CCNA 2 V6.0 Final Exam 2017 (Option A)

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which highlighted value represents a specific destination network in the routing table?

    • A.

      0.0.0.0

    • B.

      172.16.100.64

    • C.

      172.16.100.2

    • D.

      110

    • E.

      791

    Correct Answer
    B. 172.16.100.64
    Explanation
    The highlighted value "172.16.100.64" represents a specific destination network in the routing table. The other values are either default routes (0.0.0.0) or IP addresses of interfaces (172.16.100.2) or metrics (110, 791).

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  • 2. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routing tables are up to date and no ARP messages are needed, after a packet leaves H1, how many times is the L2 header rewritten in the path to H2?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    • E.

      5

    • F.

      6

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    After a packet leaves H1, the L2 header is rewritten twice in the path to H2. This means that the L2 header is modified at two different points in the network before reaching its destination.

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  • 3. 

    Which type of static route is configured with a greater administrative distance to provide a backup route to a route learned from a dynamic routing protocol?

    • A.

      Standard static route

    • B.

      Floating static route

    • C.

      Default static route

    • D.

      Summary static route

    Correct Answer
    B. Floating static route
    Explanation
    A floating static route is configured with a greater administrative distance to provide a backup route to a route learned from a dynamic routing protocol. This means that if the route learned from the dynamic routing protocol fails, the floating static route will be used as a backup. The administrative distance is a value that routers use to determine the trustworthiness of a route, with a lower value indicating a more trusted route. By configuring the floating static route with a higher administrative distance than the dynamic route, it will only be used if the dynamic route becomes unavailable.

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  • 4. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which route was configured as a static route to a specific network using the next-hop address?

    • A.

      C 172.16.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0

    • B.

      S 192.168.2.0/24 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

    • C.

      S 192.168.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

    • D.

      S 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

    Correct Answer
    B. S 192.168.2.0/24 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "S 192.168.2.0/24 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2". This route is configured as a static route to the specific network 192.168.2.0/24 using the next-hop address 172.16.2.2. The "S" in the beginning indicates that it is a static route, and the next-hop address is specified after the "via" keyword.

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  • 5. 

    What network prefix and prefix-length combination is used to create a default static route that will match any IPv6 destination?

    • A.

      ::/128

    • B.

      ::/0

    • C.

      ::1/64

    • D.

      FFFF::/128

    Correct Answer
    B. ::/0
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "::/0". In IPv6, "::/0" represents the default route, which matches any IPv6 destination. The "::" represents all zeros, and the "/0" indicates that all bits in the network prefix are set to zero. This combination allows the router to forward any IPv6 traffic for which it does not have a more specific route.

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  • 6. 

    A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?

    • A.

      Ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200

    • B.

      Ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200

    • C.

      Ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100

    • D.

      Ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100

    Correct Answer
    B. Ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200". This command will implement a backup floating static route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. The command specifies the destination network as 172.16.32.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.224.0. It also specifies the next hop interface as S0/0/0 and assigns a higher administrative distance of 200, indicating that it is a backup route.

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  • 7. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Currently router R1 uses an EIGRP route learned from Branch2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network. Which floating static route would create a backup route to the 10.10.0.0/16 network in the event that the link between R1 and Branch2 goes down?

    • A.

      Ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 Serial 0/0/0 100

    • B.

      Ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.226 100

    • C.

      Ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 100

    • D.

      Ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 50

    Correct Answer
    C. Ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 100
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 100". This floating static route would create a backup route to the 10.10.0.0/16 network in the event that the link between R1 and Branch2 goes down. The administrative distance of 100 is higher than the administrative distance of the EIGRP route, so if the EIGRP route becomes unavailable, the router will use this floating static route as the backup route to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network.

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  • 8. 

    Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

    • A.

      It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.

    • B.

      It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.

    • C.

      It has an administrative distance of 1.

    • D.

      It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

    Correct Answer
    A. It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.
    Explanation
    A route that has been learned dynamically is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols. Routing protocols are responsible for exchanging information between routers and updating routing tables based on changes in the network topology. This allows the route to adapt to changes in the network and ensure efficient and accurate routing. The other statements do not specifically describe a dynamically learned route.

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  • 9. 

    Compared with dynamic routes, what are two advantages of using static routes on a router? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      They improve netw​ork security.

    • B.

      They use fewer router resources.

    • C.

      They improve the efficiency of discovering neighboring networks.

    • D.

      They take less time to converge when the network topology changes.

    • E.

      They automatically switch the path to the destination network when the topology changes.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. They improve netw​ork security.
    B. They use fewer router resources.
    Explanation
    Static routes improve network security because they do not rely on dynamic routing protocols, which can be vulnerable to attacks or misconfigurations. By manually configuring static routes, administrators have more control over the network's routing behavior and can ensure that traffic flows only through trusted paths.

    Using static routes also reduces the resource utilization on the router. Unlike dynamic routes that require the router to constantly exchange routing information with neighboring routers, static routes do not require this overhead. This results in lower CPU and memory usage, allowing the router to allocate its resources more efficiently.

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  • 10. 

    A network administrator adds the default-information originate command to the configuration of a router that uses RIP as the ​routing protocol. What will result from adding this command?

    • A.

      The router will be reset to the default factory information.

    • B.

      The router will not forward routing information that is learned from other routers.

    • C.

      The router will propagate a static default route in its RIP updates, if one is present.

    • D.

      The router will only forward packets that originate on directly connected networks.

    Correct Answer
    C. The router will propagate a static default route in its RIP updates, if one is present.
    Explanation
    Adding the "default-information originate" command to the configuration of a router that uses RIP as the routing protocol will result in the router propagating a static default route in its RIP updates, but only if a static default route is present. This means that if there is no static default route configured, the router will not propagate any default route information.

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  • 11. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance value that indicates the route for R2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      0

    • C.

      90

    • D.

      20512256

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    The administrative distance value of 1 indicates that the route for R2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network is the most reliable and preferred route. Administrative distance is used by routers to select the best path when there are multiple routes to the same destination. A lower administrative distance value means a higher priority for the route. Therefore, with an administrative distance value of 1, R2 will choose this route over any other routes with higher administrative distance values.

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  • 12. 

    A network administrator reviews the ​routing table on the router and sees a route to the destination network 172.16.64.0/18 with a next-hop IP address of 192.168.1.1. What are two descriptions of this route? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Default route

    • B.

      Supernet route

    • C.

      Ultimate route

    • D.

      Parent route

    • E.

      Level 2 child route

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. Ultimate route
    E. Level 2 child route
    Explanation
    The given route to the destination network 172.16.64.0/18 with a next-hop IP address of 192.168.1.1 can be described as an "ultimate route" because it represents the final destination for the network. Additionally, it can be described as a "level 2 child route" because it is a more specific route within a larger network.

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  • 13. 

    Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway ​routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Scalability

    • B.

      ISP selection

    • C.

      Speed of convergence

    • D.

      The autonomous system that is used

    • E.

      Campus backbone architecture

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Scalability
    C. Speed of convergence
    Explanation
    When deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use, two important factors to consider are scalability and speed of convergence. Scalability refers to the ability of the protocol to handle a growing network and its increasing demands. A scalable routing protocol can efficiently handle a large number of routers and networks without causing performance issues. Speed of convergence refers to how quickly the routing protocol can adapt to changes in the network, such as link failures or new routes. A routing protocol with fast convergence can minimize network downtime and ensure efficient routing.

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  • 14. 

    Employees of a company connect their wireless laptop computers to the enterprise LAN via wireless access points that are cabled to the Ethernet ports of switches. At which layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model do these switches operate?

    • A.

      Distribution

    • B.

      Data link

    • C.

      Physical

    • D.

      Access

    • E.

      Core

    Correct Answer
    D. Access
    Explanation
    The switches that connect the wireless access points to the Ethernet ports operate at the access layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model. The access layer is responsible for connecting end-user devices, such as laptops, to the network. These switches provide the physical connectivity between the wireless access points and the rest of the network infrastructure.

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  • 15. 

    What is a characteristic of the distribution layer in the three layer hierarchical model?

    • A.

      Acts as the backbone for the network, aggregating and distributing network traffic throughout the campus

    • B.

      Provides access to the rest of the network through switching, routing, and network access policies

    • C.

      Distributes access to end users

    • D.

      Represents the network edge

    Correct Answer
    B. Provides access to the rest of the network through switching, routing, and network access policies
    Explanation
    The characteristic of the distribution layer in the three-layer hierarchical model is that it provides access to the rest of the network through switching, routing, and network access policies. This layer acts as a bridge between the access layer and the core layer, allowing for the distribution of network traffic throughout the campus. It is responsible for routing traffic to its intended destination and enforcing network access policies to ensure security and control.

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  • 16. 

    Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?

    • A.

      The destination MAC address and the incoming port

    • B.

      The destination MAC address and the outgoing port

    • C.

      The source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port

    • D.

      The source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port

    • E.

      The source MAC address and the incoming port

    • F.

      The source MAC address and the outgoing port

    Correct Answer
    E. The source MAC address and the incoming port
    Explanation
    A switch uses the source MAC address and the incoming port to populate the MAC address table. This table is used by the switch to determine the outgoing port for forwarding frames to their destination. By associating the MAC address with the incoming port, the switch can efficiently forward frames to the correct destination without flooding the network.

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  • 17. 

    Which statement is correct about Ethernet switch frame forwarding decisions?

    • A.

      Frame forwarding decisions are based on MAC address and port mappings in the CAM table.

    • B.

      Cut-through frame forwarding ensures that invalid frames are always dropped.

    • C.

      Only frames with a broadcast destination address are forwarded out all active switch ports.

    • D.

      Unicast frames are always forwarded regardless of the destination MAC address.

    Correct Answer
    A. Frame forwarding decisions are based on MAC address and port mappings in the CAM table.
    Explanation
    Ethernet switches use a CAM (Content Addressable Memory) table to determine how to forward frames. This table contains MAC address and port mappings, allowing the switch to forward frames to the correct destination. By examining the destination MAC address of incoming frames, the switch can look up the corresponding port in the CAM table and forward the frame accordingly. This ensures that frames are delivered to the intended recipient and prevents unnecessary broadcast of frames to all active switch ports.

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  • 18. 

    Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

    • A.

      Borderless switching

    • B.

      Cut-through switching

    • C.

      Ingress port buffering

    • D.

      Store-and-forward switching

    Correct Answer
    D. Store-and-forward switching
    Explanation
    Store-and-forward switching is the switching method that drops frames that fail the FCS (Frame Check Sequence) check. In this method, the switch receives the entire frame, checks the FCS for errors, and only forwards the frame if the FCS is correct. If the FCS fails, indicating an error in the frame, the switch discards the frame instead of forwarding it. This method helps to ensure data integrity by preventing corrupted frames from being transmitted throughout the network.

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  • 19. 

    In what situation would a Layer 2 switch have an IP address configured?

    • A.

      When the Layer 2 switch needs to forward user traffic to another device

    • B.

      When the Layer 2 switch is the default gateway of user traffic

    • C.

      When the Layer 2 switch needs to be remotely managed

    • D.

      When the Layer 2 switch is using a routed port

    Correct Answer
    C. When the Layer 2 switch needs to be remotely managed
    Explanation
    A Layer 2 switch would have an IP address configured when it needs to be remotely managed. This allows administrators to access and configure the switch remotely over a network. By assigning an IP address to the switch, it can be accessed using protocols such as SSH or Telnet, enabling remote management and configuration.

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  • 20. 

    A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      IP address

    • B.

      VTP domain

    • C.

      Vty lines

    • D.

      Default VLAN

    • E.

      Default gateway

    • F.

      Loopback address

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. IP address
    C. Vty lines
    E. Default gateway
    Explanation
    To configure remote management access on a Cisco switch, the network administrator must configure the following three items: IP address, vty lines, and default gateway. The IP address is necessary to identify the switch on the network. The vty lines need to be configured to allow remote access to the switch using protocols like Telnet or SSH. The default gateway is required for the switch to communicate with devices on other networks. Therefore, these three configurations are essential for remote management access on a Cisco switch.

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  • 21. 

    A network technician has been asked to secure all switches in the campus network. The security requirements are for each switch to automatically learn and add MAC addresses to both the address table and the running configuration. Which port security configuration will meet these requirements?

    • A.

      Auto secure MAC addresses

    • B.

      Dynamic secure MAC addresses

    • C.

      Static secure MAC addresses

    • D.

      Sticky secure MAC addresses

    Correct Answer
    D. Sticky secure MAC addresses
    Explanation
    The "sticky secure MAC addresses" configuration will meet the security requirements stated in the question. This configuration allows the switch to automatically learn and add MAC addresses to both the address table and the running configuration. By using the "sticky" option, the MAC addresses are saved even after a reboot, ensuring that the security settings persist. This configuration is useful in environments where devices frequently connect and disconnect from the network, as it allows for automatic learning and secure management of MAC addresses.

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  • 22. 

    A network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco switch. When a violation occurs, which violation mode that is configured on an interface will cause packets with an unknown source address to be dropped with no notification sent?

    • A.

      Off

    • B.

      Restrict

    • C.

      Protect

    • D.

      Shutdown

    Correct Answer
    C. Protect
    Explanation
    The "protect" violation mode, when configured on an interface, will cause packets with an unknown source address to be dropped with no notification sent. This mode is a more secure option as it silently drops the packets without alerting the network administrator or the source of the violation.

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  • 23. 

    Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?

    • A.

      Switchport mode accessswitchport port-security

    • B.

      Switchport mode accessswitchport port-securityswitchport port-security maximum 2switchport port-security mac-address stickyswitchport port-security violation restrict

    • C.

      Switchport mode accessswitchport port-security maximum 2switchport port-security mac-address sticky

    • D.

      Switchport mode accessswitchport port-security maximum 2switchport port-security mac-address stickyswitchport port-security violation protect

    Correct Answer
    B. Switchport mode accessswitchport port-securityswitchport port-security maximum 2switchport port-security mac-address stickyswitchport port-security violation restrict
    Explanation
    The correct answer is switchport mode access, switchport port-security, switchport port-security maximum 2, switchport port-security mac-address sticky, switchport port-security violation restrict. This set of commands enables port security on the Ethernet port, allowing only two laptops to use it. The maximum number of secure MAC addresses is set to 2, and the MAC addresses of the laptops are automatically learned and added to the secure MAC address table. If a violation occurs, such as another device trying to connect, the violation is logged but the port is not shut down.

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  • 24. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What protocol should be configured on SW-A Port 0/1 if it is to send traffic from multiple VLANs to switch SW-B?

    • A.

      Spanning Tree

    • B.

      RIP v2

    • C.

      IEEE 802.1Q

    • D.

      ARP

    • E.

      Rapid Spanning Tree

    Correct Answer
    C. IEEE 802.1Q
    Explanation
    To send traffic from multiple VLANs to switch SW-B, the protocol that should be configured on SW-A Port 0/1 is IEEE 802.1Q. This protocol is used for VLAN trunking and allows multiple VLANs to be carried over a single physical link. By configuring IEEE 802.1Q on SW-A Port 0/1, it will be able to tag the frames from different VLANs and send them to SW-B, which can then properly handle and forward the traffic to the respective VLANs.

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  • 25. 

    A Cisco Catalyst switch has been added to support the use of multiple VLANs as part of an enterprise network. The network technician finds it necessary to clear all VLAN information from the switch in order to incorporate a new network design. What should the technician do to accomplish this task?

    • A.

      Erase the startup configuration and reboot the switch.

    • B.

      Erase the running configuration and reboot the switch.

    • C.

      Delete the startup configuration and the vlan.dat file in the flash memory of the switch and reboot the switch.

    • D.

      Delete the IP address that is assigned to the management VLAN and reboot the switch.

    Correct Answer
    C. Delete the startup configuration and the vlan.dat file in the flash memory of the switch and reboot the switch.
    Explanation
    To clear all VLAN information from the switch and incorporate a new network design, the technician should delete the startup configuration and the vlan.dat file in the flash memory of the switch. This will remove any existing VLAN configurations and reset the switch to its default settings. Rebooting the switch after deleting these files ensures that the changes take effect and the switch starts with a clean slate for the new network design.

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  • 26. 

    What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?

    • A.

      All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.

    • B.

      Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.

    • C.

      Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.

    • D.

      The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.

    Correct Answer
    A. All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.
    Explanation
    When the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value, all VLANs will be allowed across the trunk. This means that traffic from all VLANs will be able to pass through the trunk link between switches.

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  • 27. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring inter-VLAN ​routing on a network. For now, only one VLAN is being used, but more will be added soon. What is the missing parameter that is shown as the highlighted question mark in the graphic?

    • A.

      It identifies the subinterface.

    • B.

      It identifies the VLAN number.

    • C.

      It identifies the native VLAN number.

    • D.

      It identifies the type of encapsulation that is used.

    • E.

      It identifies the number of hosts that are allowed on the interface.

    Correct Answer
    B. It identifies the VLAN number.
    Explanation
    The missing parameter shown as the highlighted question mark in the graphic is the VLAN number. This parameter is used to identify the specific VLAN that the subinterface is associated with. In inter-VLAN routing, each VLAN is assigned a unique VLAN number, and this number is used to route traffic between VLANs. By identifying the VLAN number, the network administrator can ensure that the subinterface is correctly configured to handle traffic for that specific VLAN.

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  • 28. 

    A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?

    • A.

      0.0.0.127

    • B.

      0.0.0.255

    • C.

      0.0.1.255

    • D.

      0.0.255.255

    • E.

      A single ACL command and wildcard mask should not be used to specify these particular networks or other traffic will be permitted or denied and present a security risk.

    Correct Answer
    C. 0.0.1.255
    Explanation
    The wildcard mask 0.0.1.255 is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry because it covers the range of IP addresses from 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.1.255. This includes all the networks mentioned in the question (192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26) while also excluding any other IP addresses outside this range.

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  • 29. 

    The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Access-class 5 in

    • B.

      Access-list 5 deny any

    • C.

      Access-list standard VTY permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127

    • D.

      Access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31

    • E.

      Ip access-group 5 out

    • F.

      Ip access-group 5 in

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Access-class 5 in
    D. Access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31
    Explanation
    To ensure that only devices used by network administrators are allowed Telnet access to the routers, two commands are needed. The first command is "access-class 5 in", which applies an access class to incoming Telnet connections. The second command is "access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31", which creates an access list that permits traffic from the 10.7.0.0/27 network. This access list allows only the devices within that network range to access the routers via Telnet.

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  • 30. 

    A network engineer has created a standard ACL to control SSH access to a router. Which command will apply the ACL to the VTY lines?

    • A.

      Access-group 11 in

    • B.

      Access-class 11 in

    • C.

      Access-list 11 in

    • D.

      Access-list 110 in

    Correct Answer
    B. Access-class 11 in
    Explanation
    The command "access-class 11 in" will apply the ACL to the VTY lines. This command is used to specify an access list that will be used to filter incoming Telnet or SSH connections to the VTY lines. By specifying "in" after the access list number, it indicates that the ACL will be applied to incoming connections.

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  • 31. 

    What is the reason why the DHCPREQUEST message is sent as a broadcast during the DHCPv4 process?

    • A.

      To notify other DHCP servers on the subnet that the IP address was leased

    • B.

      To notify other hosts not to request the same IP address

    • C.

      For hosts on other subnets to receive the information

    • D.

      For routers to fill their routing tables with this new information

    Correct Answer
    A. To notify other DHCP servers on the subnet that the IP address was leased
    Explanation
    During the DHCPv4 process, the DHCPREQUEST message is sent as a broadcast to notify other DHCP servers on the subnet that the IP address was leased. This is necessary because multiple DHCP servers may be present on the same subnet, and broadcasting the message ensures that all servers are aware that the IP address has been assigned. By doing so, it prevents multiple servers from assigning the same IP address to different hosts, ensuring proper IP address allocation on the network.

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  • 32. 

    Which set of commands will configure a router as a DHCP server that will assign IPv4 addresses to the 192.168.100.0/23 LAN while reserving the first 10 and the last addresses for static assignment?

    • A.

      Ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100network 192.168.100.0 255.255.255.0ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1

    • B.

      P dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0default-router 192.168.100.1

    • C.

      Dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0default-router 192.168.101.1

    • D.

      Ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100ip network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1

    Correct Answer
    B. P dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0default-router 192.168.100.1
    Explanation
    This set of commands will configure a router as a DHCP server that will assign IPv4 addresses to the 192.168.100.0/23 LAN while reserving the first 10 and the last addresses for static assignment. The "ip dhcp excluded-address" commands exclude the first 10 addresses (192.168.100.1-192.168.100.10) and the last address (192.168.101.254) from being assigned dynamically. The "ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100" command creates a DHCP pool named "LAN-POOL-100" for the network 192.168.100.0/23. The "network" command specifies the network address and subnet mask. The "default-router" command sets the default gateway for the DHCP clients to 192.168.100.1.

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  • 33. 

    ​Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?

    • A.

      Ip dhcp pool

    • B.

      Ip address dhcp

    • C.

      Service dhcp

    • D.

      Ip helper-address

    Correct Answer
    B. Ip address dhcp
    Explanation
    The command "ip address dhcp" enables the interface of a router to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP when the link to the ISP is enabled. This command allows the router to act as a DHCP client and obtain its IP address dynamically from the ISP's DHCP server. By using this command, the router does not need to be manually configured with a static IP address, simplifying the network setup process.

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  • 34. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?

    • A.

      The default gateway address is not provided in the pool.

    • B.

      No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.

    • C.

      The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.

    • D.

      The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.

    Correct Answer
    D. The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.
    Explanation
    The reason that the number of active clients is 0 is because the DHCPv6 server is operating in stateless mode. In stateless DHCPv6 operation, the server does not maintain any state information for the clients. Therefore, it does not keep track of the number of active clients.

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  • 35. 

    ​Refer to the exhibit. Which statement shown in the output allows router R1 to respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests?

    • A.

      Ipv6 unicast-routing

    • B.

      Dns-server 2001:DB8:8::8​

    • C.

      Ipv6 dhcp server LAN1​

    • D.

      Ipv6 nd other-config-flag

    • E.

      Prefix-delegation 2001:DB8:8::/48 00030001000E84244E70​

    Correct Answer
    D. Ipv6 nd other-config-flag
    Explanation
    The "ipv6 nd other-config-flag" statement allows router R1 to respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests. This command enables the router to advertise additional configuration information to the clients, such as DNS server addresses, without actually assigning them IPv6 addresses. By enabling the "other-config-flag", the router will include this information in its Router Advertisement messages, allowing clients to obtain the necessary configuration details through stateless DHCPv6.

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  • 36. 

    Refer to the exhibit. NAT is configured on Remote and Main. The PC is sending a request to the web server. What ​IPv4 address is the source IP address in the packet between Main and the web server?

    • A.

      10.130.5.76

    • B.

      209.165.200.245

    • C.

      203.0.113.5

    • D.

      172.16.1.10

    • E.

      192.0.2.1

    • F.

      209.165.200.226

    Correct Answer
    C. 203.0.113.5
  • 37. 

    ​Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure PAT on R1, but PC-A is unable to access the Internet. The administrator tries to ping a server on the Internet from PC-A and collects the debugs that are shown in the exhibit. Based on this output, what is most likely the cause of the problem?

    • A.

      The address on Fa0/0 should be 64.100.0.1.

    • B.

      The NAT source access list matches the wrong address range.

    • C.

      The inside global address is not on the same subnet as the ISP.

    • D.

      The inside and outside NAT interfaces have been configured backwards.

    Correct Answer
    C. The inside global address is not on the same subnet as the ISP.
    Explanation
    Based on the debug output, the "IP: s=192.168.1.10 (FastEthernet0/0), d=209.165.200.225, len 100, sending" message indicates that the source IP address is 192.168.1.10, which is the inside local address. The inside global address should be on the same subnet as the ISP, but in this case, it is not. Therefore, the most likely cause of the problem is that the inside global address is not on the same subnet as the ISP.

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  • 38. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct based on the output as shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      The output is the result of the show ip nat translations command.

    • B.

      The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source address of 192.168.10.10.

    • C.

      The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source address of 209.165.200.235.

    • D.

      Traffic with the destination address of a public web server will be sourced from the IP of 192.168.1.10.

    • E.

      The output is the result of the show ip nat statistics command.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. The output is the result of the show ip nat translations command.
    B. The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source address of 192.168.10.10.
    Explanation
    Based on the given output, it is stated that "The output is the result of the show ip nat translations command." This means that the displayed information is the output of a specific command. Additionally, it is mentioned that "The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source address of 192.168.10.10." This indicates that the host with the IP address 209.165.200.235 will use the source IP address of 192.168.10.10 when responding to requests.

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  • 39. 

    ​Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R2 for PAT. Why is the configuration incorrect?

    • A.

      The static NAT entry is missing.

    • B.

      NAT-POOL2 is bound to the wrong ACL.

    • C.

      The ACL does not define the list of addresses to be translated.

    • D.

      The overload keyword should not have been applied.

    Correct Answer
    B. NAT-POOL2 is bound to the wrong ACL.
    Explanation
    The configuration is incorrect because NAT-POOL2 is bound to the wrong ACL. This means that the addresses in NAT-POOL2 will not be translated correctly according to the specified ACL.

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  • 40. 

    A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?

    • A.

      Ip nat pool mktv 10.18.7.5 10.18.7.5

    • B.

      Ip nat outside source static 10.18.7.5 209.165.200.225

    • C.

      Ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365

    • D.

      Ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.225 443 10.18.7.5 443ip nat inside source static udp 209.165.200.225 4365 10.18.7.5 4365

    • E.

      No additional configuration is necessary

    Correct Answer
    C. Ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to add the configuration "ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443" and "ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365". This configuration allows the network administrator to create static NAT translations for both TCP port 443 and UDP port 4365. By mapping the internal IP address 10.18.7.5 to the public IP address 209.165.200.225, the marketing personnel can access the networked storage device from their homes.

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  • 41. 

    ​Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what type of NAT has been implemented?

    • A.

      Dynamic NAT with a pool of two public IP addresses

    • B.

      PAT using an external interface

    • C.

      Static NAT with one entry

    • D.

      Static NAT with a NAT pool

    Correct Answer
    B. PAT using an external interface
    Explanation
    Based on the output shown in the exhibit, it can be inferred that Port Address Translation (PAT) is being used with an external interface. This is indicated by the fact that the translated addresses in the output have the same external IP address but different port numbers. PAT allows multiple private IP addresses to be translated to a single public IP address by using different port numbers to identify each connection.

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  • 42. 

    A network engineer is interested in obtaining specific information relevant to the operation of both distribution and access layer Cisco devices. Which command provides common information relevant to both types of devices?

    • A.

      Show ip protocols

    • B.

      Show ip interface

    • C.

      Show cdp neighbors

    • D.

      Show port-security

    • E.

      Show mac-address-table

    Correct Answer
    C. Show cdp neighbors
    Explanation
    The "show cdp neighbors" command provides information about directly connected Cisco devices, including their IP addresses, platform, and capabilities. This command is relevant to both distribution and access layer devices as it helps the network engineer identify the neighboring devices and their connections. By using this command, the engineer can gather information about the network topology and troubleshoot any connectivity issues.

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  • 43. 

    Which two statements are correct if a configured NTP master on a network cannot reach any clock with a lower stratum number? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      The NTP master will claim to be synchronized at the configured stratum number​.

    • B.

      The NTP master will be the clock with 1 as its stratum number​.

    • C.

      An NTP server with a higher stratum number will become the master.

    • D.

      Other systems will be willing to synchronize to that master using NTP​.

    • E.

      The NTP master will lower its stratum number.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. The NTP master will claim to be synchronized at the configured stratum number​.
    D. Other systems will be willing to synchronize to that master using NTP​.
    Explanation
    If a configured NTP master on a network cannot reach any clock with a lower stratum number, the correct statements are: The NTP master will claim to be synchronized at the configured stratum number and other systems will be willing to synchronize to that master using NTP. This means that even though the NTP master cannot reach a clock with a lower stratum number, it will still advertise itself as synchronized at the configured stratum number and other systems will consider it as a valid time source for synchronization.

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  • 44. 

    What are three functions provided by the ​syslog service? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      To gather logging information for monitoring and troubleshooting

    • B.

      To select the type of logging information that is captured

    • C.

      To specify the destinations of captured messages

    • D.

      To periodically poll agents for data

    • E.

      To provide statistics on packets that are flowing through a Cisco device

    • F.

      To provide traffic analysis

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. To gather logging information for monitoring and troubleshooting
    B. To select the type of logging information that is captured
    C. To specify the destinations of captured messages
    Explanation
    The syslog service provides three functions. First, it allows the gathering of logging information for monitoring and troubleshooting purposes. Second, it enables the selection of the type of logging information that is captured, allowing for customization based on specific needs. Lastly, it allows for the specification of the destinations of captured messages, ensuring that the logging information is sent to the desired locations for analysis and storage.

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  • 45. 

    Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is examining the message in a syslog server. What can be determined from the message?

    • A.

      This is a notification message for a normal but significant condition.

    • B.

      This is an alert message for which immediate action is needed.

    • C.

      This is an error message for which warning conditions exist.

    • D.

      This is an error message that indicates the system is unusable.

    Correct Answer
    A. This is a notification message for a normal but significant condition.
    Explanation
    The given message in the syslog server indicates a "normal but significant condition." This means that there is an event or situation that is noteworthy but does not require immediate action or indicate any error or warning conditions. It is simply a notification to inform the administrator about a significant event or condition in the system.

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  • 46. 

    When a customer purchases a Cisco IOS 15.0 software package, what serves as the receipt for that customer and is used to obtain the license as well?

    • A.

      Software Claim Certificate

    • B.

      End User License Agreement

    • C.

      Unique Device Identifier

    • D.

      Product Activation Key

    Correct Answer
    D. Product Activation Key
    Explanation
    The Product Activation Key serves as the receipt for the customer when they purchase a Cisco IOS 15.0 software package. It is also used to obtain the license for the software.

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  • 47. 

    Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters these commands into the R1 router: R1# copy running-config tftpAddress or name of remote host [ ]? When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what IP address should the administrator enter at the prompt?

    • A.

      192.168.9.254

    • B.

      192.168.10.1

    • C.

      192.168.10.2

    • D.

      192.168.11.252

    • E.

      192.168.11.254

    Correct Answer
    D. 192.168.11.252
    Explanation
    The network administrator should enter the IP address 192.168.11.252 at the prompt. This is because the command "copy running-config tftp" is used to copy the running configuration of the router to a TFTP server. In this case, the administrator is prompted to enter the address or name of the remote host, which is the TFTP server. Therefore, the IP address entered should be the address of the TFTP server, which is 192.168.11.252.

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  • 48. 

    Which type of traffic is designed for a native VLAN?

    • A.

      Management

    • B.

      User-generated

    • C.

      Untagged

    • D.

      Tagged

    Correct Answer
    D. Tagged
    Explanation
    The native VLAN is a VLAN that carries untagged traffic. In other words, traffic that is not specifically tagged with a VLAN ID. Tagged traffic, on the other hand, is traffic that has been assigned a VLAN ID and is used to carry traffic for specific VLANs. Therefore, the correct answer is tagged, as the native VLAN is designed to carry untagged traffic.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 18, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Gopnik
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