Air Force And Aircraft Instructions And Procedures! Trivia Quiz

100 Questions

Settings
Please wait...
Air Force And Aircraft Instructions And Procedures! Trivia Quiz

If you want to be a member of the air force, there is a lot you need to know when it comes to operating and maintaining an aircraft. Throughout your training, you are expected to follow a set of instructions when doing something so that you do not cause harm to yourself or others. Take this quiz and review some air force and aircraft instructions and procedures.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Operations Group Commanders (OG/CC) shall define local operating procedures to AFI 11- 2AE V3 in a unit supplement?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 2. 
    Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in personal injury or loss of life define a___________.
    • A. 

      Warning

    • B. 

      Caution

    • C. 

      Note

    • D. 

      Suggestion

  • 3. 
    Waiver authority for contents of AFI 11-2AE V3 is the ___________.
    • A. 

      HQ AMC Stan Eval

    • B. 

      TACC

    • C. 

      Air and Space Operations Center

    • D. 

      MAJCOM/A3/DO with mission execution authority

  • 4. 
    During operational aeromedical evacuation missions no later than __________ hour prior to landing a crew member will make the following call to update arrival time and provide__________ .
    • A. 

      2 / DD Form 2852, Aeromedical Evacuation Event/Near Miss Report

    • B. 

      2 / request for fleet service

    • C. 

      1 / AF IMT 3858, Aeromedical Evacuation Mission Offload Message information

    • D. 

      None of the Above

  • 5. 
    The MCD will coordinate with PIC to establish immediate communication with TACC/AOC and PMRC anytime:
    • A. 

      A patient is removed from flight

    • B. 

      A change in patient status

    • C. 

      Mission irregularities or equipment/transportation requirements

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 6. 
    A basic AE crew consists of __________ /__________ for AE missions IAW AFI 11-2AEV3 (EXCEPTION for C-21 missions).
    • A. 

      3 Flight Nurses and 2 Technicians

    • B. 

      5 total AECs

    • C. 

      1 Flight Nurses / 4 AETs

    • D. 

      2 FN /3 AET

  • 7. 
    Once an aircrew begins a basic FDP, only MAJCOM/A3/DO may extend to augmented day regardless of aircrew composition.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 8. 
    The PIC with an augmented crew may accept an augmented FDP as long as:
    • A. 

      The C2 agent or PIC discovers the extenuating circumstances before the first takeoff of the day.

    • B. 

      PIC verifies all augmenting aircrew members can get adequate rest en route.

    • C. 

      The PIC with a basic crew may seek MAJCOM/A3/DO (w/mission execution authority) approval to extend the FDP as much as 2 hours to complete a scheduled mission.

    • D. 

      All the Above

  • 9. 
    Which of the following does not describe a Medical Crew Director (MCD)?
    • A. 

      Advised pilot in command on patients’ conditions and use of medical equipment that may affect aircraft operations

    • B. 

      Directly responsible for the safety and medical well-being of patients on the aircraft

    • C. 

      Final mission authority and will make decisions not assigned to higher authority

    • D. 

      Qualified flight nurse

  • 10. 
    The Squadron’s Chief Nurse after reviewing the Operational Risk Management (ORM) worksheet, may change the crew compliment to consist of no less than one (1) FN and two (2) AETs, and will notify the controlling C2 agency of changes if different from the mission directive.
    • A. 

      This is not permissible, the CN can only increase the number of crew members, not decrease

    • B. 

      This is permissible, the CN may increase or reduce the crew complement

    • C. 

      This is not permissible, a basic AE crew of 2 FNs and 3 AETs must be tasked

    • D. 

      Only if approved by A3VM

  • 11. 
    _____________ or designee will augment an aircrew when FDP exceeds 16 hours and the mission profile will allow augmenting aircrew members adequate time to rest en route.
    • A. 

      OG/CC

    • B. 

      SQ/CC

    • C. 

      Chief Nurse

    • D. 

      MCD

  • 12. 
    The __________ must designate who is going to be the MCD on a flight authorization, IAW AFI 11-401, prior to mission execution.
    • A. 

      OG/CC

    • B. 

      SQ/CC

    • C. 

      SQ/CNE

    • D. 

      SARM

  • 13. 
    SQ/CCs shall not schedule an aircrew member to fly nor will an aircrew member perform aircrew duties:
    • A. 

      When the flight time will exceed maximum flying time limitations

    • B. 

      Within 24 hours after compressed gas diving (scuba or surface supplied diving), a hyperbaric (compression) chamber mission, or aircraft pressurization checks that exceed 10 minutes.

    • C. 

      Within 12 hours following a hypobaric (altitude) chamber mission above 25,000 ft.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 14. 
    What is the primary fatigue counter measure available to aircrew members?
    • A. 

      Smart scheduling procedures aimed at managing those cycles, strategic inflight and/or ground napping techniques, and proper diet and exercise.

    • B. 

      No-Go Pill.

    • C. 

      Appropriate management of sleep/rest cycles.

    • D. 

      All the above.

  • 15. 
    Aircrew members will limit use of Ambien (Zolpidem) and Restoril (Temazepam) to a maximum of seven consecutive days and no more than 20 days in a 60-day period.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 16. 
    C2 agents shall not disturb an aircrew member in crew rest except __________.
    • A. 

      When authorized by MAJCOM/A3/DO

    • B. 

      During emergencies

    • C. 

      If the MCD requires room changes to be in close proximity of the crew

    • D. 

      A & B

  • 17. 
    What is the purpose of the assertive statement "Time Out"?
    • A. 

      Provides a clear warning sign of a deviation or loss of situational awareness

    • B. 

      Provides an opportunity to break the error chain before a mishap occurs

    • C. 

      Notifies all crewmembers that someone sees the aircraft or crew departing from established guidelines, the briefed scenario, or that someone is simply uncomfortable with the developing conditions

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 18. 
    What is the goal of the Aviation Safety Action Program (ASAP)?
    • A. 

      To prevent mishaps by addressing unintentional errors, hazardous situations and events, or high-risk activities, not identified and/or correctable by other methods or through traditional safety reporting sources

    • B. 

      To provide an anonymous means to complain about your commander

    • C. 

      To ensure aircrew members are punished for potentially unsafe behavior

    • D. 

      The ASAP program is not intended for AECMs since we currently use a DD Form 2852 to report actual and near miss medical events.

  • 19. 
    All AECMs will wear Nomex gloves during taxi, take-off, and landing.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 20. 
    What will be accomplished prior to concurrent servicing (CS) on the C-17 or C-130?
    • A. 

      Prior to starting concurrent servicing, the total number of patients, attendants, passengers, and crew on board the aircraft will be given to the fire department.

    • B. 

      The Passenger Compartment Monitor (PCM) will brief patients on emergency egress, exit prohibitions, and hazards. Ambulatory patients will remain seated but will not wear seatbelts during CS.

    • C. 

      Loading ramps/stairs are in place for immediate use and exits (excluding the overhead escape hatches) are opened for egress.

    • D. 

      All the above.

  • 21. 
    At what point during the PRICE check of the MA-1 portable walk-around bottle do you fit and adjust your harness?
    • A. 

      P- Pressure

    • B. 

      R- Regulator

    • C. 

      I-Inspection

    • D. 

      C- Connections

  • 22. 
    Demonstration of onboard life sustaining equipment is required for all missions carrying passengers/patients.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 23. 
    When AE crews are augmented for time, how is flight time documented on the AFTO Form 781?
    • A. 

      All crewmembers on the aircraft log primary time for the entire mission.

    • B. 

      The Chief Nurse determines work/rest cycles.

    • C. 

      5 crewmembers log primary time; 2 crewmembers are “resting” and log other time.

    • D. 

      All crewmembers will log primary and secondary time

  • 24. 
    If a Medical Emergency/Change in Patient Status in flight occurs, the MCD/AECMs will immediately notify the PIC regarding the gravity and nature of the situation and will also:
    • A. 

      Coordinate to establish immediate radio communication with the Tactical Airlift Control Center/Air Mobility Operations Control Center/Air Operations Center/Patient Movement Requirements Center (TACC/AMOC/AOC/PMRC) for a physician and guidance for landing at an airfield capable of handling the situation, when indicated.

    • B. 

      Notify the supporting TACC/AOC and PMRC regarding changes in patient status, mission irregularities, coordination of mission needs, and equipment/transportation requirements ASAP.

    • C. 

      Be ready to communicate age, gender, diagnosis, subjective and objective data, including vital signs and pulse oximetry, known allergies, and for women of childbearing years, date of last menstrual cycle, if indicated. Also report treatment/interventions, date and time (if indicated) and the outcome.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 25. 
    Which of the following are effective CBRN Passive defense measures?
    • A. 

      Up-to-date immunizations

    • B. 

      Standard personal hygiene practices

    • C. 

      The use of chemoprophylaxis

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 26. 
    If the aircraft is configured with airline seats, the __________ will check the security of all patient/passenger seats by lifting upward on the front of the seat frame and gently pushing and pulling on the seat backs. Minimal movement is acceptable.
    • A. 

      MCD

    • B. 

      LM/BO

    • C. 

      CMT

    • D. 

      PIC

  • 27. 
    In the AE system, transfer of physical care is complete once:
    • A. 

      The patient enters or exits the ground vehicle of transportation

    • B. 

      The patient meets the representatives of the MTF

    • C. 

      Patient report is completed

    • D. 

      Patient records and medications are handed off

  • 28. 
    • A. 

      On missions with ventilator patients, AECM’s will calculate pre-mission oxygen requirements using 14 LPM for all ventilators

    • B. 

      Prior to enplaning ventilated CCATT patients, AEC and CCATT personnel will verify patient oxygen requirements

    • C. 

      For C-17 missions, use the therapeutic oxygen as the primary source for ventilated patients

    • D. 

      For KC-135 and C-130 missions, ventilated patients will have a dedicated PTLOX/NPTLOX

  • 29. 
    During Preflight Inspection, the interior inspection will be accomplished by using the abbreviated flight crew checklist; the________is responsible for ensuring emergency passageways are clear.
    • A. 

      Boom Operator/Loadmaster

    • B. 

      MCD

    • C. 

      CMT

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 30. 
    When considering placement of an "H" sized compressed gas cylinder to a PSP for an AE mission, it should be secured:
    • A. 

      To the floor, under the Neonatal Transport System (NTS) with two cargo tie-down straps.

    • B. 

      On a litter and secured with two litter straps.

    • C. 

      Against the inner aspect of the stanchion with two cargo tie-down straps placed on the upper and lower portions of the H-tank.

    • D. 

      At AECM duty station as a secondary emergency oxygen source.

  • 31. 
    Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed define a ___________________.
    • A. 

      Warning

    • B. 

      Caution

    • C. 

      Note

    • D. 

      Suggestions

  • 32. 
    The Emergency Passenger Oxygen System (EPOS) is the preferred oxygen, smoke, and fume protection.
    • A. 

      AECM

    • B. 

      Passenger

    • C. 

      Crew member

    • D. 

      CMT

  • 33. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring there are enough EPOS units for each AECM, patient, and attendants?
    • A. 

      3AET

    • B. 

      CMT

    • C. 

      AE crew

    • D. 

      MCD

  • 34. 
    The EPOS will not function without the removal of the __________. If the red knob separates, grasp the lanyard to pull the ___________ off the cylinder and then proceed to use the EPOS as directed.
    • A. 

      Pin

    • B. 

      Oxygen activator

    • C. 

      Metal tab

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 35. 
    The PBE/EEBD is a ___________ minute self-contained, completely disposable breathing unit, with a solid state oxygen supply source.
    • A. 

      60

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      17

    • D. 

      15

  • 36. 
    AECMs are responsible for refilling and discharging the MA-1 oxygen issued by Aircrew Flight Equipment (AFE). Prior to turn in the cylinder, the cylinder pressure will be reduced to between and __________ PSIG gage pressure.
    • A. 

      5/10

    • B. 

      8/30

    • C. 

      5/38

    • D. 

      5/28

  • 37. 
    The adult/child (A/C) LPU is the preferred LPU for AECMs and patient/passengers during ditching situations. The LPU can be used on children greater than __________ old.
    • A. 

      18 months

    • B. 

      14 years

    • C. 

      36 months

    • D. 

      7 years

  • 38. 
    PSP-S: Six PSP seats supporting up to six ambulatory patients, medical attendants or crewmembers. Each seat is rated to hold __________ LBS.
    • A. 

      320

    • B. 

      220

    • C. 

      160

    • D. 

      260

  • 39. 
    When three patients are transported on a PSP litter tower, each litter position is rated to hold_ LBS.
    • A. 

      350

    • B. 

      320

    • C. 

      300

    • D. 

      220

  • 40. 
    On the C-130 J aircraft, six 3-pin "household type" service outlets can be used with AE equipment that operates on 115 Volt/400 Hz. Each outlet will provide _______________ amps for a total of amps.
    • A. 

      20/60

    • B. 

      15/60

    • C. 

      30/90

    • D. 

      15/90

  • 41. 
    A primary 115V/60 Hz converter is installed on-board the C-17 which provides 60 Hz electrical power to the aeromedical electrical outlet panels. There are two 115 VAC/60Hz outlets on each panel.
    • A. 

      12

    • B. 

      9

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      3

  • 42. 
    A minimum quantity of _________ liters of LOX is required for scheduled aeromedical evacuation missions on a C-17 originating from staged/home station.
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      45

    • C. 

      75

    • D. 

      100

  • 43. 
     To increase C-17 electrical amp capability, a Avionics/Unitron Frequency converter may be plugged directly into one of the 115-200V/400 Hz AC outlets located on the six aeromedical electrical outlet panels. Do not exceed 20 amps per aircraft left side and 20 amps per aircraft right side to the _________ Hz system for a total of _________ amps when using the Avionics/Unitron Frequency converter.
    • A. 

      200/20

    • B. 

      400/20

    • C. 

      400/40

    • D. 

      200/40

  • 44. 
    For the KC-135 the two primary egress points are the aft emergency escape hatch and the crew entry chute. The aft escape hatch is equipped with a slide; the crew entry chute is equipped with a ladder typically stored in the cargo compartment.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 45. 
    The release of TCTO 1C-135-1806 provides three additional electrical outlets on the KC-135 R/T block, 40 aircraft. The three new outlets and the galley plug provide a total of ___________ amps.
    • A. 

      180

    • B. 

      45

    • C. 

      135

    • D. 

      60

  • 46. 
    When connecting the pigtail adaptor to the galley plugs on the KC-135, ensure both circuit breakers marked __________ and __________ are pulled.
    • A. 

      Galley PWR/Station 445

    • B. 

      Circuit breaker/Station 225

    • C. 

      Frequency PWR/Galley PWR

    • D. 

      Station 225/445

  • 47. 
    The KC-135 air conditioning system is not operated on the ground. AE crews will request ground air conditioning units when ambient air temperature is __________ degrees or greater.
    • A. 

      74

    • B. 

      84

    • C. 

      94

    • D. 

      104

  • 48. 
    Latrine capacity in the KC-135 is limited. If not equipped with the Improved Toilet Assembly (TCTO 1C-135-1596), the aircraft will depart home station with an operable latrine and a minimum of and .
    • A. 

      Two rolls of toilet paper; two hand sanitizer dispensers

    • B. 

      Two urine tubes; two latrine cartridges

    • C. 

      Two extra flight suits; two sets of undergarments

    • D. 

      Two urinals; two bed pans

  • 49. 
    A total of __________ litter patients can be floor-loaded on the C-130. An additional two pallet positions are available on the C-130J-30 model that can accommodate an additional __________ litter patients.
    • A. 

      8,6

    • B. 

      8, 3

    • C. 

      15, 6

    • D. 

      15, 3

  • 50. 
    On the C-17, a total of __________ litter patients can be floor-loaded. An additional __________ litter patients can be placed on the ramp for a maximum utilization of the aircraft.
    • A. 

      30/15

    • B. 

      48/12

    • C. 

      48/15

    • D. 

      30/12

  • 51. 
    On the KC-135 the maximum floor-loaded litter capacity is __________ patients. Maximum altitude for floor-loaded patients is flight level __________.
    • A. 

      10, 300

    • B. 

      8, 300

    • C. 

      8, 350

    • D. 

      15, 350

  • 52. 
    If a waiver request for a piece of non-certified/non-standard medical equipment is approved, there is no need to complete a DD Form 2852.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 53. 
    It is the responsibility of the __________ to ensure each aeromedical evacuation crewmember (AECM) and/or other medical personnel supporting AE elements assigned to their unit receives training on the applicable equipment contained within this publication.
    • A. 

      AES Chief Nurse

    • B. 

      Unit property custodian

    • C. 

      AES Commander

    • D. 

      Chief of Aircrew Training

  • 54. 
    If equipment malfunction/failure occurs during an AE mission the MCD will ensure the following paperwork/actions are accomplished:
    • A. 

      Complete AFTO 350

    • B. 

      Upon arrival to home station, immediately send tagged equipment and all accessories to host medical equipment maintenance activity/MTF

    • C. 

      Complete DD Form 2852

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 55. 
    After delivery of all medical equipment from HQ AMC/SGXM, receipt of the Initial Capabilities Document, and AMC/A3TM generated training plan, the implementation phase will be as follows?
    • A. 

      90 days for Active Component and Deployed units and 180 days for Air Reserve Component units (AFRC/ANG).

    • B. 

      90 days for Active Component and Deployed units and 90 days for Air Reserve Component units (AFRC/ANG).

    • C. 

      45 days for Active Component and Deployed units and 90 days for Air Reserve Component units (AFRC/ANG).

    • D. 

      120 days for Active Component and Deployed units and 180 days for Air Reserve Component units (AFRC/ANG).

  • 56. 
    The following statements about the Minilator are correct, except:
    • A. 

      The oxygen flow control valve, from the PTLOX/MOST system accessory kit, may be used with the Minilator

    • B. 

      Connect standard low-pressure oxygen hose to the connector, and the connector to the Minilator inlet valve.

    • C. 

      The Minilator was not designed for and will not be used to support ventilatory devices.

    • D. 

      Prior to connecting to an oxygen source, a flow meter with index set at zero must be attached to any oxygen hose connected to the Minilator.

  • 57. 
     The Next-Generation Portable Therapeutic Liquid Oxygen (NPTLOX) System when filled with liquid oxygen (LOX) will provide for an uninterrupted supply of therapeutic oxygen. The system has the capacity to store __________ of liquid oxygen (LOX) and convert the LOX to a gaseous state.
    • A. 

      15L

    • B. 

      20L

    • C. 

      30L

    • D. 

      10L

  • 58. 
    The NONIN 9550 Onyx II has a tricolor LED display provides a visual indication of the pulse signal quality. Which of the following is not true?
    • A. 

      Green indicates a good pulse signal

    • B. 

      Yellow indicates a marginal pulse signal

    • C. 

      Red indicates an inadequate pulse signal

    • D. 

      Red indicates no pulse

  • 59. 
    During all operational and Aeromedical Readiness Missions, the MCD will document on the AF Form 3829, or on the computer generated TRAC2ES cover sheet the following?
    • A. 

      Total patient oxygen requirement

    • B. 

      Total pre-mission, mid -mission and post -mission PTLOX/therapeutic oxygen level

    • C. 

      Max cabin altitude

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 60. 
    Synchronized cardioversion is permitted by ACLS flight nurses without physician supervision utilizing which piece of equipment?
    • A. 

      Zoll M-Series CCT Monitor/Defibrillator

    • B. 

      Phillips MRx Monitor/Defibrillator

    • C. 

      A and b

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 61. 
    __________ and __________ indicate a mandatory requirement.
    • A. 

      Should/May

    • B. 

      Will/Shall

    • C. 

      Will/May

    • D. 

      Should/Shall

  • 62. 
    The Propaq Encore monitor is not interchangeable with other monitors. Use of the Propaq SpO2 with other monitors will cause inaccurate readings.  
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 63. 
    The Turbo cuff function on the Propaq Encore monitor will automatically measure NIBP at what intervals?
    • A. 

      Every five minutes

    • B. 

      At an interval initiated by the user

    • C. 

      Automatically and continues to take as many measurements as possible within five minutes

    • D. 

      Turbo cuff function is not used inflight

  • 64. 
    When utilizing the Unitron Portable Power System do not exceed 45 amps for the unit or 15 amps for any one duplex receptacle.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 65. 
    When utilizing the Unitron Portable Power System and connecting to aircraft power:
    • A. 

      Always check the aircraft outlet with the ECAS tester

    • B. 

      Check ECAS cords with ECAS tester if connected to 60 Hz outlets on the C-17

    • C. 

      Turn off the unit when connecting to aircraft power

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 66. 
    If the __________ lamp is illuminated (steady light) on the Unitron Portable Power System, move the unit control on/off switch breaker to the off position, voltage being applied to the input of the portable power system is improper for unit operation.
    • A. 

      Green

    • B. 

      Yellow

    • C. 

      Red

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 67. 
    Which of the following is true regarding the IMPACT 326M Portable Suction Unit?
    • A. 

      The unit simultaneously operates and recharges the battery when plugged into either 115/230 VAC, 50-400 Hz or 28 VDC power source

    • B. 

      The internal battery operates for a minimum of two hours and takes a maximum of 16 hours to recharge

    • C. 

      The charge light will not illuminate if the battery is fully charged

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 68. 
    When inserting tubing into the IVAC Medsystem III infusion pump; with tubing __________, use a 45 degree __________ motion to insert cassette into channel.
    • A. 

      Up/upward

    • B. 

      Down/upward

    • C. 

      Up/downward

    • D. 

      Down/downward

  • 69. 
    The Atrium Express 4050 Dry Seal Chest Drain is a disposable, waterless operating system with 2100 ml collection volume, dry suction regulator, and dry one-say valve for seal protection. Since this medical piece of equipment is approved for flight, ensure a Heimlich valve is in place.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 70. 
    Placement of the Atrium Express Dry Seal Chest Drain include:
    • A. 

      Always place the chest drain below the patient’s chest in an upright position

    • B. 

      To avoid knocking over the chest drain, you may hang the system from the litter

    • C. 

      The system is sealed and can be placed on its side

    • D. 

      Both a and b

  • 71. 
    When transporting an infant in the ALSS, take the temperature of the infant every __________ unless directed otherwise by the medical attendant. Document temperature on Patient Evacuation Record (IMT 3899, Patient Movement Record).
    • A. 

      Every 15 minutes

    • B. 

      Every 30 minutes

    • C. 

      Every hour

    • D. 

      Every two hours

  • 72. 
    The NATO Litter Backrest is used to provide elevation for patient’s head. The 90 degree position on the NATO litter backrest will not be used during ___________.
    • A. 

      Take off

    • B. 

      Landing

    • C. 

      Enplaning/Deplaning

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 73. 
    Use a minimum of __________ litter bearers to enplane The North American Rescue Over Sized Litter (OSL). However, there are four attached carrying straps on each side of the litter to accommodate up to __________ personnel.
    • A. 

      4/8

    • B. 

      6/8

    • C. 

      4/6

    • D. 

      None of the above.

  • 74. 
    Ensure there are compatible/operable restraint keys available and caregivers know placement for leather restraints prior to flight.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 75. 
    It is acceptable to use K-Y jelly or EKG gel with the Ultrasound Stethoscope Fetal Monitor- Medasonics Model FP3A if Ultrasound Coupling Agent is not available.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 76. 
    The Aircraft Wireless Intercom System (AWIS) is approved for use on the following:
    • A. 

      C-17 and C-130

    • B. 

      C-21

    • C. 

      KC-135

    • D. 

      A and c

  • 77. 
    Regarding Electronic Health Record documentation, _______ will provide initial hardware (laptops, printers, and routers) and refreshes on the normal cycle (4-years)?
    • A. 

      Sq/CC

    • B. 

      OG/CC

    • C. 

      HQ AMC/A3V

    • D. 

      HQ AMC/SG

  • 78. 
    The patient classification for an outpatient on litter for comfort, going for treatment is:
    • A. 

      2A

    • B. 

      2B

    • C. 

      5D

    • D. 

      5E

  • 79. 
    Should Electronic Health Record system failure(s) occur or the MCD determines electronic documentation of clinical care will impede mission times, the ____ will direct the use of paper documentation by AECMs.
    • A. 

      MCD

    • B. 

      TPMRC

    • C. 

      SQ/CN

    • D. 

      TACC

  • 80. 
    When two or more licensed clinicians are caring for the same patient, __________ will document and sign for their care provided and/or services rendered.
    • A. 

      The primary caregiver

    • B. 

      Each licensed clinician

    • C. 

      The MCD

    • D. 

      The 2FN

  • 81. 
    All patients will be identified using at least _____ unique identifiers.
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 82. 
    For paper documentation, if an error is made, line through or discontinue the order and annotate with date, time and initials or signature
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 83. 
    The AF Form ________, Patient Movement Record Enroute Critical Care, is used by any clinician in the AE system to document on critically ill or injured patients.
    • A. 

      3899I

    • B. 

      3899J

    • C. 

      3899K

    • D. 

      3899L

  • 84. 
    When filling out AF Form 3899M, Patient Movement Record PCA/PNB/Epidural Hand-Off Form, the infusion running total _____ be cleared.
    • A. 

      May

    • B. 

      Should

    • C. 

      Will

    • D. 

      Will not

  • 85. 
    ERCC (En Route Critical Care) personnel are trained to interface with aircraft systems and do not need to be tasked with appropriate service-specific personnel capable of interfacing between ERCC team/equipment and airframe’s crew/systems?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 86. 
    Documentation for regional and epidural pain management infusions will include?
    • A. 

      Medication, Dosage, Location, Rate of infusion

    • B. 

      Drug concentration,

    • C. 

      Pump type

    • D. 

      All of the Above

  • 87. 
    Urgent ("U") Precedence requires immediate PM to save life, limb, eyesight, or prevent serious complications of injury or existing medical condition.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 88. 
    Routine ("R") Precedence requires expedient PM and prompt medical intervention when care is unavailable locally and medical condition could deteriorate.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 89. 
    Flight Surgeon will make rounds with the staging nurse at a minimum every ____ hrs and update the AF Form 3899 or EHR equivalent.
    • A. 

      6 hrs

    • B. 

      8 hrs

    • C. 

      12 hrs

    • D. 

      24 hrs

  • 90. 
    The originating MTF must ensure ambulatory patients will wear the appropriate service uniform or civilian clothes to include _____ shoes.
    • A. 

      Shielding

    • B. 

      Protective

    • C. 

      Open Toe

    • D. 

      Close Toe

  • 91. 
    _________________ are the mechanical effects of expansion and contraction can exert a differential pressure on the surrounding tissues, which can cause severe, potentially disabling pain and potential physical damage to tissues (e.g. ear, sinus, GI tract, and lungs).
    • A. 

      Barometric Pressure Changes (Boyle’s Law).

    • B. 

      Decreased Partial Pressure of Oxygen (Dalton’s Law).

    • C. 

      Henry’s Law

    • D. 

      Charles’ Law

  • 92. 
    Time between the evening and breakfast meals will not exceed ___ hrs.
    • A. 

      14 hrs

    • B. 

      11 hrs

    • C. 

      12 hrs

    • D. 

      15 hrs

  • 93. 
    If an AECM utilizes any AE Clinical Protocol they must:
    • A. 

      Document its use on the AF Form 3899 series or the EHR equivalent.

    • B. 

      Include the statement “IAW AE Clinical Protocol – XXX.”

    • C. 

      Complete a DD Form 2852.

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 94. 
    Symptoms of decompression sickness. Skin: Itching, tingling, cold or warm sensations, and occasionally a mottled rash are referred to as the _____?
    • A. 

      Bends

    • B. 

      Chokes

    • C. 

      Creeps

    • D. 

      Staggers

  • 95. 
    For mental health patients, position litter patients in the lowest litter space, away from the flight deck, emergency exits and O2 shutoff valves. Assign ambulatory patients a seat near the bulkhead, away from the flight deck, emergency egits and O2 shutoff valves. Assess potential safety risks of nearby objects and cargo.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 96. 
    If a multi-dose vial has been opened or accessed (e.g. needle punctured), the vial should be dated and discarded within ____ days unless the manufacturer specifies a different (shorter or longer) date for that opened vial.
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      28

    • D. 

      45

  • 97. 
    What event classification is described as an event involving temporary patient harm or status change requiring emergency evaluation and treatment. Immediate notification to C2 and PMRC. Submitt DD Form 2852 into TRAC2ES PMQ-R database within 24 hours.
    • A. 

      Medical Class B

    • B. 

      Medical Class C

    • C. 

      Medical Class D

    • D. 

      Medical Class E

  • 98. 
    Prior to flight, verify the DNR order with the patient and/or the patient’s family. DNR orders will not be written more than ____hours before the originating flight.
    • A. 

      12

    • B. 

      24

    • C. 

      48

    • D. 

      72

  • 99. 
    When malfunctioning equipment is identified and removed from a patient, assess the patient for any harm. Do not Clear any settings from the malfunctioning equipment removed. This will aide biomedical maintenance in their investigation.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 100. 
    The airflow direction on a C-17 is:
    • A. 

      Top to bottom/aft to forward

    • B. 

      Aft to forward

    • C. 

      Top to bottom

    • D. 

      Bottom to top/forward to aft