Erj Systems Quiz - Chi
- 1.
When would the landing gear override switch be used to lower the landing gear ?
- A.
When the LGEU has failed
- B.
After Hydraulic system 2 failure
- C.
After Hydraulic system 1 failure
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. When the LGEU has failedExplanation
The landing gear override switch would be used to lower the landing gear when the LGEU (Landing Gear Electronic Unit) has failed. This switch allows the pilot to manually control the landing gear in case of a failure in the automated system. It is a safety measure to ensure that the landing gear can still be deployed even if there is a malfunction in the LGEU.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Placing the passenger Oxygen knob to MANUAL will deploy the oxygen mask:
- A.
Only when the aircraft is in flight
- B.
Only when the aircraft is in essential power
- C.
Anytime the aircraft is powered up
- D.
When cabin Altitude exceeds 14,000ft
Correct Answer
C. Anytime the aircraft is powered upExplanation
The correct answer is "Anytime the aircraft is powered up." This means that the oxygen mask will be deployed whenever the aircraft is turned on, regardless of whether it is in flight or on the ground. This is a safety measure to ensure that passengers have access to oxygen in case of an emergency or sudden loss of cabin pressure.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The maximum airspeed above 10,000ft with the yaw damper dis-enganged with flaps 22 (XR) IS
- A.
180
- B.
200
- C.
160
- D.
145
Correct Answer
A. 180Explanation
The maximum airspeed above 10,000ft with the yaw damper disengaged and flaps set to 22 (XR) is 180. This means that the aircraft can safely fly at a maximum speed of 180 knots when these conditions are met.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Nose wheel steering utilises?
- A.
Is electropneumatic
- B.
Hydraulic System 2
- C.
Both Hydraulic Systems
- D.
Hydraulic System 1
Correct Answer
D. Hydraulic System 1Explanation
Nose wheel steering utilizes Hydraulic System 1.Rate this question:
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- 5.
When the gear lever is moved to the UP position, the brake control Unit ( BCU) automatically applies brakes to the main wheels
- A.
TRUE
- B.
FALSE
- C.
Option 3
- D.
Option 4
Correct Answer
A. TRUEExplanation
When the gear lever is moved to the UP position, the brake control unit (BCU) automatically applies brakes to the main wheels. This means that when the gear lever is shifted to the UP position, the BCU detects this action and triggers the application of brakes to the main wheels. This is done to ensure the safety and stability of the vehicle while it is in motion.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The Gust lock prevents movement of the:
- A.
Elevator
- B.
Inboard spoilers while in flight
- C.
Ailerons
- D.
Rudder
Correct Answer
A. ElevatorExplanation
The Gust lock is a mechanism that prevents movement of the elevator while the aircraft is parked or on the ground. This is important because the elevator controls the pitch of the aircraft, allowing it to climb or descend. By locking the elevator, the aircraft is kept in a stable position, preventing any unintended movement or damage.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The crew oxygen is tested as part of which flow/checkslist?
- A.
The First flight Check
- B.
The receiving check
- C.
The engine start check
- D.
The before start Check
Correct Answer
D. The before start CheckExplanation
The correct answer is the before start check. During the before start check, the crew oxygen is tested to ensure that it is functioning properly before the flight takes off. This is an important step in ensuring the safety of the crew members in case of any emergency situations that may require the use of oxygen masks.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The ERJ is approved to take off using which flap settings?
- A.
Flaps 9 and 18
- B.
Flaps 9, 18, 22 and 45
- C.
Flaps 9
- D.
Flaps 9, 18 and 22
Correct Answer
D. Flaps 9, 18 and 22Explanation
The ERJ is approved to take off using flap settings of 9, 18, and 22. This means that the pilot can choose any of these flap settings for takeoff depending on the specific conditions of the flight. The different flap settings provide varying amounts of lift and drag, allowing the pilot to adjust the aircraft's performance during takeoff.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The maximum landing gear retraction speed is?
- A.
320 KIAS or M 0.78
- B.
200 KIAS
- C.
145 KIAS
- D.
250 KIAS
Correct Answer
B. 200 KIASExplanation
The maximum landing gear retraction speed is 200 KIAS. This means that the landing gear should not be retracted at a speed higher than 200 knots indicated airspeed. Retracting the landing gear at speeds higher than this could potentially damage the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The green flight crew oxygen system safety disk:
- A.
Prevents contamination of the discharge line
- B.
Is located within the oxygen servicing panel
- C.
Turns red when the pressure is low
- D.
May indicate that an over pressure has occured
Correct Answer
D. May indicate that an over pressure has occuredExplanation
The green flight crew oxygen system safety disk may indicate that an over pressure has occurred. This means that if the pressure in the system becomes too high, the safety disk will turn red, serving as a visual indication for the crew. This is an important safety feature as it alerts the crew to a potential issue with the oxygen system, allowing them to take appropriate action to prevent any further problems or hazards.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The EICAS reversionary buttons must be pressed to display data from the DAU channel B
- A.
TRUE
- B.
FALSE
- C.
Option 3
- D.
Option 4
Correct Answer
A. TRUEExplanation
Pressing the EICAS reversionary buttons is necessary to display data from the DAU channel B. This implies that the EICAS system has two channels, A and B, and the reversionary buttons allow switching between these channels. By pressing these buttons, the data from channel B can be accessed and displayed. Therefore, the statement is true.Rate this question:
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- 12.
IF both PILOTS have the FMS navigation information displayed in a single FMS aircraft, what colour will the FMS navigation information on the CDI be
- A.
Both pilots cannot display FMS Information simultaneously in a single FMS aircraft
- B.
Green
- C.
Yellow
- D.
Magenta
Correct Answer
C. Yellow -
- 13.
A 'CAS MSG' on the PFD indicates:
- A.
A SG reversion has been selected
- B.
IAS displayed on each PFD differs by more than 5kts
- C.
A disagreement between IC-600S on the EICAS messages displayed
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. A disagreement between IC-600S on the EICAS messages displayedExplanation
The correct answer is "A disagreement between IC-600S on the EICAS messages displayed." This means that there is a disagreement between the Integrated Control and Display System (IC-600S) on the Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor (EICAS) messages being displayed. This could indicate a communication or synchronization issue between the systems, which may require further investigation or troubleshooting to resolve.Rate this question:
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- 14.
A DC bus 2 Failure can be identified by:
- A.
A Res X on PFD 1, MFD 2, and EICAS
- B.
Red X on MFD 2, MFD 1 and PFD 2 is blank
- C.
PFD 2 and MFD 2 are blank
- D.
Red X on PFD 2 and MFD 2. PFD 1 is blank
Correct Answer
B. Red X on MFD 2, MFD 1 and PFD 2 is blankExplanation
When there is a DC bus 2 failure, the MFD 2, MFD 1, and PFD 2 screens will display a red X, indicating a failure. Additionally, the PFD 1 screen will be blank. This combination of a red X on MFD 2, MFD 1, and PFD 2 being blank is the identifying characteristic of a DC bus 2 failure.Rate this question:
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- 15.
COM 3 cannot be used for voice communication when the EMER button is pushed in (selected) on the digital audio panel:
- A.
TRUE
- B.
FALSE
- C.
Option 3
- D.
Option 4
Correct Answer
A. TRUEExplanation
When the EMER button is pushed in (selected) on the digital audio panel, COM 3 cannot be used for voice communication. This means that if there is an emergency and the EMER button is activated, COM 3 will not be available for transmitting or receiving voice communication.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Air red X on the airspeed tape would indicate
- A.
A failure associated with one of the aircraft Symbol generators
- B.
A failure associated with the Attitude Heading Reference System (AHRS)
- C.
A failure associated with the Air Data Computer ( ADC)
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. A failure associated with the Air Data Computer ( ADC)Explanation
Air red X on the airspeed tape would indicate a failure associated with the Air Data Computer (ADC). The airspeed tape on an aircraft displays the airspeed, and if there is a red X on it, it means that the airspeed data is not being received or processed correctly by the ADC. The ADC is responsible for collecting and processing various air data, such as airspeed, altitude, and temperature, and providing accurate information to other systems and instruments on the aircraft. Therefore, a failure in the ADC would result in incorrect or missing airspeed data, which is indicated by the red X on the airspeed tape.Rate this question:
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- 17.
The flight deck direct vision windows should be verified closed by:
- A.
The WINDOW NOT CLOSED inscription in the opening and the indicator pin on the window handle are not visible
- B.
The flight deck direct vision windows do not open
- C.
The MFD systems T/O page shows all doors are closed
- D.
The EICAS Message COCKPIT WINDOW CLOSED is not present
Correct Answer
A. The WINDOW NOT CLOSED inscription in the opening and the indicator pin on the window handle are not visibleExplanation
The correct answer is that the WINDOW NOT CLOSED inscription in the opening and the indicator pin on the window handle are not visible. This means that the windows are closed properly, as indicated by the absence of the inscription and the pin being hidden.Rate this question:
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- 18.
In essential power configurations ( w/loss of all generators)
- A.
The FMS remains powered
- B.
VOR approaches are impossible since the PFD is blank
- C.
VOR-DME approaches can be flown using the standby instruments
- D.
VOR (No DME) approaches can be flown using the RMU navigation page
Correct Answer
D. VOR (No DME) approaches can be flown using the RMU navigation pageExplanation
In essential power configurations with a loss of all generators, the FMS (Flight Management System) remains powered. VOR approaches are not possible because the PFD (Primary Flight Display) is blank. However, VOR-DME approaches can still be flown using the standby instruments. Additionally, VOR (No DME) approaches can be flown using the RMU (Radio Management Unit) navigation page. This means that pilots can still navigate and perform VOR approaches without DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) using the RMU navigation page.Rate this question:
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- 19.
On the ground with the main batteries as the only source of electrical power:
- A.
The main batteries will power the aircraft for at least 40mins
- B.
The shed buses are available if the shed bus knob is OVRD
- C.
Only essentially – powered items receive power
- D.
AC and DC power (except for the shed buses) is available
Correct Answer
D. AC and DC power (except for the shed buses) is availableExplanation
The given answer states that AC and DC power (except for the shed buses) is available when the main batteries are the only source of electrical power on the ground. This means that all electrical systems in the aircraft can be powered, except for the shed buses. The shed buses can still be powered if the shed bus knob is overridden. This information suggests that the main batteries have sufficient power to provide electrical supply for the aircraft for at least 40 minutes.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Where is the APU located on the ERJ
- A.
In a compartment in the tail of the aircraft
- B.
In the right main wheel well
- C.
The ERJ does not have an APU
- D.
Underneath the flight deck door
Correct Answer
A. In a compartment in the tail of the aircraftExplanation
The APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) on the ERJ (Embraer Regional Jet) is located in a compartment in the tail of the aircraft. This means that it is situated at the rear end of the plane, separate from the main engines. The APU is responsible for providing power to the aircraft when the main engines are not running, such as during ground operations or in the event of an engine failure. Placing it in the tail compartment helps to distribute weight evenly and allows for easier maintenance and access.Rate this question:
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- 21.
The SHED buses are powered
- A.
With 3 Generators on-line, shed bus in AUTO, or OVRD
- B.
With the GPU selected, shed bus knob in AUTO or OVRD
- C.
With the APU off, one engine shut down and the shed bus knob in AUTO
- D.
A and B are correct
Correct Answer
B. With the GPU selected, shed bus knob in AUTO or OVRDExplanation
The correct answer is A and B because when the GPU (Ground Power Unit) is selected and the shed bus knob is in AUTO or OVRD (Override) mode, the SHED buses will be powered. This means that the power supply for the buses is being provided by the external GPU rather than the internal generators or engines.Rate this question:
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- 22.
With a loss of Generator 1 and the APU OFF, the aircraft still has 2 independent electrical systems
- A.
TRUE
- B.
FALSE
- C.
Option 3
- D.
Option 4
Correct Answer
B. FALSEExplanation
The statement in the question is false. If Generator 1 is lost and the APU is off, the aircraft will have only one independent electrical system remaining. The loss of Generator 1 means that one of the two generators providing power to the electrical systems is no longer functioning. Therefore, the aircraft will not have two independent electrical systems.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The EICAS is available in Essential power
- A.
TRUE
- B.
FALSE
- C.
Option 3
- D.
Option 4
Correct Answer
A. TRUEExplanation
The EICAS (Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System) is a system that provides essential information to the pilots about the status of the aircraft's engine and other important systems. It is crucial for the pilots to have access to this information, especially during essential power situations when other systems may not be functioning properly. Therefore, it is true that the EICAS is available in Essential power.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Select the correct statement regarding " ATS SOV OPEN "
- A.
Shut the engine down immediately and call maintenance
- B.
Shut the engine down and call for the ATS SOV OPEN QRH
- C.
Leave the engine running and call for the Abnormal Engine start QRH
- D.
DLeave the engine running and call for the ATS SOV OPEN QRH
Correct Answer
D. DLeave the engine running and call for the ATS SOV OPEN QRH -
- 25.
Engine oil quantity may be monitored on the
- A.
MFD Hydraulic page
- B.
RMU maintenance page
- C.
MFD take off page
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. MFD take off pageExplanation
On the MFD take off page, the engine oil quantity can be monitored. This page provides information specifically related to the take off phase of the flight, which includes important parameters such as engine performance and fuel status. Monitoring the engine oil quantity during take off is crucial to ensure the engine is properly lubricated and functioning optimally for a safe flight. Therefore, the MFD take off page is the correct option for monitoring engine oil quantity.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The A1E Engines are limited to
- A.
901C for continuous thrust
- B.
880C for starting
- C.
948C for all operations
- D.
971C to 992C for 90 seconds for all take off thrust modes
Correct Answer
D. 971C to 992C for 90 seconds for all take off thrust modesExplanation
The A1E Engines have different thrust limitations for different modes of operation. For continuous thrust, the engines are limited to 901C. During starting, the limit is 880C. For all other operations, the engines can operate at a maximum of 948C. However, during takeoff, the engines can temporarily operate at higher thrust levels of 971C to 992C for a duration of 90 seconds.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Maximum fuel tank temperature is:
- A.
-21.5 C
- B.
52 C
- C.
40 C
- D.
48 C
Correct Answer
B. 52 CExplanation
The maximum fuel tank temperature is 52 degrees Celsius. This means that the fuel tank can withstand temperatures up to 52 degrees Celsius without any damage or adverse effects.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Under which conditions should the ignition switch be placed in the ON position for engine starts
- A.
When the temperature is below 5 degrees C and the engines have been shut down for more than 90 min
- B.
When the temperature is below 10 degrees C and the engines have shut down for more than 90min
- C.
All engines starts that take place in Canada
- D.
When the engines are started with a strong tailwind
Correct Answer
B. When the temperature is below 10 degrees C and the engines have shut down for more than 90minExplanation
When the temperature is below 10 degrees C and the engines have shut down for more than 90min, the ignition switch should be placed in the ON position for engine starts. This is because cold temperatures can affect the performance of the engine, and allowing the engines to warm up for a longer period of time can help ensure a smooth start. Additionally, shutting down the engines for more than 90 minutes indicates a longer period of inactivity, which may require extra precautions for engine starts.Rate this question:
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- 29.
How can fuel quantity measured in the event of a fuel quantity indication MEL
- A.
By inserting the Wing Tank Measuring Dipstick into the over wing refuelling port and applying the appropriate MEL procedure
- B.
The fuel tanks must always be topped off with a fuel quantity indication MEL and therefore quantity does not need to be measured
- C.
Through the use of Direct measuring sticks and the appropriate MEL procedures
- D.
The aircraft cannot be operated with fuel quantity indication MEL
Correct Answer
C. Through the use of Direct measuring sticks and the appropriate MEL procedures -
- 30.
If a thrust lever - reverser deploys inflight
- A.
There is no automatic reaction
- B.
The FADEC reduces the trust to idle automatically
- C.
The engine shuts down automatically
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
B. The FADEC reduces the trust to idle automaticallyExplanation
If a thrust lever-reverser deploys in-flight, the correct answer is that the FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) reduces the thrust to idle automatically. This means that the engine power is decreased to a minimum level, which helps to maintain control and stability of the aircraft during the abnormal situation. The other options, such as there being no automatic reaction or the engine shutting down automatically, are not correct in this scenario.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Reverse thrust may be used to back an aircraft from the gate in the event of inoperative pushback tug
- A.
TRUE
- B.
FALSE
- C.
Option 3
- D.
Option 4
Correct Answer
B. FALSEExplanation
Reverse thrust is not used to back an aircraft from the gate in the event of an inoperative pushback tug. Reverse thrust is a technique used during landing to slow down the aircraft after touchdown by directing the engine thrust forward. It is not intended or designed for maneuvering an aircraft on the ground. In the event of an inoperative pushback tug, alternative methods such as a towbar or a replacement tug would be used to move the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Assuming usable fuel in the XR VENTRAL TANK, fuel transfer will automatically occur in the auto mode
- A.
30 sec after both wing tanks reach 4630 Ibs
- B.
30 sec after either wing tanks reaches 4630 lbs
- C.
30 sec after the left wing tank reaches 4360 lbs
- D.
The FMS shows fuel remaining on arrival or less than 1800 Ibs
Correct Answer
A. 30 sec after both wing tanks reach 4630 IbsExplanation
In the XR VENTRAL TANK, fuel transfer will automatically occur in the auto mode 30 seconds after both wing tanks reach 4630 lbs. This means that once both wing tanks reach this specific fuel level, the fuel transfer system will activate and start transferring fuel to the ventral tank. This helps to balance the fuel distribution and ensure that the aircraft remains properly balanced during flight.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Take off with the FUEL imbalance message presented is permissable
- A.
As long as the imbalance does not exceed 100 Lbs
- B.
Only if fuel cross feed is used during the take off
- C.
Never
- D.
As long as the imbalance does not exceed 800Ilbs
Correct Answer
D. As long as the imbalance does not exceed 800IlbsExplanation
The correct answer states that it is permissible to take off with the FUEL imbalance message as long as the imbalance does not exceed 800 lbs. This means that if the difference in fuel quantity between the tanks is less than or equal to 800 lbs, it is acceptable to proceed with the takeoff. However, if the imbalance exceeds this limit, it would not be advisable to take off due to the potential impact on the aircraft's stability and performance.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The first officer must set the flight number in their clock so the DFDR is able to correlate recorded data to a specific flight number
- A.
TRUE
- B.
FALSE
- C.
Option 3
- D.
Option 4
Correct Answer
B. FALSEExplanation
The statement is false because it is the responsibility of the captain, not the first officer, to set the flight number in their clock. The flight number is used by the DFDR (Digital Flight Data Recorder) to correlate recorded data to a specific flight.Rate this question:
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- 35.
The EICAS message AURAL unit fail means
- A.
DAU2B has failed
- B.
The digital audio panel is inoperative
- C.
Both aural unit channels have failed
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. Both aural unit channels have failedExplanation
The correct answer is "Both aural unit channels have failed." This means that both channels of the aural unit, which is responsible for producing audio alerts and warnings in the aircraft, have stopped functioning. This can be a critical issue as it may result in the pilot not receiving important auditory information during flight.Rate this question:
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- 36.
An amber IAS flag on the PFD indicates
- A.
There is a disagreement between the CA and FO indicated airspeeds
- B.
Approaching maximum airspeed ( redline)
- C.
There is a disagreement between the Standby airspeed and the CA and FOs indicated airspeed
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. There is a disagreement between the CA and FO indicated airspeedsExplanation
The correct answer is that an amber IAS flag on the PFD indicates a disagreement between the Captain (CA) and First Officer (FO) indicated airspeeds. This means that the airspeed readings displayed for the Captain and First Officer are not matching or are inconsistent, which could be a cause for concern and may require further investigation or troubleshooting.Rate this question:
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- 37.
If the digital audio panel fails, the EMER button may be pressed to:
- A.
Connect the captain only to COM 1 and NAV 1 and FO to COM2 and NAV 2
- B.
Illuminates the EMER button on the Flight attendant interphone
- C.
Commands the TBCH to operate in the emergency mode
- D.
Automatically switched to VHF 1 to 121.50
Correct Answer
A. Connect the captain only to COM 1 and NAV 1 and FO to COM2 and NAV 2Explanation
Pressing the EMER button when the digital audio panel fails will connect the captain only to COM 1 and NAV 1, and the first officer (FO) to COM 2 and NAV 2. This means that the captain will have communication and navigation capabilities through COM 1 and NAV 1, while the FO will have the same capabilities through COM 2 and NAV 2. This allows for continued communication and navigation in the event of a digital audio panel failure.Rate this question:
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- 38.
If the crew fails to set the correct altitude in the Auto pressurization controller, the system defaults to an latitude of
- A.
8000ft
- B.
14500ft
- C.
6000ft
- D.
10000ft
Correct Answer
A. 8000ftExplanation
If the crew fails to set the correct altitude in the Auto pressurization controller, the system defaults to an altitude of 8000ft. This means that if the crew does not input the desired altitude, the system will automatically maintain a cabin pressure equivalent to an altitude of 8000ft. This default setting ensures that there is a safe and comfortable cabin environment for the passengers and crew during the flight.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The crew can turn off the gasper fan while on the ground
- A.
TRUE
- B.
FALSE
- C.
Option 3
- D.
Option 4
Correct Answer
B. FALSEExplanation
The statement is false because the crew cannot turn off the gasper fan while on the ground. The gasper fan is an essential component of the aircraft's ventilation system and is typically operated by the ground crew or maintenance personnel. It helps to distribute air throughout the cabin during the flight to ensure passenger comfort. Therefore, it cannot be turned off by the crew while the aircraft is on the ground.Rate this question:
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- 40.
To perform A ice protection test
- A.
The engine bleed valves must be open
- B.
The engine thrust must be set at a min of 83% N1
- C.
All three bleed valves must be closed
- D.
Engine, wing and stab anti ice must be selected OFF
Correct Answer
A. The engine bleed valves must be openExplanation
In order to perform an ice protection test, the engine bleed valves must be open. This is because the bleed valves allow hot compressed air from the engine to be directed to the wing and stab anti-ice systems, preventing ice formation. By keeping the bleed valves open during the test, the anti-ice systems can be properly evaluated and checked for their effectiveness in preventing ice buildup.Rate this question:
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- 41.
During all ground operations, the RAM air doors for both PACKS should be in the emergency position
- A.
TRUE
- B.
FALSE
- C.
Option 3
- D.
Option 4
Correct Answer
B. FALSEExplanation
The correct answer is FALSE because during all ground operations, the RAM air doors for both PACKS should be in the normal position, not the emergency position. The emergency position is used only during certain abnormal situations or in-flight emergencies.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What does the " OPEN ' inscription on the APU bleed button indicate
- A.
The APU bleed valve has been commanded open. A white lighted bar will indicate when the valve actually opens
- B.
The position of the APU bleed valve is now "open to inspection"
- C.
That the APU bleed valve is actually open
- D.
The APU bleed valve is closed
Correct Answer
C. That the APU bleed valve is actually openExplanation
The correct answer is that the "OPEN" inscription on the APU bleed button indicates that the APU bleed valve is actually open. This means that the valve has been commanded to open and a white lighted bar will indicate when the valve actually opens.Rate this question:
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- 43.
There are .......... pressurizations outflow valve on the ERJ
- A.
5
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
The correct answer is 2. This suggests that there are two pressurization outflow valves on the ERJ.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Pilot/static tube #3 receives electrical heat from
- A.
The shed bus
- B.
DC Bus 2
- C.
The essential buses
- D.
DC bus 1
Correct Answer
C. The essential busesExplanation
The correct answer is "The essential buses." The essential buses provide electrical heat to pilot/static tube #3.Rate this question:
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- 45.
During Take off with the PACKs ON, when does the aircraft begin to pressurise
- A.
At 80kts
- B.
When thrust lever are advanced for take off
- C.
When the main cabin door is closed
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
B. When thrust lever are advanced for take offExplanation
When the thrust levers are advanced for takeoff, the aircraft begins to pressurize. This is because as the engines generate more power, the air conditioning packs on the aircraft start to provide compressed air to the cabin, which is then pressurized to maintain a safe and comfortable environment for the passengers and crew during the flight. The main cabin door being closed is not directly related to the pressurization process and happens before the engines are started. Therefore, the correct answer is when the thrust levers are advanced for takeoff.Rate this question:
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- 46.
The EICAS message " EMG LT NOT ARMD" will never be displayed when the cockpit emergency light switch is in the ARMED position
- A.
TRUE
- B.
FALSE
- C.
Option 3
- D.
Option 4
Correct Answer
A. TRUEExplanation
When the cockpit emergency light switch is in the ARMED position, the emergency lights are armed and ready to be activated in case of an emergency. The EICAS message "EMG LT NOT ARMD" indicates that the emergency lights are not armed. Therefore, if the cockpit emergency light switch is in the ARMED position, it is not possible for the EICAS message "EMG LT NOT ARMD" to be displayed. Hence, the statement is true.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Hydraulic system temperature can be monitored on the
- A.
The MFD hydraulic page for system 1 only
- B.
MFD hydraulic page
- C.
Cannot be monitored
- D.
EICAS
Correct Answer
D. EICASExplanation
The correct answer is EICAS because the Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System (EICAS) provides comprehensive monitoring and display of various aircraft systems, including the hydraulic system. This system allows pilots to monitor the temperature of the hydraulic system and receive alerts or warnings if it exceeds safe operating limits. The MFD hydraulic page is only available for system 1, so it does not provide a complete overview of the hydraulic system temperature.Rate this question:
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- 48.
How many cargo fire extinguishing bottles are installed on the plane
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
The correct answer is 2 because cargo fire extinguishing bottles are typically installed in pairs on airplanes. This is to ensure that there is a backup in case one bottle fails to extinguish the fire. Having two bottles provides redundancy and increases the effectiveness of fire suppression in the cargo area.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which of the following messages would indicate a good fire test
- A.
LAV SMOKE
- B.
APU FIRE LP FAIL
- C.
BAGG SMOKE
- D.
E1(2) EXBTL A(B) INOP
Correct Answer
C. BAGG SMOKEExplanation
The message "BAGG SMOKE" indicates a good fire test because it suggests that the smoke detection system in the baggage compartment is functioning properly. This message could be part of a routine fire test to ensure that the system is able to detect smoke in the event of a fire.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which lights are illuminated as part of the fire detection test?
- A.
BAFF EXTG
- B.
Master warning and caution lights
- C.
Bothe engine fire handles
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
All of the above lights are illuminated as part of the fire detection test. This includes the BAFF EXTG lights, the master warning and caution lights, and both engine fire handles. The fire detection test is performed to ensure that all fire detection systems and warning lights are functioning properly. By illuminating all of these lights during the test, any malfunction or failure can be identified and addressed promptly.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Oct 02, 2017Quiz Created by
Phyllis
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