Erj Systems Quiz - Chi

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1. The following indications reflect a successful hydraulic system test 

Explanation

The indication of electric pumps being switched to AUTO and producing a pressure of 2900 PSI +/- 200, followed by switching them to ON and maintaining a pressure of 2900 PSI +/- 200, reflects a successful hydraulic system test. This indicates that the electric pumps are functioning properly and are able to maintain the desired pressure within the specified range.

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About This Quiz
Erj Systems Quiz - Chi - Quiz

The ERJ systems quiz focuses on critical aircraft systems like landing gear, oxygen deployment, and yaw damper limits. It tests knowledge essential for maintaining and operating the Embraer ERJ family aircraft, ensuring readiness for real-world aerospace challenges.

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2. The A1E Engines are limited to 

Explanation

The A1E Engines have different thrust limitations for different modes of operation. For continuous thrust, the engines are limited to 901C. During starting, the limit is 880C. For all other operations, the engines can operate at a maximum of 948C. However, during takeoff, the engines can temporarily operate at higher thrust levels of 971C to 992C for a duration of 90 seconds.

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3. Air red X on the airspeed tape would indicate

Explanation

Air red X on the airspeed tape would indicate a failure associated with the Air Data Computer (ADC). The airspeed tape on an aircraft displays the airspeed, and if there is a red X on it, it means that the airspeed data is not being received or processed correctly by the ADC. The ADC is responsible for collecting and processing various air data, such as airspeed, altitude, and temperature, and providing accurate information to other systems and instruments on the aircraft. Therefore, a failure in the ADC would result in incorrect or missing airspeed data, which is indicated by the red X on the airspeed tape.

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4. Maximum fuel tank temperature is:

Explanation

The maximum fuel tank temperature is 52 degrees Celsius. This means that the fuel tank can withstand temperatures up to 52 degrees Celsius without any damage or adverse effects.

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5. Take off with the FUEL IMBALANCE message presented is permissible

Explanation

The correct answer is that it is permissible to take off with the FUEL IMBALANCE message as long as the imbalance does not exceed 800 ILS. This means that if the difference in fuel quantity between the left and right tanks is less than or equal to 800 ILS (International Standard Liter), it is considered acceptable to proceed with the takeoff. However, if the imbalance exceeds this limit, it would not be advisable to take off due to safety concerns.

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6. Under which conditions should the ignition switch be placed in the ON position for engine starts

Explanation

When the temperature is below 10 degrees C and the engines have shut down for more than 90min, the ignition switch should be placed in the ON position for engine starts. This is because cold temperatures can affect the performance of the engine, and allowing the engines to warm up for a longer period of time can help ensure a smooth start. Additionally, shutting down the engines for more than 90 minutes indicates a longer period of inactivity, which may require extra precautions for engine starts.

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7. How many cargo fire extinguishing bottles are installed on the plane

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 because cargo fire extinguishing bottles are typically installed in pairs on airplanes. This is to ensure that there is a backup in case one bottle fails to extinguish the fire. Having two bottles provides redundancy and increases the effectiveness of fire suppression in the cargo area.

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8. The flight deck direct vision windows should be verified closed by:

Explanation

The correct answer is that the WINDOW NOT CLOSED inscription in the opening and the indicator pin on the window handle are not visible. This means that the windows are closed properly, as indicated by the absence of the inscription and the pin being hidden.

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9. Which of the following messages would indicate a good fire test 

Explanation

The message "BAGG SMOKE" indicates a good fire test because it suggests that the smoke detection system in the baggage compartment is functioning properly. This message could be part of a routine fire test to ensure that the system is able to detect smoke in the event of a fire.

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10. How can fuel quantity measured in the event of a fuel quantity indication MEL

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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11. If a thrust lever - reverser deploys inflight 

Explanation

If a thrust lever-reverser deploys in-flight, the correct answer is that the FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) reduces the thrust to idle automatically. This means that the engine power is decreased to a minimum level, which helps to maintain control and stability of the aircraft during the abnormal situation. The other options, such as there being no automatic reaction or the engine shutting down automatically, are not correct in this scenario.

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12. Reverse thrust may be used to back an aircraft from the gate in the event of inoperative pushback tug

Explanation

Reverse thrust is not used to back an aircraft from the gate in the event of an inoperative pushback tug. Reverse thrust is a technique used during landing to slow down the aircraft after touchdown by directing the engine thrust forward. It is not intended or designed for maneuvering an aircraft on the ground. In the event of an inoperative pushback tug, alternative methods such as a towbar or a replacement tug would be used to move the aircraft.

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13. Assuming usable fuel in the XR VENTRAL TANK, fuel transfer will automatically occur in the auto mode

Explanation

In the XR VENTRAL TANK, fuel transfer will automatically occur in the auto mode 30 seconds after both wing tanks reach 4630 lbs. This means that once both wing tanks reach this specific fuel level, the fuel transfer system will activate and start transferring fuel to the ventral tank. This helps to balance the fuel distribution and ensure that the aircraft remains properly balanced during flight.

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14. When would the landing gear override switch be used to lower the landing gear ?

Explanation

The landing gear override switch would be used to lower the landing gear when the LGEU (Landing Gear Electronic Unit) has failed. This switch allows the pilot to manually control the landing gear in case of a failure in the automated system. It is a safety measure to ensure that the landing gear can still be deployed even if there is a malfunction in the LGEU.

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15. The green flight crew oxygen system safety disk:

Explanation

The green flight crew oxygen system safety disk may indicate that an over pressure has occurred. This means that if the pressure in the system becomes too high, the safety disk will turn red, serving as a visual indication for the crew. This is an important safety feature as it alerts the crew to a potential issue with the oxygen system, allowing them to take appropriate action to prevent any further problems or hazards.

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16. Take off with the FUEL imbalance message presented is permissable 

Explanation

The correct answer states that it is permissible to take off with the FUEL imbalance message as long as the imbalance does not exceed 800 lbs. This means that if the difference in fuel quantity between the tanks is less than or equal to 800 lbs, it is acceptable to proceed with the takeoff. However, if the imbalance exceeds this limit, it would not be advisable to take off due to the potential impact on the aircraft's stability and performance.

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17. The first officer must set the flight number in their clock so the DFDR is able to correlate recorded data to a specific flight number 

Explanation

The statement is false because it is the responsibility of the captain, not the first officer, to set the flight number in their clock. The flight number is used by the DFDR (Digital Flight Data Recorder) to correlate recorded data to a specific flight.

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18. In essential power configurations ( w/loss of all generators)

Explanation

In essential power configurations with a loss of all generators, the FMS (Flight Management System) remains powered. VOR approaches are not possible because the PFD (Primary Flight Display) is blank. However, VOR-DME approaches can still be flown using the standby instruments. Additionally, VOR (No DME) approaches can be flown using the RMU (Radio Management Unit) navigation page. This means that pilots can still navigate and perform VOR approaches without DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) using the RMU navigation page.

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19. The EICAS message AURAL unit fail means

Explanation

The correct answer is "Both aural unit channels have failed." This means that both channels of the aural unit, which is responsible for producing audio alerts and warnings in the aircraft, have stopped functioning. This can be a critical issue as it may result in the pilot not receiving important auditory information during flight.

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20. The EICAS reversionary buttons must be pressed to display data from the DAU channel B

Explanation

Pressing the EICAS reversionary buttons is necessary to display data from the DAU channel B. This implies that the EICAS system has two channels, A and B, and the reversionary buttons allow switching between these channels. By pressing these buttons, the data from channel B can be accessed and displayed. Therefore, the statement is true.

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21. With the APU bleed valve selected OPEN, If engine 1 bleed valve is also opened

Explanation

When the APU bleed valve is selected OPEN and the engine 1 bleed valve is also opened, the APU bleed valve will close. This is because the APU bleed valve is designed to close when the engine bleed valve is opened to prevent any loss of bleed air pressure. Therefore, when both valves are opened at the same time, the APU bleed valve will automatically close.

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22. IF both PILOTS have the FMS navigation information displayed in a single FMS aircraft, what colour will the FMS navigation information on the CDI be

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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23. An amber IAS flag on the PFD indicates

Explanation

The correct answer is that an amber IAS flag on the PFD indicates a disagreement between the Captain (CA) and First Officer (FO) indicated airspeeds. This means that the airspeed readings displayed for the Captain and First Officer are not matching or are inconsistent, which could be a cause for concern and may require further investigation or troubleshooting.

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24. Nose wheel steering utilises?

Explanation

Nose wheel steering utilizes Hydraulic System 1.

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25. If the digital audio panel fails, the EMER button may be pressed to:

Explanation

Pressing the EMER button when the digital audio panel fails will connect the captain only to COM 1 and NAV 1, and the first officer (FO) to COM 2 and NAV 2. This means that the captain will have communication and navigation capabilities through COM 1 and NAV 1, while the FO will have the same capabilities through COM 2 and NAV 2. This allows for continued communication and navigation in the event of a digital audio panel failure.

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26. When the gear lever is moved to the UP position, the brake control Unit ( BCU) automatically applies brakes to the main wheels 

Explanation

When the gear lever is moved to the UP position, the brake control unit (BCU) automatically applies brakes to the main wheels. This means that when the gear lever is shifted to the UP position, the BCU detects this action and triggers the application of brakes to the main wheels. This is done to ensure the safety and stability of the vehicle while it is in motion.

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27. A 'CAS MSG' on the PFD indicates:

Explanation

The correct answer is "A disagreement between IC-600S on the EICAS messages displayed." This means that there is a disagreement between the Integrated Control and Display System (IC-600S) on the Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor (EICAS) messages being displayed. This could indicate a communication or synchronization issue between the systems, which may require further investigation or troubleshooting to resolve.

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28. Where is the APU located on the ERJ

Explanation

The APU (Auxiliary Power Unit) on the ERJ (Embraer Regional Jet) is located in a compartment in the tail of the aircraft. This means that it is situated at the rear end of the plane, separate from the main engines. The APU is responsible for providing power to the aircraft when the main engines are not running, such as during ground operations or in the event of an engine failure. Placing it in the tail compartment helps to distribute weight evenly and allows for easier maintenance and access.

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29. If the crew fails to set the correct altitude in the Auto pressurization controller, the system defaults to an latitude of

Explanation

If the crew fails to set the correct altitude in the Auto pressurization controller, the system defaults to an altitude of 8000ft. This means that if the crew does not input the desired altitude, the system will automatically maintain a cabin pressure equivalent to an altitude of 8000ft. This default setting ensures that there is a safe and comfortable cabin environment for the passengers and crew during the flight.

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30. The crew can turn off the gasper fan while on the ground

Explanation

The statement is false because the crew cannot turn off the gasper fan while on the ground. The gasper fan is an essential component of the aircraft's ventilation system and is typically operated by the ground crew or maintenance personnel. It helps to distribute air throughout the cabin during the flight to ensure passenger comfort. Therefore, it cannot be turned off by the crew while the aircraft is on the ground.

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31. When should the electric hydraulic pumps be tested

Explanation

The electric hydraulic pumps should be tested prior to the first flight of the day. This is important to ensure that the pumps are functioning correctly and there are no issues that could affect the aircraft's hydraulic system during the flight. Testing the pumps before each flight is not necessary as long as they have been tested prior to the first flight of the day. The option "The hydraulic pumps do not need to be tested" is incorrect because regular testing is essential for the safety and proper functioning of the hydraulic system. Therefore, the correct answer is "Prior to the first flight of the day."

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32. To perform A ice protection test 

Explanation

In order to perform an ice protection test, the engine bleed valves must be open. This is because the bleed valves allow hot compressed air from the engine to be directed to the wing and stab anti-ice systems, preventing ice formation. By keeping the bleed valves open during the test, the anti-ice systems can be properly evaluated and checked for their effectiveness in preventing ice buildup.

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33. With a loss of Generator 1 and the APU OFF, the aircraft still has 2 independent electrical systems

Explanation

The statement in the question is false. If Generator 1 is lost and the APU is off, the aircraft will have only one independent electrical system remaining. The loss of Generator 1 means that one of the two generators providing power to the electrical systems is no longer functioning. Therefore, the aircraft will not have two independent electrical systems.

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34. The Gust lock prevents movement of the:

Explanation

The Gust lock is a mechanism that prevents movement of the elevator while the aircraft is parked or on the ground. This is important because the elevator controls the pitch of the aircraft, allowing it to climb or descend. By locking the elevator, the aircraft is kept in a stable position, preventing any unintended movement or damage.

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35. During all ground operations, the RAM air doors for both PACKS should be in the emergency position

Explanation

The correct answer is FALSE because during all ground operations, the RAM air doors for both PACKS should be in the normal position, not the emergency position. The emergency position is used only during certain abnormal situations or in-flight emergencies.

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36. The maximum landing gear retraction speed is?

Explanation

The maximum landing gear retraction speed is 200 KIAS. This means that the landing gear should not be retracted at a speed higher than 200 knots indicated airspeed. Retracting the landing gear at speeds higher than this could potentially damage the aircraft.

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37. What does the " OPEN ' inscription on the APU bleed button indicate

Explanation

The correct answer is that the "OPEN" inscription on the APU bleed button indicates that the APU bleed valve is actually open. This means that the valve has been commanded to open and a white lighted bar will indicate when the valve actually opens.

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38. In the event of an APU fire in flight

Explanation

In the event of an APU fire in flight, the APU will not shut down automatically. This means that the pilot will have to manually shut down the APU in order to stop the fire. The fact that the APU does not shut down automatically suggests that immediate action is required from the pilot to prevent further damage or danger.

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39. The EICAS is available in Essential power

Explanation

The EICAS (Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System) is a system that provides essential information to the pilots about the status of the aircraft's engine and other important systems. It is crucial for the pilots to have access to this information, especially during essential power situations when other systems may not be functioning properly. Therefore, it is true that the EICAS is available in Essential power.

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40. Select the correct statement regarding  " ATS SOV OPEN "

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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41. There are .......... pressurizations outflow valve on the ERJ

Explanation

The correct answer is 2. This suggests that there are two pressurization outflow valves on the ERJ.

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42. Placing the passenger Oxygen knob to MANUAL will deploy the oxygen mask:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Anytime the aircraft is powered up." This means that the oxygen mask will be deployed whenever the aircraft is turned on, regardless of whether it is in flight or on the ground. This is a safety measure to ensure that passengers have access to oxygen in case of an emergency or sudden loss of cabin pressure.

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43. Which EICAS message should be present prior attempting APU start on AHRS- 900 equipped aircraft

Explanation

The AHRS 1(2) ALN Advisory message should be present prior to attempting APU start on AHRS-900 equipped aircraft. This advisory message indicates that there is an alignment error in the Attitude Heading Reference System (AHRS) 1 or 2. It is important to resolve this error before starting the APU to ensure accurate and reliable data for the aircraft's systems.

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44. Pilot/static tube #3 receives electrical heat from

Explanation

The correct answer is "The essential buses." The essential buses provide electrical heat to pilot/static tube #3.

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45. Engine oil quantity may be monitored on the 

Explanation

On the MFD take off page, the engine oil quantity can be monitored. This page provides information specifically related to the take off phase of the flight, which includes important parameters such as engine performance and fuel status. Monitoring the engine oil quantity during take off is crucial to ensure the engine is properly lubricated and functioning optimally for a safe flight. Therefore, the MFD take off page is the correct option for monitoring engine oil quantity.

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46. During Take off with the PACKs ON, when does the aircraft begin to pressurise

Explanation

When the thrust levers are advanced for takeoff, the aircraft begins to pressurize. This is because as the engines generate more power, the air conditioning packs on the aircraft start to provide compressed air to the cabin, which is then pressurized to maintain a safe and comfortable environment for the passengers and crew during the flight. The main cabin door being closed is not directly related to the pressurization process and happens before the engines are started. Therefore, the correct answer is when the thrust levers are advanced for takeoff.

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47. A DC bus 2 Failure can be identified by:

Explanation

When there is a DC bus 2 failure, the MFD 2, MFD 1, and PFD 2 screens will display a red X, indicating a failure. Additionally, the PFD 1 screen will be blank. This combination of a red X on MFD 2, MFD 1, and PFD 2 being blank is the identifying characteristic of a DC bus 2 failure.

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48. The EICAS message " EMG LT NOT ARMD" will never be displayed when the cockpit emergency light switch is in the ARMED position

Explanation

When the cockpit emergency light switch is in the ARMED position, the emergency lights are armed and ready to be activated in case of an emergency. The EICAS message "EMG LT NOT ARMD" indicates that the emergency lights are not armed. Therefore, if the cockpit emergency light switch is in the ARMED position, it is not possible for the EICAS message "EMG LT NOT ARMD" to be displayed. Hence, the statement is true.

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49. Hydraulic system temperature can be monitored on the

Explanation

The correct answer is EICAS because the Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System (EICAS) provides comprehensive monitoring and display of various aircraft systems, including the hydraulic system. This system allows pilots to monitor the temperature of the hydraulic system and receive alerts or warnings if it exceeds safe operating limits. The MFD hydraulic page is only available for system 1, so it does not provide a complete overview of the hydraulic system temperature.

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50. Which lights are illuminated as part of the fire detection test?

Explanation

All of the above lights are illuminated as part of the fire detection test. This includes the BAFF EXTG lights, the master warning and caution lights, and both engine fire handles. The fire detection test is performed to ensure that all fire detection systems and warning lights are functioning properly. By illuminating all of these lights during the test, any malfunction or failure can be identified and addressed promptly.

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51. On the ground with the main batteries as the only source of electrical power:

Explanation

The given answer states that AC and DC power (except for the shed buses) is available when the main batteries are the only source of electrical power on the ground. This means that all electrical systems in the aircraft can be powered, except for the shed buses. The shed buses can still be powered if the shed bus knob is overridden. This information suggests that the main batteries have sufficient power to provide electrical supply for the aircraft for at least 40 minutes.

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52. The maximum airspeed above 10,000ft with the yaw damper dis-enganged with flaps 22 (XR) IS 

Explanation

The maximum airspeed above 10,000ft with the yaw damper disengaged and flaps set to 22 (XR) is 180. This means that the aircraft can safely fly at a maximum speed of 180 knots when these conditions are met.

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53. The crew oxygen is tested as part of which flow/checkslist?

Explanation

The correct answer is the before start check. During the before start check, the crew oxygen is tested to ensure that it is functioning properly before the flight takes off. This is an important step in ensuring the safety of the crew members in case of any emergency situations that may require the use of oxygen masks.

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54. The SHED buses are powered

Explanation

The correct answer is A and B because when the GPU (Ground Power Unit) is selected and the shed bus knob is in AUTO or OVRD (Override) mode, the SHED buses will be powered. This means that the power supply for the buses is being provided by the external GPU rather than the internal generators or engines.

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55. COM 3 cannot be used for voice communication when the EMER button is pushed in (selected) on the digital audio panel:

Explanation

When the EMER button is pushed in (selected) on the digital audio panel, COM 3 cannot be used for voice communication. This means that if there is an emergency and the EMER button is activated, COM 3 will not be available for transmitting or receiving voice communication.

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56. The ERJ is approved to take off using which flap settings?

Explanation

The ERJ is approved to take off using flap settings of 9, 18, and 22. This means that the pilot can choose any of these flap settings for takeoff depending on the specific conditions of the flight. The different flap settings provide varying amounts of lift and drag, allowing the pilot to adjust the aircraft's performance during takeoff.

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The following indications reflect a successful hydraulic system...
The A1E Engines are limited to 
Air red X on the airspeed tape would indicate
Maximum fuel tank temperature is:
Take off with the FUEL IMBALANCE message presented is permissible
Under which conditions should the ignition switch be placed in the ON...
How many cargo fire extinguishing bottles are installed on the plane
The flight deck direct vision windows should be verified closed by:
Which of the following messages would indicate a good fire test 
How can fuel quantity measured in the event of a fuel quantity...
If a thrust lever - reverser deploys inflight 
Reverse thrust may be used to back an aircraft from the gate in the...
Assuming usable fuel in the XR VENTRAL TANK, fuel transfer will...
When would the landing gear override switch be used to lower the...
The green flight crew oxygen system safety disk:
Take off with the FUEL imbalance message presented is...
The first officer must set the flight number in their clock so the...
In essential power configurations ( w/loss of all generators)
The EICAS message AURAL unit fail means
The EICAS reversionary buttons must be pressed to display data from...
With the APU bleed valve selected OPEN, If engine 1 bleed valve is...
IF both PILOTS have the FMS navigation information displayed in a...
An amber IAS flag on the PFD indicates
Nose wheel steering utilises?
If the digital audio panel fails, the EMER button may be pressed to:
When the gear lever is moved to the UP position, the brake control...
A 'CAS MSG' on the PFD indicates:
Where is the APU located on the ERJ
If the crew fails to set the correct altitude in the Auto...
The crew can turn off the gasper fan while on the ground
When should the electric hydraulic pumps be tested
To perform A ice protection test 
With a loss of Generator 1 and the APU OFF, the aircraft still has 2...
The Gust lock prevents movement of the:
During all ground operations, the RAM air doors for both PACKS should...
The maximum landing gear retraction speed is?
What does the " OPEN ' inscription on the APU bleed button...
In the event of an APU fire in flight
The EICAS is available in Essential power
Select the correct statement regarding  " ATS SOV OPEN...
There are .......... pressurizations outflow valve on the ERJ
Placing the passenger Oxygen knob to MANUAL will deploy the oxygen...
Which EICAS message should be present prior attempting APU start on...
Pilot/static tube #3 receives electrical heat from
Engine oil quantity may be monitored on the 
During Take off with the PACKs ON, when does the aircraft begin to...
A DC bus 2 Failure can be identified by:
The EICAS message " EMG LT NOT ARMD" will never be displayed...
Hydraulic system temperature can be monitored on the
Which lights are illuminated as part of the fire detection test?
On the ground with the main batteries as the only source of electrical...
The maximum airspeed above 10,000ft with the yaw damper dis-enganged...
The crew oxygen is tested as part of which flow/checkslist?
The SHED buses are powered
COM 3 cannot be used for voice communication when the EMER button is...
The ERJ is approved to take off using which flap settings?
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