Air Force And Aircraft Instructions And Procedures! Trivia Quiz

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Operations Group Commanders (OG/CC) shall define local operating procedures to AFI 11- 2AE V3 in a unit supplement?

    • True
    • False
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About This Quiz

If you want to be a member of the air force, there is a lot you need to know when it comes to operating and maintaining an aircraft. Throughout your training, you are expected to follow a set of instructions when doing something so that you do not cause harm to yourself or others. Take this quiz and review some air force and aircraft instructions and procedures.

Air Force And Aircraft Instructions And Procedures! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Waiver authority for contents of AFI 11-2AE V3 is the ___________.

    • HQ AMC Stan Eval

    • TACC

    • Air and Space Operations Center

    • MAJCOM/A3/DO with mission execution authority

    Correct Answer
    A. MAJCOM/A3/DO with mission execution authority
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3 [1.4.2.]

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  • 3. 

    The MCD will coordinate with PIC to establish immediate communication with TACC/AOC and PMRC anytime:

    • A patient is removed from flight

    • A change in patient status

    • Mission irregularities or equipment/transportation requirements

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3 [6.60. & 6.60.2]

    Rate this question:

  • 4. 

    A basic AE crew consists of __________ /__________ for AE missions IAW AFI 11-2AEV3 (EXCEPTION for C-21 missions).

    • 3 Flight Nurses and 2 Technicians

    • 5 total AECs

    • 1 Flight Nurses / 4 AETs

    • 2 FN /3 AET

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 FN /3 AET
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3 [3.2.2.1. & Table 3.1]

    Rate this question:

  • 5. 

    Aircrew members will limit use of Ambien (Zolpidem) and Restoril (Temazepam) to a maximum of seven consecutive days and no more than 20 days in a 60-day period.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3 [3.9.6.6.3.]

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

    C2 agents shall not disturb an aircrew member in crew rest except __________.

    • When authorized by MAJCOM/A3/DO

    • During emergencies

    • If the MCD requires room changes to be in close proximity of the crew

    • A & B

    Correct Answer
    A. A & B
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3 [3.10.2.1.]

    Rate this question:

  • 7. 

    What is the goal of the Aviation Safety Action Program (ASAP)?

    • To prevent mishaps by addressing unintentional errors, hazardous situations and events, or high-risk activities, not identified and/or correctable by other methods or through traditional safety reporting sources

    • To provide an anonymous means to complain about your commander

    • To ensure aircrew members are punished for potentially unsafe behavior

    • The ASAP program is not intended for AECMs since we currently use a DD Form 2852 to report actual and near miss medical events.

    Correct Answer
    A. To prevent mishaps by addressing unintentional errors, hazardous situations and events, or high-risk activities, not identified and/or correctable by other methods or through traditional safety reporting sources
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3 [5.33.]

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  • 8. 

    What will be accomplished prior to concurrent servicing (CS) on the C-17 or C-130?

    • Prior to starting concurrent servicing, the total number of patients, attendants, passengers, and crew on board the aircraft will be given to the fire department.

    • The Passenger Compartment Monitor (PCM) will brief patients on emergency egress, exit prohibitions, and hazards. Ambulatory patients will remain seated but will not wear seatbelts during CS.

    • Loading ramps/stairs are in place for immediate use and exits (excluding the overhead escape hatches) are opened for egress.

    • All the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above.
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3 [6.25.2.2.-6.25.2.2.7.]

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  • 9. 

    Demonstration of onboard life sustaining equipment is required for all missions carrying passengers/patients.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3 [6.27.1.1.1.1.]

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  • 10. 

    When AE crews are augmented for time, how is flight time documented on the AFTO Form 781?

    • All crewmembers on the aircraft log primary time for the entire mission.

    • The Chief Nurse determines work/rest cycles.

    • 5 crewmembers log primary time; 2 crewmembers are “resting” and log other time.

    • All crewmembers will log primary and secondary time

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 crewmembers log primary time; 2 crewmembers are “resting” and log other time.
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3 [3.7.1.2.2. Note]

    Rate this question:

  • 11. 

    Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed define a ___________________.

    • Warning

    • Caution

    • Note

    • Suggestions

    Correct Answer
    A. Caution
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3 [1.3.5.]

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  • 12. 

    The EPOS will not function without the removal of the __________. If the red knob separates, grasp the lanyard to pull the ___________ off the cylinder and then proceed to use the EPOS as directed.

    • Pin

    • Oxygen activator

    • Metal tab

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Metal tab
    Explanation
    Ref:AFI11-2AEV3,Add A[2.2.12.Warning]

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  • 13. 

    A minimum quantity of _________ liters of LOX is required for scheduled aeromedical evacuation missions on a C-17 originating from staged/home station.

    • 30

    • 45

    • 75

    • 100

    Correct Answer
    A. 75
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3, Add A [5.1.1.1.]

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  • 14. 

    On the C-17, a total of __________ litter patients can be floor-loaded. An additional __________ litter patients can be placed on the ramp for a maximum utilization of the aircraft.

    • 30/15

    • 48/12

    • 48/15

    • 30/12

    Correct Answer
    A. 48/12
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3, Add A [8.2.3.]

    Rate this question:

  • 15. 

    The Propaq Encore monitor is not interchangeable with other monitors. Use of the Propaq SpO2 with other monitors will cause inaccurate readings.  

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 10-2909 [3.3.2.1.Warning]

    Rate this question:

  • 16. 

    Placement of the Atrium Express Dry Seal Chest Drain include:

    • Always place the chest drain below the patient’s chest in an upright position

    • To avoid knocking over the chest drain, you may hang the system from the litter

    • The system is sealed and can be placed on its side

    • Both a and b

    Correct Answer
    A. Both a and b
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 10-2909, [5.1.3.3]

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  • 17. 

    Ensure there are compatible/operable restraint keys available and caregivers know placement for leather restraints prior to flight.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 10-2909 [5.8.3.2.Warning]

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  • 18. 

    The Aircraft Wireless Intercom System (AWIS) is approved for use on the following:

    • C-17 and C-130

    • C-21

    • KC-135

    • A and c

    Correct Answer
    A. A and c
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 10-2909 [5.11.1.]

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  • 19. 

    For paper documentation, if an error is made, line through or discontinue the order and annotate with date, time and initials or signature

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 48-307 V3 [3.3.7.]

    Rate this question:

  • 20. 

    Documentation for regional and epidural pain management infusions will include?

    • Medication, Dosage, Location, Rate of infusion

    • Drug concentration,

    • Pump type

    • All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the Above
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 48-307 V1 [3.4.2.10.]

    Rate this question:

  • 21. 

    The originating MTF must ensure ambulatory patients will wear the appropriate service uniform or civilian clothes to include _____ shoes.

    • Shielding

    • Protective

    • Open Toe

    • Close Toe

    Correct Answer
    A. Close Toe
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 48-307 V1 [6.3.1.2.]

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  • 22. 

    When malfunctioning equipment is identified and removed from a patient, assess the patient for any harm. Do not Clear any settings from the malfunctioning equipment removed. This will aide biomedical maintenance in their investigation.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 48-307 V1 [12.5.1.1.]

    Rate this question:

  • 23. 

    During operational aeromedical evacuation missions no later than __________ hour prior to landing a crew member will make the following call to update arrival time and provide__________ .

    • 2 / DD Form 2852, Aeromedical Evacuation Event/Near Miss Report

    • 2 / request for fleet service

    • 1 / AF IMT 3858, Aeromedical Evacuation Mission Offload Message information

    • None of the Above

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 / AF IMT 3858, Aeromedical Evacuation Mission Offload Message information
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3 [2.5.3-2.5.3.1.3.]

    Rate this question:

  • 24. 

    Which of the following does not describe a Medical Crew Director (MCD)?

    • Advised pilot in command on patients’ conditions and use of medical equipment that may affect aircraft operations

    • Directly responsible for the safety and medical well-being of patients on the aircraft

    • Final mission authority and will make decisions not assigned to higher authority

    • Qualified flight nurse

    Correct Answer
    A. Final mission authority and will make decisions not assigned to higher authority
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3 [2.3.2.1.]

    Rate this question:

  • 25. 

    The __________ must designate who is going to be the MCD on a flight authorization, IAW AFI 11-401, prior to mission execution.

    • OG/CC

    • SQ/CC

    • SQ/CNE

    • SARM

    Correct Answer
    A. SQ/CC
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3 [2.3.2.]

    Rate this question:

  • 26. 

    SQ/CCs shall not schedule an aircrew member to fly nor will an aircrew member perform aircrew duties:

    • When the flight time will exceed maximum flying time limitations

    • Within 24 hours after compressed gas diving (scuba or surface supplied diving), a hyperbaric (compression) chamber mission, or aircraft pressurization checks that exceed 10 minutes.

    • Within 12 hours following a hypobaric (altitude) chamber mission above 25,000 ft.

    • All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above.
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3 [2.3.2.]

    Rate this question:

  • 27. 

    All AECMs will wear Nomex gloves during taxi, take-off, and landing.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3 [6.1.2.1. Note]

    Rate this question:

  • 28. 

    If a Medical Emergency/Change in Patient Status in flight occurs, the MCD/AECMs will immediately notify the PIC regarding the gravity and nature of the situation and will also:

    • Coordinate to establish immediate radio communication with the Tactical Airlift Control Center/Air Mobility Operations Control Center/Air Operations Center/Patient Movement Requirements Center (TACC/AMOC/AOC/PMRC) for a physician and guidance for landing at an airfield capable of handling the situation, when indicated.

    • Notify the supporting TACC/AOC and PMRC regarding changes in patient status, mission irregularities, coordination of mission needs, and equipment/transportation requirements ASAP.

    • Be ready to communicate age, gender, diagnosis, subjective and objective data, including vital signs and pulse oximetry, known allergies, and for women of childbearing years, date of last menstrual cycle, if indicated. Also report treatment/interventions, date and time (if indicated) and the outcome.

    • All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above.
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3 [6.60.-6.60.2.1.]

    Rate this question:

  • 29. 

    If the aircraft is configured with airline seats, the __________ will check the security of all patient/passenger seats by lifting upward on the front of the seat frame and gently pushing and pulling on the seat backs. Minimal movement is acceptable.

    • MCD

    • LM/BO

    • CMT

    • PIC

    Correct Answer
    A. CMT
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3 [13.3.3.]

    Rate this question:

  • 30. 

    In the AE system, transfer of physical care is complete once:

    • The patient enters or exits the ground vehicle of transportation

    • The patient meets the representatives of the MTF

    • Patient report is completed

    • Patient records and medications are handed off

    Correct Answer
    A. The patient enters or exits the ground vehicle of transportation
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3 [13.5.]

    Rate this question:

  • 31. 

    The Emergency Passenger Oxygen System (EPOS) is the preferred oxygen, smoke, and fume protection.

    • AECM

    • Passenger

    • Crew member

    • CMT

    Correct Answer
    A. Passenger
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3, Add A [ 2.2.1.]

    Rate this question:

  • 32. 

    For the KC-135 the two primary egress points are the aft emergency escape hatch and the crew entry chute. The aft escape hatch is equipped with a slide; the crew entry chute is equipped with a ladder typically stored in the cargo compartment.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3, Add A [6.4.2.]

    Rate this question:

  • 33. 

    Latrine capacity in the KC-135 is limited. If not equipped with the Improved Toilet Assembly (TCTO 1C-135-1596), the aircraft will depart home station with an operable latrine and a minimum of and .

    • Two rolls of toilet paper; two hand sanitizer dispensers

    • Two urine tubes; two latrine cartridges

    • Two extra flight suits; two sets of undergarments

    • Two urinals; two bed pans

    Correct Answer
    A. Two urine tubes; two latrine cartridges
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3, Add A [6.3.2.]

    Rate this question:

  • 34. 

    If equipment malfunction/failure occurs during an AE mission the MCD will ensure the following paperwork/actions are accomplished:

    • Complete AFTO 350

    • Upon arrival to home station, immediately send tagged equipment and all accessories to host medical equipment maintenance activity/MTF

    • Complete DD Form 2852

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 10-2909 [1.8.1.-1.8.1.3.]

    Rate this question:

  • 35. 

    After delivery of all medical equipment from HQ AMC/SGXM, receipt of the Initial Capabilities Document, and AMC/A3TM generated training plan, the implementation phase will be as follows?

    • 90 days for Active Component and Deployed units and 180 days for Air Reserve Component units (AFRC/ANG).

    • 90 days for Active Component and Deployed units and 90 days for Air Reserve Component units (AFRC/ANG).

    • 45 days for Active Component and Deployed units and 90 days for Air Reserve Component units (AFRC/ANG).

    • 120 days for Active Component and Deployed units and 180 days for Air Reserve Component units (AFRC/ANG).

    Correct Answer
    A. 90 days for Active Component and Deployed units and 180 days for Air Reserve Component units (AFRC/ANG).
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 10-2909 [1.9.]

    Rate this question:

  • 36. 

    During all operational and Aeromedical Readiness Missions, the MCD will document on the AF Form 3829, or on the computer generated TRAC2ES cover sheet the following?

    • Total patient oxygen requirement

    • Total pre-mission, mid -mission and post -mission PTLOX/therapeutic oxygen level

    • Max cabin altitude

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 10-2909 [2.4.1.1.]

    Rate this question:

  • 37. 

    __________ and __________ indicate a mandatory requirement.

    • Should/May

    • Will/Shall

    • Will/May

    • Should/Shall

    Correct Answer
    A. Will/Shall
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 10-2909 [1.4.1.]

    Rate this question:

  • 38. 

    The NATO Litter Backrest is used to provide elevation for patient’s head. The 90 degree position on the NATO litter backrest will not be used during ___________.

    • Take off

    • Landing

    • Enplaning/Deplaning

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 10-2909 [5.5.3.-5.5.3.1 Warning]

    Rate this question:

  • 39. 

    If an AECM utilizes any AE Clinical Protocol they must:

    • Document its use on the AF Form 3899 series or the EHR equivalent.

    • Include the statement “IAW AE Clinical Protocol – XXX.”

    • Complete a DD Form 2852.

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 48-307 V1 [8.1.4]

    Rate this question:

  • 40. 

    For mental health patients, position litter patients in the lowest litter space, away from the flight deck, emergency exits and O2 shutoff valves. Assign ambulatory patients a seat near the bulkhead, away from the flight deck, emergency egits and O2 shutoff valves. Assess potential safety risks of nearby objects and cargo.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 48-307 V1 [8.20.7.1.1.]

    Rate this question:

  • 41. 

    Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in personal injury or loss of life define a___________.

    • Warning

    • Caution

    • Note

    • Suggestion

    Correct Answer
    A. Warning
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3 [1.3.6.]

    Rate this question:

  • 42. 

    Once an aircrew begins a basic FDP, only MAJCOM/A3/DO may extend to augmented day regardless of aircrew composition.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3 [3.7.1.1.]

    Rate this question:

  • 43. 

    The PIC with an augmented crew may accept an augmented FDP as long as:

    • The C2 agent or PIC discovers the extenuating circumstances before the first takeoff of the day.

    • PIC verifies all augmenting aircrew members can get adequate rest en route.

    • The PIC with a basic crew may seek MAJCOM/A3/DO (w/mission execution authority) approval to extend the FDP as much as 2 hours to complete a scheduled mission.

    • All the Above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the Above
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3 [3.7.1.1.1.-3.7.1.1.4.]

    Rate this question:

  • 44. 

    What is the purpose of the assertive statement "Time Out"?

    • Provides a clear warning sign of a deviation or loss of situational awareness

    • Provides an opportunity to break the error chain before a mishap occurs

    • Notifies all crewmembers that someone sees the aircraft or crew departing from established guidelines, the briefed scenario, or that someone is simply uncomfortable with the developing conditions

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3 [5.14.2.-5.14.2.8.]

    Rate this question:

  • 45. 

    At what point during the PRICE check of the MA-1 portable walk-around bottle do you fit and adjust your harness?

    • P- Pressure

    • R- Regulator

    • I-Inspection

    • C- Connections

    Correct Answer
    A. C- Connections
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3 [6.27.2.3.4.4.]

    Rate this question:

  • 46. 

    During Preflight Inspection, the interior inspection will be accomplished by using the abbreviated flight crew checklist; the________is responsible for ensuring emergency passageways are clear.

    • Boom Operator/Loadmaster

    • MCD

    • CMT

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. CMT
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3 [A2.4.1.12.]

    Rate this question:

  • 47. 

    When considering placement of an "H" sized compressed gas cylinder to a PSP for an AE mission, it should be secured:

    • To the floor, under the Neonatal Transport System (NTS) with two cargo tie-down straps.

    • On a litter and secured with two litter straps.

    • Against the inner aspect of the stanchion with two cargo tie-down straps placed on the upper and lower portions of the H-tank.

    • At AECM duty station as a secondary emergency oxygen source.

    Correct Answer
    A. Against the inner aspect of the stanchion with two cargo tie-down straps placed on the upper and lower portions of the H-tank.
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI11-2AEV3 [20.5.1.7.1.-20.5.1.7.5.]

    Rate this question:

  • 48. 

    The PBE/EEBD is a ___________ minute self-contained, completely disposable breathing unit, with a solid state oxygen supply source.

    • 60

    • 30

    • 17

    • 15

    Correct Answer
    A. 15
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3, Add A [2.4.2.]

    Rate this question:

  • 49. 

    The adult/child (A/C) LPU is the preferred LPU for AECMs and patient/passengers during ditching situations. The LPU can be used on children greater than __________ old.

    • 18 months

    • 14 years

    • 36 months

    • 7 years

    Correct Answer
    A. 18 months
    Explanation
    Ref: AFI 11-2AEV3, Add A [2.5.1.]

    Rate this question:

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 27, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Monica Willard

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