arm saw
Correct Answer
A. Band saw. -
- 39.
How do you prevent kickbacks while using the portable circular saw?
- A.
Ensure saw depth exceeds ¼ inch beyond depth of material
- B.
Keep the blade away from the edge of the material before starting.
- C.
Proper alignment and tension of the blade on the upper idler wheel.
- D.
Align the yoke slide before each and every cut, engaging the cross cutting safety switch
Correct Answer
B. Keep the blade away from the edge of the material before starting. -
- 40.
What is the first step in the lockout/tagout procedure?
- A.
Notify your supervisor
- B.
Fill out AF Form 981, Out of Order Tag
- C.
Immediately unplug the saw from the power source
- D.
Inform all military and civilian employees about the equipment status
Correct Answer
C. Immediately unplug the saw from the power source -
- 41.
Which characteristic of cushioning is the time it takes the material to return to its original shape after compression?
- A.
Liquid absorption capacity
- B.
Rate of recovery.
- C.
Compression set.
- D.
Resilience.
Correct Answer
B. Rate of recovery. -
- 42.
Which type of cushioning material has the advantage of good performance in cold temperatures?
- A.
Bound fiber.
- B.
Polyurethane foam
- C.
Polystyrene cushioning.
- D.
Water-resistant cellulose cushioning
Correct Answer
D. Water-resistant cellulose cushioning -
- 43.
What common document often lists a special packaging instruction (SPI) for items shipped?
- A.
DD Form 1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document.
- B.
DD Form 1348–1A, Issue Release/Receipt Document
- C.
SPI-to-national stock number cross-reference list.
- D.
SPI management notice.
Correct Answer
B. DD Form 1348–1A, Issue Release/Receipt Document -
- 44.
What item characteristic dictates the cushioning, blocking, and bracing required?
- A.
Size.
- B.
Cost.
- C.
Shape.
- D.
Weight.
Correct Answer
C. Shape. -
- 45.
What is the primary advantage of wooden boxes over fiberboard boxes?
- A.
They are stronger.
- B.
They come prefabricated
- C.
You can easily construct a wooden box to be any size you need
- D.
They are easier to open and reclose because they are nailed, not taped.
Correct Answer
A. They are stronger. -
- 46.
What maximum outside dimensions (in feet) are most desirable for crates?
- A.
30 × 9 × 7
- B.
32 × 8 × 8.
- C.
34 × 9 × 7.
- D.
36 × 8 × 8.
Correct Answer
A. 30 × 9 × 7 -
- 47.
For at least how many trips should Category II–short life containers be reusable?
- A.
10.
- B.
50.
- C.
100.
- D.
200.
Correct Answer
A. 10. -
- 48.
What column is the key to interpreting the special packaging instruction?
- A.
Revisions.
- B.
Reference.
- C.
Description.
- D.
List of materials.
Correct Answer
B. Reference. -
- 49.
Why would you use fiberboard for blocking and bracing?
- A.
Separate multiple items in a box.
- B.
Provide a divider in the container.
- C.
Prevent movement of disassembled parts.
- D.
Provide an easy-to-disassemble packaging
Correct Answer
C. Prevent movement of disassembled parts. -
- 50.
What would you use in blocking and bracing operations to provide an opening for desiccant?
- A.
Fiberboard.
- B.
Polyethylene film.
- C.
Polyurethane foam.
- D.
Any water-vapor-proof barrier material.
Correct Answer
A. Fiberboard. -
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Current Version
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Jan 22, 2020Quiz Edited by
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Jul 31, 2016Quiz Created by
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