CISSP Study Quiz

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Skofft2134
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1. Which of the following refers to a location away from the computer center where document copies and backup media are kept?

Explanation

Off-Site storage refers to a location away from the computer center where document copies and backup media are kept. This is done to ensure that in case of any disaster or damage to the computer center, the data and documents are safe and can be recovered. Off-Site storage is an essential practice in data management and protection, as it provides an additional layer of security and redundancy.

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About This Quiz
CISSP Study Quiz - Quiz

The CISSP Study Quiz is designed to assess knowledge in information security, focusing on business continuity, risk management, and legal frameworks. It prepares learners for the CISSP certification,... see moreenhancing their understanding of essential security principles and practices. see less

2. Which layer is not part of the OSI model?

Explanation

The layer that is not part of the OSI model is the Internet layer. The OSI model consists of seven layers: Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, and Physical. The Internet layer is not included in the OSI model, as it is part of the TCP/IP protocol suite. The Internet layer is responsible for routing packets across different networks, while the Network layer in the OSI model handles similar functions.

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3. Defining technology security architecture in relationship with other technology domains is a benefit of the enterprise security architecture.

Explanation

Defining technology security architecture in relationship with other technology domains is a benefit of the enterprise security architecture because it helps to establish a comprehensive and cohesive approach to securing the organization's technology infrastructure. By aligning the security architecture with other technology domains, such as network architecture or application architecture, it ensures that security measures are integrated throughout the entire technology landscape. This approach enhances the effectiveness and efficiency of security controls, reduces vulnerabilities, and enables better protection of the organization's assets and data.

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4. Which of the following is NOT a natural environmental threat that an organization faces?

Explanation

An environmentalist strike is not a natural environmental threat that an organization faces. Natural environmental threats refer to events or disasters that occur in nature, such as floods, storms, and earthquakes. These events are beyond human control and can cause significant damage to an organization's infrastructure and operations. On the other hand, an environmentalist strike is a result of human action and activism, where individuals or groups protest against an organization's environmental practices or policies. While it can have an impact on an organization's reputation and operations, it is not considered a natural environmental threat.

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5. Remote Access does what of the following?

Explanation

Remote Access refers to the capability of accessing resources, such as files, applications, or networks, from a distant location. It enables administrators and end users to connect to their work or personal resources remotely, without being physically present at the location where the resources are stored. This allows for increased flexibility and convenience, as individuals can access their resources from anywhere in the world as long as they have an internet connection. Remote Access often employs strong authentication measures to ensure the security and integrity of the connection.

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6. The doors of a data center spring open in the event of a fire.  This is an example of 

Explanation

The doors of a data center spring open in the event of a fire, which is an example of a fail safe mechanism. A fail safe system is designed to default to a safe state in the event of a failure or emergency. In this case, the doors opening ensures that people can quickly and safely exit the data center during a fire, minimizing potential harm and damage.

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7. When outsourcing IT systems

Explanation

An organization's obligations for due care extend to its business partners

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8. Encryption is converting a message from ciphertext to plaintext.

Explanation

Encryption is the process of converting plaintext into ciphertext, not the other way around. In encryption, the original message is transformed into an unreadable form to protect its confidentiality. The correct answer is false because encryption converts plaintext to ciphertext, not the other way around.

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9. Define and detail the aspects of password selection that distinguish good password choices from ultimately poor password choices.

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the above" because all three aspects mentioned - being difficult to guess or unpredictable, meeting minimum length requirements, and meeting specific complexity requirements - are important in distinguishing good password choices from ultimately poor password choices. A strong password should be hard for others to guess, should be of sufficient length to make it harder to crack, and should include a combination of different character types to increase its complexity. Considering all these aspects together ensures a stronger and more secure password.

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10. It can be said that IPSec

Explanation

IPSec is a suite of protocols for communicating securely with IP by providing mechanisms for authenticating and encryption. Standard IPSec authenticates only hosts with each other.

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11. A botnet can be characterized as

Explanation

A botnet refers to a network of computers that have been compromised and are under the control of a remote attacker. These compromised machines are often spread out across different locations and are used for various illicit purposes, such as launching distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks, sending spam emails, or stealing sensitive information. The term "botnet" does not refer to a network used solely for internal communications or an automatic security alerting tool for corporate networks. It is also not a type of virus, as it involves the control and coordination of multiple compromised machines rather than being a standalone malicious program.

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12. __________ requires that a user of process be granted access to only those resources necessary to perform assigned functions.

Explanation

The principle of least privilege is one of the most fundamental characteristics of access control for meeting security objectives. Least privilege requires that a user or process be given no more access privilege than necessary to perform a job, task, or function

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13. The major benefit of information classification is to

Explanation

Information classification helps in identifying the appropriate level of protection needs for different types of information. By categorizing information based on its sensitivity and criticality, organizations can determine the level of security measures required to safeguard it. This includes implementing access controls, encryption, and other security measures based on the classification level. This ensures that resources are allocated effectively and that the necessary safeguards are in place to protect information from unauthorized access, modification, or disclosure.

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14. Test outputs should be compared against expected outputs.

Explanation

The statement is suggesting that when conducting tests, the outputs should be compared to the expected outputs. This is a fundamental principle in testing, as it allows for the verification and validation of the system being tested. By comparing the actual outputs to the expected outputs, any discrepancies or errors can be identified and addressed. Therefore, the answer "True" is correct as it aligns with the standard practice in testing.

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15. Effective security management:

Explanation

Effective security management is the process of implementing strategies and measures to protect assets and minimize vulnerabilities. By reducing risk to an acceptable level, security management ensures that potential threats and vulnerabilities are identified and addressed, minimizing the likelihood and impact of security breaches. This approach allows organizations to allocate their resources efficiently and effectively, focusing on areas that pose the greatest risk. By prioritizing risk reduction, organizations can achieve a balance between security and cost, ensuring that security measures are implemented in a cost-effective manner while still providing an acceptable level of protection.

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16. The integrity of a forensic bit stream image is determined by:

Explanation

To ensure the integrity of a forensic bit stream image, it is necessary to compare the hash totals of the image to the original source. Hashing algorithms generate a unique hash value for a given set of data, and comparing the hash totals helps verify that the image has not been altered or tampered with. This process ensures that the forensic image accurately represents the original source, making it a reliable piece of evidence in forensic investigations. Keeping good notes and taking pictures might be useful for documentation purposes, but they do not directly determine the integrity of the image. Encrypted keys, on the other hand, are unrelated to the integrity of the image.

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17. The monitoring of outbound network traffic for indicators of compromise is called:

Explanation

Egress monitoring refers to the practice of monitoring outbound network traffic to identify any signs of compromise or unauthorized activity. By analyzing the data leaving a network, organizations can detect potential threats, such as data breaches, malware infections, or suspicious communication patterns. This allows for the timely response and mitigation of any security incidents, helping to protect the network and its assets.

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18. Modifying identifying information so as to make communication appear to come from a trusted source is known as

Explanation

Spoofing refers to the act of altering or falsifying identifying information in order to make communication appear to come from a trusted source. This can be done through various means such as manipulating IP addresses, email headers, or caller IDs. Spoofing is often used by attackers to deceive recipients into believing that the communication is legitimate, allowing them to gain unauthorized access or trick individuals into revealing sensitive information. It is a common technique employed in phishing attacks, email scams, and impersonation attempts.

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19. A disadvantage of single sign-on is

Explanation

A disadvantage of single sign-on is that if a user's password is compromised, it can potentially grant access to all authorized resources. This means that if a hacker gains access to a user's single sign-on password, they would have unrestricted access to all the platforms and services that the user has access to, posing a significant security risk.

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20. Which one is a benefit of a enterprise security architecture?

Explanation

The benefit of an enterprise security architecture is that it allows for the presentation and documentation of various elements of the security architecture, ensuring strategic alignment. It also provides an understanding of the impact on security posture when developing and implementing within other domains. Additionally, it supports, enables, and extends security policies and standards. Therefore, all of the above options are benefits of an enterprise security architecture.

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21. When sensitive information is no longer critical but still within scope of a record retention policy, that information is BEST

Explanation

When sensitive information is no longer critical but still within the scope of a record retention policy, it is best to re-categorize the information. This means that the information should be moved to a different category or classification that reflects its reduced importance or sensitivity. This allows for better organization and management of the information while still adhering to the record retention policy.

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22. What is not mentioned as a phase of an incident response?

Explanation

The incident response and handling phase can be broken down further into triage, investigation, containment, and analysis and tracking.

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23. Polyalphabetic encryption techniques use multiple alphabets for each successive character replacement, making analysis much more difficult.

Explanation

Polyalphabetic encryption techniques use multiple alphabets for each successive character replacement. This means that instead of using a single alphabet for encryption, different alphabets are used for each character in the plaintext. This makes the encryption more secure and difficult to analyze. By using multiple alphabets, it becomes harder for attackers to identify patterns or frequencies in the ciphertext, making it more challenging to break the encryption and decipher the message. Therefore, the given statement is true.

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24. To maintain the security architecture, of the following, which is true?

Explanation

The given correct answer is "All of the above". This means that all of the statements mentioned in the options are true. The explanation for this answer is that maintaining the security architecture requires constant reassessment and improvement due to various factors such as changing business needs, evolving technology, personnel changes, and growing threats. Metrics and reporting are necessary to ensure continuous improvement, and maturity models help in determining if an organization is focused on optimization. Therefore, all of these factors contribute to maintaining the security architecture.

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25. The best way to ensure that there is no data remanence of sensitive information that was once stored on a DVD-R media is by

Explanation

The best way to ensure that there is no data remanence of sensitive information that was once stored on a DVD-R media is by destruction. This means physically destroying the DVD-R media so that the data cannot be recovered. Deletion and overwriting may leave traces of the data that can potentially be recovered, while degaussing may not be effective on optical media like DVD-R. Therefore, destruction is the most reliable method to prevent any data remanence.

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26. Which of the following terms refers to a mechanism which proves that the sender really sent a specific message?

Explanation

Non-repudiation refers to a mechanism that proves that the sender really sent a specific message. It ensures that the sender cannot deny sending the message, providing evidence of the message's origin and authenticity. This mechanism is crucial in legal and business contexts where it is important to establish the accountability of the sender and maintain the integrity of communication.

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27. What type of risk remains after the implementation of new or enhanced controls?

Explanation

Residual risk refers to the level of risk that remains after implementing new or enhanced controls. It represents the potential harm or negative impact that could still occur despite the implementation of these controls. Residual risk is important to identify and manage as it helps organizations understand the remaining vulnerabilities and take appropriate actions to mitigate them. Therefore, after implementing new or enhanced controls, residual risk is the type of risk that remains.

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28. Which of the following BEST describe three separate functions of CCTV?

Explanation

CCTV, or closed-circuit television, serves multiple functions. Surveillance refers to the act of monitoring and observing activities in a specific area. CCTV cameras are commonly used for this purpose to ensure security and safety. Deterrence involves using the presence of CCTV cameras as a means to discourage potential criminals or wrongdoers from committing offenses. Evidentiary archives refer to the storage of recorded footage from CCTV cameras, which can be used as evidence in investigations or legal proceedings. Therefore, the answer "surveillance, deterrence, and evidentiary archives" best describes three separate functions of CCTV.

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29. Which of the following ensures constant redundancy and fault-tolerance?

Explanation

Cold spare: spare component can be installed if needed
Warm spare: installed and powered off
Hot pare: installed and powered on

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30. Role-based access control

Explanation

Role-based access control is a method of restricting access to resources based on the roles or job functions of users within an organization. It allows administrators to assign permissions to specific roles, and users are then assigned to those roles. This approach is independent of owner input, meaning that access control decisions are not solely based on the ownership of the resource. Instead, it focuses on the job functions of users and their associated roles. In this way, role-based access control provides a more flexible and scalable approach to managing access to resources within an organization.

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31. NIST identifies three service models that represent different types of cloud services available, what are they?

Explanation

The correct answer is Software as a Service (SaaS), Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) and Platform as a Service (PaaS). These three service models are identified by NIST as different types of cloud services available. SaaS refers to software applications that are accessed over the internet, IaaS provides virtualized computing resources like servers and storage, and PaaS offers a platform for developing and deploying applications. These models represent different levels of cloud service offerings, allowing users to choose the level of control and management they require for their applications and infrastructure.

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32. Which of the following is the technology of indoor environmental comfort?

Explanation

HVAC stands for Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning, which is a technology used to control and maintain the indoor environmental comfort of a building. It includes systems and equipment that regulate temperature, humidity, and air quality to create a comfortable and healthy living or working environment. CCTV, lightning, and fire suppression are not related to indoor environmental comfort.

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33. A new installation requires a network in a heavy manufacturing area with substantial amounts of electromagnetic radiation and power fluctuations.  Which media is best suited for this environment if little degradation is tolerated?

Explanation

Fiber optic cables are best suited for heavy manufacturing areas with electromagnetic radiation and power fluctuations because they are not affected by electromagnetic interference and can handle high amounts of data without degradation. Fiber optic cables use light signals to transmit data, which makes them immune to electromagnetic radiation. Additionally, they have a higher bandwidth and can transmit data over longer distances compared to other media options.

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34. The strategy of forming layers of protection around an asset or facility is known as:

Explanation

Defense-in-depth is the strategy of implementing multiple layers of security measures to protect an asset or facility. This approach involves the use of various security controls such as physical barriers, access controls, surveillance systems, and intrusion detection systems. By employing multiple layers of protection, the likelihood of a successful breach or attack is significantly reduced, as each layer adds an additional hurdle for potential threats to overcome. This strategy aims to provide a comprehensive and holistic defense, ensuring that even if one layer is compromised, there are still other layers in place to prevent unauthorized access or damage.

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35. Which one of the following is a common system component in the system security architecture?

Explanation

All of the above options - Processor, Storage, and OS - are common system components in the system security architecture. The processor is responsible for executing instructions and performing calculations, while storage is used to store data and programs. The operating system (OS) manages the hardware and software resources of the computer system, including security features such as user authentication, access control, and encryption. Therefore, all three components play a crucial role in ensuring system security.

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36. Which of the following is responsible for maintaining certificates in a public key infrastructure (PKI)?

Explanation

A Certification Authority is responsible for maintaining certificates in a public key infrastructure (PKI). A Certification Authority is a trusted entity that issues and manages digital certificates, which are used to verify the authenticity and integrity of electronic documents and communications. The Certification Authority ensures that the certificates are valid, up-to-date, and properly issued. It also revokes certificates when necessary and manages the overall security of the PKI system.

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37. Which of the following is most likely to detect DoS attacks?

Explanation

A network-based IDS (Intrusion Detection System) is most likely to detect DoS (Denial of Service) attacks. Unlike a host-based IDS, which monitors the activities on a single host or device, a network-based IDS monitors the network traffic and analyzes it for any suspicious or malicious activities. DoS attacks typically involve overwhelming a network or system with excessive traffic or requests, causing it to become unavailable to legitimate users. Therefore, a network-based IDS can detect and alert administrators about the abnormal traffic patterns associated with DoS attacks, allowing them to take necessary actions to mitigate the attack.

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38. Assuming a working IDS is in place, which of the following groups is BEST capable of stealing sensitive information due to the absence of system auditing?

Explanation

A disgruntled employee is the best capable of stealing sensitive information due to the absence of system auditing because they have insider knowledge and access to the organization's systems and data. Unlike external threats like malicious software or hackers, a disgruntled employee already has authorized access and can exploit this advantage without raising suspicion. Additionally, auditors are responsible for ensuring system auditing and compliance, so they would not be able to steal sensitive information due to their role.

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39. An emerging concept of highly-interconnected physical devices with embedded sensor and communications capabilities is called:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Internet of things." This term refers to the concept of connecting various physical devices through the internet, allowing them to communicate with each other and collect and exchange data. These devices are equipped with sensors and communication capabilities, enabling them to interact and share information, leading to increased automation, efficiency, and convenience in various domains such as home automation, healthcare, transportation, and more.

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40. A guard dog patrolling the perimeter of a data center is what type of a control?

Explanation

A guard dog patrolling the perimeter of a data center is an example of a physical control. Physical controls are measures that are put in place to physically protect assets or resources. In this case, the guard dog serves as a physical deterrent and protection against unauthorized access to the data center.

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41. A potential vulnerability of the Kerberos authentication server is

Explanation

The potential vulnerability of the Kerberos authentication server is a single point of failure. This means that if the server fails or is compromised, the entire authentication process becomes compromised, allowing unauthorized access to the system. It is important to have redundancy and backup measures in place to mitigate this vulnerability and ensure the secure functioning of the authentication server.

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42. Before applying a software update to production systems, it is MOST important that

Explanation

Before applying a software update to production systems, it is most important that the production systems are backed up. This is crucial because if anything goes wrong during the update process, the backed-up data can be used to restore the systems to their previous state. Backing up the production systems ensures that any potential data loss or system failure can be mitigated, minimizing the impact on the organization's operations.

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43. Which of the following methods is not acceptable for exercising the business continuity plan?

Explanation

Halting a production application or function is not an acceptable method for exercising the business continuity plan because it can disrupt the normal operations of the business and potentially cause financial losses. The purpose of exercising the plan is to test its effectiveness in maintaining critical functions during a crisis, not to intentionally disrupt those functions. Table-top exercises, call exercises, and simulated exercises are more appropriate methods for testing the plan's response to different scenarios without causing actual disruptions to the business.

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44. Within the realm of IT security, which of the following combinations best defines risk?

Explanation

Risk in the realm of IT security is best defined as a combination of a threat and a vulnerability. A threat refers to any potential danger or harm that could exploit a vulnerability in a system or network. A vulnerability, on the other hand, is a weakness or flaw in the system that could be exploited by a threat. Therefore, the combination of a threat and a vulnerability poses the highest level of risk, as it indicates the presence of a potential danger that could exploit a weakness in the system.

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45. In which of the following alternative site configurations is the backup facility maintained in a constant order, with a full complement of servers, workstations, and communication links ready to assume the primary operations responsibility?

Explanation

A hot site is a type of alternative site configuration where a backup facility is maintained in a constant order, with a full complement of servers, workstations, and communication links ready to assume the primary operations responsibility. This means that all the necessary equipment and resources are readily available and operational, allowing for a seamless transition in case of a disaster or system failure.

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46. The best way to ensure that there is no data remanence of sensitive information that was once stored on a DVD-R media is by 

Explanation

The best way to ensure that there is no data remanence of sensitive information that was once stored on a DVD-R media is by destruction. Destruction involves physically damaging the DVD-R media to the point where the data cannot be recovered. This can be done through methods such as shredding, incineration, or crushing. By completely destroying the media, any sensitive information stored on it will be permanently erased, making it impossible for anyone to retrieve the data.

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47. Attempting to crack a password by using common words from a text file is known as what kind of attack?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Dictionary". In a dictionary attack, an attacker tries to crack a password by using common words from a text file. This method is based on the assumption that many users choose weak passwords that can be found in a dictionary. The attacker systematically tries each word from the dictionary file as a potential password, until the correct one is found.

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48. Which of the following security standards is internationally recognized as the standards for sound security practices and is focused on the standardization and certification of an organization's Information Security Management System (ISMS)?

Explanation

ISO 27001 is internationally recognized as the standard for sound security practices and focuses on the standardization and certification of an organization's Information Security Management System (ISMS). This standard provides a systematic approach to managing sensitive company information, ensuring its confidentiality, integrity, and availability. It helps organizations establish, implement, maintain, and continually improve their ISMS, providing a framework for managing risks to the security of information. ISO 15408 is a different standard that focuses on the evaluation of IT security products and ISO 9001 is a standard for quality management systems. ISO 9146 is not a recognized security standard.

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49. Which of the following uses a Key Distribution Center (KDC) to authenticate a principle?

Explanation

Kerberos uses a Key Distribution Center (KDC) to authenticate a principle. The KDC acts as a trusted third party that issues tickets to the clients and servers in the network. These tickets are used to authenticate the identity of the principle and establish secure communication between them. The KDC generates a session key that is shared between the client and the server, which is used to encrypt and decrypt the communication. This ensures that only authorized entities can access the network resources and prevents unauthorized access or tampering.

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50. Which of the following is the technology of indoor environmental comfort?

Explanation

HVAC stands for Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning, which is a technology used to provide indoor environmental comfort. It involves controlling and regulating the temperature, humidity, and air quality within a building or enclosed space. HVAC systems are commonly used in residential, commercial, and industrial settings to ensure a comfortable and healthy indoor environment for occupants.

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51. The vast majority of Virtual Private Networks use

Explanation

Two major tools assist in both VPN and e-commerce secure networking IPSec and SSL/TLS have become synonymous with network security. These protocols form the vast majority of secure network traffic and e-commerce enablement.

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52. Which of the following terms BEST describes the effort to determine the consequences of disruptions that could result from a disaster? 

Explanation

Business impact analysis is the most suitable term to describe the effort to determine the consequences of disruptions that could result from a disaster. This analysis involves assessing the potential impact of a disaster on various aspects of a business, such as operations, finances, reputation, and customer satisfaction. It helps organizations understand the potential losses and prioritize their resources and recovery strategies accordingly. Risk analysis and risk assessment are related concepts but do not specifically focus on determining the consequences of disruptions resulting from a disaster. Project problem definition is not directly relevant to assessing the consequences of disruptions.

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53. What type of malware uses social engineering to trick a victim into installing it?

Explanation

A Trojan Horse is a type of malware that uses social engineering techniques to deceive and trick victims into willingly installing it. It disguises itself as a harmless or desirable program, enticing users to download and install it. Once installed, the Trojan Horse can perform various malicious activities, such as stealing sensitive information, gaining unauthorized access to the victim's system, or allowing remote control by the attacker. Unlike viruses or worms, Trojan Horses rely on the victim's trust and ignorance to infiltrate their system.

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54. Which regulatory guidance pertains to any company that is publicly traded on U.S. markets?

Explanation

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) pertains to any company that is publicly traded on U.S. markets. This act was passed in 2002 to protect investors and ensure the accuracy and reliability of financial statements. It establishes strict regulations for corporate governance, financial reporting, and internal controls. SOX requires companies to have independent audits of their financial statements, maintain proper documentation, and establish internal controls to prevent fraud and financial misstatements. It also imposes criminal penalties for non-compliance and includes provisions to protect whistleblowers. Overall, SOX aims to enhance transparency and accountability in publicly traded companies.

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55. A customer requests to connect their LAN to the internet. Which of the following devices do you recommend using to meet this goal?

Explanation

A router is recommended to connect the customer's LAN to the internet. A router is a networking device that forwards data packets between computer networks. It acts as a gateway for the LAN to connect to the internet by directing traffic between the two networks. Unlike a hub or switch, a router can also perform network address translation (NAT), which allows multiple devices on the LAN to share a single internet connection. Additionally, a router provides security features such as firewall protection, which helps protect the LAN from unauthorized access. A cable alone cannot connect the LAN to the internet; it is used to physically connect devices within a network.

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56. Recently passed over for an executive promotion, Carol is anxious to hear about a major company announcement which will most likely reveal the new hire.  Knowing that the PR department does not regularly shred documents, she snoops around the hallways after hours, and finds a memo next to the printer that gives her the information that will be released to the public next week.  What kind of attack has Carol committed?

Explanation

Dumpster diving is the act of searching through trash or recycling bins to obtain information or valuable items. In this scenario, Carol snoops around the hallways after hours and finds a memo next to the printer, indicating that she is searching for information in a location where it is likely to be discarded. Therefore, Carol has committed a dumpster diving attack by finding the memo that reveals the new hire information.

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57. Which of the following is not a characteristic of continuous monitoring?

Explanation

Continuous monitoring is a process that involves regularly assessing and evaluating an organization's security posture. It leverages automated data feeds to gather real-time information about the organization's security status. It enables the prioritization of remedies by identifying vulnerabilities and weaknesses in the system. However, informing managers of HR issues is not a characteristic of continuous monitoring. HR issues are related to personnel management and do not directly fall under the scope of security monitoring and assessment.

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58. Which of the following end-point devices would MOST likely be considered part of a converged IP network?

Explanation

A converged IP network refers to a network that carries multiple types of traffic, such as voice, video, and data, over a single IP-based infrastructure. In this case, the devices that would most likely be considered part of a converged IP network are the ones that can transmit different types of traffic. A file server can transmit data, an IP phone can transmit voice, and a security camera can transmit video. Therefore, the combination of a file server, IP phone, and security camera would be the most likely to be considered part of a converged IP network.

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59. What type of analysis emphasizes the formal study of what your organization is doing currently and where it will be in the future?

Explanation

Gap analysis is a type of analysis that emphasizes the formal study of what an organization is currently doing and where it aims to be in the future. It involves identifying the difference or "gap" between the current state and the desired future state of the organization. This analysis helps in identifying areas of improvement, setting goals, and developing strategies to bridge the gap and achieve the desired future state.

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60. Which of the following describes the type of anti-virus software that looks for suspicious sections of code generally found in malware?

Explanation

Heuristic scanners are a type of anti-virus software that looks for suspicious sections of code commonly found in malware. Unlike traditional signature-based scanners that rely on pre-existing virus definitions, heuristic scanners use algorithms and rules to identify potentially malicious behavior. By analyzing code patterns and behavior, heuristic scanners can detect unknown or zero-day threats that have not yet been identified by signature-based scanners. This proactive approach allows heuristic scanners to provide an additional layer of protection against emerging and evolving malware threats.

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61. What are the three types of access control?

Explanation

The three types of access control are administrative, physical, and technical. Administrative access control involves the policies, procedures, and guidelines that determine who has access to certain resources. Physical access control refers to the physical measures put in place to restrict access to a location or resource, such as locks, keys, and security guards. Technical access control involves the use of technology, such as passwords, encryption, and firewalls, to control access to systems and data. These three types of access control work together to ensure that only authorized individuals are able to access and use resources.

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62. Asymmetric key cryptography is used for the following:

Explanation

Asymmetric key cryptography is a method of encryption that uses two different keys, a public key and a private key. This type of encryption is used for the encryption of data to ensure its confidentiality and security. Non repudiation is another use of asymmetric key cryptography, which means that the sender of a message cannot deny sending it. This helps in ensuring the integrity and authenticity of the data. Access control is also a use of asymmetric key cryptography, as it can be used to control and manage who has access to certain data or resources.

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63. The only cipher system said to be unbreakable by brute force is

Explanation

The one-time pad is considered to be unbreakable by brute force because it uses a random key that is as long as the message itself, making it impossible for an attacker to find any patterns or correlations. Each key is used only once and never repeated, ensuring that there is no way for an adversary to decrypt the message without knowing the exact key used. This property of the one-time pad makes it a highly secure cipher system that cannot be cracked through brute force methods.

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64. Since 9/11, airport parking garages now keep cars further away from the terminal entrance. What is this an example of?

Explanation

This is an example of a physical control because it involves a physical change in the layout and positioning of airport parking garages. By keeping cars further away from the terminal entrance, it helps enhance security measures and reduces the risk of potential threats or attacks.

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65. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA-2) uses Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) and Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP).

Explanation

Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA-2) is a security protocol used to secure wireless networks. It utilizes two encryption methods, Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) and Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP). AES is a strong encryption algorithm that provides secure data transmission, while TKIP is an older encryption protocol that provides backward compatibility with older devices. Therefore, the statement that WPA-2 uses AES and TKIP is true.

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66. When malware infects a host and allows it to be used in a botnet for DDoS attacks, the host is said to be what kind of host?

Explanation

When malware infects a host and allows it to be used in a botnet for DDoS attacks, the host is referred to as a "Zombie." A Zombie host is under the control of an attacker and can be remotely manipulated to carry out malicious activities without the knowledge or consent of the host owner. In the context of DDoS attacks, Zombies are used to overwhelm target systems with a flood of traffic, causing them to become unresponsive or crash.

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67. Data access decisions are best made by:

Explanation

Data access decisions are best made by Data Owners because they are the individuals or entities responsible for the data and have the knowledge and authority to determine who should have access to it. They understand the sensitivity and importance of the data and can make informed decisions regarding its access based on security, privacy, and compliance requirements. User Managers may have some input regarding access for their team members, but the ultimate decision lies with the Data Owners. Senior Management may provide high-level guidance and policies, but they may not have the detailed knowledge of the data to make specific access decisions. Application Developers are responsible for building and maintaining the applications that interact with the data but are not typically involved in access decision-making.

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68. Which of the following is part of the five rules of evidence?

Explanation

Five rules of evidence:
-Be authentic
-Be accurate
-Be complete
-Be convincing
-Be admissible

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69. When a certificate is revoked, what is the proper procedure?

Explanation

When a key is no longer valid, the certificate revocation list should be updated. A certificate revocation list (CRL) is a list of non-valid certificates that should not be accepted by any member of the public key infrastructure.

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70. How are smart cards and memory cars functionally different?

Explanation

Smart cards and memory cards are functionally different in terms of processing information. Memory cards are designed to store information but do not have the capability to process it. On the other hand, smart cards not only store information but also have the ability to process it. This means that smart cards can perform tasks such as encryption, authentication, and data manipulation, while memory cards can only store data without any processing capabilities.

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71. Network information services (NIS) are used for what processes?

Explanation

NIS, or Network Information Services, are used to manage user credentials across a group of machines in a UNIX environment. It allows users to have a single login and password for multiple machines, simplifying the administration of user accounts. NIS provides a centralized database of user information, such as usernames, passwords, and other authentication details, which can be accessed by all machines in the network. This ensures consistency and ease of management for user authentication and access control in a UNIX environment.

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72. What is the best protection measure against unauthorized access to personal privacy information records in an area where systems are accessed by multiple employees?

Explanation

The use of smart cards is the best protection measure against unauthorized access to personal privacy information records in an area where systems are accessed by multiple employees. Smart cards provide an additional layer of security by requiring employees to present their card, which contains encrypted data, in order to gain access to the system. This helps to ensure that only authorized individuals can access the sensitive information, reducing the risk of unauthorized access and potential data breaches.

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73. Which of the following is MOST important for successful business continuity?

Explanation

Senior leadership support is the most important for successful business continuity because it provides the necessary direction, resources, and decision-making authority to ensure that the organization's continuity plans are effectively implemented. Without senior leadership support, it would be difficult to secure the necessary funding, allocate resources, and prioritize continuity efforts. Additionally, senior leaders play a crucial role in communicating the importance of business continuity to the entire organization, fostering a culture of preparedness, and ensuring that all employees understand their roles and responsibilities in the event of a disruption.

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74. Security awareness training includes:

Explanation

Security awareness training includes educating staff members about their roles and responsibilities in maintaining security. This training ensures that employees understand how their actions can impact the security of an organization's systems and data. By providing clear guidelines and expectations, organizations can empower their staff to actively contribute to maintaining a secure environment. This includes promoting good security practices, such as handling sensitive information appropriately, reporting suspicious activities, and following established security protocols. Ultimately, security roles and responsibilities for staff are an essential component of security awareness training to create a culture of security within an organization.

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75. Many organizations purchase insurance policies to provide various liability coverage for information security risks, including any physical damage of assets, hacking attacks, etc. Which of the following risk management techniques are being employed?

Explanation

The organization is employing the risk transfer technique by purchasing insurance policies to transfer the liability coverage for information security risks to the insurance provider. This means that in the event of any physical damage of assets or hacking attacks, the organization can transfer the financial burden and responsibility to the insurance company.

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76. What is the BEST means of protecting the physical devices associated with the alarm system?

Explanation

Tamper protection is the means of protecting the physical devices associated with the alarm system through line supervision, encryption, or tampering alarming of enclosures and components.

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77. Which of the following forms of attack can be used to disrupt even the best physical and logical security mechanism to gain access to a system?

Explanation

A social engineering attack is a form of attack that exploits human psychology and manipulates individuals into revealing sensitive information or granting unauthorized access to a system. Unlike other forms of attacks that focus on technical vulnerabilities, social engineering attacks target the weakest link in any security system - the human element. By utilizing tactics such as deception, persuasion, and impersonation, attackers can bypass even the most robust physical and logical security mechanisms. This makes social engineering attacks highly effective and dangerous, as they can compromise a system without leaving any trace of intrusion.

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78. Which one do you like?

Explanation

The explanation for the given answer is not available as the question does not provide any context or criteria for selecting a preferred option.

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79. When sensitive information is no longer critical but still within scope of a record retention policy, that information is BEST

Explanation

When sensitive information is no longer critical but still within the scope of a record retention policy, the best course of action is to re-categorize the information. This means that the information is no longer considered sensitive and can be placed into a different category or classification that aligns with the organization's record retention policy. This allows the information to be stored and managed according to the appropriate guidelines and reduces the risk of unauthorized access or misuse.

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80. Which of the following BEST determines the employment suitability of an individual?

Explanation

A background investigation is the best way to determine the employment suitability of an individual. This process involves checking an individual's criminal record, employment history, education, and other relevant information to assess their trustworthiness, reliability, and qualifications for the job. This helps employers make informed decisions and ensure that the individual is suitable for the position and can be trusted with the responsibilities associated with it.

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81. Which of the following is correct about dynamic testing?

Explanation

Dynamic testing is a type of testing that involves observing the system while it is being executed. This means that during dynamic testing, the system is actively running and its behavior is being monitored and evaluated. It is different from static testing, which does not involve the execution of the system. Dynamic testing allows for the identification of issues and bugs that may only arise during the actual execution of the system, providing valuable insights into its performance and functionality.

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82. Authentication is

Explanation

The correct answer is "the process of verifying the identity of the user." Authentication refers to the process of confirming or validating the identity of an individual or system. It involves the use of credentials such as passwords, biometrics, or security tokens to ensure that the user is who they claim to be. By verifying the identity, authentication helps to prevent unauthorized access and ensures that only authorized users are granted access to the system or resources.

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83. Management should decide when a system should be returned to operational status in which phase of the incident response process?

Explanation

In the Recovery Phase of the incident response process, management should decide when a system should be returned to operational status. This phase involves restoring the affected system or network to its normal state and ensuring that it is fully functional and secure. During this phase, management evaluates the extent of the incident, assesses the impact on operations, and makes decisions regarding the appropriate time to bring the system back online.

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84. Sam is a software developer and has recently gone through secure software development courses.  When reviewing his programming code, he sees that his software splits authentication and authorization steps.  Why would this be a concern?

Explanation

When authentication and authorization steps are split in software development, there is a concern that the processing sequencing can be manipulated. This means that an attacker may be able to bypass or manipulate the order in which these steps occur, potentially gaining unauthorized access to the system. This can be a security vulnerability as it undermines the intended security measures of the software.

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85. Which is a fundamental disadvantage of biometrics?

Explanation

Cannot revoke physical attributes.

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86. Which of the following is true about maintaining the chain of custody of a digital investigation?

Explanation

The correct answer is to keep a log of every person who had physical custody of the evidence, documenting the actions that they performed on the evidence and at what time. This is important in maintaining the chain of custody in a digital investigation as it helps establish the integrity and reliability of the evidence. By keeping a detailed record of who handled the evidence and what actions were taken, it ensures that the evidence remains admissible in court and can be traced back to its original source without any tampering or contamination.

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87. Which of the following is NOT a consideration when choosing data retention policies?

Explanation

When choosing data retention policies, human resources is not a consideration. Data retention policies primarily focus on factors such as the cost of data retention, data retrieval and use, and inherent aggregation. Human resources, which involves the management of personnel within an organization, does not directly impact the decision-making process for data retention policies.

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88. Which of the following categories of access control implementation includes implementing security services such as smart cards, biometrics, access control lists, firewalls, and intrusion detection systems?

Explanation

Logical Access Control includes implementing security services such as smart cards, biometrics, access control lists, firewalls, and intrusion detection systems. This category focuses on controlling access to computer systems, networks, and data by verifying the identity of users and ensuring they have the appropriate permissions to access specific resources. It involves the use of authentication mechanisms, authorization policies, and encryption techniques to protect against unauthorized access and maintain the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information.

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89. What protocol solicits MAC address from devices on the network without requiring authentication?

Explanation

ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is a protocol that is used to map an IP address to a MAC address on a local network. It operates at the Data Link layer of the OSI model and does not require authentication. ARP sends out a broadcast message called an ARP request to all devices on the network, asking for the MAC address associated with a particular IP address. The device that has the matching IP address responds with its MAC address, allowing communication between devices on the network.

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90. Which of the following supports asymmetric key cryptography?

Explanation

Diffie-Hellman supports asymmetric key cryptography. It is a key exchange algorithm that allows two parties to establish a shared secret key over an insecure communication channel. It uses the concept of discrete logarithms to ensure that even if an attacker intercepts the communication, they cannot determine the shared secret key. This makes it suitable for secure communication and encryption in scenarios where the two parties have not previously shared any information.

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91. The main difference between a Security Event Information Management (SEIM) system and a log management system is that SEIM systems are useful for log collection, collation and analysis

Explanation

SEIM solutions are intended to provide a common platform for log collection, collation, and analysis in real-time to allow for more effective and efficient response.

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92. Administrative law is concerned with confining government power, curtailing governmental abuses, ensuring procedural adherence, and ensuring performance of statutory duties.

Explanation

Administrative law is a branch of law that focuses on regulating the actions and powers of government agencies. It aims to limit government power, prevent abuses by the government, ensure that government procedures are followed, and ensure that government agencies fulfill their statutory obligations. Therefore, the statement accurately reflects the purpose and scope of administrative law, making the answer "True" correct.

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93. Which of the following is not one of the four typical elements of a DBMS?

Explanation

The question is asking for the element that is not one of the four typical elements of a DBMS. The four typical elements of a DBMS are database engine, hardware platform, application software, and none of the above. Since "None of the above" is listed as one of the options, it is the correct answer because it does not represent one of the four typical elements of a DBMS.

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94. What is the output length of a RIPEMD-160 hash?

Explanation

The output length of a RIPEMD-160 hash is 160 bits. This means that the hash value generated by the RIPEMD-160 algorithm will consist of 160 binary digits or bits. The RIPEMD-160 algorithm is commonly used for cryptographic purposes, such as in digital signatures and message integrity checks. The longer the output length of a hash function, the lower the probability of collision, making it more secure. Therefore, a 160-bit output length provides a higher level of security compared to shorter output lengths.

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95. Ann installs a new Wireless Access Point (WAP) and users are able to connect to it.  However, once connected, users cannot access the Internet.  Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?

Explanation

The most likely cause of the problem is that an incorrect subnet mask has been entered in the WAP configuration. The subnet mask determines the network portion of an IP address and is used to separate the network address from the host address. If the subnet mask is incorrect, the WAP may not be able to properly route traffic to the Internet, resulting in users being unable to access it.

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96. Before applying a software update to production systems, it is MOST important that

Explanation

Before applying a software update to production systems, it is most important that the production systems are backed up. This is crucial because if something goes wrong during the update process, having a backup ensures that the systems can be restored to their previous state without losing any data or causing significant downtime. Backing up the production systems mitigates the risk of potential data loss or system failure, providing a safety net in case any issues arise during the update process.

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97. Which is the BEST choice for implementing encryption on a smart card?

Explanation

Smart cards have limited processing power and memory and therefore should use an approach which is light on processor demands. ECC is the only option which is highly efficient and requires little processing power.

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98. To ensure proper forensics action when needed, an incident response program must:

Explanation

Treating every incident as though it may be a crime is important in an incident response program because it ensures that all incidents are thoroughly investigated and proper forensic actions are taken. By approaching each incident with the mindset that it could potentially be a crime, the organization can gather all necessary evidence, preserve it properly, and conduct a thorough analysis. This approach helps to avoid overlooking any potential criminal activity and ensures that the incident response process is effective in identifying and addressing any security breaches or malicious activities.

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99. Multi-layer protocols such as Modbus used in industrial control systems

Explanation

Multi-layer protocols such as Modbus used in industrial control systems are often insecure by their very nature as they were not designed to natively operate over today's IP networks. This means that they lack the built-in security features necessary to protect against modern threats and vulnerabilities. As a result, these protocols are more susceptible to attacks and unauthorized access. To address this issue, newer protocols like IPv6 and NetBIOS have been developed with improved security measures to ensure the protection of network communication.

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100. Collusion is best mitigated by:

Explanation

Job rotation is the best way to mitigate collusion because it involves regularly moving employees to different positions or departments. This reduces the chances of employees forming long-term alliances or developing close relationships that could lead to collusion. By constantly changing roles, employees are less likely to have the opportunity to conspire or engage in dishonest activities together. Job rotation also helps in cross-training employees and increasing their knowledge and skills, which further reduces the risk of collusion by creating a more transparent and accountable work environment.

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101. Protection practices that can be used to prevent man-in-the middle attacks include?

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the above" because all three protection practices mentioned (strong access controls, encryption/checksum, and IDS) can be used to prevent man-in-the-middle attacks. Strong access controls help ensure that only authorized individuals can access sensitive information, encryption/checksum ensures that data is securely transmitted and cannot be easily intercepted or tampered with, and IDS (Intrusion Detection System) can detect and alert on any suspicious activities or unauthorized access attempts. By implementing all of these practices, organizations can significantly reduce the risk of man-in-the-middle attacks.

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102. Which of the following attacks allow bypassing access control lists on routers and aids an aggressor in identity hiding?

Explanation

A MAC Spoofing Attack involves changing the Media Access Control (MAC) address of a device to impersonate another device on a network. By doing so, the attacker can bypass access control lists on routers, which are used to restrict or allow access to specific devices. Additionally, MAC spoofing aids the aggressor in hiding their true identity by making it appear as if they are using a different device. This allows them to bypass network security measures and potentially gain unauthorized access to the network.

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103. A Service Organization Control (SOC) Report commonly covers a

Explanation

A Service Organization Control (SOC) Report typically covers a 12 month period because this duration allows for a comprehensive assessment of the organization's controls and processes over an extended period of time. It provides a more accurate representation of the organization's performance and effectiveness in managing risks and meeting control objectives. A 12 month period also aligns with industry standards and best practices for conducting SOC audits and reporting on the organization's control environment.

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104. Which intrusion detection system's efficiency decreases with encryption?

Explanation

NIDS stands for Network Intrusion Detection System. It monitors network traffic and analyzes it for any suspicious activity or intrusion attempts. However, its efficiency decreases with encryption because NIDS cannot inspect the encrypted data packets. Encryption scrambles the data, making it unreadable to the NIDS. Therefore, it cannot effectively detect any malicious activity within encrypted traffic, reducing its efficiency in such cases.

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105. What are the seven main categories of access control?

Explanation

The correct answer is Directive, deterrent, preventative, detective, corrective, compensating, and recovery. These seven categories represent different aspects of access control. Directive access control involves setting policies and guidelines for users. Deterrent access control aims to discourage unauthorized access through measures like warning signs. Preventative access control focuses on preventing unauthorized access through physical or technical controls. Detective access control involves monitoring and detecting unauthorized activities. Corrective access control aims to correct or mitigate the consequences of unauthorized access. Compensating access control involves implementing additional controls to compensate for weaknesses in other controls. Recovery access control focuses on recovering from security incidents and restoring normal operations.

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106. A Security Event Management (SEM) service performs the following function:

Explanation

SEM/SEIM systems have to understand a wide variety of different applications and network element (routers/switches) logs and formats; consolidate these logs into a single database and then correlate events looking for clues to unauthorized behaviors that would be otherwise inconclusive if observed in a single log file.

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107. Which protocol offers native encryption capability, for both authentication and data transfer?

Explanation

IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) offers native encryption capability for both authentication and data transfer. This means that when using IMAP, the communication between the email client and the email server is encrypted, ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of the data being transferred. This encryption helps to protect sensitive information such as usernames, passwords, and email content from unauthorized access or tampering.

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108. Formal acceptance of an evaluated system by management is known as:

Explanation

In the accreditation phase, management evaluates the capacity of a system to meet the needs of the organization.

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109. Which type of law is derived from court decisions and codification of British law dating back to the 12th century?

Explanation

Common Law is derived from court decisions and codification of British law dating back to the 12th century. It is a legal system where judges base their decisions on previous court rulings and legal principles established through case law, rather than relying solely on legislation. This system allows for flexibility and the development of legal principles over time. Common Law is widely used in countries that have a historical connection to British law, including the United States and many Commonwealth nations.

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110. Which cable has a relatively low-speed transmission medium consisting of two insulated wires that are arranged in a regular spiral pattern?

Explanation

Twisted Pair cable has a relatively low-speed transmission medium consisting of two insulated wires that are arranged in a regular spiral pattern. This arrangement helps to reduce electromagnetic interference and crosstalk between the wires, improving the quality of the signal transmission. Fiber Optic cables, on the other hand, use light to transmit data at high speeds, while Coaxial cables have a single conductor surrounded by insulation and a metallic shield. Therefore, the correct answer is Twisted Pair.

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111. Managing the dialogue between two or more communicating devices is called:

Explanation

Session management refers to the process of managing the dialogue between two or more communicating devices. It involves establishing, maintaining, and terminating communication sessions between devices. This includes tasks such as session establishment, authentication, encryption, and session timeout. Session management ensures that communication sessions are properly managed and controlled, allowing devices to effectively exchange information and interact with each other.

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112. Which of the following steps should be performed first in a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Explanation

In a business impact analysis (BIA), the first step should be to identify all business units within an organization. This is important because it allows for a comprehensive understanding of the different components and departments that make up the organization. By identifying all business units, it becomes easier to evaluate the impact of disruptive events, estimate the Recovery Time Objective (RTO), and evaluate the criticality of business functions. Without first identifying all business units, it would be difficult to accurately assess the impact and criticality of different aspects of the organization.

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113. The (ISC)code of ethics resolves conflicts between canons by:

Explanation

The (ISC)2 code of ethics resolves conflicts between canons by following the order of the canons. This means that if there is a conflict between two or more canons, the code of ethics prioritizes the canons in a specific order to determine the appropriate course of action. By adhering to this order, the code ensures consistency and provides a framework for ethical decision-making.

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114. Cross-functional teams formed to conceptualize, design, test, produce, and deliver a product are called:

Explanation

Cross-functional teams that are responsible for the entire product development process, from conceptualization to delivery, are called Integrated Product Teams (IPTs). These teams bring together individuals from different disciplines, such as design, testing, production, and delivery, to collaborate and work together towards a common goal of developing and delivering a product. IPTs ensure that all aspects of the product development process are considered and integrated, resulting in a more efficient and effective product development process.

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115. The key to a successful physical protection system is the integration of:

Explanation

A successful physical protection system requires the integration of people, procedures, and equipment. People are essential as they are responsible for implementing and following the procedures, as well as operating and maintaining the equipment. Procedures provide guidelines and protocols for how to handle security situations and ensure consistency in actions. Equipment, such as surveillance cameras, alarms, and access control systems, enhances the security measures and helps in detecting and responding to threats. Therefore, the combination of people, procedures, and equipment is crucial for an effective physical protection system.

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116. Single loss expectancy (SLE) is calculated by using:

Explanation

Single loss expectancy (SLE) is calculated by multiplying the asset value (the estimated worth of the asset being protected) by the exposure factor (the percentage of asset loss in the event of a security breach). This calculation helps in determining the potential financial loss that could occur from a single security incident. By considering both the asset value and exposure factor, organizations can assess the potential impact of a security breach and make informed decisions regarding risk management and investment in security measures.

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117. Which of the following electronically stored information (ESI) are not considered reasonably accessible?

Explanation

Backup tapes for disaster recovery are not considered reasonably accessible because they are typically stored offsite and require specialized equipment and expertise to access and restore the data. Unlike manual access disks, hard drives, and auto-access optical disks, which can be easily accessed and retrieved, backup tapes are designed for long-term storage and are not readily available for immediate access. Therefore, they are considered less accessible in comparison to other forms of electronically stored information (ESI).

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118. What is the optimal placement for network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS)?  

Explanation

The optimal placement for network-based intrusion detection systems (NIDS) is on the network perimeter. This placement allows the NIDS to monitor all incoming and outgoing network traffic, giving it the ability to detect and alert the network administrator of any suspicious activity. Placing the NIDS on network segments with business-critical systems or in the network operations center may not provide comprehensive coverage of the entire network, while placing it at an external service provider may raise concerns about data privacy and security.

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119. At a restricted facility, visitors are requested to provide identification and verified against a pre-approved list by the guard at the front gate before being let in.  This is an example of checking for 

Explanation

This scenario of requesting identification and verifying against a pre-approved list before allowing entry demonstrates the concept of least privilege. Least privilege refers to the principle of granting individuals or entities only the necessary access or permissions required to perform their specific tasks or functions. By checking visitors' identification and verifying against a pre-approved list, the facility ensures that only those individuals who have been granted permission are allowed entry, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or potential security breaches.

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120. Which one of the following describes the Information Technology Security Evaluation Criteria (ITSEC)?

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the above." This means that all of the statements mentioned in the options describe the Information Technology Security Evaluation Criteria (ITSEC). The ITSEC allows the vendor to define a set of requirements from a menu of options into a Security Target (ST). Vendors then develop products (Targets of Evaluation, or ToEs) and have them evaluated against the ST. Additionally, ITSEC addresses all three elements of the Triad, which are confidentiality, integrity, and availability.

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121. Which of the following is the primary desired result of any well-planned business continuity exercise?

Explanation

The primary desired result of any well-planned business continuity exercise is to identify the strengths and weaknesses of the plan. This allows the organization to understand what aspects of the plan work well and what areas need improvement. By identifying these strengths and weaknesses, the organization can make necessary adjustments and enhancements to ensure that the plan is effective in mitigating potential disruptions and maintaining business operations. This helps the organization to be better prepared for any future incidents or crises.

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122. Sam is a software developer and has recently gone through secure software development courses.  When reviewing his programming code, he sees that his software splits authentication and authorization steps.  Why would this be a concern?

Explanation

When software splits authentication and authorization steps, it allows for the possibility of processing sequencing manipulation. This means that an attacker could potentially manipulate the order in which these steps are executed, leading to unauthorized access or actions. By combining authentication and authorization into a single step, the software can ensure that the proper sequence is followed, reducing the risk of manipulation and unauthorized access.

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123. A service's recovery point objective is zero.  Which approach BEST ensures the requirement is met?

Explanation

RAID 6 will provide a highly redundant storage situation while the hot site will stand ready to fail over should the primary site fail.

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124. Good data management practices include:

Explanation

Data management is a process involving a broad range of activities from administrative to technical aspects of handling data. Good data management practices include:
- A data policy that defines strategic long-term goals and provides guiding principles for data management in all aspects of a project, agency, or organization.
- Clearly defined roles and responsibilities for those associated with the data, in particular....oh fuck it!!!

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125. Which of the following processes identifies the threats that can impact the business continuity of operations?

Explanation

Business impact analysis is the process that identifies the threats that can impact the business continuity of operations. It involves assessing the potential risks and their potential impact on the organization's operations. By conducting a business impact analysis, organizations can identify and prioritize their critical functions and processes, as well as develop strategies to mitigate and recover from potential threats and disruptions. This analysis helps in understanding the potential consequences of various risks and enables organizations to develop effective business continuity plans.

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126. What are types of failures in biometric identification systems?

Explanation

False reject and false accept are types of failures in biometric identification systems. False reject occurs when the system fails to recognize a valid user, while false accept happens when the system incorrectly identifies an unauthorized user as valid. These failures can lead to security breaches and compromise the accuracy and reliability of the biometric identification system.

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127. A basic component of an industrial control system (ICS) that is most often used is called a:

Explanation

A programmable logic controller (PLC) is a commonly used component in industrial control systems (ICS). It is responsible for controlling and monitoring various processes and machinery in industries. PLCs are designed to handle multiple inputs and outputs, making them ideal for automating and controlling complex systems. They are programmable, allowing users to create custom logic and sequences to control the operation of machines and processes. PLCs are widely used in manufacturing, power plants, and other industrial settings due to their versatility, reliability, and ease of use.

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128. Well-written security program policies are BEST reviewed:

Explanation

Policies should survive two to three years even though they should be reviewed and approved at least annually

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129. Users are reporting that some Internet websites are not accessible anymore.  Which of the following will allow the network administrator to quickly isolate the remote router that is causing the network communication issue, so that the problem can be reported to the appropriate responsible party?

Explanation

Tracert is a network diagnostic tool that allows the network administrator to trace the route taken by packets from their source to a destination. By using tracert, the administrator can identify the routers through which the packets are passing and determine if there are any delays or failures at specific routers. This information can help isolate the remote router that is causing the network communication issue, allowing the problem to be reported to the appropriate responsible party.

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130. Which of the following can BEST be used to capture detailed security requirements?

Explanation

Threat modeling, data classification, and risk assessments can best be used to capture detailed security requirements. Threat modeling helps identify potential threats and vulnerabilities in a system, data classification helps categorize and prioritize data based on its sensitivity and criticality, and risk assessments help evaluate the likelihood and impact of potential risks. By combining these three approaches, organizations can effectively identify and address security requirements to protect their systems and data.

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131. Of the following plans, which is designed to protect critical business processes from natural or man-made failures or disasters and the consequential loss of capital due to the unavailability of normal business operations?

Explanation

A Business Continuity Plan is designed to protect critical business processes from failures or disasters, whether natural or man-made. It focuses on ensuring that normal business operations can continue or be quickly restored in the event of a disruption. This plan includes strategies, procedures, and resources to minimize the impact of the disruption and ensure the continuity of essential functions. It aims to prevent the loss of capital that may occur due to the unavailability of normal business operations.

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132. In the OSI reference model, on which layer can Ethernet (IEEE 802.3) be described?

Explanation

Ethernet (IEEE 802.3) operates on the Data-link layer of the OSI reference model. This layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between nodes on the same network segment. Ethernet defines the protocols and standards for the physical transmission of data packets over the network. It handles tasks such as framing, error detection, and flow control. Therefore, Ethernet can be described as a Data-link layer protocol in the OSI model.

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133. What would be the most appropriate interior sensor used for a building that has windows along the ground floor?

Explanation

If only acoustic is used and an employee pulls the window blinds up, it can set off a false alarm; but if a dual-alarm system is used both acoustic and shock sensors will need to be activated before an alarm is triggered.

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134. Which of the following is not a form of identification?

Explanation

A token device is not a form of identification because it is not directly linked to a person's identity. While it can be used as a security measure to access certain systems or locations, it does not provide personal information or verify the individual's identity. In contrast, fingerprints, user IDs, and badge systems are all forms of identification that can be used to uniquely identify individuals.

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135. What are the FOUR phases of the equipment lifecycle?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Defining requirements, acquiring and implementing, operations and maintenance, disposal and decommission." This answer accurately represents the four phases of the equipment lifecycle. The first phase involves defining the requirements for the equipment, the second phase involves acquiring and implementing the equipment, the third phase involves the operations and maintenance of the equipment, and the final phase involves the disposal and decommissioning of the equipment.

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136. Your office is implementing an access control policy based on decentralized administration, which is controlled directly by the owners and creators of files.  What is the major advantage and disadvantage of such an approach?

Explanation

The major advantage of implementing an access control policy based on decentralized administration is that it puts access control into the hands of those most accountable for the information. This ensures that the owners and creators of files have direct control over who can access their information, increasing accountability and responsibility. However, the major disadvantage is that this approach can lead to inconsistencies in procedures and criteria. Without centralized control and standardized guidelines, different file owners may implement access controls differently, leading to confusion and potential security vulnerabilities.

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137. A hard drive is recovered from a submerged vehicle.  The drive is needed for a court case.  What is the best approach to pull information off the drive?

Explanation

The best approach to pull information off the submerged hard drive in this scenario is to contact a professional data recovery organization and request them to pull a forensic image. This is because professionals have the expertise and specialized equipment required to handle such situations effectively. They can ensure that the drive is preserved in its "native" state and retrieve the information needed for the court case. Waiting for the drive to dry or attempting to retrieve the information using normal operating system commands may cause further damage or loss of data. Using a forensic oven and degausser may also not be suitable in this case.

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138. Laws designed to protect individuals' privacy have been created worldwide.  However, different approaches have been adopted by the various countries.  Which of the following was created by the U.S. Department of Commerce in consultation with the European Commission to bridge the differences in approaches?

Explanation

The Safe Harbor Framework was created by the U.S. Department of Commerce in consultation with the European Commission. It was designed to bridge the differences in approaches to privacy protection and provide a streamlined way for U.S. organizations to comply with EU protection of personal data.

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139. Frame Relay and X.25 networks are part of which of the following?

Explanation

Packet-Switched Technologies include:
- X.25
- Link Access Procedure Balanced (LAPB)
- Frame Relay
- Switched Multimegabit Data Service (SMDS)
- Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM)
- Voice over IP (VoIP)

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140. An accurate picture of the use and acceptance of biometrics is: 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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141. Substitution is mixing the location of plaintext throughout the ciphertext adding a level of complexity to the process.

Explanation

The explanation for the given correct answer, which is False, is that substitution does not involve mixing the location of plaintext throughout the ciphertext. Substitution is a method in cryptography where each letter in the plaintext is replaced with another letter or symbol. It does not involve rearranging the positions of the plaintext within the ciphertext.

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142. Which one of the following is NOT a common security service in the system security architecture?

Explanation

Groups and protection services are not a common security service in the system security architecture. Access control services, audit and monitoring services, and boundary control services are commonly used to ensure the security of a system. Access control services manage and control user access to resources, audit and monitoring services track and log system activities, and boundary control services protect the system from external threats. However, groups and protection services are not typically considered as standalone security services in the system security architecture.

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143. Which network topology's use of tokens allows prediction of node transmission delay and can be used as LAN or network backbone?

Explanation

A ring network topology's use of tokens allows prediction of node transmission delay and can be used as a LAN or network backbone. In a ring topology, each node in the network is connected to exactly two other nodes, forming a closed loop. The use of tokens in this topology ensures that only the node in possession of the token can transmit data, which allows for better control and prediction of node transmission delay. This topology is commonly used in LANs and network backbones due to its reliability and ability to handle high traffic loads.

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144. Which of the following statements BEST describes the extent to which an organization should address business continuity or disaster recover planning?

Explanation

The correct answer states that continuity planning is a significant organizational issue and should include all parts of the company's functions. This means that the organization should address business continuity or disaster recovery planning comprehensively, considering all aspects and functions within the company. It emphasizes the importance of a holistic approach to continuity planning, rather than focusing solely on technology or specific areas of the organization.

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145. In mandatory access control the system controls access and the owner determines

Explanation

In mandatory access control, the system controls access based on predetermined rules and policies. The owner or user does not have the authority to determine access rights. Instead, access is granted based on a "need to know" basis, where individuals are only given access to the information or resources that are necessary for their job or role. This ensures that sensitive or confidential information is only accessed by authorized personnel, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or data breaches.

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146. All of the following describes link encryption except:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Performed by the end-user." Link encryption refers to the process of encrypting data as it is transmitted over a network. It is typically performed by network devices such as routers or switches, rather than by end-users. The end-user's role is usually limited to using encryption protocols or tools to secure their own data before sending it over the network.

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147. All of the following is true about trade secrets EXCEPT:

Explanation

Trade secrets are a form of intellectual property that provide a competitive advantage or equal footing to a company. They are not disclosed in legal proceedings and must generally be not known and provide benefit to the company. However, trade secrets are not registered with a government registrar, unlike patents, trademarks, or copyrights.

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148. Wireless transmission technologies include all of the following except?

Explanation

Code division single access (CDSA) is not a wireless transmission technology. The other options mentioned, direct-sequence spread spectrum, frequency-hopping spread spectrum, and time division multiple access, are all examples of wireless transmission technologies. CDSA is a term often used in the context of cellular networks, but it is not a specific wireless transmission technology in itself. It is a multiple access technique that allows multiple users to share the same frequency band by assigning unique codes to each user.

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149. Triage encompasses which of the following incident response sub-phases?

Explanation

The correct answer is detection, identification, notification. Triage in incident response refers to the process of quickly assessing and prioritizing incidents. The first step in triage is detecting the incident, which involves recognizing any abnormal activity or indicators of compromise. Once detected, the incident is then identified, which involves gathering information and analyzing the nature and scope of the incident. Finally, notification is the process of informing the appropriate stakeholders, such as management or law enforcement, about the incident so that they can take appropriate actions.

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150. Which of the following approaches for identifying appropriate BIA interviewees includes reviewing the enterprise's functional positions?

Explanation

Organizational chart reviews are an appropriate approach for identifying appropriate BIA interviewees as they provide a visual representation of the enterprise's functional positions and hierarchical structure. By reviewing the organizational chart, one can identify key individuals in each department or functional area who can provide valuable insights into the business impact analysis process. This approach helps ensure that all relevant stakeholders are included in the interviews, allowing for a comprehensive and accurate assessment of the organization's critical functions and potential risks.

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151. Which of the following is incorrect when considering privilege management?

Explanation

When considering privilege management, privileges that are needed for intermittent job functions should not be assigned to multiple user accounts. Instead, privileges should be managed based on least privilege, meaning only the rights required to perform a job should be provided to a user, group, or role. This ensures that access is limited to what is necessary for each individual's role, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or misuse of privileges. Assigning privileges to multiple user accounts for intermittent job functions can lead to confusion, increased complexity, and potential security vulnerabilities.

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152. Computer forensics is the marriage of computer science, information technology, and engineering with

Explanation

Computer forensics involves the application of computer science, information technology, and engineering principles in the context of legal investigations. It focuses on gathering and analyzing digital evidence to support legal proceedings. This field requires a deep understanding of both the technical aspects of computer systems and the legal framework within which investigations are conducted. Therefore, the correct answer is "law," as it represents the crucial component that integrates computer forensics with the legal system.

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153. Information systems auditors help the organization:

Explanation

Auditors provide an essential role for maintaining and improving information security. They provide an independent view of the design, effectiveness, and implementation of controls. The results of audits generate findings that require management response and corrective action plans to resolve the issue and mitigate the risk.

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154. Which phrase best defines a business continuity/disaster recovery plan?

Explanation

A business continuity/disaster recovery plan refers to a set of preparations and procedures that are put in place to ensure the continuation of all organization functions in the event of a disaster. This includes measures to prevent a disaster, as well as approved preparations and procedures for responding to a disaster. The plan is designed to ensure that the organization can continue its operations and minimize the impact of a disaster on its functions.

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155. Which one of the following is designed to protect the goodwill and reputation a merchant or vendor invests in its products?

Explanation

A trademark is designed to protect the goodwill and reputation that a merchant or vendor invests in its products. It is a recognizable sign, symbol, or logo that distinguishes the products or services of one company from another. By registering a trademark, a company can prevent others from using a similar mark that could confuse consumers or dilute the brand's reputation. Trademarks are essential for building brand recognition and ensuring that customers can identify and trust a particular product or service.

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156. What is the last phase of the TCP/IP three-way handshake sequence?

Explanation

The last phase of the TCP/IP three-way handshake sequence is the ACK packet. In this phase, the receiving party acknowledges the successful establishment of a connection by sending an ACK packet back to the sender. This packet confirms that the connection is established and both parties are ready to start exchanging data.

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157. Which of the following vulnerabilities would best be countered by adequate parameter checking?

Explanation

A buffer overflow vulnerability occurs when a program writes data beyond the allocated memory buffer, potentially overwriting adjacent memory and causing the program to crash or allowing an attacker to execute arbitrary code. Adequate parameter checking involves validating user input to ensure it falls within expected ranges and does not exceed the allocated buffer size. By implementing proper parameter checking, the program can prevent buffer overflow vulnerabilities by rejecting input that is too large and ensuring that data is stored safely within the allocated memory.

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158. Which of the following is a software protection mechanism where all references to information and all changes to authorizations must pass through a small portion of the operating system?  

Explanation

A security kernel is a software protection mechanism that ensures all references to information and changes to authorizations must pass through a small portion of the operating system. It acts as the central control point for enforcing security policies and preventing unauthorized access to sensitive resources. By controlling and monitoring all interactions with the system, security kernels provide a high level of security and protect against potential vulnerabilities or unauthorized actions.

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159. If speed is preferred over resilience, which of the following RAID configuration is the most suited?

Explanation

RAID 0: files are written in stripes across multiple disks, without parity information. Fast reading and writing, however if one disk crashes you can't recover the data.

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160. With public key cryptography, confidential messages with proof of origin are encrypted with the sender's private key and the public key of the recipient

Explanation

With public key cryptography, confidential messages are encrypted with the sender's private key and the public key of the recipient. This ensures that only the intended recipient, who possesses the corresponding private key, can decrypt and access the message. Additionally, the use of the sender's private key provides proof of origin, as only the sender possesses this key. Therefore, the statement is true.

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161. Which of the following BEST describes fundamental methods of encrypting data:

Explanation

Symmetric and asymmetric encryption are the fundamental methods of encrypting data. Symmetric encryption uses a single key to both encrypt and decrypt the data, making it faster but less secure. Asymmetric encryption, on the other hand, uses a pair of keys - a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption. This method provides better security but is slower. Therefore, the answer "Symmetric and asymmetric" best describes the fundamental methods of encrypting data.

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162. What is an important disadvantage of using a public key algorithm compared to a symmetric algorithm?

Explanation

Lower performance is a disadvantage of asymmetric cryptography

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163. What is the minimum and customary practice of responsible protection of assets that affects a community or social norm?

Explanation

Due care refers to the minimum and customary practice of responsible protection of assets that affects a community or social norm. It involves taking reasonable precautions and exercising caution to prevent harm or loss to assets. This practice ensures that individuals or organizations act responsibly and fulfill their obligations to protect assets from potential risks or threats. By practicing due care, one can minimize the likelihood of asset damage or loss and uphold the social norms of responsible asset protection.

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164. Security is likely to be most expensive when addressed in which phase?

Explanation

Security is likely to be most expensive when addressed in the implementation phase. This is because during the implementation phase, the actual coding and development of the system takes place. At this stage, any security measures that were not considered or properly planned for during the design and testing phases may require significant changes to the code and architecture, resulting in increased costs. It is generally more cost-effective to address security concerns earlier in the development process, rather than trying to retrofit security measures during implementation.

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165. Each distinguished name (DN) in an LDAP directory represents a collection of attributes about a specific object, and is stored in the directory as an entry.  DNs are composed of Common Name (CN) components which describe the object, and Domain Components (DC) which describe the domain in which the object resides.  Which of the following makes the most sense when constructing a DN? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "cn=Shon Harris,dc=LogicalSecurity,dc=com". This is the most logical way to construct a distinguished name (DN) in LDAP. The DN is composed of the Common Name (CN) component, which describes the object (in this case, "Shon Harris"), and the Domain Components (DC) which describe the domain in which the object resides ("LogicalSecurity" and "com").

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166. Which of the following processes is concerned with not only identifying the root cause but also addressing the underlying issue?

Explanation

Problem management is the correct answer because it is the process that focuses on not only identifying the root cause of incidents but also addressing the underlying issues to prevent them from recurring. This involves analyzing the incidents, investigating their causes, and implementing solutions or workarounds to prevent future incidents. Problem management aims to minimize the impact of incidents on the business and improve overall service quality by addressing the underlying problems in the IT infrastructure.

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167. What is access control?

Explanation

Access control refers to the security features that regulate and manage how users and systems communicate and interact with various systems and resources. It involves implementing measures and protocols to ensure that only authorized entities are granted access to sensitive information or resources. This can include authentication methods such as passwords, passphrases, cryptographic keys, or tokens, which serve as a second piece of the credential set to verify the identity of the subject. By controlling and monitoring these interactions, access control helps prevent unauthorized access and protects the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of systems and data.

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168. Which of the following ISO standards provides the evaluation criteria that can be used to evaluate security requirements of different products with different functions?

Explanation

ISO 15408, also known as Common Criteria for Information Technology Security Evaluation, provides evaluation criteria that can be used to assess the security requirements of various products with different functions. It is an internationally recognized standard that defines a framework for evaluating the security attributes of IT products and systems. This standard helps organizations determine the level of security provided by a product and ensures that it meets their specific security needs. ISO 15408 is widely used in government and commercial sectors to assess the security capabilities of products before procurement or deployment.

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169. When the backup window is not long enough to backup all of the data and the restoration of backup must be as fast as possible.  Which of the following type of high-availability backup strategy is BEST?

Explanation

Full backup - all data backed up; slowest to backup, fastest to restore
Incremental backup - only data that has changed since the last backup
Differential backup - only data that has changed since last full backup

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170. A customer wants to keep cost to a minimum and has only ordered a single static IP address from the ISP.  Which of the following must be configured on the router to allow for all the computers to share the same public IP address?

Explanation

To allow multiple computers to share the same public IP address, Port Address Translation (PAT) must be configured on the router. PAT is a technique that allows multiple private IP addresses to be mapped to a single public IP address by using different port numbers. This enables multiple devices to access the internet using the same public IP address, thereby reducing the cost of obtaining multiple static IP addresses from the ISP. VLANs, PoE, and VPN are unrelated to sharing a public IP address.

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171. Hamid is reviewing identity management (IDM) products for his company's environment.  He has a choice of choosing a product that gathers user identity information and holding it in one location or a product that provides pointers to this type of information that resides in various locations throughout the network.  What characteristics of IDM products is he reviewing?

Explanation

Hamid is reviewing the different types of meta-directories in identity management (IDM) products. Meta-directories are responsible for gathering user identity information from various locations throughout the network and holding it in one centralized location. This allows for easier management and access to user identity information. By reviewing the meta-directory types, Hamid is evaluating the different options available for consolidating and organizing user identity data in his company's environment.

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172. Building security into the application begins at _____________.

Explanation

Building security into the application begins at project initiation. This is because during the project initiation phase, the goals, objectives, and requirements of the project are defined. It is crucial to include security considerations at this early stage to ensure that security measures are integrated into the entire development process. By addressing security from the start, potential vulnerabilities and risks can be identified and mitigated early on, leading to a more secure application overall.

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173. When dealing with digital evidence, the chain of custody:

Explanation

The chain of custody must explain evidence from origin to destruction

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174. Which of the following models ensures that a subject with a clearance of 'Secret' has the ability to write only to objects classified as 'Secret' or 'Top Secret' but is prevented from writing information classified as 'Public'?

Explanation

Bell-LaPadula is a confidentiality model that deals with the prevention of information disclosure.

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175. Which of the following evaluation assurance level that is formally verified, designed and tested is expected for high risk situation?

Explanation

EAL 7 is the only evaluation assurance level given after the product is formally verified, designed, and tested.

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176. ANSI X9.17 is concerned primarily with

Explanation

ANSI X9.17 was developed to address the need of financial institutions to transmit securities and funds securely using an electronic medium.

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177. In the event of a security incident, one of the primary objectives of the operations staff is to ensure that

Explanation

In the event of a security incident, one of the primary objectives of the operations staff is to ensure that there is minimal disruption to the organization's mission. This means that they aim to minimize the impact of the incident on the organization's day-to-day operations and ensure that critical functions can continue as smoothly as possible. By doing so, the operations staff can help mitigate any potential financial or reputational damage that may result from the incident.

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178. Information will not be disclosed to any unauthorized person on a local network via which of the following cryptographic system services?

Explanation

Confidentiality ensures that information is kept private and protected from unauthorized access. In the context of cryptographic system services, confidentiality means that the information cannot be disclosed to any unauthorized person on a local network. This means that even if someone gains access to the network, they would not be able to view or access the confidential information. Authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity do not directly address the issue of preventing unauthorized disclosure of information.

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179. Which of the following layers of the OSI model offer non-repudiation services?

Explanation

The application layer of the OSI model offers non-repudiation services. Non-repudiation ensures that the sender of a message cannot deny sending it, and the recipient cannot deny receiving it. This layer includes protocols such as email, file transfer, and web browsing, which often require authentication and digital signatures to provide non-repudiation.

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180. The NIST document that discusses the Information Security Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) program is?

Explanation

The correct answer is NIST SP 800-137. This document specifically discusses the Information Security Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) program. NIST SP 800-121 focuses on the Guide to Protecting the Confidentiality of Personally Identifiable Information (PII). NIST SP 800-65 provides guidance on Integrating IT Security into the Capital Planning and Investment Control (CPIC) process. NIST SP 800-53 provides a comprehensive set of security controls for federal information systems and organizations. Therefore, the most relevant document for the ISCM program is NIST SP 800-137.

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181. Audit trails, logs, CCTV, intrusion detection systems, antivirus software, penetration testing, password crackers, performance monitoring, and cyclic redundancy checks (CRCs) are examples of what?

Explanation

Detective controls are measures or mechanisms that are put in place to identify and detect any unauthorized activities or security breaches that may occur within a system or organization. The examples provided, such as audit trails, logs, CCTV, intrusion detection systems, antivirus software, penetration testing, password crackers, performance monitoring, and cyclic redundancy checks (CRCs), all serve the purpose of detecting and alerting any suspicious or malicious activities. These controls help in identifying security incidents and enable timely responses to mitigate any potential damage or loss.

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182. To which legal and regulatory requirement are all organizations subject?

Explanation

Due care means that the organization takes responsibility for its actions and takes the necessary steps to protect itself from any possible risks.

Due diligence means that the organization understands the risks that it faces.

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183. Setting clear security roles has the following benefits:

Explanation

Establishing clear, unambiguous security roles has many benefits to the organization beyond providing information as to the responsibilities to be performed and who needs to perform them.

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184. The BEST reason to implement additional controls or safeguards is to:

Explanation

Implementing additional controls or safeguards helps to reduce the impact of the threat. By putting in place preventive measures, organizations can minimize the potential harm caused by a threat. This approach focuses on mitigating the consequences rather than solely identifying or eliminating the threat itself. By reducing the impact, organizations can better protect their assets, systems, and data, and minimize any potential disruptions or losses.

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185. Which is true about link encryption?

Explanation

Link encryption is not suitable for high-risk environments due to possible privacy weakness at each node. It is possible that and attacker could view decrypted data as encrypt decrypt function is performed at each node along the data path.

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186. Which of the following BEST provides a method of quantifying risks associated with information technology when validating the abilities of new security controls and countermeasures to address the identified risks?

Explanation

Penetration testing, vulnerability assessments, and data classification may help with the identification of threats and countermeasures, but do not necessarily always translate or quantify the threats and vulnerabilities to risk.

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187. Which of the following is NOT associated with the access control principles?

Explanation

Job rotation is not associated with the access control principles. Access control principles focus on managing and controlling the access to resources and information within an organization. Separation of duties ensures that no single individual has complete control over a process. Compartmentalization involves dividing resources and information into separate compartments to limit access. Least privilege grants users only the necessary privileges to perform their tasks. However, job rotation refers to the practice of periodically rotating employees between different roles or positions to enhance their skills and knowledge, which is not directly related to access control.

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188. Which of the following are computer forensics guidelines?

Explanation

There are various computer forensics guidelines:
IOCE - International Organization of Computer Evidence
SWGDE - Scientific Working Group on Digital Evidence
ACPO - Association of Chief Police Officers

The following is not a computer forensics guideline:
MOM - means, oppotunity, and motives

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189. During a disaster recovery test, several billing representatives need to be temporarily setup to take payments from customers.  It has been determined that this will need to occur over a wireless network, with security being enforced where possible.  Which of the following configurations should be used in this scenario?

Explanation

In this scenario, the best configuration to use is WPA2, SSID disabled, and 802.11a. WPA2 provides stronger security measures compared to WEP, making it more suitable for protecting sensitive customer payment information. Disabling the SSID helps to hide the wireless network from unauthorized users, adding an extra layer of security. Lastly, 802.11a offers faster data transfer speeds compared to 802.11b and 802.11g, ensuring efficient payment processing during the disaster recovery test.

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190. Which one of the following is true about the criminal law?

Explanation

The criminal law involves punishments that can range from loss of personal freedom, such as incarceration, to even death in some cases. These punishments are intended to serve as consequences for committing a crime and to deter individuals from engaging in criminal behavior. The other options mentioned in the question, such as the governance of public bodies and different types of wrongs, are not directly related to the criminal law.

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191. Benefits of data standards include:

Explanation

Data standards provide several benefits including more efficient data management, increased data sharing, higher quality data, improved data consistency, increased data integration, better understanding of data, and improved documentation of information resources. These benefits contribute to streamlined processes, enhanced collaboration, improved decision-making, and better utilization of data for various purposes.

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192. Which of the following is NOT an information assurance strategy?

Explanation

The question asks for a strategy that is NOT an information assurance strategy. The first three options, certification and accreditation, information auditing, and information integrity, are all commonly used strategies in information assurance. Therefore, the correct answer is "None of the above" because all of the given options are valid information assurance strategies.

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193. Which is BEST emphasizes the abstract concepts of law and is influenced by the writings of legal scholars and academics.

Explanation

Civil law emphasizes the abstract concepts of law and is influenced by the writings of legal scholars and academics.

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194. Which of the following is a principal security risk of wireless LANs?

Explanation

Wireless LANs are susceptible to a principal security risk due to the lack of physical access control. Unlike wired networks, wireless networks can be accessed from anywhere within their range, making it difficult to control who can connect to the network. This lack of physical barriers increases the risk of unauthorized access, data interception, and potential attacks by malicious individuals. Without proper access control measures such as passwords, encryption, and authentication protocols, wireless LANs are vulnerable to security breaches.

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195. A system administrator grants rights to a group of individuals called "Accounting" instead of granting rights to each individual.  This is an example of which of the following security mechanisms?

Explanation

Abstraction involves the removal of characteristics from an entity in order to easily represent its essential properties.

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196. The elements of risk are as follows:

Explanation

The correct answer is threats, assets, and mitigating controls. This answer aligns with the elements of risk mentioned in the question. Threats refer to potential dangers or hazards that could harm assets or disrupt operations. Assets are the valuable resources or components of a business that need protection. Mitigating controls are measures put in place to reduce or eliminate the impact of threats on assets. These three elements are crucial in understanding and managing risk effectively.

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197. Which security operation control enables checks and balances to reduce fraud?

Explanation

Separation of duties is a security operation control that enables checks and balances to reduce fraud. It involves dividing responsibilities and tasks among different individuals to ensure that no single person has complete control over a critical process. This helps to prevent fraud by requiring multiple individuals to collaborate and verify each other's work, reducing the risk of unauthorized actions or manipulation. By separating duties, organizations can establish a system of accountability and minimize the potential for fraud or abuse of power.

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198. A two-dimensional grouping of individual subjects into groups or roles and granting access to groups to objects is an example of which of the following types of models?

Explanation

Matrix-based models focus on one-to-one relationships between subjects and objects

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199. Which of the following can help with ensuring that only the needed logs are collected for monitoring?

Explanation

An example of a clipping level is that only failed access attempts are logged.

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200. A Certificate Authority (CA) provides which benefits to a user?

Explanation

A Certificate Authority (CA) provides the benefit of validating that a public key is associated with a particular user. This means that the CA verifies the identity of the user and ensures that the public key provided by the user is indeed theirs. This validation is important for establishing trust and security in various online transactions and communications. By confirming the association between a user and their public key, the CA helps prevent impersonation and ensures the integrity of the communication.

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Which of the following refers to a location away from the computer...
Which layer is not part of the OSI model?
Defining technology security architecture in relationship with other...
Which of the following is NOT a natural environmental threat that an...
Remote Access does what of the following?
The doors of a data center spring open in the event of a fire....
When outsourcing IT systems
Encryption is converting a message from ciphertext to plaintext.
Define and detail the aspects of password selection that distinguish...
It can be said that IPSec
A botnet can be characterized as
__________ requires that a user of process be granted access to only...
The major benefit of information classification is to
Test outputs should be compared against expected outputs.
Effective security management:
The integrity of a forensic bit stream image is determined by:
The monitoring of outbound network traffic for indicators of...
Modifying identifying information so as to make communication appear...
A disadvantage of single sign-on is
Which one is a benefit of a enterprise security architecture?
When sensitive information is no longer critical but still within...
What is not mentioned as a phase of an incident response?
Polyalphabetic encryption techniques use multiple alphabets for each...
To maintain the security architecture, of the following, which is...
The best way to ensure that there is no data remanence of sensitive...
Which of the following terms refers to a mechanism which proves that...
What type of risk remains after the implementation of new or enhanced...
Which of the following BEST describe three separate functions of CCTV?
Which of the following ensures constant redundancy and...
Role-based access control
NIST identifies three service models that represent different types of...
Which of the following is the technology of indoor environmental...
A new installation requires a network in a heavy manufacturing area...
The strategy of forming layers of protection around an asset or...
Which one of the following is a common system component in the system...
Which of the following is responsible for maintaining certificates in...
Which of the following is most likely to detect DoS attacks?
Assuming a working IDS is in place, which of the following groups is...
An emerging concept of highly-interconnected physical devices with...
A guard dog patrolling the perimeter of a data center is what type of...
A potential vulnerability of the Kerberos authentication server is
Before applying a software update to production systems, it is MOST...
Which of the following methods is not acceptable for exercising the...
Within the realm of IT security, which of the following combinations...
In which of the following alternative site configurations is the...
The best way to ensure that there is no data remanence of sensitive...
Attempting to crack a password by using common words from a text file...
Which of the following security standards is internationally...
Which of the following uses a Key Distribution Center (KDC) to...
Which of the following is the technology of indoor environmental...
The vast majority of Virtual Private Networks use
Which of the following terms BEST describes the effort to determine...
What type of malware uses social engineering to trick a victim into...
Which regulatory guidance pertains to any company that is publicly...
A customer requests to connect their LAN to the internet. Which of the...
Recently passed over for an executive promotion, Carol is anxious to...
Which of the following is not a characteristic of continuous...
Which of the following end-point devices would MOST likely be...
What type of analysis emphasizes the formal study of what your...
Which of the following describes the type of anti-virus software that...
What are the three types of access control?
Asymmetric key cryptography is used for the following:
The only cipher system said to be unbreakable by brute force is
Since 9/11, airport parking garages now keep cars further away from...
Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA-2) uses Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)...
When malware infects a host and allows it to be used in a botnet for...
Data access decisions are best made by:
Which of the following is part of the five rules of evidence?
When a certificate is revoked, what is the proper procedure?
How are smart cards and memory cars functionally different?
Network information services (NIS) are used for what processes?
What is the best protection measure against unauthorized access to...
Which of the following is MOST important for successful business...
Security awareness training includes:
Many organizations purchase insurance policies to provide various...
What is the BEST means of protecting the physical devices associated...
Which of the following forms of attack can be used to disrupt even the...
Which one do you like?
When sensitive information is no longer critical but still within...
Which of the following BEST determines the employment suitability of...
Which of the following is correct about dynamic testing?
Authentication is
Management should decide when a system should be returned to...
Sam is a software developer and has recently gone through secure...
Which is a fundamental disadvantage of biometrics?
Which of the following is true about maintaining the chain of custody...
Which of the following is NOT a consideration when choosing data...
Which of the following categories of access control implementation...
What protocol solicits MAC address from devices on the network without...
Which of the following supports asymmetric key cryptography?
The main difference between a Security Event Information Management...
Administrative law is concerned with confining government power,...
Which of the following is not one of the four typical elements of a...
What is the output length of a RIPEMD-160 hash?
Ann installs a new Wireless Access Point (WAP) and users are able to...
Before applying a software update to production systems, it is MOST...
Which is the BEST choice for implementing encryption on a smart card?
To ensure proper forensics action when needed, an incident response...
Multi-layer protocols such as Modbus used in industrial control...
Collusion is best mitigated by:
Protection practices that can be used to prevent man-in-the middle...
Which of the following attacks allow bypassing access control lists on...
A Service Organization Control (SOC) Report commonly covers a
Which intrusion detection system's efficiency decreases with...
What are the seven main categories of access control?
A Security Event Management (SEM) service performs the following...
Which protocol offers native encryption capability, for both...
Formal acceptance of an evaluated system by management is known as:
Which type of law is derived from court decisions and codification of...
Which cable has a relatively low-speed transmission medium consisting...
Managing the dialogue between two or more communicating devices is...
Which of the following steps should be performed first in a business...
The (ISC)2 code of ethics resolves conflicts between canons by:
Cross-functional teams formed to conceptualize, design, test, produce,...
The key to a successful physical protection system is the integration...
Single loss expectancy (SLE) is calculated by using:
Which of the following electronically stored information (ESI) are not...
What is the optimal placement for network-based intrusion detection...
At a restricted facility, visitors are requested to provide...
Which one of the following describes the Information Technology...
Which of the following is the primary desired result of any...
Sam is a software developer and has recently gone through secure...
A service's recovery point objective is zero.  Which approach...
Good data management practices include:
Which of the following processes identifies the threats that can...
What are types of failures in biometric identification systems?
A basic component of an industrial control system (ICS) that is most...
Well-written security program policies are BEST reviewed:
Users are reporting that some Internet websites are not accessible...
Which of the following can BEST be used to capture detailed security...
Of the following plans, which is designed to protect critical business...
In the OSI reference model, on which layer can Ethernet (IEEE 802.3)...
What would be the most appropriate interior sensor used for a building...
Which of the following is not a form of identification?
What are the FOUR phases of the equipment lifecycle?
Your office is implementing an access control policy based on...
A hard drive is recovered from a submerged vehicle.  The drive is...
Laws designed to protect individuals' privacy have been created...
Frame Relay and X.25 networks are part of which of the following?
An accurate picture of the use and acceptance of biometrics is: 
Substitution is mixing the location of plaintext throughout the...
Which one of the following is NOT a common security service in the...
Which network topology's use of tokens allows prediction of node...
Which of the following statements BEST describes the extent to which...
In mandatory access control the system controls access and the owner...
All of the following describes link encryption except:
All of the following is true about trade secrets EXCEPT:
Wireless transmission technologies include all of the following...
Triage encompasses which of the following incident response...
Which of the following approaches for identifying appropriate BIA...
Which of the following is incorrect when considering privilege...
Computer forensics is the marriage of computer science, information...
Information systems auditors help the organization:
Which phrase best defines a business continuity/disaster recovery...
Which one of the following is designed to protect the goodwill and...
What is the last phase of the TCP/IP three-way handshake sequence?
Which of the following vulnerabilities would best be countered by...
Which of the following is a software protection mechanism where all...
If speed is preferred over resilience, which of the following RAID...
With public key cryptography, confidential messages with proof of...
Which of the following BEST describes fundamental methods of...
What is an important disadvantage of using a public key algorithm...
What is the minimum and customary practice of responsible protection...
Security is likely to be most expensive when addressed in which phase?
Each distinguished name (DN) in an LDAP directory represents a...
Which of the following processes is concerned with not only...
What is access control?
Which of the following ISO standards provides the evaluation criteria...
When the backup window is not long enough to backup all of the data...
A customer wants to keep cost to a minimum and has only ordered a...
Hamid is reviewing identity management (IDM) products for his...
Building security into the application begins at _____________.
When dealing with digital evidence, the chain of custody:
Which of the following models ensures that a subject with a clearance...
Which of the following evaluation assurance level that is formally...
ANSI X9.17 is concerned primarily with
In the event of a security incident, one of the primary objectives of...
Information will not be disclosed to any unauthorized person on a...
Which of the following layers of the OSI model offer non-repudiation...
The NIST document that discusses the Information Security Continuous...
Audit trails, logs, CCTV, intrusion detection systems, antivirus...
To which legal and regulatory requirement are all organizations...
Setting clear security roles has the following benefits:
The BEST reason to implement additional controls or safeguards is to:
Which is true about link encryption?
Which of the following BEST provides a method of quantifying risks...
Which of the following is NOT associated with the access control...
Which of the following are computer forensics guidelines?
During a disaster recovery test, several billing representatives need...
Which one of the following is true about the criminal law?
Benefits of data standards include:
Which of the following is NOT an information assurance strategy?
Which is BEST emphasizes the abstract concepts of law and is...
Which of the following is a principal security risk of wireless LANs?
A system administrator grants rights to a group of individuals called...
The elements of risk are as follows:
Which security operation control enables checks and balances to reduce...
A two-dimensional grouping of individual subjects into groups or roles...
Which of the following can help with ensuring that only the needed...
A Certificate Authority (CA) provides which benefits to a user?
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