3S251: Education And Training Manager Journeyman! Airforce Trivia Quiz

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3S251: Education And Training Manager Journeyman! Airforce Trivia Quiz

Below is a 3S251 Education and Training Manager Journeyman Airforce Trivia Quiz. If you hold the position, you will be expected to help people learn more about the duties. They will be performing in the air force and the procedures too. How about you give the quiz a try and see how prepared you are for the finals. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What three parts of the work center mission are defined during the analysis phase? 
    • A. 

      Manning, purpose, and products.

    • B. 

      Purpose, products, and customers.

    • C. 

      Purpose, manning, and customers.

    • D. 

      Manning, products, and customers.

  • 2. 
    What training documents can you research to identify specific tasks for the work center?
    • A. 

      CFETP, STS, & AFJQS

    • B. 

      JQS, SCR, & MTP

    • C. 

      STS

    • D. 

      TBA or AFTR

  • 3. 
    When performing a needs assessment you must look at...
    • A. 

      Contingency tasks and product tasks.

    • B. 

      Additional duties and customer tasks.

    • C. 

      Special work requirements, product tasks, and customer tasks.

    • D. 

      Additional duties, recurring tasks, contingency tasks, and special work requirements.

  • 4. 
    What are the two types of questions you use on a questionnaire?(select/check two boxes for the applicable items)
    • A. 

      Selection

    • B. 

      Supply

    • C. 

      Essay

    • D. 

      Multiple Choice

  • 5. 
    Which source usually provides the best information for identifying work centertasks? 
    • A. 

      Interviews.

    • B. 

      Several sources.

    • C. 

      Questionnaires.

    • D. 

      Existing documents.

  • 6. 
    Although generic in nature, the Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) lists mandatory and desirable items for the various... 
    • A. 

      Positions in each Air Force specialty code (AFSC).

    • B. 

      Subdivisions in each AFSC.

    • C. 

      Skill levels in each AFSC.

    • D. 

      Assignments in each AFSC.

  • 7. 
    The specialty training standard (STS) is part of the...
    • A. 

      AF Form 623A, On-the-Job Training Record.

    • B. 

      AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

    • C. 

      Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS).

    • D. 

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

  • 8. 
    What qualifications are needed for a person to be considered a subject matter expert(SME)? 
    • A. 

      Field expertise and recent job experience.

    • B. 

      Time in grade and supervisory experience.

    • C. 

      Field expertise and familiarity with the training systems being used.

    • D. 

      Recent job experience and trainer skills.

  • 9. 
    When preparing for a subject matter expert (SME) interview, your first step is to review the... 
    • A. 

      Applicable training standards.

    • B. 

      Unit’s mission statements.

    • C. 

      Unit’s training folders.

    • D. 

      Management engineering team surveys.

  • 10. 
    When you develop an MTL, what do you use it to identify?
    • A. 

      All 5- & 7-level core tasks

    • B. 

      All tasks completed in the work center

    • C. 

      Qualification training tasks

    • D. 

      Tasks specific to AFSC

  • 11. 
    What type of training standard can you use to develop an MTL?
    • A. 

      CFETP

    • B. 

      AFJQS

    • C. 

      AF Form 797

    • D. 

      All items listed are correct.

  • 12. 
    What are the three characteristics of a task?(select/check three boxes for the applicable items)
    • A. 

      Observable

    • B. 

      Measurable

    • C. 

      Achievable

    • D. 

      Definite beginning and end

  • 13. 
    The publication that contains information about organizations and their mission is the...
    • A. 

      Air Force index (AFIND).

    • B. 

      Air Force mission directive (AFMD).

    • C. 

      Air Force manual (AFMAN).

    • D. 

      Air Force instruction (AFI).

  • 14. 
    When you do research for a subject matter expert (SME) interview, the easiest tasksto identify are the...
    • A. 

      Normal day-to-day requirements.

    • B. 

      Contingency requirements.

    • C. 

      Ancillary requirements.

    • D. 

      Unique requirements.

  • 15. 
    In researching for a subject matter expert (SME) interview, which form identifiesthe duties required for civilian personnel?
    • A. 

      AF Form 1378, Civilian Personnel Position Description.

    • B. 

      AF Form 623, On-the-Job Training Record.

    • C. 

      AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

    • D. 

      AF Form 125, Application for Extended Active Duty with the United States Air Force.

  • 16. 
    Questions developed for a subject matter expert (SME) interview should be...
    • A. 

      Multiple choice only.

    • B. 

      Specific and pertinent to the subject.

    • C. 

      Yes and no answer-type only.

    • D. 

      Pertinent to the idea and random.

  • 17. 
    When conducting a subject matter expert (SME) interview, you shouldcommunicate on a level which...
    • A. 

      Promotes mutual respect.

    • B. 

      Signifies the interviewee is inferior.

    • C. 

      Implies that the interviewer is superior to the interviewee.

    • D. 

      Recognizes the interviewee as a superior.

  • 18. 
    When asking questions during a subject matter expert interview (SME), speak...
    • A. 

      Distinctly and with the correct pitch.

    • B. 

      Forcibly and distinctly.

    • C. 

      Distinctly and clearly.

    • D. 

      Clearly and forcibly.

  • 19. 
    After asking a question during a subject matter expert (SME) interview, what shouldyou do to show you care about the response?
    • A. 

      Proceed directly to the next question.

    • B. 

      Mentally formulate another question.

    • C. 

      Listen to the reply.

    • D. 

      Establish good eye contact.

  • 20. 
    What are the three sections of a questionnaire?
    • A. 

      Identification, task listing, and questions.

    • B. 

      Identification, task listing, and background.

    • C. 

      Instructions, background, and additional comments.

    • D. 

      Instructions, background, and questions.

  • 21. 
    Once you write the instructions for a questionnaire, what is the next step?
    • A. 

      Proof read the instructions yourself.

    • B. 

      Rewrite the instructions as necessary.

    • C. 

      Include the instructions in the questionnaire.

    • D. 

      Have someone else read the instructions and provide input.

  • 22. 
    When used on a questionnaire, a closed-ended question...
    • A. 

      Allows for additional comments.

    • B. 

      Allows for a wide range of answers.

    • C. 

      Limits the choice of possible responses.

    • D. 

      Requires the respondents to use their own words to describe a task.

  • 23. 
    When developing a master task listing (MTL), to keep it useful, you shouldremember to...
    • A. 

      Keep it as simple as possible.

    • B. 

      Use it to the advantage of the designer.

    • C. 

      Place it in a computer system.

    • D. 

      Make it complex and technically accurate.

  • 24. 
    Which training document shows tasks that are applicable to an entire career fieldand can be part of a master task listing (MTL)?
    • A. 

      Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS).

    • B. 

      AF Form 623A, On-the-Job Training Record–Continuation Sheet.

    • C. 

      AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

    • D. 

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

  • 25. 
    Which training document is prepared by Air Force career field managers (AFCFM)and describes a particular duty position?
    • A. 

      AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record–Continuation Sheet.

    • B. 

      Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS).

    • C. 

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • D. 

      AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

  • 26. 
    When completing a local training standard, what is an observable and measurableunit of work?
    • A. 

      Duty.

    • B. 

      Task.

    • C. 

      Subtask.

    • D. 

      Procedural skill.

  • 27. 
    When determining training capability, at what level is the first attempt to resolve alack of training capability made?
    • A. 

      Work center.

    • B. 

      Unit training.

    • C. 

      Base training.

    • D. 

      Major command.

  • 28. 
    When a question of training capability arises, what base-level tool is available todetermine if there are any local personnel who hold the Air Force specialty code (AFSC)?
    • A. 

      Military Personnel data system (MILPDS).

    • B. 

      Core automated maintenance system (CAMS).

    • C. 

      Training folders.

    • D. 

      Personnel records.

  • 29. 
    What training status code (TSC) is used when a training capability problem preventsa trainee from progressing in training?
    • A. 

      M.

    • B. 

      P.

    • C. 

      R.

    • D. 

      T.

  • 30. 
    If a training capability issue cannot be resolved at the base level, how do you forward the problem to MAJCOM?
    • A. 

      AF Form 2096

    • B. 

      AF Form 101

    • C. 

      AF Form 623a

    • D. 

      AF Form 797

  • 31. 
    Who can authorize automation of a specialty training standard (STS)?
    • A. 

      Major command (MAJCOM) training manager.

    • B. 

      MAJCOM functional manager.

    • C. 

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    • D. 

      Base training manager.

  • 32. 
    When conducting an initial evaluation on a recent technical school graduate, youshould base the evaluation on the tasks listed in the...
    • A. 

      Report of Task Evaluations.

    • B. 

      Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS).

    • C. 

      Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

    • D. 

      Career field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

  • 33. 
    When conducting an initial evaluation on a reassigned individual, you determine ifthe individual is still qualified on work center tasks by...
    • A. 

      Using only the specialty training standard (STS) to conduct the evaluation.

    • B. 

      Matching the individual’s qualifications to the work center requirements.

    • C. 

      Evaluating only the individual’s knowledge of the tasks required for the assigned duty position.

    • D. 

      Evaluating the individual’s ability to do the task based on the proficiency levels listed in the appropriate training standard.

  • 34. 
    Unit review exercise (URE) questions are designed to be answered by whichmethod?
    • A. 

      Open book.

    • B. 

      Closed book.

    • C. 

      Open forum.

    • D. 

      Group study.

  • 35. 
    Who normally receives initial evaluations?
    • A. 

      PCA & PCS Personnel

    • B. 

      PCA & Reassigned Personnel

    • C. 

      Initial Formal School Graduates & Reassigned Personnel

    • D. 

      Initial Formal School Graduates & Retraining Graduates

  • 36. 
    Where does the UTM look to confirm the required CDC for each AFSC?
    • A. 

      AFECD

    • B. 

      AU/A6 "list of AFSCs with CDCs"

    • C. 

      CDC catalog

    • D. 

      CFETP

  • 37. 
    What website allows UTMs to check CDC enrollment date at Extension Course Program (ECP)?
    • A. 

      Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD)

    • B. 

      Career Development/Student Assistance/Registrar (CDSAR)

    • C. 

      Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS)

    • D. 

      Training Manager(s) SharePoint

  • 38. 
    Who determines the CDC volume completion order?
    • A. 

      UTM

    • B. 

      Commander

    • C. 

      Trainee

    • D. 

      Supervisor

  • 39. 
    At what month in the CDC enrollment should you request an extension for a trainee?
    • A. 

      9

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      11

    • D. 

      12

  • 40. 
    Requests for CDC reactivations beyond 90 days require what level of approval?
    • A. 

      BTM

    • B. 

      Squadron Commander

    • C. 

      Group Commander

    • D. 

      MAJCOM

  • 41. 
    When a unit training manager (UTM) interviews prospective candidates retraininginto Air Force specialty code 3S2X1, what are the two essential qualities the UTM musthave in order to conduct a successful interview?
    • A. 

      Common sense and fair judgment.

    • B. 

      Technical writing skills and diplomacy.

    • C. 

      Experience and at least an Associate’s degree.

    • D. 

      The ability to work with people and communicate effectively.

  • 42. 
    Where does an individual apply to retrain into another career field?
    • A. 

      Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)

    • B. 

      Recruiter Office

    • C. 

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight (vMPF)

    • D. 

      Virtual Personnel Center (vPC)

  • 43. 
    For 3S2X1, who reviews the retraining request application to make sure all mandatory requirements are met?
    • A. 

      BTM

    • B. 

      HQ AFPC

    • C. 

      MAJCOM TM

    • D. 

      Recruiter Office

  • 44. 
    Who conducts an interview with the prospective retrainee who wants to enter the education and training career field?
    • A. 

      BTM

    • B. 

      The Base 3S2X1 FM

    • C. 

      Group Commander

    • D. 

      MAJCOM FM

  • 45. 
    What reference is used for the mandatory knowledge and training requirements for an individual wanting to retrain into another AFSC?
    • A. 

      AFECD

    • B. 

      CFETP

    • C. 

      VMPF

    • D. 

      PRDA

  • 46. 
    For required training that is not offered at your base, who authorizes temporary duty(TDY) to personnel to help develop and provide initial training at your base?
    • A. 

      Education services.

    • B. 

      Unit education and training.

    • C. 

      Higher headquarters.

    • D. 

      Headquarters, Air Education and Training Command.

  • 47. 
    As the base education and training expert, which is not a training program area whereyou provide advice and assistance?
    • A. 

      Resolving a unit’s lack of training capability.

    • B. 

      Resolving scheduling conflicts between units and training providers.

    • C. 

      Clarifying and explaining unit training manager (UGM) problem areas.

    • D. 

      Resolving career development course (CDC) problems by scheduling one-on-one study sessions with the trainee.

  • 48. 
    The two systems of Air Force publications are...
    • A. 

      Directive and nondirective.

    • B. 

      Directive and standard.

    • C. 

      Standard and nondirective.

    • D. 

      Standard and specialized.

  • 49. 
    Which document is considered a specialized publication?
    • A. 

      Air Force pamphlet.

    • B. 

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

    • C. 

      Periodical.

    • D. 

      Standard publication.

  • 50. 
    Which type of publication is directive in nature?
    • A. 

      Periodical.

    • B. 

      Operating instructions.

    • C. 

      Non-recurring pamphlets.

    • D. 

      Miscellaneous publication.

  • 51. 
    Who makes sure BTMs are qualified to conduct base training programs in support of mission requirements?
    • A. 

      MAJCOM Personnel

    • B. 

      Functional Manager

    • C. 

      Base 3S2X1 FM

    • D. 

      3S2X1 SME

  • 52. 
    If training is required but not offered at your base, who may be able to provide you with the necessary personnel to make sure training is developed and provided?
    • A. 

      BTM

    • B. 

      Wing Commander

    • C. 

      Higher HQ

    • D. 

      MAJCOM TM

  • 53. 
    Who do you get involved if training problems cannot be handled or resolved at a local level, depending on the severity of the problem?(select/check box for the applicable item(s))
    • A. 

      Installation Commander

    • B. 

      MAJCOM TM

    • C. 

      MAJCOM FM

    • D. 

      Base Command Chief

  • 54. 
    What reference identifies the required training publications you need for each job task in an AFSC?
    • A. 

      AF Form 623

    • B. 

      AF Form 797

    • C. 

      Technical Order

    • D. 

      The Specialty Training Standard (STS); part 2 of CFETP

  • 55. 
    The purpose of the coordination process of the Career Field Education and TrainingPlan (CFETP) is to make sure...
    • A. 

      Everyone agrees with what is listed.

    • B. 

      All local requirements are identified.

    • C. 

      Total user-command mission-related requirements are identified.

    • D. 

      The Air Education Training Command (AETC) teaches specific major command (MAJCOM) requirements only.

  • 56. 
    Which action do you take when coordinating and reviewing an Air Force jobqualification standard (AFJQS)?
    • A. 

      Line through any tasks not required at your base.

    • B. 

      Review and return it to base training without comment.

    • C. 

      Forward recommendations to the major command (MAJCOM) training office.

    • D. 

      Delay coordination until after the utilization and training workshop (U&TW).

  • 57. 
    Who authorizes that an Air Force job qualification standard (AFJQS) will be used asa stand-alone document?
    • A. 

      Major command (MAJCOM) education and training manager.

    • B. 

      Base education and training (E&T) manager.

    • C. 

      Unit E&T manager.

    • D. 

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

  • 58. 
    What is the type of edit you can make when you coordinate and provide recommendations to a publication?
    • A. 

      Technical

    • B. 

      Composition

    • C. 

      Instructional

    • D. 

      All listed items are correct.

  • 59. 
    Which type of edit are you performing when you make sure the information in a publication is valid, accurate, and up-to-date?
    • A. 

      Technical edit

    • B. 

      Composition edit

    • C. 

      Instructional edit

    • D. 

      Operational edit

  • 60. 
    Which type of edit are you performing when you review a publication for common English mistakes?
    • A. 

      Technical edit

    • B. 

      Composition edit

    • C. 

      Instructional edit

    • D. 

      All the listed items are correct.

  • 61. 
    When evaluating a waiver request package, which is not a factor to consider whendetermining whether the waiver request deserves approval?
    • A. 

      Experience.

    • B. 

      Rank/grade.

    • C. 

      Education.

    • D. 

      Training.

  • 62. 
    What document, obtained from MilPDS, is used to provide an overall picture oftraining progress in your unit?
    • A. 

      On-the-job training (OJT) roster.

    • B. 

      Career development course (CDC) report.

    • C. 

      AF Form 623, On-the-Job Training Record.

    • D. 

      AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation /Command JQS.

  • 63. 
    What reference do you use to process waiver requests?
    • A. 

      AFI 36-2101

    • B. 

      AFI 36-2201

    • C. 

      AFI 36-2650

    • D. 

      AFI 91-203

  • 64. 
    How can a supervisor help a trainee overcome his or her lack of motivation towardtraining?
    • A. 

      Promise the trainee a specific job.

    • B. 

      Display a sincere interest in the training.

    • C. 

      Offer rewards and incentives to motivate the trainees.

    • D. 

      Give the trainee a letter of counseling for the lack of motivation.

  • 65. 
    In reference to problem solving as a distinct method of counseling, which is not aphase of the three-phase process or cycle of helping?
    • A. 

      Self-exploration.

    • B. 

      Self-understanding.

    • C. 

      Self-actualization.

    • D. 

      Trainee action.

  • 66. 
    How do you identify personnel that are demonstrating unsatisfactory performance in UGT?(select/check box for the applicable item(s))
    • A. 

      Reviewing reports (OJT) & computer products

    • B. 

      Visits

    • C. 

      CDC feedback

    • D. 

      Wait for their peers to say something.

  • 67. 
    What process is initiated if a trainee fails to meet mandatory skill qualifications?
    • A. 

      AFSC withdraw

    • B. 

      Annotate AF Form 623a

    • C. 

      Request extension

    • D. 

      Start over

  • 68. 
    What is the primary reason for an AFSC downgrade?(select/check box for the applicable item(s))
    • A. 

      Lack of performance at the awarded skill level

    • B. 

      Security clearance

    • C. 

      Demotion

    • D. 

      Multiple no-shows

  • 69. 
    How can you determine and verify that your unit has a lack of training capabilityproblem?
    • A. 

      Ask base training to inspect your unit.

    • B. 

      Make sure the technical school curriculum is current.

    • C. 

      Find out if the career development course (CDC) and list of training references are current.

    • D. 

      Find out if the necessary training can be provided in your unit.

  • 70. 
    If you have everything necessary for your training program, but you do not have thenecessities in sufficient quantity, you have a...
    • A. 

      Lack of training capacity.

    • B. 

      Resource shortage.

    • C. 

      Training capability.

    • D. 

      Training deficiency.

  • 71. 
    What is a training capability?
    • A. 

      The ability to be taught.

    • B. 

      The ability to provide training.

    • C. 

      The amount of training provided.

    • D. 

      The sufficient quantity to provide training.

  • 72. 
    Which alternate training resources course type usually occurs with the purchase ofnew equipment by the Air Force?
    • A. 

      Civilian contracted courses.

    • B. 

      Department of Defense (DOD) extension courses.

    • C. 

      Formal technical training courses.

    • D. 

      Locally developed courses.

  • 73. 
    Which is not considered a form of distance learning (DL)?
    • A. 

      Classroom stand-up instruction.

    • B. 

      Computer-based instruction.

    • C. 

      Correspondence courses.

    • D. 

      Satellite broadcasts.

  • 74. 
    • A. 

      Base-level

    • B. 

      Wing-level

    • C. 

      Lowest level

    • D. 

      Highest level

  • 75. 
    If you have a lack of training capability and cannot resolve the problem within your unit, to what organizational level should you elevate your problem?
    • A. 

      Unit Education & Training

    • B. 

      Base Education & Training

    • C. 

      MAJCOM FM

    • D. 

      MAJCOM TM

  • 76. 
    In reference to managing job site training (JST), which point of contact (POC) performs the technical tasks necessary to implement distance learning (DL) at his or her base? 
    • A. 

      Administrative site coordinator (ASC)

    • B. 

      Information technology (IT) specialist

    • C. 

      Technical site coordinator (TSC)

    • D. 

      JST coordinator

  • 77. 
    Who appoints the job site training (JST) POC?
    • A. 

      Air University

    • B. 

      BTM

    • C. 

      Wing Commander

    • D. 

      MAJCOM

  • 78. 
    What is a downlink?
    • A. 

      Training site equipped to receive programming form broadcast centers.

    • B. 

      Training site used to download links.

    • C. 

      Training program designed to scramble signals.

    • D. 

      Description of a "down" or "failed" website.

  • 79. 
    Job site training (JST) distance learning (DL) training requests submitted after the annual data call are considered...
    • A. 

      Just in time.

    • B. 

      Late.

    • C. 

      Out-of-cycle.

    • D. 

      Specialized.

  • 80. 
    How often does a satellite broadcast center submit requirements for new equipment?
    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Annually.

    • C. 

      Biannually.

    • D. 

      Semiannually.

  • 81. 
    • A. 

      Making sure course material is inventoried.

    • B. 

      Verifying there is sufficient amount of course material.

    • C. 

      Safeguarding test material.

    • D. 

      Sending no-show letters to commanders.

  • 82. 
    • A. 

      Day of broadcast.

    • B. 

      3 days prior to broadcast.

    • C. 

      One week prior to broadcast.

    • D. 

      10 business days.

  • 83. 
    What does the Broadcast Center do?
    • A. 

      The location where all training is conducted.

    • B. 

      Provides equipment for the training courses.

    • C. 

      Ensures all systems are capable of receiving transmissions.

    • D. 

      Provides transmission service for training course.

  • 84. 
    What are the basic steps in identifying and managing local training requirements?
    • A. 

      Research, authorize, and forward the request.

    • B. 

      Justify, validate, and process the request.

    • C. 

      Review, validate, consolidate and prioritize, and process the request.

    • D. 

      Validate, evaluate, and authorize the request.

  • 85. 
    How often does Second Air Force direct major commands (MAJCOM) to initiate screening (data call) to all units via the base training manager?
    • A. 

      Quarterly.

    • B. 

      Biannually.

    • C. 

      Annually.

    • D. 

      Biennially.

  • 86. 
    What must you do to validate a local training request?(select/check box for the applicable item(s))
    • A. 

      Verify training request is funded.

    • B. 

      Verify training request is mission essential.

    • C. 

      Verify training can't be accomplished locally.

    • D. 

      Verify trainees won't be on leave during the requested training.

  • 87. 
    Which form do you use to submit an out-of-cycle training request?
    • A. 

      AF Form 403, Request for Special Technical Training.

    • B. 

      AF Form 1098, Special Task Certification and Recurring Training.

    • C. 

      AF Form 2096, Classification/On-the-Job Training Action.

    • D. 

      AF Form 3933, MAJCOM Mission Training Request.

  • 88. 
    After the member has acquired the appropriate signatures on the training report on individual personnel (RIP) and returned the completed RIP to you, what is your next step?
    • A. 

      Coordinate with other agencies for more class quotas.

    • B. 

      Forward the RIP to the formal training section.

    • C. 

      Review the RIP for accuracy.

    • D. 

      File the RIP.

  • 89. 
    • A. 

      Member meets the prerequisites for that particular course.

    • B. 

      Member has enough leave to take in conjunction with course.

    • C. 

      The course is Centrally funded.

    • D. 

      The course is Unit funded.

  • 90. 
    • A. 

      When the member doesn't have leave to use.

    • B. 

      Anytime a member assigned to their section goes TDY.

    • C. 

      Anytime a member assigned to their section is attending a course.

    • D. 

      When the member is taking leave in conjunction with the training TDY.

  • 91. 
    The Customer Service Information Process (CSIP) is a method the field can use to identity whether training problems exist. A training problem CSIP can help identify is if the graduate...
    • A. 

      Meets the required proficiency levels listed on the specialty training standard (STS)

    • B. 

      Recommends deleting training course standards of conduct.

    • C. 

      Cannot meet performance requirements on local assigned tasks.

    • D. 

      Does not meet some proficiency levels for tasks listed on the STS.

  • 92. 
    As part of the training feedback process, within how many months of course completion are field evaluation questionnaires (FEQ) sent to technical school graduates?
    • A. 

      1 to 3.

    • B. 

      4 to 6.

    • C. 

      7 to 9.

    • D. 

      10 to 12.

  • 93. 
    Customer Service Information Line (CSIL) calls should be answered within how many duty days?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      20

  • 94. 
    Field Visits are normally conducted within how many months of a student graduating a course?
    • A. 

      1-3 months

    • B. 

      4-6 months

    • C. 

      7-9 months

    • D. 

      10-12 months

  • 95. 
    Why does the work center exist?How does the work center fit into the organization?What are the work center's responsibilities?These questions define the Mission's...
    • A. 

      Purpose

    • B. 

      Products

    • C. 

      Customers

    • D. 

      All items listed are correct.

  • 96. 
    What does the work center produce?What services does the work center provide?These questions define the Mission's...
    • A. 

      Purpose

    • B. 

      Products

    • C. 

      Customers

    • D. 

      All items listed are correct.

  • 97. 
    What are the benefits of the work center's activities?Who uses the work center's products or services?What does the customer do with the work center's products or services?These questions define the Mission's...
    • A. 

      Purpose

    • B. 

      Products

    • C. 

      Customers

    • D. 

      None of the items listed are correct.

  • 98. 
    What can occur if the respondents are confused after reading the questionnaire instructions?
    • A. 

      Turn-in questionnaire incomplete.

    • B. 

      Answer questionnaire incorrectly.

    • C. 

      Refuse to participate in future questionnaires.

    • D. 

      Discard the product/questionnaire.

  • 99. 
    What manpower documents identify AFSCs assigned to the work center?(select/check box for the applicable item(s)) 
    • A. 

      Unit Manning Document (UMD)

    • B. 

      OJT Roster

    • C. 

      SOT Roster

    • D. 

      Unit Personnel Manpower Roster (UPMR)

  • 100. 
    In addition to the manpower and training documents, what other document is used to identify tasks performed in the work center?(select/check box for the applicable item(s))
    • A. 

      Policy directives, manuals, & TOs.

    • B. 

      Military & civilian position descriptions.

    • C. 

      Base operation plans & SAV reports.

    • D. 

      Production records & mission statements.