Air Force And Aircraft Instructions And Procedures! Trivia Quiz

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 210

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Air Force And Aircraft Instructions And Procedures! Trivia Quiz

If you want to be a member of the air force, there is a lot you need to know when it comes to operating and maintaining an aircraft. Throughout your training, you are expected to follow a set of instructions when doing something so that you do not cause harm to yourself or others. Take this quiz and review some air force and aircraft instructions and procedures.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Operations Group Commanders (OG/CC) shall define local operating procedures to AFI 11- 2AE V3 in a unit supplement?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 2. 
    Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in personal injury or loss of life define a___________.
    • A. 

      Warning

    • B. 

      Caution

    • C. 

      Note

    • D. 

      Suggestion

  • 3. 
    Waiver authority for contents of AFI 11-2AE V3 is the ___________.
    • A. 

      HQ AMC Stan Eval

    • B. 

      TACC

    • C. 

      Air and Space Operations Center

    • D. 

      MAJCOM/A3/DO with mission execution authority

  • 4. 
    During operational aeromedical evacuation missions no later than __________ hour prior to landing a crew member will make the following call to update arrival time and provide__________ .
    • A. 

      2 / DD Form 2852, Aeromedical Evacuation Event/Near Miss Report

    • B. 

      2 / request for fleet service

    • C. 

      1 / AF IMT 3858, Aeromedical Evacuation Mission Offload Message information

    • D. 

      None of the Above

  • 5. 
    The MCD will coordinate with PIC to establish immediate communication with TACC/AOC and PMRC anytime:
    • A. 

      A patient is removed from flight

    • B. 

      A change in patient status

    • C. 

      Mission irregularities or equipment/transportation requirements

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 6. 
    A basic AE crew consists of __________ /__________ for AE missions IAW AFI 11-2AEV3 (EXCEPTION for C-21 missions).
    • A. 

      3 Flight Nurses and 2 Technicians

    • B. 

      5 total AECs

    • C. 

      1 Flight Nurses / 4 AETs

    • D. 

      2 FN /3 AET

  • 7. 
    Once an aircrew begins a basic FDP, only MAJCOM/A3/DO may extend to augmented day regardless of aircrew composition.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 8. 
    The PIC with an augmented crew may accept an augmented FDP as long as:
    • A. 

      The C2 agent or PIC discovers the extenuating circumstances before the first takeoff of the day.

    • B. 

      PIC verifies all augmenting aircrew members can get adequate rest en route.

    • C. 

      The PIC with a basic crew may seek MAJCOM/A3/DO (w/mission execution authority) approval to extend the FDP as much as 2 hours to complete a scheduled mission.

    • D. 

      All the Above

  • 9. 
    Which of the following does not describe a Medical Crew Director (MCD)?
    • A. 

      Advised pilot in command on patients’ conditions and use of medical equipment that may affect aircraft operations

    • B. 

      Directly responsible for the safety and medical well-being of patients on the aircraft

    • C. 

      Final mission authority and will make decisions not assigned to higher authority

    • D. 

      Qualified flight nurse

  • 10. 
    The Squadron’s Chief Nurse after reviewing the Operational Risk Management (ORM) worksheet, may change the crew compliment to consist of no less than one (1) FN and two (2) AETs, and will notify the controlling C2 agency of changes if different from the mission directive.
    • A. 

      This is not permissible, the CN can only increase the number of crew members, not decrease

    • B. 

      This is permissible, the CN may increase or reduce the crew complement

    • C. 

      This is not permissible, a basic AE crew of 2 FNs and 3 AETs must be tasked

    • D. 

      Only if approved by A3VM

  • 11. 
    _____________ or designee will augment an aircrew when FDP exceeds 16 hours and the mission profile will allow augmenting aircrew members adequate time to rest en route.
    • A. 

      OG/CC

    • B. 

      SQ/CC

    • C. 

      Chief Nurse

    • D. 

      MCD

  • 12. 
    The __________ must designate who is going to be the MCD on a flight authorization, IAW AFI 11-401, prior to mission execution.
    • A. 

      OG/CC

    • B. 

      SQ/CC

    • C. 

      SQ/CNE

    • D. 

      SARM

  • 13. 
    SQ/CCs shall not schedule an aircrew member to fly nor will an aircrew member perform aircrew duties:
    • A. 

      When the flight time will exceed maximum flying time limitations

    • B. 

      Within 24 hours after compressed gas diving (scuba or surface supplied diving), a hyperbaric (compression) chamber mission, or aircraft pressurization checks that exceed 10 minutes.

    • C. 

      Within 12 hours following a hypobaric (altitude) chamber mission above 25,000 ft.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 14. 
    What is the primary fatigue counter measure available to aircrew members?
    • A. 

      Smart scheduling procedures aimed at managing those cycles, strategic inflight and/or ground napping techniques, and proper diet and exercise.

    • B. 

      No-Go Pill.

    • C. 

      Appropriate management of sleep/rest cycles.

    • D. 

      All the above.

  • 15. 
    Aircrew members will limit use of Ambien (Zolpidem) and Restoril (Temazepam) to a maximum of seven consecutive days and no more than 20 days in a 60-day period.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 16. 
    C2 agents shall not disturb an aircrew member in crew rest except __________.
    • A. 

      When authorized by MAJCOM/A3/DO

    • B. 

      During emergencies

    • C. 

      If the MCD requires room changes to be in close proximity of the crew

    • D. 

      A & B

  • 17. 
    What is the purpose of the assertive statement "Time Out"?
    • A. 

      Provides a clear warning sign of a deviation or loss of situational awareness

    • B. 

      Provides an opportunity to break the error chain before a mishap occurs

    • C. 

      Notifies all crewmembers that someone sees the aircraft or crew departing from established guidelines, the briefed scenario, or that someone is simply uncomfortable with the developing conditions

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 18. 
    What is the goal of the Aviation Safety Action Program (ASAP)?
    • A. 

      To prevent mishaps by addressing unintentional errors, hazardous situations and events, or high-risk activities, not identified and/or correctable by other methods or through traditional safety reporting sources

    • B. 

      To provide an anonymous means to complain about your commander

    • C. 

      To ensure aircrew members are punished for potentially unsafe behavior

    • D. 

      The ASAP program is not intended for AECMs since we currently use a DD Form 2852 to report actual and near miss medical events.

  • 19. 
    All AECMs will wear Nomex gloves during taxi, take-off, and landing.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 20. 
    What will be accomplished prior to concurrent servicing (CS) on the C-17 or C-130?
    • A. 

      Prior to starting concurrent servicing, the total number of patients, attendants, passengers, and crew on board the aircraft will be given to the fire department.

    • B. 

      The Passenger Compartment Monitor (PCM) will brief patients on emergency egress, exit prohibitions, and hazards. Ambulatory patients will remain seated but will not wear seatbelts during CS.

    • C. 

      Loading ramps/stairs are in place for immediate use and exits (excluding the overhead escape hatches) are opened for egress.

    • D. 

      All the above.

  • 21. 
    At what point during the PRICE check of the MA-1 portable walk-around bottle do you fit and adjust your harness?
    • A. 

      P- Pressure

    • B. 

      R- Regulator

    • C. 

      I-Inspection

    • D. 

      C- Connections

  • 22. 
    Demonstration of onboard life sustaining equipment is required for all missions carrying passengers/patients.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 23. 
    When AE crews are augmented for time, how is flight time documented on the AFTO Form 781?
    • A. 

      All crewmembers on the aircraft log primary time for the entire mission.

    • B. 

      The Chief Nurse determines work/rest cycles.

    • C. 

      5 crewmembers log primary time; 2 crewmembers are “resting” and log other time.

    • D. 

      All crewmembers will log primary and secondary time

  • 24. 
    If a Medical Emergency/Change in Patient Status in flight occurs, the MCD/AECMs will immediately notify the PIC regarding the gravity and nature of the situation and will also:
    • A. 

      Coordinate to establish immediate radio communication with the Tactical Airlift Control Center/Air Mobility Operations Control Center/Air Operations Center/Patient Movement Requirements Center (TACC/AMOC/AOC/PMRC) for a physician and guidance for landing at an airfield capable of handling the situation, when indicated.

    • B. 

      Notify the supporting TACC/AOC and PMRC regarding changes in patient status, mission irregularities, coordination of mission needs, and equipment/transportation requirements ASAP.

    • C. 

      Be ready to communicate age, gender, diagnosis, subjective and objective data, including vital signs and pulse oximetry, known allergies, and for women of childbearing years, date of last menstrual cycle, if indicated. Also report treatment/interventions, date and time (if indicated) and the outcome.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 25. 
    Which of the following are effective CBRN Passive defense measures?
    • A. 

      Up-to-date immunizations

    • B. 

      Standard personal hygiene practices

    • C. 

      The use of chemoprophylaxis

    • D. 

      All of the above

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