Erj Systems Quiz - Chi

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| By Phyllis
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Phyllis
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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 75
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  • 1/56 Questions

    When would the landing gear override switch be used to lower the landing gear ?

    • When the LGEU has failed
    • After Hydraulic system 2 failure
    • After Hydraulic system 1 failure
    • All of the above
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About This Quiz

The ERJ systems quiz focuses on critical aircraft systems like landing gear, oxygen deployment, and yaw damper limits. It tests knowledge essential for maintaining and operating the Embraer ERJ family aircraft, ensuring readiness for real-world aerospace challenges.

Erj Systems Quiz - Chi - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Placing the passenger Oxygen knob to MANUAL will deploy the oxygen mask:

    • Only when the aircraft is in flight

    • Only when the aircraft is in essential power

    • Anytime the aircraft is powered up

    • When cabin Altitude exceeds 14,000ft

    Correct Answer
    A. Anytime the aircraft is powered up
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Anytime the aircraft is powered up." This means that the oxygen mask will be deployed whenever the aircraft is turned on, regardless of whether it is in flight or on the ground. This is a safety measure to ensure that passengers have access to oxygen in case of an emergency or sudden loss of cabin pressure.

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  • 3. 

    Nose wheel steering utilises?

    • Is electropneumatic

    • Hydraulic System 2

    • Both Hydraulic Systems

    • Hydraulic System 1

    Correct Answer
    A. Hydraulic System 1
    Explanation
    Nose wheel steering utilizes Hydraulic System 1.

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  • 4. 

    When the gear lever is moved to the UP position, the brake control Unit ( BCU) automatically applies brakes to the main wheels 

    • TRUE

    • FALSE

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. TRUE
    Explanation
    When the gear lever is moved to the UP position, the brake control unit (BCU) automatically applies brakes to the main wheels. This means that when the gear lever is shifted to the UP position, the BCU detects this action and triggers the application of brakes to the main wheels. This is done to ensure the safety and stability of the vehicle while it is in motion.

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  • 5. 

    The Gust lock prevents movement of the:

    • Elevator

    • Inboard spoilers while in flight

    • Ailerons

    • Rudder

    Correct Answer
    A. Elevator
    Explanation
    The Gust lock is a mechanism that prevents movement of the elevator while the aircraft is parked or on the ground. This is important because the elevator controls the pitch of the aircraft, allowing it to climb or descend. By locking the elevator, the aircraft is kept in a stable position, preventing any unintended movement or damage.

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  • 6. 

    The maximum landing gear retraction speed is?

    • 320 KIAS or M 0.78

    • 200 KIAS

    • 145 KIAS

    • 250 KIAS

    Correct Answer
    A. 200 KIAS
    Explanation
    The maximum landing gear retraction speed is 200 KIAS. This means that the landing gear should not be retracted at a speed higher than 200 knots indicated airspeed. Retracting the landing gear at speeds higher than this could potentially damage the aircraft.

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  • 7. 

    The green flight crew oxygen system safety disk:

    • Prevents contamination of the discharge line

    • Is located within the oxygen servicing panel

    • Turns red when the pressure is low

    • May indicate that an over pressure has occured

    Correct Answer
    A. May indicate that an over pressure has occured
    Explanation
    The green flight crew oxygen system safety disk may indicate that an over pressure has occurred. This means that if the pressure in the system becomes too high, the safety disk will turn red, serving as a visual indication for the crew. This is an important safety feature as it alerts the crew to a potential issue with the oxygen system, allowing them to take appropriate action to prevent any further problems or hazards.

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  • 8. 

    The EICAS reversionary buttons must be pressed to display data from the DAU channel B

    • TRUE

    • FALSE

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. TRUE
    Explanation
    Pressing the EICAS reversionary buttons is necessary to display data from the DAU channel B. This implies that the EICAS system has two channels, A and B, and the reversionary buttons allow switching between these channels. By pressing these buttons, the data from channel B can be accessed and displayed. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 9. 

    IF both PILOTS have the FMS navigation information displayed in a single FMS aircraft, what colour will the FMS navigation information on the CDI be

    • Both pilots cannot display FMS Information simultaneously in a single FMS aircraft

    • Green

    • Yellow

    • Magenta

    Correct Answer
    A. Yellow
  • 10. 

    A 'CAS MSG' on the PFD indicates:

    • A SG reversion has been selected

    • IAS displayed on each PFD differs by more than 5kts

    • A disagreement between IC-600S on the EICAS messages displayed

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. A disagreement between IC-600S on the EICAS messages displayed
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "A disagreement between IC-600S on the EICAS messages displayed." This means that there is a disagreement between the Integrated Control and Display System (IC-600S) on the Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor (EICAS) messages being displayed. This could indicate a communication or synchronization issue between the systems, which may require further investigation or troubleshooting to resolve.

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  • 11. 

    A DC bus 2 Failure can be identified by:

    • A Res X on PFD 1, MFD 2, and EICAS

    • Red X on MFD 2, MFD 1 and PFD 2 is blank

    • PFD 2 and MFD 2 are blank

    • Red X on PFD 2 and MFD 2. PFD 1 is blank

    Correct Answer
    A. Red X on MFD 2, MFD 1 and PFD 2 is blank
    Explanation
    When there is a DC bus 2 failure, the MFD 2, MFD 1, and PFD 2 screens will display a red X, indicating a failure. Additionally, the PFD 1 screen will be blank. This combination of a red X on MFD 2, MFD 1, and PFD 2 being blank is the identifying characteristic of a DC bus 2 failure.

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  • 12. 

    Air red X on the airspeed tape would indicate

    • A failure associated with one of the aircraft Symbol generators

    • A failure associated with the Attitude Heading Reference System (AHRS)

    • A failure associated with the Air Data Computer ( ADC)

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. A failure associated with the Air Data Computer ( ADC)
    Explanation
    Air red X on the airspeed tape would indicate a failure associated with the Air Data Computer (ADC). The airspeed tape on an aircraft displays the airspeed, and if there is a red X on it, it means that the airspeed data is not being received or processed correctly by the ADC. The ADC is responsible for collecting and processing various air data, such as airspeed, altitude, and temperature, and providing accurate information to other systems and instruments on the aircraft. Therefore, a failure in the ADC would result in incorrect or missing airspeed data, which is indicated by the red X on the airspeed tape.

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  • 13. 

    The flight deck direct vision windows should be verified closed by:

    • The WINDOW NOT CLOSED inscription in the opening and the indicator pin on the window handle are not visible

    • The flight deck direct vision windows do not open

    • The MFD systems T/O page shows all doors are closed

    • The EICAS Message COCKPIT WINDOW CLOSED is not present

    Correct Answer
    A. The WINDOW NOT CLOSED inscription in the opening and the indicator pin on the window handle are not visible
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the WINDOW NOT CLOSED inscription in the opening and the indicator pin on the window handle are not visible. This means that the windows are closed properly, as indicated by the absence of the inscription and the pin being hidden.

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  • 14. 

    In essential power configurations ( w/loss of all generators)

    • The FMS remains powered

    • VOR approaches are impossible since the PFD is blank

    • VOR-DME approaches can be flown using the standby instruments

    • VOR (No DME) approaches can be flown using the RMU navigation page

    Correct Answer
    A. VOR (No DME) approaches can be flown using the RMU navigation page
    Explanation
    In essential power configurations with a loss of all generators, the FMS (Flight Management System) remains powered. VOR approaches are not possible because the PFD (Primary Flight Display) is blank. However, VOR-DME approaches can still be flown using the standby instruments. Additionally, VOR (No DME) approaches can be flown using the RMU (Radio Management Unit) navigation page. This means that pilots can still navigate and perform VOR approaches without DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) using the RMU navigation page.

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  • 15. 

    Where is the APU located on the ERJ

    • In a compartment in the tail of the aircraft

    • In the right main wheel well

    • The ERJ does not have an APU

    • Underneath the flight deck door

    Correct Answer
    A. In a compartment in the tail of the aircraft
    Explanation
    The APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) on the ERJ (Embraer Regional Jet) is located in a compartment in the tail of the aircraft. This means that it is situated at the rear end of the plane, separate from the main engines. The APU is responsible for providing power to the aircraft when the main engines are not running, such as during ground operations or in the event of an engine failure. Placing it in the tail compartment helps to distribute weight evenly and allows for easier maintenance and access.

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  • 16. 

    With a loss of Generator 1 and the APU OFF, the aircraft still has 2 independent electrical systems

    • TRUE

    • FALSE

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. FALSE
    Explanation
    The statement in the question is false. If Generator 1 is lost and the APU is off, the aircraft will have only one independent electrical system remaining. The loss of Generator 1 means that one of the two generators providing power to the electrical systems is no longer functioning. Therefore, the aircraft will not have two independent electrical systems.

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  • 17. 

    The EICAS is available in Essential power

    • TRUE

    • FALSE

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. TRUE
    Explanation
    The EICAS (Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System) is a system that provides essential information to the pilots about the status of the aircraft's engine and other important systems. It is crucial for the pilots to have access to this information, especially during essential power situations when other systems may not be functioning properly. Therefore, it is true that the EICAS is available in Essential power.

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  • 18. 

    Select the correct statement regarding  " ATS SOV OPEN "

    • Shut the engine down immediately and call maintenance

    • Shut the engine down and call for the ATS SOV OPEN QRH

    • Leave the engine running and call for the Abnormal Engine start QRH

    • DLeave the engine running and call for the ATS SOV OPEN QRH

    Correct Answer
    A. DLeave the engine running and call for the ATS SOV OPEN QRH
  • 19. 

    Engine oil quantity may be monitored on the 

    • MFD Hydraulic page

    • RMU maintenance page

    • MFD take off page

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. MFD take off page
    Explanation
    On the MFD take off page, the engine oil quantity can be monitored. This page provides information specifically related to the take off phase of the flight, which includes important parameters such as engine performance and fuel status. Monitoring the engine oil quantity during take off is crucial to ensure the engine is properly lubricated and functioning optimally for a safe flight. Therefore, the MFD take off page is the correct option for monitoring engine oil quantity.

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  • 20. 

    The A1E Engines are limited to 

    • 901C for continuous thrust

    • 880C for starting

    • 948C for all operations

    • 971C to 992C for 90 seconds for all take off thrust modes

    Correct Answer
    A. 971C to 992C for 90 seconds for all take off thrust modes
    Explanation
    The A1E Engines have different thrust limitations for different modes of operation. For continuous thrust, the engines are limited to 901C. During starting, the limit is 880C. For all other operations, the engines can operate at a maximum of 948C. However, during takeoff, the engines can temporarily operate at higher thrust levels of 971C to 992C for a duration of 90 seconds.

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  • 21. 

    Maximum fuel tank temperature is:

    • -21.5 C

    • 52 C

    • 40 C

    • 48 C

    Correct Answer
    A. 52 C
    Explanation
    The maximum fuel tank temperature is 52 degrees Celsius. This means that the fuel tank can withstand temperatures up to 52 degrees Celsius without any damage or adverse effects.

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  • 22. 

    Under which conditions should the ignition switch be placed in the ON position for engine starts

    • When the temperature is below 5 degrees C and the engines have been shut down for more than 90 min

    • When the temperature is below 10 degrees C and the engines have shut down for more than 90min

    • All engines starts that take place in Canada

    • When the engines are started with a strong tailwind

    Correct Answer
    A. When the temperature is below 10 degrees C and the engines have shut down for more than 90min
    Explanation
    When the temperature is below 10 degrees C and the engines have shut down for more than 90min, the ignition switch should be placed in the ON position for engine starts. This is because cold temperatures can affect the performance of the engine, and allowing the engines to warm up for a longer period of time can help ensure a smooth start. Additionally, shutting down the engines for more than 90 minutes indicates a longer period of inactivity, which may require extra precautions for engine starts.

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  • 23. 

    How can fuel quantity measured in the event of a fuel quantity indication MEL

    • By inserting the Wing Tank Measuring Dipstick into the over wing refuelling port and applying the appropriate MEL procedure

    • The fuel tanks must always be topped off with a fuel quantity indication MEL and therefore quantity does not need to be measured

    • Through the use of Direct measuring sticks and the appropriate MEL procedures

    • The aircraft cannot be operated with fuel quantity indication MEL

    Correct Answer
    A. Through the use of Direct measuring sticks and the appropriate MEL procedures
  • 24. 

    If a thrust lever - reverser deploys inflight 

    • There is no automatic reaction

    • The FADEC reduces the trust to idle automatically

    • The engine shuts down automatically

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. The FADEC reduces the trust to idle automatically
    Explanation
    If a thrust lever-reverser deploys in-flight, the correct answer is that the FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) reduces the thrust to idle automatically. This means that the engine power is decreased to a minimum level, which helps to maintain control and stability of the aircraft during the abnormal situation. The other options, such as there being no automatic reaction or the engine shutting down automatically, are not correct in this scenario.

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  • 25. 

    Reverse thrust may be used to back an aircraft from the gate in the event of inoperative pushback tug

    • TRUE

    • FALSE

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. FALSE
    Explanation
    Reverse thrust is not used to back an aircraft from the gate in the event of an inoperative pushback tug. Reverse thrust is a technique used during landing to slow down the aircraft after touchdown by directing the engine thrust forward. It is not intended or designed for maneuvering an aircraft on the ground. In the event of an inoperative pushback tug, alternative methods such as a towbar or a replacement tug would be used to move the aircraft.

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  • 26. 

    Assuming usable fuel in the XR VENTRAL TANK, fuel transfer will automatically occur in the auto mode

    • 30 sec after both wing tanks reach 4630 Ibs

    • 30 sec after either wing tanks reaches 4630 lbs

    • 30 sec after the left wing tank reaches 4360 lbs

    • The FMS shows fuel remaining on arrival or less than 1800 Ibs

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 sec after both wing tanks reach 4630 Ibs
    Explanation
    In the XR VENTRAL TANK, fuel transfer will automatically occur in the auto mode 30 seconds after both wing tanks reach 4630 lbs. This means that once both wing tanks reach this specific fuel level, the fuel transfer system will activate and start transferring fuel to the ventral tank. This helps to balance the fuel distribution and ensure that the aircraft remains properly balanced during flight.

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  • 27. 

    Take off with the FUEL imbalance message presented is permissable 

    • As long as the imbalance does not exceed 100 Lbs

    • Only if fuel cross feed is used during the take off

    • Never

    • As long as the imbalance does not exceed 800Ilbs

    Correct Answer
    A. As long as the imbalance does not exceed 800Ilbs
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that it is permissible to take off with the FUEL imbalance message as long as the imbalance does not exceed 800 lbs. This means that if the difference in fuel quantity between the tanks is less than or equal to 800 lbs, it is acceptable to proceed with the takeoff. However, if the imbalance exceeds this limit, it would not be advisable to take off due to the potential impact on the aircraft's stability and performance.

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  • 28. 

    The first officer must set the flight number in their clock so the DFDR is able to correlate recorded data to a specific flight number 

    • TRUE

    • FALSE

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. FALSE
    Explanation
    The statement is false because it is the responsibility of the captain, not the first officer, to set the flight number in their clock. The flight number is used by the DFDR (Digital Flight Data Recorder) to correlate recorded data to a specific flight.

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  • 29. 

    The EICAS message AURAL unit fail means

    • DAU2B has failed

    • The digital audio panel is inoperative

    • Both aural unit channels have failed

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Both aural unit channels have failed
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Both aural unit channels have failed." This means that both channels of the aural unit, which is responsible for producing audio alerts and warnings in the aircraft, have stopped functioning. This can be a critical issue as it may result in the pilot not receiving important auditory information during flight.

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  • 30. 

    An amber IAS flag on the PFD indicates

    • There is a disagreement between the CA and FO indicated airspeeds

    • Approaching maximum airspeed ( redline)

    • There is a disagreement between the Standby airspeed and the CA and FOs indicated airspeed

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. There is a disagreement between the CA and FO indicated airspeeds
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that an amber IAS flag on the PFD indicates a disagreement between the Captain (CA) and First Officer (FO) indicated airspeeds. This means that the airspeed readings displayed for the Captain and First Officer are not matching or are inconsistent, which could be a cause for concern and may require further investigation or troubleshooting.

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  • 31. 

    If the digital audio panel fails, the EMER button may be pressed to:

    • Connect the captain only to COM 1 and NAV 1 and FO to COM2 and NAV 2

    • Illuminates the EMER button on the Flight attendant interphone

    • Commands the TBCH to operate in the emergency mode

    • Automatically switched to VHF 1 to 121.50

    Correct Answer
    A. Connect the captain only to COM 1 and NAV 1 and FO to COM2 and NAV 2
    Explanation
    Pressing the EMER button when the digital audio panel fails will connect the captain only to COM 1 and NAV 1, and the first officer (FO) to COM 2 and NAV 2. This means that the captain will have communication and navigation capabilities through COM 1 and NAV 1, while the FO will have the same capabilities through COM 2 and NAV 2. This allows for continued communication and navigation in the event of a digital audio panel failure.

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  • 32. 

    If the crew fails to set the correct altitude in the Auto pressurization controller, the system defaults to an latitude of

    • 8000ft

    • 14500ft

    • 6000ft

    • 10000ft

    Correct Answer
    A. 8000ft
    Explanation
    If the crew fails to set the correct altitude in the Auto pressurization controller, the system defaults to an altitude of 8000ft. This means that if the crew does not input the desired altitude, the system will automatically maintain a cabin pressure equivalent to an altitude of 8000ft. This default setting ensures that there is a safe and comfortable cabin environment for the passengers and crew during the flight.

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  • 33. 

    The crew can turn off the gasper fan while on the ground

    • TRUE

    • FALSE

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. FALSE
    Explanation
    The statement is false because the crew cannot turn off the gasper fan while on the ground. The gasper fan is an essential component of the aircraft's ventilation system and is typically operated by the ground crew or maintenance personnel. It helps to distribute air throughout the cabin during the flight to ensure passenger comfort. Therefore, it cannot be turned off by the crew while the aircraft is on the ground.

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  • 34. 

    To perform A ice protection test 

    • The engine bleed valves must be open

    • The engine thrust must be set at a min of 83% N1

    • All three bleed valves must be closed

    • Engine, wing and stab anti ice must be selected OFF

    Correct Answer
    A. The engine bleed valves must be open
    Explanation
    In order to perform an ice protection test, the engine bleed valves must be open. This is because the bleed valves allow hot compressed air from the engine to be directed to the wing and stab anti-ice systems, preventing ice formation. By keeping the bleed valves open during the test, the anti-ice systems can be properly evaluated and checked for their effectiveness in preventing ice buildup.

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  • 35. 

    During all ground operations, the RAM air doors for both PACKS should be in the emergency position

    • TRUE

    • FALSE

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. FALSE
    Explanation
    The correct answer is FALSE because during all ground operations, the RAM air doors for both PACKS should be in the normal position, not the emergency position. The emergency position is used only during certain abnormal situations or in-flight emergencies.

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  • 36. 

    What does the " OPEN ' inscription on the APU bleed button indicate

    • The APU bleed valve has been commanded open. A white lighted bar will indicate when the valve actually opens

    • The position of the APU bleed valve is now "open to inspection"

    • That the APU bleed valve is actually open

    • The APU bleed valve is closed

    Correct Answer
    A. That the APU bleed valve is actually open
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the "OPEN" inscription on the APU bleed button indicates that the APU bleed valve is actually open. This means that the valve has been commanded to open and a white lighted bar will indicate when the valve actually opens.

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  • 37. 

    There are .......... pressurizations outflow valve on the ERJ

    • 5

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2. This suggests that there are two pressurization outflow valves on the ERJ.

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  • 38. 

    Pilot/static tube #3 receives electrical heat from

    • The shed bus

    • DC Bus 2

    • The essential buses

    • DC bus 1

    Correct Answer
    A. The essential buses
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "The essential buses." The essential buses provide electrical heat to pilot/static tube #3.

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  • 39. 

    During Take off with the PACKs ON, when does the aircraft begin to pressurise

    • At 80kts

    • When thrust lever are advanced for take off

    • When the main cabin door is closed

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. When thrust lever are advanced for take off
    Explanation
    When the thrust levers are advanced for takeoff, the aircraft begins to pressurize. This is because as the engines generate more power, the air conditioning packs on the aircraft start to provide compressed air to the cabin, which is then pressurized to maintain a safe and comfortable environment for the passengers and crew during the flight. The main cabin door being closed is not directly related to the pressurization process and happens before the engines are started. Therefore, the correct answer is when the thrust levers are advanced for takeoff.

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  • 40. 

    The EICAS message " EMG LT NOT ARMD" will never be displayed when the cockpit emergency light switch is in the ARMED position

    • TRUE

    • FALSE

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. TRUE
    Explanation
    When the cockpit emergency light switch is in the ARMED position, the emergency lights are armed and ready to be activated in case of an emergency. The EICAS message "EMG LT NOT ARMD" indicates that the emergency lights are not armed. Therefore, if the cockpit emergency light switch is in the ARMED position, it is not possible for the EICAS message "EMG LT NOT ARMD" to be displayed. Hence, the statement is true.

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  • 41. 

    How many cargo fire extinguishing bottles are installed on the plane

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2 because cargo fire extinguishing bottles are typically installed in pairs on airplanes. This is to ensure that there is a backup in case one bottle fails to extinguish the fire. Having two bottles provides redundancy and increases the effectiveness of fire suppression in the cargo area.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following messages would indicate a good fire test 

    • LAV SMOKE

    • APU FIRE LP FAIL

    • BAGG SMOKE

    • E1(2) EXBTL A(B) INOP

    Correct Answer
    A. BAGG SMOKE
    Explanation
    The message "BAGG SMOKE" indicates a good fire test because it suggests that the smoke detection system in the baggage compartment is functioning properly. This message could be part of a routine fire test to ensure that the system is able to detect smoke in the event of a fire.

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  • 43. 

    With the APU bleed valve selected OPEN, If engine 1 bleed valve is also opened

    • Bothe valves can be opened at the same time

    • Bothe valves close

    • The APU bleed valve closes

    • The engine bleed valve closes

    Correct Answer
    A. The APU bleed valve closes
    Explanation
    When the APU bleed valve is selected OPEN and the engine 1 bleed valve is also opened, the APU bleed valve will close. This is because the APU bleed valve is designed to close when the engine bleed valve is opened to prevent any loss of bleed air pressure. Therefore, when both valves are opened at the same time, the APU bleed valve will automatically close.

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  • 44. 

    When should the electric hydraulic pumps be tested

    • Prior to each flight

    • Prior to the first flight of the day

    • The hydraulic pumps do not need to be tested

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Prior to the first flight of the day
    Explanation
    The electric hydraulic pumps should be tested prior to the first flight of the day. This is important to ensure that the pumps are functioning correctly and there are no issues that could affect the aircraft's hydraulic system during the flight. Testing the pumps before each flight is not necessary as long as they have been tested prior to the first flight of the day. The option "The hydraulic pumps do not need to be tested" is incorrect because regular testing is essential for the safety and proper functioning of the hydraulic system. Therefore, the correct answer is "Prior to the first flight of the day."

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  • 45. 

    In the event of an APU fire in flight

    • The APU will not shut down automatically

    • The APU will shut down automatically after a 10 second delay

    • Perform the APU fire memory items

    • The APU fire extinguishing bottle discharges automatically

    Correct Answer
    A. The APU will not shut down automatically
    Explanation
    In the event of an APU fire in flight, the APU will not shut down automatically. This means that the pilot will have to manually shut down the APU in order to stop the fire. The fact that the APU does not shut down automatically suggests that immediate action is required from the pilot to prevent further damage or danger.

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  • 46. 

    Which EICAS message should be present prior attempting APU start on AHRS- 900 equipped aircraft

    • AHRS 1(2) ALN FAULT Caution

    • AHRS 1(2) ON BATT Advisory

    • AHRS 1(2) ALN Advisory

    • AHRS 1(2) BASIC MODE Advisory

    Correct Answer
    A. AHRS 1(2) ALN Advisory
    Explanation
    The AHRS 1(2) ALN Advisory message should be present prior to attempting APU start on AHRS-900 equipped aircraft. This advisory message indicates that there is an alignment error in the Attitude Heading Reference System (AHRS) 1 or 2. It is important to resolve this error before starting the APU to ensure accurate and reliable data for the aircraft's systems.

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  • 47. 

    The following indications reflect a successful hydraulic system test 

    • Engine driven pumps producing pressure when the engines are at 56.2 N2

    • Electric pumps to ON, 1600 PSI

    • Electric pumps to AUTO, 3000 PSI +/_ 200, Electric pumps to ON 3000 PSI +/_200

    • Electric pumps to AUTO, 2900 PSI +/_ 200, Electric pumps to ON 2900 PSI +/_200

    Correct Answer
    A. Electric pumps to AUTO, 2900 PSI +/_ 200, Electric pumps to ON 2900 PSI +/_200
    Explanation
    The indication of electric pumps being switched to AUTO and producing a pressure of 2900 PSI +/- 200, followed by switching them to ON and maintaining a pressure of 2900 PSI +/- 200, reflects a successful hydraulic system test. This indicates that the electric pumps are functioning properly and are able to maintain the desired pressure within the specified range.

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  • 48. 

    Take off with the FUEL IMBALANCE message presented is permissible

    • As long as the imbalance does not exceed 100 ILS

    • Only is the fuel is used during take off

    • Never

    • As long as the imbalance does not exceed 800 ILS

    Correct Answer
    A. As long as the imbalance does not exceed 800 ILS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that it is permissible to take off with the FUEL IMBALANCE message as long as the imbalance does not exceed 800 ILS. This means that if the difference in fuel quantity between the left and right tanks is less than or equal to 800 ILS (International Standard Liter), it is considered acceptable to proceed with the takeoff. However, if the imbalance exceeds this limit, it would not be advisable to take off due to safety concerns.

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  • 49. 

    The maximum airspeed above 10,000ft with the yaw damper dis-enganged with flaps 22 (XR) IS 

    • 180

    • 200

    • 160

    • 145

    Correct Answer
    A. 180
    Explanation
    The maximum airspeed above 10,000ft with the yaw damper disengaged and flaps set to 22 (XR) is 180. This means that the aircraft can safely fly at a maximum speed of 180 knots when these conditions are met.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 02, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Phyllis
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