CCNA 1 Final Exam V5.0

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  • 1/60 Questions

    During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco switches run the IOS?

    • RAM
    • Flash
    • NVRAM
    • Disk drive
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CCNA Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

Networking is one of the most important parts of computer technology that involves and allows the sharing of information between several portals and computers. CNNA 1 Final Exam v5.0 is a comprehensive and detailed quiz set and designed to help you test and advance your knowledge on the subject. All the best!

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  • 2. 

    Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco switch?

    • A console connection

    • An AUX connection

    • A Telnet connection

    • An SSH connection

    Correct Answer
    A. An SSH connection
    Explanation
    An SSH (Secure Shell) connection provides a secure CLI (Command Line Interface) session with encryption to a Cisco switch. SSH is a network protocol that allows secure remote access to devices over an unsecured network. It encrypts the data transmitted between the client and the server, ensuring confidentiality and integrity of the communication. This makes it the preferred choice for remote management and configuration of network devices, such as Cisco switches, as it protects against unauthorized access and eavesdropping.

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  • 3. 

    What is the purpose of having a converged network?

    • To provide high speed connectivity to all end devices

    • To make sure that all types of data packets will be treated equally

    • To achieve fault tolerance and high availability of data network infrastructure devices

    • To reduce the cost of deploying and maintaining the communication infrastructure

    Correct Answer
    A. To reduce the cost of deploying and maintaining the communication infrastructure
    Explanation
    A converged network combines multiple types of communication services, such as data, voice, and video, onto a single network infrastructure. This reduces the cost of deploying and maintaining separate networks for each service, as well as the associated hardware and cabling. By consolidating these services onto a single network, organizations can streamline their infrastructure, reduce complexity, and save on costs. This allows for more efficient use of resources and easier management of the network.

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  • 4. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Which area would most likely be an extranet for the company network that is shown? - ProProfs

    Refer to the exhibit. Which area would most likely be an extranet for the company network that is shown?

    • Area A

    • Area B

    • Area C

    • Area D

    Correct Answer
    A. Area C
    Explanation
    Area C would most likely be an extranet for the company network shown because it is positioned outside the company's internal network but still connected to it. An extranet is a private network that allows external parties, such as business partners or customers, to access certain resources or services of the company's internal network. Area C is located between the company's network and the internet, indicating that it serves as a gateway for external access while maintaining some level of security and control.

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  • 5. 

    An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after issuing the ping command. What is the purpose of using these keystrokes?

    • To restart the ping process

    • To interrupt the ping process

    • To exit to a different configuration mode

    • To allow the user to complete the command

    Correct Answer
    A. To interrupt the ping process
    Explanation
    The Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination is used to interrupt the ping process. This keystroke combination sends a break signal to the switch, causing it to stop the current process, in this case, the ping command. Interrupting the ping process can be useful in situations where the administrator wants to stop the continuous ping or troubleshoot network connectivity issues.

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  • 6. 
    Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a brand new switch, using the hostname command as shown. What prompt will display after the command is issued?​ - ProProfs

    Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a brand new switch, using the hostname command as shown. What prompt will display after the command is issued?​

    • Main Switch(config)#​

    • Switch(config)#​

    • MainSwitch(config)#

    • Main(config)#​

    • Switch#

    Correct Answer
    A. Switch(config)#​
    Explanation
    After the hostname command is issued, the prompt that will display is "Switch(config)#". This prompt indicates that the administrator is in global configuration mode and can make changes to the switch's configuration.

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  • 7. 
    Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses a console connection to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode? - ProProfs

    Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses a console connection to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

    • Letmein

    • Secretin

    • Lineconin

    • Linevtyin

    Correct Answer
    A. Lineconin
    Explanation
    The password needed to access user EXEC mode when using a console connection to switch SW1 is "lineconin".

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  • 8. 

    After making configuration changes, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command in a Cisco switch. What is the result of issuing this command?  

    • The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.

    • The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.

    • The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.

    • The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

    Correct Answer
    A. The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.
    Explanation
    When a network administrator issues the "copy running-config startup-config" command in a Cisco switch, the new configuration will be saved in the startup-config file located in the NVRAM (Non-Volatile Random Access Memory). This file is used to store the configuration that will be loaded during the switch's startup process. Therefore, if the switch is restarted, it will load the new configuration that was saved, resulting in the new configuration being applied to the switch.

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  • 9. 

    On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so that the switch can be managed remotely?  

    • FastEthernet0/1

    • VLAN 1

    • Vty 0

    • Console 0

    Correct Answer
    A. VLAN 1
    Explanation
    The administrator would configure an IP address on the VLAN 1 interface in order to manage the switch remotely. VLAN 1 is the default management VLAN on most switches and is typically used for remote management purposes. By assigning an IP address to the VLAN 1 interface, the administrator can access the switch remotely using protocols such as SSH or Telnet.

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  • 10. 

    A technician uses the ping 127.0.0.1 command. What is the technician testing?

    • The TCP/IP stack on a network host

    • Connectivity between two adjacent Cisco devices

    • Connectivity between a PC and the default gateway

    • Connectivity between two PCs on the same network

    • Physical connectivity of a particular PC and the network

    Correct Answer
    A. The TCP/IP stack on a network host
    Explanation
    The technician is using the ping 127.0.0.1 command to test the TCP/IP stack on a network host. The IP address 127.0.0.1 is known as the loopback address, which is used to test network connectivity on the local machine. By pinging this address, the technician can determine if the TCP/IP stack is functioning properly on the host machine.

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  • 11. 
    What is the correct order for PDU encapsulation? - ProProfs

    What is the correct order for PDU encapsulation?

    • Option 1

    • Option 2

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Option 1
  • 12. 

    What is the protocol that is used to discover a physical address from a known logical address and what message type does it use?

    • ARP, multicast

    • DNS, unicast

    • DNS, broadcast

    • ARP, broadcast

    • PING, multicast

    • PING, broadcast

    Correct Answer
    A. ARP, broadcast
    Explanation
    ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is used to discover a physical address (MAC address) from a known logical address (IP address). It uses broadcast messages to send a request to all devices on the network, asking "Who has this IP address?". The device with the corresponding IP address responds with its MAC address, allowing the sender to establish a direct communication link. Therefore, the correct answer is ARP, broadcast.

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  • 13. 

    A host is accessing a Telnet server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

    • Regenerating data signals

    • Acting as a client or a server

    • Providing a channel over which messages travel

    • Applying security settings to control the flow of data

    • Notifying other devices when errors occur

    • Serving as the source or destination of the messages

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Regenerating data signals
    A. Applying security settings to control the flow of data
    A. Notifying other devices when errors occur
    Explanation
    During a Telnet session, intermediary network devices perform three functions. First, they regenerate data signals to ensure that the data reaches its destination without any loss or corruption. Second, they apply security settings to control the flow of data, ensuring that unauthorized access is prevented. Lastly, they notify other devices when errors occur, allowing for prompt troubleshooting and resolution.

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  • 14. 

    Three bank employees are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other corporate managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?

    • Audio conference, financial transactions, web page

    • Financial transactions, web page, audio conference

    • Audio conference, web page, financial transactions

    • Financial transactions, audio conference, web page

    Correct Answer
    A. Audio conference, financial transactions, web page
    Explanation
    In a network with QoS implemented, the highest priority will be given to the audio conference as it requires real-time transmission with low latency to ensure clear and uninterrupted communication. The second priority will be given to financial transactions as they involve sensitive and critical data that needs to be securely transmitted and processed. The lowest priority will be given to web page viewing as it is less time-sensitive and can tolerate some delays or fluctuations in network performance. Therefore, the correct order of priorities from highest to lowest is audio conference, financial transactions, and web page.

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  • 15. 

    What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?

    • The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.

    • The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.

    • The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.

    • The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.

    • A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.

    Correct Answer
    A. The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.
    Explanation
    If the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host, the host will not be able to communicate with hosts in other networks. The default gateway is the IP address of the router that connects the local network to other networks. By incorrectly configuring the default gateway address, the host will not be able to send packets to the correct router for routing to other networks. As a result, communication with hosts in other networks will not be possible.

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  • 16. 

    A student user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?

    • DSL

    • Dial-up

    • Satellite

    • Cell modem

    • Cable modem

    Correct Answer
    A. DSL
    Explanation
    DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) is the correct answer because it provides high-speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. DSL technology allows data to be transmitted at a higher frequency range than voice calls, enabling faster internet speeds. It is a popular choice for residential and small business users who want a reliable and fast internet connection without the need for expensive infrastructure upgrades. DSL connections are widely available and offer faster speeds compared to dial-up, satellite, cell modem, or cable modem connections.

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  • 17. 

    What is an important function of the physical layer of the OSI model?

    • It accepts frames from the physical media.

    • It encapsulates upper layer data into frames.

    • It defines the media access method performed by the hardware interface.

    • It encodes frames into electrical, optical, or radio wave signals.

    Correct Answer
    A. It encodes frames into electrical, optical, or radio wave signals.
    Explanation
    The physical layer of the OSI model is responsible for encoding frames into electrical, optical, or radio wave signals. This means that it converts the digital data from the upper layers into a format that can be transmitted over the physical media. By encoding the frames into signals, the physical layer ensures that the data can be transmitted across different types of media, such as copper wires, fiber optic cables, or wireless signals. This is an important function as it enables communication between devices on a network by allowing the transmission of data across physical media.

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  • 18. 

     A network administrator notices that the throughput on the network appears lower than expected when compared to the end-to-end network bandwidth. Which three factors can explain this difference? (Choose three.)

    • The amount of traffic

    • The type of data encapsulation in use

    • The type of traffic

    • The number and type of network devices that the data is crossing

    • The bandwidth of the connection to the ISP

    • The reliability of the network backbone

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. The amount of traffic
    A. The type of traffic
    A. The number and type of network devices that the data is crossing
    Explanation
    The amount of traffic can affect the throughput on the network as a higher volume of traffic can lead to congestion and slower speeds. The type of traffic can also impact the throughput as certain types of data may require more bandwidth or may be prioritized differently. The number and type of network devices that the data is crossing can also affect the throughput as each device introduces some latency and processing time.

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  • 19. 

    Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?

    • Requiring proper grounding connections

    • Twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together

    • Wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding

    • Designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference

    • Avoiding sharp bends during installation

    Correct Answer
    A. Twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together
    Explanation
    Twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together is a procedure used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables. When the wires are twisted together, any electromagnetic interference or crosstalk is canceled out or minimized because the induced voltages in each wire are equal and opposite. This helps to maintain signal integrity and reduce interference between adjacent wires in the cable.

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  • 20. 

    What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

    • CSMA/CD

    • Priority ordering

    • CSMA/CA

    • Token passing

    Correct Answer
    A. CSMA/CA
    Explanation
    CSMA/CA stands for Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance. It is a method used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network. In this method, devices listen to the wireless medium before transmitting to avoid collisions. If the medium is idle, the device can transmit its data. However, if the medium is busy, the device waits for a random amount of time before attempting to transmit again. This helps to reduce collisions and manage access to the network efficiently.

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  • 21. 
    Refer to the exhibit. A TCP segment from a server has been captured by Wireshark, which is running on a host. What acknowledgement number will the host return for the TCP segment that has been received? - ProProfs

    Refer to the exhibit. A TCP segment from a server has been captured by Wireshark, which is running on a host. What acknowledgement number will the host return for the TCP segment that has been received?

    • 2

    • 21

    • 250

    • 306

    • 2921

    Correct Answer
    A. 306
  • 22. 

    What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a received frame is not in the MAC table?

    • It initiates an ARP request.

    • It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.

    • It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered.

    • It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received.

    Correct Answer
    A. It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received.
    Explanation
    When the destination MAC address of a received frame is not in the MAC table, a Layer 2 switch will forward the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received. This is because the switch does not know the specific port to which the frame should be forwarded, so it floods the frame to all other ports in order to reach the destination device.

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  • 23. 

    What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?

    • The automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation

    • The automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossover Ethernet cable connection

    • The automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable

    • The ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected

    Correct Answer
    A. The automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossover Ethernet cable connection
    Explanation
    The auto-MDIX feature on a switch refers to the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossover Ethernet cable connection. This means that the switch can detect the type of cable being used (straight-through or crossover) and configure the interface accordingly, eliminating the need for manual cable swapping. This feature allows for easier and more flexible network setup, as it removes the requirement for specific cable types in order to establish a connection between devices.

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  • 24. 

    What is the purpose of the routing process?

    • To encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network

    • To select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks

    • To convert a URL name into an IP address

    • To provide secure Internet file transfer

    • To forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses

    Correct Answer
    A. To select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks
    Explanation
    The purpose of the routing process is to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks. Routing involves determining the most efficient path for data packets to travel from the source to the destination network. This is done by analyzing the network topology, considering factors such as network congestion, link quality, and shortest path algorithms. By selecting the appropriate paths, routing ensures that data reaches its intended destination efficiently and effectively.

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  • 25. 

    Which function is provided by TCP?

    • Data encapsulation

    • Detection of out-of-order and missing packets

    • Communication session control

    • Path determination for data packets

    Correct Answer
    A. Detection of out-of-order and missing packets
    Explanation
    TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) provides the function of detection of out-of-order and missing packets. This means that TCP keeps track of the sequence of packets being sent and received, and if any packets are received out of order or if any packets are missing, TCP detects and handles it. This ensures that the data is reliably transmitted and received in the correct order, enhancing the reliability and integrity of the communication.

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  • 26. 

    Which field in an IPv4 packet header will typically stay the same during its transmission?

    • Flag

    • Time-to-Live

    • Packet Length

    • Destination Address

    Correct Answer
    A. Destination Address
    Explanation
    The Destination Address field in an IPv4 packet header typically stays the same during its transmission. This field contains the IP address of the intended recipient of the packet, and it remains unchanged as the packet travels through the network. The other fields such as Flag, Time-to-Live, and Packet Length may be modified or updated during transmission to ensure proper routing and delivery of the packet.

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  • 27. 

    Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address?

    • ARP

    • DNS

    • NAT

    • SMB

    • DHCP

    • HTTP

    Correct Answer
    A. NAT
    Explanation
    NAT (Network Address Translation) provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address. It works by translating private IP addresses used within a local network into a single public IP address when communicating with devices outside the network. This allows for more efficient use of limited IPv4 addresses and enables multiple devices to access the internet using a single public IP address.

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  • 28. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown from PC1. What is a description of the default gateway address? - ProProfs

    Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown from PC1. What is a description of the default gateway address?

    • It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet.

    • It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.

    • It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.

    • It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.

    Correct Answer
    A. It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.
    Explanation
    The default gateway address is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1. This means that any traffic that is not destined for the local LAN will be sent to the default gateway, which in this case is Router1. Router1 will then forward the traffic to its appropriate destination, such as the internet or other networks.

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  • 29. 

    Which parameter does the router use to choose the path to the destination when there are multiple routes available?

    • The lower metric value that is associated with the destination network

    • The lower gateway IP address to get to the destination network

    • The higher metric value that is associated with the destination network

    • The higher gateway IP address to get to the destination network

    Correct Answer
    A. The lower metric value that is associated with the destination network
    Explanation
    Routers use metrics to determine the best path to a destination network. The metric value represents the cost or preference of a particular route. In this case, the router chooses the path with the lower metric value associated with the destination network. This means that the route with the lower cost or higher preference will be selected as the preferred path. By selecting the lower metric value, the router ensures efficient and reliable routing of network traffic.

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  • 30. 

    Which two statements correctly describe a router memory type and its contents? (Choose two.)

    • ROM is nonvolatile and stores a limited version of the IOS.

    • FLASH is nonvolatile and contains the IP routing table.​

    • RAM is volatile and stores the running version of the IOS.

    • NVRAM is nonvolatile and stores a full version of the IOS.

    • ROM is nonvolatile and contains the initial system configuration.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. ROM is nonvolatile and stores a limited version of the IOS.
    A. RAM is volatile and stores the running version of the IOS.
    Explanation
    ROM is nonvolatile memory that stores a limited version of the IOS, which is the operating system of the router. It is non-erasable and retains its data even when power is lost. On the other hand, RAM is volatile memory that stores the running version of the IOS. It is temporary and loses its data when power is lost or the router is restarted. Therefore, ROM and RAM correctly describe the router memory types and their contents.

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  • 31. 

    In which default order will a router search for startup configuration information?

    • NVRAM, RAM, TFTP

    • NVRAM, TFTP, setup mode

    • Setup mode, NVRAM, TFTP

    • TFTP, ROM, NVRAM

    • Flash, ROM, setup mode

    Correct Answer
    A. NVRAM, TFTP, setup mode
    Explanation
    A router will first search for startup configuration information in NVRAM, which stands for Non-Volatile Random Access Memory. This is where the router stores its configuration files. If the configuration is not found in NVRAM, the router will then search for it in TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol), which is a network protocol used for transferring files. Finally, if the configuration is not found in TFTP, the router will enter setup mode, where the user can manually configure the router.

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  • 32. 

    What happens when part of an Internet radio transmission is not delivered to the destination?

    • A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.

    • The part of the radio transmission that was lost is re-sent.

    • The entire transmission is re-sent.

    • The transmission continues without the missing portion.

    Correct Answer
    A. The transmission continues without the missing portion.
    Explanation
    When part of an Internet radio transmission is not delivered to the destination, the transmission continues without the missing portion. This means that the missing part is not re-sent, and the radio transmission carries on playing without interruption.

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  • 33. 

    Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)

    • 10.20.30.1

    • 172.32.5.2

    • 192.167.10.10

    • 172.30.5.3

    • 192.168.5.5

    • 224.6.6.6

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. 10.20.30.1
    A. 172.30.5.3
    A. 192.168.5.5
    Explanation
    The three IP addresses that are private are 10.20.30.1, 172.30.5.3, and 192.168.5.5. Private IP addresses are reserved for internal networks and cannot be accessed or routed over the internet. These addresses are commonly used in home and office networks to allow devices to communicate with each other within the network while still being protected from external access.

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  • 34. 

    What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

    • To inform routers about network topology changes

    • To ensure the delivery of an IP packet

    • To provide feedback of IP packet transmissions

    • To monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution

    Correct Answer
    A. To provide feedback of IP packet transmissions
    Explanation
    ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) messages are used to provide feedback on the transmission of IP packets. These messages are sent between network devices to report errors, congestion, or other issues related to the delivery of IP packets. ICMP messages allow network administrators to monitor the status and performance of their networks and troubleshoot any problems that may arise during packet transmission. Therefore, the purpose of ICMP messages is to provide feedback on the transmission of IP packets.

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  • 35. 

    What two preconfigured settings that affect security are found on most new wireless routers? (Choose two.)

    • Broadcast SSID

    • MAC filtering enabled

    • WEP encryption enabled

    • PSK authentication required

    • Default administrator password

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Broadcast SSID
    A. Default administrator password
    Explanation
    The two preconfigured settings that affect security found on most new wireless routers are broadcast SSID and default administrator password. The broadcast SSID setting determines whether the wireless network name is visible to other devices, while the default administrator password is the initial password used to access the router's settings. These settings impact security as hiding the network name can make it more difficult for unauthorized users to detect and connect to the network, and changing the default administrator password adds an extra layer of protection against unauthorized access to the router's settings.

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  • 36. 

    Which type of wireless security is easily compromised?

    • EAP

    • PSK

    • WEP

    • WPA

    Correct Answer
    A. WEP
    Explanation
    WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) is easily compromised because it uses a weak encryption algorithm and has known vulnerabilities. It can be cracked within minutes using readily available tools. This makes it susceptible to unauthorized access and data breaches. As a result, WEP is no longer considered secure and is not recommended for wireless networks.

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  • 37. 

    Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.192 as a usable host address?

    • 192.168.1.128/25

    • 192.168.1.96/27

    • 192.168.1.128/28

    • 192.168.1.192/29

    Correct Answer
    A. 192.168.1.128/25
    Explanation
    The subnet 192.168.1.128/25 would include the address 192.168.1.192 as a usable host address because the range of usable host addresses for this subnet is from 192.168.1.129 to 192.168.1.254. Since 192.168.1.192 falls within this range, it is a usable host address in this subnet.

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  • 38. 

    What types of addresses make up the majority of addresses within the /8 block IPv4 bit space?

    • Private addresses

    • Public addresses

    • Multicast addresses

    • Experimental addresses

    Correct Answer
    A. Public addresses
    Explanation
    The majority of addresses within the /8 block IPv4 bit space are public addresses. Public addresses are used to identify devices on the internet and are assigned by Internet Service Providers (ISPs) to their customers. These addresses are globally unique and can be accessed from anywhere on the internet. Private addresses, on the other hand, are used for local network communication and are not routable over the internet. Multicast addresses are used for one-to-many communication, and experimental addresses are used for research and testing purposes.

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  • 39. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme should be changed? - ProProfs

    Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme should be changed?

    • Site 1

    • Site 2

    • Site 3

    • Site 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Site 2
  • 40. 

    What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing command on a router?

    • To assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group

    • To enable the router as an IPv6 router

    • To permit only unicast packets on the router

    • To prevent the router from joining the all-routers multicast group

    Correct Answer
    A. To enable the router as an IPv6 router
    Explanation
    Configuring the "ipv6 unicast-routing" command on a router enables the router to function as an IPv6 router. This command allows the router to forward unicast IPv6 packets between different networks, making it capable of routing IPv6 traffic. It does not assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group, permit only unicast packets, or prevent the router from joining the all-routers multicast group.

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  • 41. 

    Which group of IPv6 addresses cannot be allocated as a host source address?​

    • FEC0::/10​

    • FDFF::/7​

    • FEBF::/10

    • FF00::/8

    Correct Answer
    A. FF00::/8
    Explanation
    The group of IPv6 addresses that cannot be allocated as a host source address is FF00::/8. This is because FF00::/8 is a multicast address range, which is used for communication to multiple hosts simultaneously. Multicast addresses are not assigned to individual hosts, but rather to groups of hosts that are interested in receiving the multicast traffic. Therefore, FF00::/8 cannot be used as a source address for a single host.

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  • 42. 
    Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TTL value that is used to reach the destination www.cisco.com?​ - ProProfs

    Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TTL value that is used to reach the destination www.cisco.com?​

    • 11

    • 12

    • 13

    • 14

    Correct Answer
    A. 13
    Explanation
    The maximum TTL value that is used to reach the destination www.cisco.com is 13.

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  • 43. 

    What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?

    • It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.

    • It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium.

    • It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media.

    • It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.

    Correct Answer
    A. It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media.
    Explanation
    The LLC sublayer of the data link layer places information in the frame, allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media. This means that different protocols can share the same physical connection and transmit their data over the network. The LLC sublayer accomplishes this by adding a header to the frame that includes information about the protocol being used. This allows the receiving device to correctly interpret and process the data.

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  • 44. 

    A frame is transmitted from one networking device to another. Why does the receiving device check the FCS field in the frame?

    • To determine the physical address of the sending device

    • To verify the network layer protocol information

    • To compare the interface media type between the sending and receiving ends

    • To check the frame for possible transmission errors

    • To verify that the frame destination matches the MAC address of the receiving device

    Correct Answer
    A. To check the frame for possible transmission errors
    Explanation
    The receiving device checks the FCS field in the frame to verify if there are any transmission errors. The FCS (Frame Check Sequence) field contains a checksum that is used to detect errors in the frame during transmission. By checking the FCS field, the receiving device can determine if the frame was received correctly or if there are any errors that occurred during transmission. This helps ensure the integrity of the data being transmitted and allows for error detection and correction if necessary.

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  • 45. 

    Which two notations are useable nibble boundaries when subnetting in IPv6? (Choose two.)

    • /62

    • /64

    • /66

    • /68

    • /70

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. /64
    A. /68
  • 46. 

    What are the three primary functions provided by Layer 2 data encapsulation? (Choose three.)

    • Error correction through a collision detection method

    • Session control using port numbers

    • Data link layer addressing

    • Placement and removal of frames from the media

    • Detection of errors through CRC calculations

    • Delimiting groups of bits into frames

    • Conversion of bits into data signals

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Data link layer addressing
    A. Detection of errors through CRC calculations
    A. Delimiting groups of bits into frames
    Explanation
    The three primary functions provided by Layer 2 data encapsulation are data link layer addressing, detection of errors through CRC calculations, and delimiting groups of bits into frames. Data link layer addressing allows for the identification of devices on a local network. Detection of errors through CRC calculations ensures the integrity of the transmitted data. Delimiting groups of bits into frames helps in organizing and synchronizing the data transmission.

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  • 47. 

    A PC is configured to obtain an IP address automatically from network 192.168.3.0/24. The network administrator issues the arp –a command and notices an entry of 192.168.3.255 ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff. Which statement describes this entry?

    • This is a static map entry.

    • This is a dynamic map entry.

    • This entry refers to the PC itself.

    • This entry maps to the default gateway.

    Correct Answer
    A. This is a static map entry.
    Explanation
    The entry 192.168.3.255 ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff indicates a static map entry. In ARP (Address Resolution Protocol), static map entries are manually configured mappings between IP addresses and MAC addresses. In this case, the entry is for the broadcast address of the network (192.168.3.255) and the corresponding MAC address (ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff). Since it is manually configured, it is considered a static map entry.

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  • 48. 
    Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC2 is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC3 in this exact order. Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address table that is associated with the Fa0/1 port? - ProProfs

    Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC2 is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC3 in this exact order. Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address table that is associated with the Fa0/1 port?

    • Just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses

    • Just the PC0 MAC address

    • PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses

    • Just the PC1 MAC address

    • Just the PC2 MAC address​

    Correct Answer
    A. Just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses
    Explanation
    The MAC addresses of PC0 and PC1 will be contained in the S1 MAC address table associated with the Fa0/1 port because the ping is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC3 in that order. The MAC addresses of the devices that send traffic through a switch port are recorded in the MAC address table. Since PC2 is not involved in the ping process, its MAC address will not be included in the table.

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  • 49. 

    How does a Layer 3 switch differ from a Layer 2 switch?

    • A Layer 3 switch supports VLANs, but a Layer 2 switch does not.

    • An IP address can be assigned to a physical port of a Layer 3 switch. However, this is not supported in Layer 2 switches.

    • A Layer 3 switch maintains an IP address table instead of a MAC address table.

    • A Layer 3 switch learns the MAC addresses that are associated with each of its ports. However, a Layer 2 switch does not.

    Correct Answer
    A. An IP address can be assigned to a physical port of a Layer 3 switch. However, this is not supported in Layer 2 switches.
    Explanation
    A Layer 3 switch differs from a Layer 2 switch because it allows for the assignment of an IP address to a physical port. This feature is not supported in Layer 2 switches, which means that Layer 3 switches have the capability to operate at both the network layer (Layer 3) and the data link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI model. This allows Layer 3 switches to perform routing functions, such as forwarding packets based on IP addresses, in addition to the switching functions performed by Layer 2 switches.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 09, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Raito

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