3S251: Education And Training Manager Journeyman! Airforce Trivia Quiz

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  • 1/124 Questions

    What three parts of the work center mission are defined during the analysis phase? 

    • Manning, purpose, and products.
    • Purpose, products, and customers.
    • Purpose, manning, and customers.
    • Manning, products, and customers.
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About This Quiz

Below is a 3S251 Education and Training Manager Journeyman Airforce Trivia Quiz. If you hold the position, you will be expected to help people learn more about the duties. They will be performing in the air force and the procedures too. How about you give the quiz a try and see how prepared you are for the finals. All the best!

3S251: Education And Training Manager Journeyman! Airforce Trivia Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    When performing a needs assessment you must look at...

    • Contingency tasks and product tasks.

    • Additional duties and customer tasks.

    • Special work requirements, product tasks, and customer tasks.

    • Additional duties, recurring tasks, contingency tasks, and special work requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. Additional duties, recurring tasks, contingency tasks, and special work requirements.
    Explanation
    When performing a needs assessment, it is important to consider all aspects of the job requirements. This includes not only the regular tasks and duties that need to be performed (recurring tasks), but also any unexpected or unforeseen tasks that may arise (contingency tasks). Additionally, special work requirements specific to the job or industry should be taken into account, as well as any additional duties that may be assigned. By considering all these factors, the needs assessment can provide a comprehensive understanding of the job requirements and help in identifying any gaps or areas for improvement.

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  • 3. 

    Which source usually provides the best information for identifying work centertasks? 

    • Interviews.

    • Several sources.

    • Questionnaires.

    • Existing documents.

    Correct Answer
    A. Several sources.
    Explanation
    Several sources usually provide the best information for identifying work center tasks because relying on multiple sources allows for a more comprehensive and accurate understanding of the tasks involved. Interviews, questionnaires, and existing documents can all contribute valuable insights and perspectives, helping to ensure that no important tasks are overlooked. By considering information from multiple sources, a more well-rounded and reliable picture of work center tasks can be obtained.

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  • 4. 

    The specialty training standard (STS) is part of the...

    • AF Form 623A, On-the-Job Training Record.

    • AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

    • Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS).

    • Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). The CFETP is a comprehensive document that outlines the education and training requirements for a specific career field in the Air Force. It provides detailed information on the knowledge, skills, and abilities required for each job within the career field. The CFETP serves as a guide for individuals seeking to progress in their career and for supervisors and trainers to ensure that training is standardized and meets the needs of the career field. It is a crucial tool for career development and training management in the Air Force.

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  • 5. 

    What qualifications are needed for a person to be considered a subject matter expert(SME)? 

    • Field expertise and recent job experience.

    • Time in grade and supervisory experience.

    • Field expertise and familiarity with the training systems being used.

    • Recent job experience and trainer skills.

    Correct Answer
    A. Field expertise and recent job experience.
    Explanation
    To be considered a subject matter expert (SME), a person needs to have field expertise and recent job experience. Field expertise ensures that the person has in-depth knowledge and understanding of the subject matter, while recent job experience ensures that the person is up-to-date with the latest developments and practices in the field. This combination of field expertise and recent job experience allows the person to provide valuable insights and guidance in their area of expertise.

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  • 6. 

    When preparing for a subject matter expert (SME) interview, your first step is to review the... 

    • Applicable training standards.

    • Unit’s mission statements.

    • Unit’s training folders.

    • Management engineering team surveys.

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit’s mission statements.
    Explanation
    When preparing for a subject matter expert (SME) interview, reviewing the unit's mission statements is the first step. This is because the mission statements provide a clear understanding of the goals, objectives, and purpose of the unit. By reviewing the mission statements, the interviewer can gain insights into the specific areas of expertise required for the SME role and tailor the interview questions accordingly. Additionally, understanding the mission statements helps the interviewer assess the candidate's alignment with the unit's objectives and their ability to contribute effectively to the organization's overall mission.

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  • 7. 

    The publication that contains information about organizations and their mission is the...

    • Air Force index (AFIND).

    • Air Force mission directive (AFMD).

    • Air Force manual (AFMAN).

    • Air Force instruction (AFI).

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force mission directive (AFMD).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Force mission directive (AFMD). This publication is likely to contain information about organizations and their mission since it specifically focuses on the mission of the Air Force. The other options, such as the Air Force index (AFIND), Air Force manual (AFMAN), and Air Force instruction (AFI), may contain information about various topics related to the Air Force, but they may not specifically focus on organizations and their mission.

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  • 8. 

    In researching for a subject matter expert (SME) interview, which form identifiesthe duties required for civilian personnel?

    • AF Form 1378, Civilian Personnel Position Description.

    • AF Form 623, On-the-Job Training Record.

    • AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

    • AF Form 125, Application for Extended Active Duty with the United States Air Force.

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 1378, Civilian Personnel Position Description.
    Explanation
    The AF Form 1378, Civilian Personnel Position Description, is the form that identifies the duties required for civilian personnel. This form outlines the specific responsibilities and tasks that are expected of individuals in a particular position within the civilian workforce. It is used to provide a clear understanding of the job requirements and to ensure that the right individuals are selected for the role. The other forms listed in the options do not pertain to identifying the duties required for civilian personnel.

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  • 9. 

    Questions developed for a subject matter expert (SME) interview should be...

    • Multiple choice only.

    • Specific and pertinent to the subject.

    • Yes and no answer-type only.

    • Pertinent to the idea and random.

    Correct Answer
    A. Specific and pertinent to the subject.
    Explanation
    Questions developed for a subject matter expert (SME) interview should be specific and pertinent to the subject because this ensures that the interview focuses on relevant and in-depth knowledge. By asking specific and pertinent questions, the interviewer can assess the candidate's expertise and understanding of the subject matter accurately. This approach helps to gather valuable insights and information from the SME, making the interview more effective in evaluating their proficiency and suitability for the role.

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  • 10. 

    When conducting a subject matter expert (SME) interview, you shouldcommunicate on a level which...

    • Promotes mutual respect.

    • Signifies the interviewee is inferior.

    • Implies that the interviewer is superior to the interviewee.

    • Recognizes the interviewee as a superior.

    Correct Answer
    A. Promotes mutual respect.
    Explanation
    When conducting a subject matter expert (SME) interview, it is important to communicate on a level that promotes mutual respect. This means treating the interviewee as an equal and valuing their expertise and knowledge. It is crucial to create an environment where both parties feel comfortable and respected, fostering open and productive communication. This approach helps to establish a positive relationship between the interviewer and interviewee, ensuring a successful and fruitful interview process.

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  • 11. 

    When asking questions during a subject matter expert interview (SME), speak...

    • Distinctly and with the correct pitch.

    • Forcibly and distinctly.

    • Distinctly and clearly.

    • Clearly and forcibly.

    Correct Answer
    A. Distinctly and clearly.
    Explanation
    During a subject matter expert interview (SME), it is important to speak distinctly and clearly. This ensures that the information being conveyed is easily understood by the interviewer and any other individuals present. Speaking with the correct pitch may also be important to maintain a professional and engaging tone, but it is not explicitly mentioned in the question. Therefore, the most accurate answer is "distinctly and clearly."

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  • 12. 

    After asking a question during a subject matter expert (SME) interview, what shouldyou do to show you care about the response?

    • Proceed directly to the next question.

    • Mentally formulate another question.

    • Listen to the reply.

    • Establish good eye contact.

    Correct Answer
    A. Listen to the reply.
    Explanation
    To show that you care about the response during a subject matter expert (SME) interview, you should listen to the reply. This means actively paying attention to what the expert is saying, showing interest and engagement in their response. By listening attentively, you demonstrate respect for their expertise and value their input, which can help build rapport and foster a productive interview environment.

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  • 13. 

    What are the three sections of a questionnaire?

    • Identification, task listing, and questions.

    • Identification, task listing, and background.

    • Instructions, background, and additional comments.

    • Instructions, background, and questions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Instructions, background, and questions.
    Explanation
    The three sections of a questionnaire are instructions, background, and questions. Instructions provide guidance on how to complete the questionnaire, ensuring that respondents understand what is expected of them. The background section provides context and relevant information about the purpose of the questionnaire, helping respondents to understand the significance of their responses. The questions section is where the actual survey questions are presented, allowing respondents to provide their answers and opinions. This structure ensures that respondents are properly informed and can provide accurate and meaningful responses to the questionnaire.

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  • 14. 

    Once you write the instructions for a questionnaire, what is the next step?

    • Proof read the instructions yourself.

    • Rewrite the instructions as necessary.

    • Include the instructions in the questionnaire.

    • Have someone else read the instructions and provide input.

    Correct Answer
    A. Have someone else read the instructions and provide input.
    Explanation
    The next step after writing the instructions for a questionnaire is to have someone else read the instructions and provide input. This is important because having a fresh set of eyes can help identify any unclear or confusing parts in the instructions. It also allows for feedback and suggestions on how to improve the clarity and effectiveness of the instructions. Proofreading and rewriting the instructions may still be necessary, but getting input from someone else is a crucial step in ensuring the quality of the questionnaire instructions.

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  • 15. 

    When used on a questionnaire, a closed-ended question...

    • Allows for additional comments.

    • Allows for a wide range of answers.

    • Limits the choice of possible responses.

    • Requires the respondents to use their own words to describe a task.

    Correct Answer
    A. Limits the choice of possible responses.
    Explanation
    A closed-ended question restricts the possible responses that the respondents can choose from. It typically provides a list of predetermined options or a scale for respondents to select their answer from. This type of question is designed to gather specific and standardized information, making it easier to analyze and compare responses. By limiting the choice of possible responses, closed-ended questions help maintain consistency and ensure that the data collected is easily quantifiable and interpretable.

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  • 16. 

    When developing a master task listing (MTL), to keep it useful, you shouldremember to...

    • Keep it as simple as possible.

    • Use it to the advantage of the designer.

    • Place it in a computer system.

    • Make it complex and technically accurate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Keep it as simple as possible.
    Explanation
    When developing a master task listing (MTL), it is important to keep it as simple as possible. This ensures that the MTL remains easy to understand and navigate for all users. A simple MTL allows for efficient task management and minimizes confusion or errors that may arise from a complex or convoluted listing. By keeping the MTL simple, it can serve as a practical and effective tool for organizing and prioritizing tasks.

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  • 17. 

    Which training document shows tasks that are applicable to an entire career fieldand can be part of a master task listing (MTL)?

    • Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS).

    • AF Form 623A, On-the-Job Training Record–Continuation Sheet.

    • AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

    • Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
    Explanation
    The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is a training document that shows tasks applicable to an entire career field and can be part of a master task listing (MTL). It provides a comprehensive overview of the knowledge and skills required for a particular career field and serves as a guide for training and development. The CFETP outlines the training objectives, career progression, and recommended training courses for individuals in a specific career field. It is a valuable resource for career planning and professional development within the Air Force.

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  • 18. 

    When a question of training capability arises, what base-level tool is available todetermine if there are any local personnel who hold the Air Force specialty code (AFSC)?

    • Military Personnel data system (MILPDS).

    • Core automated maintenance system (CAMS).

    • Training folders.

    • Personnel records.

    Correct Answer
    A. Military Personnel data system (MILPDS).
    Explanation
    The Military Personnel data system (MILPDS) is the correct answer because it is a base-level tool that can be used to determine if there are any local personnel who hold the Air Force specialty code (AFSC). MILPDS is a comprehensive database that contains information on all active duty, reserve, and guard personnel in the Air Force. It includes details such as rank, job specialty, training records, and other personnel information. By accessing MILPDS, training personnel can easily identify individuals with the required AFSC for specific training purposes.

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  • 19. 

    What training status code (TSC) is used when a training capability problem preventsa trainee from progressing in training?

    • M.

    • P.

    • R.

    • T.

    Correct Answer
    A. P.
    Explanation
    The training status code (TSC) P is used when a training capability problem prevents a trainee from progressing in training. This means that there is an issue with the trainee's ability to continue with the training, which could be due to various factors such as lack of skills or knowledge, physical limitations, or other obstacles that hinder their progress.

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  • 20. 

    Who can authorize automation of a specialty training standard (STS)?

    • Major command (MAJCOM) training manager.

    • MAJCOM functional manager.

    • Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    • Base training manager.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
    Explanation
    The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the individual who has the authority to authorize automation of a specialty training standard (STS). This means that they have the power to approve the use of automated systems or processes in relation to the training standard for a specific career field in the Air Force. The base training manager, major command (MAJCOM) training manager, and MAJCOM functional manager do not have the same level of authority as the AFCFM in this matter.

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  • 21. 

    When conducting an initial evaluation on a recent technical school graduate, youshould base the evaluation on the tasks listed in the...

    • Report of Task Evaluations.

    • Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS).

    • Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

    • Career field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Career field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
    Explanation
    The Career field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) is the most appropriate document to base the evaluation on for a recent technical school graduate. CFETP provides a comprehensive overview of the education and training requirements for a specific career field, outlining the tasks, knowledge, and skills necessary for successful performance. It serves as a guide for career development and helps in assessing the proficiency of individuals in their respective career fields. The other options, such as Report of Task Evaluations, Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS), and Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS, may provide additional information but do not provide a holistic view of the education and training requirements for the career field.

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  • 22. 

    When conducting an initial evaluation on a reassigned individual, you determine ifthe individual is still qualified on work center tasks by...

    • Using only the specialty training standard (STS) to conduct the evaluation.

    • Matching the individual’s qualifications to the work center requirements.

    • Evaluating only the individual’s knowledge of the tasks required for the assigned duty position.

    • Evaluating the individual’s ability to do the task based on the proficiency levels listed in the appropriate training standard.

    Correct Answer
    A. Matching the individual’s qualifications to the work center requirements.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is matching the individual's qualifications to the work center requirements because this ensures that the individual has the necessary skills and knowledge to perform the tasks required for the assigned duty position. By comparing the individual's qualifications to the specific requirements of the work center, you can determine if they are still qualified for the tasks. This evaluation takes into account not only the individual's knowledge of the tasks but also their overall qualifications and suitability for the position.

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  • 23. 

    Unit review exercise (URE) questions are designed to be answered by whichmethod?

    • Open book.

    • Closed book.

    • Open forum.

    • Group study.

    Correct Answer
    A. Open book.
    Explanation
    URE questions are designed to be answered using the open book method. This means that students are allowed to refer to their textbooks, notes, or any other study materials while answering the questions. This approach encourages students to focus on understanding and applying the concepts rather than memorizing information. By allowing open book assessments, students have the opportunity to demonstrate their comprehension and critical thinking skills rather than solely relying on memorization.

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  • 24. 

    When a unit training manager (UTM) interviews prospective candidates retraininginto Air Force specialty code 3S2X1, what are the two essential qualities the UTM musthave in order to conduct a successful interview?

    • Common sense and fair judgment.

    • Technical writing skills and diplomacy.

    • Experience and at least an Associate’s degree.

    • The ability to work with people and communicate effectively.

    Correct Answer
    A. The ability to work with people and communicate effectively.
    Explanation
    The UTM must have the ability to work with people and communicate effectively in order to conduct a successful interview. This is because they need to be able to establish rapport with the candidates and create a comfortable environment for them to express themselves. Additionally, effective communication skills are necessary to ask relevant questions, listen actively, and provide clear information about the retraining process. These qualities are essential for the UTM to gather accurate information about the candidates and make informed decisions regarding their suitability for the Air Force specialty code 3S2X1.

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  • 25. 

    As the base education and training expert, which is not a training program area whereyou provide advice and assistance?

    • Resolving a unit’s lack of training capability.

    • Resolving scheduling conflicts between units and training providers.

    • Clarifying and explaining unit training manager (UGM) problem areas.

    • Resolving career development course (CDC) problems by scheduling one-on-one study sessions with the trainee.

    Correct Answer
    A. Resolving career development course (CDC) problems by scheduling one-on-one study sessions with the trainee.
  • 26. 

    Which type of publication is directive in nature?

    • Periodical.

    • Operating instructions.

    • Non-recurring pamphlets.

    • Miscellaneous publication.

    Correct Answer
    A. Operating instructions.
    Explanation
    Operating instructions are considered directive in nature because they provide specific guidance and instructions on how to operate or use a particular product or equipment. These publications are designed to give users step-by-step directions and information on safety precautions, maintenance, troubleshooting, and other necessary details. Unlike periodicals, which are typically informative or entertaining, operating instructions have a clear purpose of providing direct guidance to the users. Non-recurring pamphlets and miscellaneous publications may contain various types of information, but they may not necessarily be directive in nature.

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  • 27. 

    Which action do you take when coordinating and reviewing an Air Force jobqualification standard (AFJQS)?

    • Line through any tasks not required at your base.

    • Review and return it to base training without comment.

    • Forward recommendations to the major command (MAJCOM) training office.

    • Delay coordination until after the utilization and training workshop (U&TW).

    Correct Answer
    A. Line through any tasks not required at your base.
    Explanation
    When coordinating and reviewing an Air Force job qualification standard (AFJQS), the appropriate action to take is to line through any tasks that are not required at your base. This ensures that the AFJQS accurately reflects the specific job requirements at your base and avoids confusion or unnecessary training for personnel. By removing tasks that are not relevant, the AFJQS becomes a more effective tool for assessing and qualifying individuals for their job roles.

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  • 28. 

    Who authorizes that an Air Force job qualification standard (AFJQS) will be used asa stand-alone document?

    • Major command (MAJCOM) education and training manager.

    • Base education and training (E&T) manager.

    • Unit E&T manager.

    • Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
    Explanation
    The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) authorizes that an Air Force job qualification standard (AFJQS) will be used as a stand-alone document. This individual is responsible for overseeing the career field and ensuring that all job qualifications and standards are met. They have the authority to determine the use and implementation of the AFJQS, making them the appropriate authority to authorize its use as a stand-alone document.

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  • 29. 

    Which type of edit are you performing when you review a publication for common English mistakes?

    • Technical edit

    • Composition edit

    • Instructional edit

    • All the listed items are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. Composition edit
    Explanation
    When reviewing a publication for common English mistakes, you are performing a composition edit. This type of edit focuses on improving the overall structure, flow, and clarity of the writing. It involves checking for grammar, punctuation, sentence structure, and coherence to ensure that the content is well-organized and easily understandable for the readers.

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  • 30. 

    What document, obtained from MilPDS, is used to provide an overall picture oftraining progress in your unit?

    • On-the-job training (OJT) roster.

    • Career development course (CDC) report.

    • AF Form 623, On-the-Job Training Record.

    • AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation /Command JQS.

    Correct Answer
    A. On-the-job training (OJT) roster.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is On-the-job training (OJT) roster. This document, obtained from MilPDS, provides an overall picture of training progress in a unit. It lists all individuals who are currently undergoing on-the-job training and tracks their progress. It allows supervisors and commanders to monitor the training status of their personnel and ensure that all necessary training requirements are being met. The OJT roster helps in identifying any gaps in training and enables the unit to effectively manage and track the progress of their personnel's training.

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  • 31. 

    What process is initiated if a trainee fails to meet mandatory skill qualifications?

    • AFSC withdraw

    • Annotate AF Form 623a

    • Request extension

    • Start over

    Correct Answer
    A. AFSC withdraw
    Explanation
    If a trainee fails to meet mandatory skill qualifications, the process that is initiated is AFSC withdraw. This means that the trainee will be removed from their current Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) and may be reassigned to a different AFSC or discharged from the military.

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  • 32. 

    How can you determine and verify that your unit has a lack of training capabilityproblem?

    • Ask base training to inspect your unit.

    • Make sure the technical school curriculum is current.

    • Find out if the career development course (CDC) and list of training references are current.

    • Find out if the necessary training can be provided in your unit.

    Correct Answer
    A. Find out if the necessary training can be provided in your unit.
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests that to determine and verify if your unit has a lack of training capability, you should find out if the necessary training can be provided in your unit. This implies that if the unit is unable to provide the necessary training, it indicates a lack of training capability. The other options mentioned, such as asking base training to inspect the unit or ensuring the technical school curriculum and training references are current, may be relevant but do not directly address the issue of training capability within the unit.

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  • 33. 

    What is a training capability?

    • The ability to be taught.

    • The ability to provide training.

    • The amount of training provided.

    • The sufficient quantity to provide training.

    Correct Answer
    A. The ability to provide training.
    Explanation
    A training capability refers to the ability or capacity to provide training. It implies that an individual or organization has the necessary resources, skills, and expertise to deliver training programs effectively. This includes having the necessary infrastructure, trainers, materials, and methods to impart knowledge and skills to learners. A training capability is crucial for organizations that aim to enhance the knowledge and skills of their employees or individuals seeking to provide professional training services.

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  • 34. 

    When there is a lack of training capability, at what organizational level should you first try to resolve the problem?

    • Base-level

    • Wing-level

    • Lowest level

    • Highest level

    Correct Answer
    A. Lowest level
    Explanation
    In order to resolve a lack of training capability, the problem should be first addressed at the lowest level of the organization. This means that the individuals directly involved in the training process should be responsible for finding a solution. By addressing the issue at the lowest level, it allows for a more focused and targeted approach to resolving the problem, rather than escalating it to higher levels of management. This approach ensures that those closest to the issue have the opportunity to identify and implement effective solutions.

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  • 35. 

    How often does a satellite broadcast center submit requirements for new equipment?

    • Monthly.

    • Annually.

    • Biannually.

    • Semiannually.

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is annually. This means that a satellite broadcast center submits requirements for new equipment once a year. This could be due to various reasons such as technological advancements, equipment upgrades, or the need to replace outdated or faulty equipment. By submitting requirements annually, the center can ensure that it stays up to date with the latest technology and maintains the efficiency and effectiveness of its broadcasting operations.

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  • 36. 

    What does the Broadcast Center do?

    • The location where all training is conducted.

    • Provides equipment for the training courses.

    • Ensures all systems are capable of receiving transmissions.

    • Provides transmission service for training course.

    Correct Answer
    A. Provides transmission service for training course.
    Explanation
    The Broadcast Center provides transmission service for training courses. This means that it is responsible for transmitting the training content to the intended audience. It ensures that the training materials are delivered effectively and efficiently to the participants, allowing them to access the necessary information and resources. The Broadcast Center plays a crucial role in facilitating the dissemination of knowledge and ensuring that the training courses are accessible to all.

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  • 37. 

    How often does Second Air Force direct major commands (MAJCOM) to initiate screening (data call) to all units via the base training manager?

    • Quarterly.

    • Biannually.

    • Annually.

    • Biennially.

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually.
    Explanation
    Second Air Force directs major commands (MAJCOM) to initiate screening (data call) to all units via the base training manager once a year. This means that the screening process is conducted annually, allowing for the collection of up-to-date information and ensuring that all units are properly assessed and accounted for. Quarterly would mean that the screening process occurs four times a year, which would likely be excessive and burdensome. Biannually would mean that the screening process occurs twice a year, which may not provide enough time for necessary updates and evaluations. Biennially would mean that the screening process occurs every two years, which may not be frequent enough to ensure ongoing readiness and compliance.

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  • 38. 

    Which form do you use to submit an out-of-cycle training request?

    • AF Form 403, Request for Special Technical Training.

    • AF Form 1098, Special Task Certification and Recurring Training.

    • AF Form 2096, Classification/On-the-Job Training Action.

    • AF Form 3933, MAJCOM Mission Training Request.

    Correct Answer
    A. AF Form 403, Request for Special Technical Training.
  • 39. 

    When you receive a RIP for a work center member from the formal training section, what must you verify?

    • Member meets the prerequisites for that particular course.

    • Member has enough leave to take in conjunction with course.

    • The course is Centrally funded.

    • The course is Unit funded.

    Correct Answer
    A. Member meets the prerequisites for that particular course.
    Explanation
    When receiving a RIP (Report on Individual Personnel) for a work center member from the formal training section, it is important to verify that the member meets the prerequisites for the specific course. This ensures that the member has the necessary qualifications, skills, or knowledge required to successfully complete the course. Verifying this information is crucial to ensure that the member is adequately prepared and can benefit from the training.

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  • 40. 

    When conducting a SME interview, what is the basic goal of your questions?

    • To gain information from the experts.

    • Get face-to-face time.

    • Have the experts explain their work center's decline in training.

    • "Finger-point".

    Correct Answer
    A. To gain information from the experts.
    Explanation
    The basic goal of conducting a SME interview is to gain information from the experts. This means that the purpose of asking questions is to gather knowledge and insights from the subject matter experts in order to enhance understanding, gather data, or make informed decisions. It is important to ask relevant and targeted questions that allow the experts to share their expertise and provide valuable information.

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  • 41. 

    When conducting the interview, why do you provide the SME with your phone number?

    • Common courtesy.

    • In case the SME needs a work reference.

    • In case the SME remembers other information later.

    • In case the email server is down, the SME can still reach you.

    Correct Answer
    A. In case the SME remembers other information later.
    Explanation
    Providing the SME with your phone number during an interview is a way to ensure that they can contact you if they remember any additional information or have any further questions after the interview. This shows that you are open to further communication and willing to provide any necessary support or clarification. It also demonstrates your professionalism and commitment to the interview process.

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  • 42. 

    What is an out-of-cycle request?

    • A training request submitted during the annual data call.

    • A training request submitted before or after the annual data call.

    • A travel request submitted before the annual voucher call.

    • A training request that is denied due to being submitted before or after the annual data call.

    Correct Answer
    A. A training request submitted before or after the annual data call.
    Explanation
    An out-of-cycle request refers to a training request that is submitted outside of the regular annual data call. This means that the request is made either before or after the designated time for submitting training requests.

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  • 43. 

    What type of question is being described?This test item requires the student to provide one or more words that are omitted from the statement. These questions lead to memorization of the material. Test developers pull a sentence out of a regulation and remove some words. The student has to write the words back in.

    • Short answer

    • Essay

    • Completion

    • Matching

    Correct Answer
    A. Completion
    Explanation
    This question is describing a completion type of question. In completion questions, students are required to provide the missing words in a statement or sentence. This type of question tests the student's understanding and memorization of the material, as they need to recall the correct words to fill in the blanks.

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  • 44. 

    At what month in the CDC enrollment should you request an extension for a trainee?

    • 9

    • 10

    • 11

    • 12

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    In the CDC enrollment, requesting an extension for a trainee should be done in the month of October (10). This implies that the trainee requires more time to complete their training or project beyond the initial enrollment period. By requesting an extension in October, it allows for proper planning and adjustments to be made to accommodate the trainee's extended timeline.

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  • 45. 

    What are the basic steps in identifying and managing local training requirements?

    • Research, authorize, and forward the request.

    • Justify, validate, and process the request.

    • Review, validate, consolidate and prioritize, and process the request.

    • Validate, evaluate, and authorize the request.

    Correct Answer
    A. Review, validate, consolidate and prioritize, and process the request.
    Explanation
    The basic steps in identifying and managing local training requirements involve reviewing the request to ensure it meets the necessary criteria, validating the request to ensure it aligns with organizational goals and objectives, consolidating and prioritizing the request with other training needs, and finally processing the request to allocate resources and implement the training program. This process ensures that training needs are thoroughly assessed and prioritized to effectively address local requirements.

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  • 46. 

    The ____ is more user friendly because it identifies names of individuals loaded to each manpower position.

    • Unit Manning Document (UMD)

    • Unit Personnel Manpower Roster (UPMR)

    • OJT roster

    • Squadron recall roster

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit Personnel Manpower Roster (UPMR)
    Explanation
    The Unit Personnel Manpower Roster (UPMR) is more user-friendly because it specifically identifies the names of individuals loaded to each manpower position. This means that it provides a clear and organized overview of the personnel assigned to each position within a unit, making it easier for users to quickly identify who is responsible for each role. In contrast, the other options such as the Unit Manning Document (UMD), OJT roster, and Squadron recall roster may not provide this level of detail or may focus on different aspects of personnel management.

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  • 47. 

    Who determines the CDC volume completion order?

    • UTM

    • Commander

    • Trainee

    • Supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisor
    Explanation
    The supervisor determines the CDC volume completion order. The supervisor is responsible for overseeing the trainees and ensuring that they complete their CDC volumes in the correct order. They have the authority to assign specific volumes to each trainee based on their training needs and progress. The supervisor plays a crucial role in coordinating and managing the training process to ensure that trainees complete their CDC volumes efficiently and effectively.

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  • 48. 

    Who conducts an interview with the prospective retrainee who wants to enter the education and training career field?

    • BTM

    • The Base 3S2X1 FM

    • Group Commander

    • MAJCOM FM

    Correct Answer
    A. The Base 3S2X1 FM
    Explanation
    The Base 3S2X1 FM conducts an interview with the prospective retrainee who wants to enter the education and training career field.

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  • 49. 

    What is a downlink?

    • Training site equipped to receive programming form broadcast centers.

    • Training site used to download links.

    • Training program designed to scramble signals.

    • Description of a "down" or "failed" website.

    Correct Answer
    A. Training site equipped to receive programming form broadcast centers.
    Explanation
    A downlink refers to a training site that is equipped to receive programming from broadcast centers. This means that the site is set up to receive and access content or data that is being transmitted from a central broadcast location. It is not related to downloading links, scrambling signals, or describing a failed website.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 18, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Makrel321
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