CCNA 2 V6.0 Final Exam 2017 (Option A)

51 Questions | Total Attempts: 2571

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Which highlighted value represents a specific destination network in the routing table?
    • A. 

      0.0.0.0

    • B. 

      172.16.100.64

    • C. 

      172.16.100.2

    • D. 

      110

    • E. 

      791

  • 2. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routing tables are up to date and no ARP messages are needed, after a packet leaves H1, how many times is the L2 header rewritten in the path to H2?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

    • E. 

      5

    • F. 

      6

  • 3. 
    Which type of static route is configured with a greater administrative distance to provide a backup route to a route learned from a dynamic routing protocol?
    • A. 

      Standard static route

    • B. 

      Floating static route

    • C. 

      Default static route

    • D. 

      Summary static route

  • 4. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Which route was configured as a static route to a specific network using the next-hop address?
    • A. 

      C 172.16.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0

    • B. 

      S 192.168.2.0/24 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

    • C. 

      S 192.168.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

    • D. 

      S 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

  • 5. 
    What network prefix and prefix-length combination is used to create a default static route that will match any IPv6 destination?
    • A. 

      ::/128

    • B. 

      ::/0

    • C. 

      ::1/64

    • D. 

      FFFF::/128

  • 6. 
    A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?
    • A. 

      Ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200

    • B. 

      Ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200

    • C. 

      Ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100

    • D. 

      Ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100

  • 7. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Currently router R1 uses an EIGRP route learned from Branch2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network. Which floating static route would create a backup route to the 10.10.0.0/16 network in the event that the link between R1 and Branch2 goes down?
    • A. 

      Ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 Serial 0/0/0 100

    • B. 

      Ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.226 100

    • C. 

      Ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 100

    • D. 

      Ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.0.0 209.165.200.225 50

  • 8. 
    Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?
    • A. 

      It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.

    • B. 

      It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.

    • C. 

      It has an administrative distance of 1.

    • D. 

      It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

  • 9. 
    Compared with dynamic routes, what are two advantages of using static routes on a router? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      They improve netw​ork security.

    • B. 

      They use fewer router resources.

    • C. 

      They improve the efficiency of discovering neighboring networks.

    • D. 

      They take less time to converge when the network topology changes.

    • E. 

      They automatically switch the path to the destination network when the topology changes.

  • 10. 
    A network administrator adds the default-information originate command to the configuration of a router that uses RIP as the ​routing protocol. What will result from adding this command?
    • A. 

      The router will be reset to the default factory information.

    • B. 

      The router will not forward routing information that is learned from other routers.

    • C. 

      The router will propagate a static default route in its RIP updates, if one is present.

    • D. 

      The router will only forward packets that originate on directly connected networks.

  • 11. 
    Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance value that indicates the route for R2 to reach the 10.10.0.0/16 network?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      0

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      20512256

  • 12. 
    A network administrator reviews the ​routing table on the router and sees a route to the destination network 172.16.64.0/18 with a next-hop IP address of 192.168.1.1. What are two descriptions of this route? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      Default route

    • B. 

      Supernet route

    • C. 

      Ultimate route

    • D. 

      Parent route

    • E. 

      Level 2 child route

  • 13. 
    Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway ​routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      Scalability

    • B. 

      ISP selection

    • C. 

      Speed of convergence

    • D. 

      The autonomous system that is used

    • E. 

      Campus backbone architecture

  • 14. 
    Employees of a company connect their wireless laptop computers to the enterprise LAN via wireless access points that are cabled to the Ethernet ports of switches. At which layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model do these switches operate?
    • A. 

      Distribution

    • B. 

      Data link

    • C. 

      Physical

    • D. 

      Access

    • E. 

      Core

  • 15. 
    What is a characteristic of the distribution layer in the three layer hierarchical model?
    • A. 

      Acts as the backbone for the network, aggregating and distributing network traffic throughout the campus

    • B. 

      Provides access to the rest of the network through switching, routing, and network access policies

    • C. 

      Distributes access to end users

    • D. 

      Represents the network edge

  • 16. 
    Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?
    • A. 

      The destination MAC address and the incoming port

    • B. 

      The destination MAC address and the outgoing port

    • C. 

      The source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port

    • D. 

      The source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port

    • E. 

      The source MAC address and the incoming port

    • F. 

      The source MAC address and the outgoing port

  • 17. 
    Which statement is correct about Ethernet switch frame forwarding decisions?
    • A. 

      Frame forwarding decisions are based on MAC address and port mappings in the CAM table.

    • B. 

      Cut-through frame forwarding ensures that invalid frames are always dropped.

    • C. 

      Only frames with a broadcast destination address are forwarded out all active switch ports.

    • D. 

      Unicast frames are always forwarded regardless of the destination MAC address.

  • 18. 
    Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?
    • A. 

      Borderless switching

    • B. 

      Cut-through switching

    • C. 

      Ingress port buffering

    • D. 

      Store-and-forward switching

  • 19. 
    In what situation would a Layer 2 switch have an IP address configured?
    • A. 

      When the Layer 2 switch needs to forward user traffic to another device

    • B. 

      When the Layer 2 switch is the default gateway of user traffic

    • C. 

      When the Layer 2 switch needs to be remotely managed

    • D. 

      When the Layer 2 switch is using a routed port

  • 20. 
    A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)
    • A. 

      IP address

    • B. 

      VTP domain

    • C. 

      Vty lines

    • D. 

      Default VLAN

    • E. 

      Default gateway

    • F. 

      Loopback address

  • 21. 
    A network technician has been asked to secure all switches in the campus network. The security requirements are for each switch to automatically learn and add MAC addresses to both the address table and the running configuration. Which port security configuration will meet these requirements?
    • A. 

      Auto secure MAC addresses

    • B. 

      Dynamic secure MAC addresses

    • C. 

      Static secure MAC addresses

    • D. 

      Sticky secure MAC addresses

  • 22. 
    A network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco switch. When a violation occurs, which violation mode that is configured on an interface will cause packets with an unknown source address to be dropped with no notification sent?
    • A. 

      Off

    • B. 

      Restrict

    • C. 

      Protect

    • D. 

      Shutdown

  • 23. 
    Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?
    • A. 

      Switchport mode accessswitchport port-security

    • B. 

      Switchport mode accessswitchport port-securityswitchport port-security maximum 2switchport port-security mac-address stickyswitchport port-security violation restrict

    • C. 

      Switchport mode accessswitchport port-security maximum 2switchport port-security mac-address sticky

    • D. 

      Switchport mode accessswitchport port-security maximum 2switchport port-security mac-address stickyswitchport port-security violation protect

  • 24. 
    Refer to the exhibit. What protocol should be configured on SW-A Port 0/1 if it is to send traffic from multiple VLANs to switch SW-B?
    • A. 

      Spanning Tree

    • B. 

      RIP v2

    • C. 

      IEEE 802.1Q

    • D. 

      ARP

    • E. 

      Rapid Spanning Tree

  • 25. 
    A Cisco Catalyst switch has been added to support the use of multiple VLANs as part of an enterprise network. The network technician finds it necessary to clear all VLAN information from the switch in order to incorporate a new network design. What should the technician do to accomplish this task?
    • A. 

      Erase the startup configuration and reboot the switch.

    • B. 

      Erase the running configuration and reboot the switch.

    • C. 

      Delete the startup configuration and the vlan.dat file in the flash memory of the switch and reboot the switch.

    • D. 

      Delete the IP address that is assigned to the management VLAN and reboot the switch.

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