1.
How many FADEC´s are installed in the aircraft?
Correct Answer
A. Two one per engine .
Explanation
The correct answer is "Two one per engine." This means that there are two FADECs installed in the aircraft, with one FADEC dedicated to each engine. FADEC stands for Full Authority Digital Engine Control, and it is responsible for controlling and monitoring the engine's parameters and performance. Having a separate FADEC for each engine ensures redundancy and allows for independent control and operation of each engine.
2.
IN addition to when the engine is operating, when else will the FADEC be powered?
Correct Answer
B. For five minutes after electrical power is applied to the aircraft , when the FADEC GND PWR pb on the maintenance panel is depressed , or when the ENG MODE control switch is placed to IGN/START position.
Explanation
The FADEC will be powered for five minutes after electrical power is applied to the aircraft, when the FADEC GND PWR pb on the maintenance panel is depressed, or when the ENG MODE control switch is placed to IGN/START position.
3.
What would happen in flight if the FADEC´s alternator failed?
Correct Answer
C. The FADEC would now be powered using ships power .
Explanation
If the FADEC's alternator failed during flight, it means that the primary power source for the FADEC is no longer functioning. In this scenario, the FADEC would switch to an alternative power source, which in this case is the ship's power. This would ensure that the FADEC continues to receive power and can still function properly, albeit through a different power supply.
4.
Is there any mechanical linkage between the thrust levers and the engines?
Correct Answer
B. No, it is totally electrical .
Explanation
The correct answer is "No, it is totally electrical." This means that there is no mechanical linkage between the thrust levers and the engines. Instead, the control of the engines is done entirely through electrical systems.
5.
What is the primary function of the Engine Alliance GP7000 engine's fan?
Correct Answer
A. Generate thrust
Explanation
The fan is the large, front-mounted component of a turbofan engine, and its primary function is to generate thrust by accelerating a large mass of air. While the fan also contributes to noise reduction and engine cooling, its main purpose is to provide the propulsive force that moves the aircraft forward.
6.
When does oil quantity indication begin to pulse?
Correct Answer
A. Decreasing below 5 qts .
Explanation
When the oil quantity in the engine decreases below 5 quarts, the oil quantity indication begins to pulse. This pulsing is a signal to alert the pilot or operator that the oil level is getting critically low and immediate action should be taken to prevent any damage to the engine. It is important to monitor the oil quantity closely and ensure that it is maintained at a safe level to ensure proper lubrication and functioning of the engine.
7.
What does the FLEX represent in the FLX/MCT detent?
Correct Answer
A. This is a reduced thrust setting used for takeoff.
Explanation
The term "FLEX" in the FLX/MCT detent represents a reduced thrust setting used for takeoff. This setting allows the aircraft to achieve the necessary performance for takeoff while reducing engine wear and increasing engine life. By using a lower thrust setting, the aircraft can also save fuel and reduce noise emissions during takeoff.
8.
What is required for the FADEC to compute a reduced thrust setting?
Correct Answer
C. A FLEX temperature must be entered on the TAKE OF PERF page of the MCDU.
Explanation
The FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) requires a FLEX temperature to be entered on the TAKE OFF PERF (Performance) page of the MCDU (Multifunction Control and Display Unit) in order to compute a reduced thrust setting. This is because the FLEX temperature is used to determine the maximum thrust that can be used for takeoff, based on factors such as runway length, aircraft weight, and ambient conditions. By entering the FLEX temperature, the FADEC can calculate the appropriate thrust level to optimize performance and ensure a safe takeoff.
9.
What would happen during the take-off roll if the thrust levers were set to the FLEX/MCT detent without FLEX temperature being entered?
Correct Answer
B. A LEVEL TWO warning would sound along with the appearance of an ECAM message .
Explanation
If the thrust levers were set to the FLEX/MCT detent without entering the FLEX temperature, a LEVEL TWO warning would sound along with the appearance of an ECAM message. This is because the FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) automatically calculates a reduced thrust setting based on the entered FLEX temperature. Without the FLEX temperature being entered, the FADEC cannot calculate the appropriate thrust setting, leading to a warning and ECAM message.
10.
During normal operation, in what detent are the thrust levers positioned once the thrust reduction altitude has been reached?
Correct Answer
C. CL
Explanation
During normal operation, once the thrust reduction altitude has been reached, the thrust levers are positioned in the CL (Climb) detent. This detent allows the aircraft to maintain a constant climb rate without any further increase in thrust. It is a standard procedure to reduce thrust at a specific altitude to optimize fuel consumption and engine performance while still maintaining a safe ascent. The CL detent ensures that the thrust levers remain in the appropriate position for this phase of flight.
11.
Where is the thrust redaction altitude found and is the number always the same?
Correct Answer
B. TAKE OFF PERF page of the MCDU ,it can be modified.
Explanation
The correct answer is "TAKE OFF PERF page of the MCDU, it can be modified." This is because the TAKE OFF PERF page of the MCDU (Multipurpose Control and Display Unit) allows pilots to input specific performance data for takeoff, including the thrust reduction altitude. This altitude can be modified based on various factors such as aircraft weight, runway conditions, and performance requirements. Therefore, the number for the thrust reduction altitude found on the TAKE OFF PERF page of the MCDU is not always the same and can be adjusted as needed.
12.
Using manual thrust, the thrust lever position will determine the thrust setting for the engine.
Correct Answer
A. True ; they will operate like conventional throttles.
Explanation
The explanation for the given correct answer is that when using manual thrust, the thrust lever position will determine the thrust setting for the engine. This means that the thrust levers will function in a similar way to conventional throttles, where the position of the lever determines the amount of thrust being produced by the engine.
13.
Verification that Auto thrust (A/THR) is active can be made by:
Correct Answer
C. Only by locking at column five of the FMA .
Explanation
The correct answer is "Only by locking at column five of the FMA." This means that the only way to verify that Auto thrust (A/THR) is active is by looking at column five of the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA). This column displays the active mode of the autothrust system, indicating whether it is engaged or not. The other options mentioned, such as watching the automatic movement of the thrust levers or only when the thrust lever are set at TOGA, do not provide a reliable verification of the autothrust system's activation.
14.
How can A/THR be ARMED automatically?
Correct Answer
C. Both A and B are correct.
Explanation
Both options A and B are correct because A/THR (Autothrust) can be armed automatically in two scenarios. Firstly, whenever a takeoff or go/around is initiated with at least one flight director ON, the A/THR system can be armed automatically. Secondly, when Alpha floor protection is activated, the A/THR system can also be armed automatically.
15.
What is considered to be the active range of the A/THR system?
Correct Answer
C. Both A and B above .
Explanation
The active range of the A/THR system is considered to be from just above the IDLE stop to the FLX/MCT detent during single engine operations, and from just above the IDLE stop to the CL detent during two engine operations.
16.
What is Alpha floor protection?
Correct Answer
A. It helps prevent the aircraft from stalling and protects against wind shear encounters,
Explanation
Alpha floor protection is a function of the flight control laws that helps prevent the aircraft from stalling and protects against wind shear encounters. It is designed to automatically increase thrust to maximum power if the aircraft's angle of attack (AOA) reaches a certain threshold. This additional thrust helps to maintain lift and prevent the aircraft from stalling, especially during critical phases of flight such as takeoff and landing. In addition, alpha floor protection also provides protection against wind shear encounters, which can cause sudden changes in airspeed and altitude.
17.
The alpha floor is available:
Correct Answer
A. From lift off down to 100 feet radio altitude in the landing configuration.
Explanation
The alpha floor is a mode in the aircraft's autopilot system that automatically increases engine thrust to maximum power in order to prevent the aircraft from stalling. It is available from lift off down to 100 feet radio altitude in the landing configuration. This means that during takeoff and landing, the alpha floor mode will be active and provide maximum thrust to ensure the aircraft's safety and stability in critical phases of flight.
18.
If the thrust levers are set in the idle detent, is Alpha floor protection still available?
Correct Answer
B. Yes ; thrust lever position is disregarded.
Explanation
In this question, the correct answer is "Yes ; thrust lever position is disregarded." This means that even if the thrust levers are set in the idle detent, the Alpha floor protection is still available. The reason for this is that the Alpha floor protection system disregards the position of the thrust levers and activates based on the angle of attack (Alpha) of the aircraft. Therefore, regardless of the thrust lever position, the Alpha floor protection system will still be available.
19.
When the Alpha floor is active, what power setting is automatically commanded, and what FMA annunciation would appear in Column one?
Correct Answer
A. TOGA , A/FLOOR.
Explanation
When the Alpha floor is active, the power setting that is automatically commanded is TOGA (Takeoff/Go-Around). The FMA (Flight Mode Annunciator) annunciation that would appear in Column one is A/FLOOR, indicating that the aircraft is in Alpha floor mode where automatic thrust is applied to prevent the aircraft from stalling.
20.
It is possible to disconnect the Alpha floor?
Correct Answer
C. Yes , by depressing the autothrotle push button on the FCU.
Explanation
The correct answer is "Yes, by depressing the autothrottle push button on the FCU." This means that it is possible to disconnect the Alpha floor protection by pressing the autothrottle push button on the Flight Control Unit (FCU). This action will disconnect the Alpha floor protection system.
21.
Holding the instinctive disconnect push buttons for more than fifteen seconds will:
Correct Answer
A. Disengage the A/THR (including A.Floor )for the remainder of the flight .
Explanation
Holding the instinctive disconnect push buttons for more than fifteen seconds will disengage the A/THR (including A.Floor) for the remainder of the flight. This means that the automatic thrust control system, including the automatic floor function, will be deactivated and the pilots will have to manually control the thrust for the rest of the flight.
22.
While flying the airplane with A/THR active the speed knob is pulled and turned to a selected speed that happens to be slower than the Alpha port, What speed will the A/C slow?
Correct Answer
C. Vls
Explanation
When the speed knob is pulled and turned to a selected speed that is slower than the Alpha port, the aircraft will slow down to Vls. Vls refers to the lowest selectable speed, also known as the stalling speed in landing configuration. This speed is crucial to prevent the aircraft from stalling or losing lift during approach and landing. By selecting a speed slower than the Alpha port, the A/THR (Autothrust) system will adjust the thrust to maintain the aircraft at Vls, ensuring safe flight operations.
23.
The left column, first line of the FMA is used to indicate:
Correct Answer
B. The mode of the A/THR in use when A/THR is armed or active .
Explanation
The left column, first line of the FMA is used to indicate the mode of the A/THR in use when A/THR is armed or active.
24.
As far as FMA annunciation are concerned, what would indicate that the A/THR system is active?
Correct Answer
A. A/THR changes from blue to white as shown in column five line three.
Explanation
The correct answer is that the A/THR system is active when it changes from blue to white as shown in column five, line three. This indicates that the system is engaged and controlling the aircraft's thrust.
25.
For reverser actuation, the left engine uses.......... hydraulic system pressure and the right engine uses....... hydraulic system pressure.
Correct Answer
A. Green , yellow
Explanation
The left engine uses green hydraulic system pressure for reverser actuation, while the right engine uses yellow hydraulic system pressure.
26.
During an automatic start, the FADEC controls:
Correct Answer
C. The start valves , igniters ,HP and LP fuel valves and fuel flow.
Explanation
During an automatic start, the FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) is responsible for controlling various components. The start valves are controlled by the FADEC to regulate the flow of air during the start-up process. The igniters are also controlled by the FADEC to provide the necessary spark for ignition. Additionally, the FADEC controls the high-pressure (HP) and low-pressure (LP) fuel valves, which regulate the flow of fuel into the engine. Lastly, the FADEC manages the fuel flow, ensuring the proper amount of fuel is delivered to the engine for a successful start.
27.
What conditions automatically activate continuous ignition?
Correct Answer
C. None of the above.
Explanation
The correct answer is "None of the above." This means that there are no specific conditions mentioned in the options that automatically activate continuous ignition. Therefore, it can be inferred that continuous ignition does not have any automatic activation criteria listed in the given options.
28.
The FADEC will automatically abort an abnormal start thereby providing engine limit protection, but will the FADEC also automatically dry crank the engine?
Correct Answer
C. Yes, as long as the ENG MASTER switch remains in the ON position.
Explanation
The correct answer is "Yes, as long as the ENG MASTER switch remains in the ON position." This means that the FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) will automatically dry crank the engine if the ENG MASTER switch is in the ON position. It implies that the FADEC has the capability to initiate and control the engine start process without any intervention from the crew.
29.
What abnormalities would cause the FADEC to automatically abort a start?
Correct Answer
A. A hot start, an overtem, a stalled or no lightoff.
Explanation
The FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) is a system that controls and monitors the engine start process. A hot start occurs when the engine exceeds its temperature limits during start-up. An overtemp refers to the engine exceeding safe temperature limits during operation. A stalled start happens when the engine fails to accelerate properly during start-up. No lightoff means that the engine does not ignite and start running. Any of these abnormalities during start-up would trigger the FADEC to automatically abort the start process.
30.
During a manual start, how is the start valve opened?
Correct Answer
C. By depressing the ENG MAN START pb´s on the overhead panel while the ENG MODE selector is in IGN position.
31.
Which of the following is NOT a type of engine used on the Airbus A320 family of aircraft?
Correct Answer
D. Rolls-Royce Trent 1000
Explanation
The Rolls-Royce Trent 1000 is a high-bypass turbofan engine primarily used on Boeing aircraft, not the Airbus A320. The CFM56 and V2500 are the two main engine options for the A320ceo (current engine option), while the PW1000G is used on the A320neo (new engine option).
32.
Does the FADEC provide EGT limit protection constantly?
Correct Answer
B. No , EGT limit protection is only available during ground auto starts.
Explanation
The correct answer is "No, EGT limit protection is only available during ground auto starts." This means that the FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) does not provide EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) limit protection constantly in all phases of flight. It is only available during ground auto starts, which suggests that the EGT limit protection may not be active during other phases of flight.
33.
When is T.O. INHIBIT and LDG INHIBIT active?
Correct Answer
A. T.O to 1500 feet AGL ,LND below 750 feet AGL.
34.
The idle setting on the aircraft is capable of modulating due to certain conditions. During descent what might cause the IDLE n1 setting to increase?
Correct Answer
C. A and B
Explanation
During descent, the slats are extended to increase the lift and maintain the desired descent rate. This increase in lift requires more engine power, causing the IDLE N1 setting to increase. Additionally, if there is a higher than normal bleed air demand or warmer than normal engine oil temperature in flight, the engine may need to work harder to compensate for these conditions, leading to an increase in the IDLE N1 setting. Therefore, both the extension of slats and the higher demands or temperatures can cause the IDLE N1 setting to increase.
35.
What is the difference between the variable thrust and the speed mode?
Correct Answer
C. In the fixed thrust mode, thrusts fixed and the elevator controls the speed .
Explanation
In the fixed thrust mode, the thrust is set at a constant value and cannot be changed. In this mode, the elevator is responsible for controlling the speed of the vehicle. By adjusting the elevator, the pilot can change the angle of attack of the aircraft, which in turn affects the lift and drag forces. This allows the pilot to control the speed of the aircraft without changing the thrust.
36.
What are the two basic modes of the A/THR system?
Correct Answer
B. Variable thrust and fixed speed .
Explanation
The correct answer is "Variable thrust and fixed speed." The A/THR system, which stands for Autothrust, has two basic modes. In the variable thrust mode, the system adjusts the thrust of the engines to maintain a specific target speed. This allows for flexibility in different flight conditions and helps to optimize fuel efficiency. On the other hand, the fixed speed mode maintains a constant speed, regardless of changes in the aircraft's flight path or external factors. By combining these two modes, the A/THR system ensures both speed control and efficient engine performance.
37.
Can the engines be over boosted in the TOGA position?
Correct Answer
C. No , because the ECU provides engine protection limit by monitoring N1 , N2 and HMU fuel flow adjustments.
Explanation
The correct answer is No, because the ECU provides engine protection limit by monitoring N1, N2, and HMU fuel flow adjustments. The ECU (Engine Control Unit) is responsible for ensuring that the engines operate within safe limits. It monitors various parameters such as N1 and N2 (engine rotational speeds) and HMU fuel flow adjustments (Hydromechanical Unit fuel flow adjustments). If the engines were to be overboosted in the TOGA (Takeoff/Go-around) position, the ECU would detect this and intervene to prevent any damage to the engines. Therefore, the engines cannot be overboosted in the TOGA position due to the engine protection provided by the ECU.
38.
Where is the information displayed by DMC 1 and DMC 2? This question belongs to Autopilot/PFD/NAVIGATION, Not to this subject.
Correct Answer
C. DMC 1 supplies data to PFD 1 , ND 1 and UPPER ECAM, DMC 2 supplies data for PFD 2 , ND 2 and LOWER ECAM.
Explanation
The correct answer states that DMC 1 supplies data to PFD 1, ND 1, and UPPER ECAM, while DMC 2 supplies data for PFD 2, ND 2, and LOWER ECAM. This means that DMC 1 is responsible for providing information to the primary flight display (PFD) and navigation display (ND) on the captain's side, as well as the upper engine condition monitoring (ECAM) display. On the other hand, DMC 2 supplies data to the PFD and ND on the first officer's side, as well as the lower ECAM display.
39.
On the Autoland approach, with both autopilots on, which FMGC is master?
Correct Answer
A. FMGC 1
Explanation
In an Autoland approach with both autopilots engaged, the master FMGC (Flight Management and Guidance Computer) would be FMGC 1. This means that FMGC 1 is responsible for controlling and managing the flight guidance system during the approach and landing phase. FMGC 2 may still be active and providing redundancy, but it is not the primary controller in this scenario.
40.
What does the LOW ACCURACY message mean?
Correct Answer
C. FMGC position and actual radio position difference exceeds limits.
Explanation
The LOW ACCURACY message indicates that the difference between the FMGC position and the actual radio position exceeds the set limits. This means that the calculated position by the Flight Management and Guidance Computer (FMGC) does not match the actual position determined by the radio. This could be due to various factors such as inaccuracies in the FMGC calculations or errors in the radio position data. It is important to address this issue to ensure accurate navigation and flight control.