Airbus A320 Engine System Quiz!
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How many FADEC´s are installed in the aircraft?
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Two one per engine .
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One , with two Engine control unit (ECU)
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Two , one is active FADEC and the other is a standby.
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What do you know about the Airbus A320 engine system? Would you like to try this quiz? Airbus has designed a turbofan engine commanded by digital fuel controls, and it provides commercial operators with flexible seating arrangements. The A320 family is powered by two CFM 56-5 IAE V2500 or PW 6000 engines. This quiz can facilitate you learning more about See morethe Airbus A320 engine.
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- 2.
IN addition to when the engine is operating, when else will the FADEC be powered?
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AS long as electric power is established on the aircraft , the FADEC is powered.
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For five minutes after electrical power is applied to the aircraft , when the FADEC GND PWR pb on the maintenance panel is depressed , or when the ENG MODE control switch is placed to IGN/START position.
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When the FADEC GND PWR pb on the maintenance panel is depressed , or the ENG MASTER switch is placed to ON.
Correct Answer
A. For five minutes after electrical power is applied to the aircraft , when the FADEC GND PWR pb on the maintenance panel is depressed , or when the ENG MODE control switch is placed to IGN/START position.Explanation
The FADEC will be powered for five minutes after electrical power is applied to the aircraft, when the FADEC GND PWR pb on the maintenance panel is depressed, or when the ENG MODE control switch is placed to IGN/START position.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What would happen in flight if the FADEC´s alternator failed?
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Automatic control of the engine would be lost .
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The stand by channel of the ECU would take over.
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The FADEC would now be powered using ships power .
Correct Answer
A. The FADEC would now be powered using ships power .Explanation
If the FADEC's alternator failed during flight, it means that the primary power source for the FADEC is no longer functioning. In this scenario, the FADEC would switch to an alternative power source, which in this case is the ship's power. This would ensure that the FADEC continues to receive power and can still function properly, albeit through a different power supply.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Is there any mechanical linkage between the thrust levers and the engines?
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There is a mechanical linkage in case the ECU fails.
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No, it is totally electrical .
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No , it is electrically powered and hydraulic actuated.
Correct Answer
A. No, it is totally electrical .Explanation
The correct answer is "No, it is totally electrical." This means that there is no mechanical linkage between the thrust levers and the engines. Instead, the control of the engines is done entirely through electrical systems.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What is the primary function of the Engine Alliance GP7000 engine's fan?
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Generate thrust
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Compress air for combustion
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Reduce noise
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Cool the engine
Correct Answer
A. Generate thrustExplanation
The fan is the large, front-mounted component of a turbofan engine, and its primary function is to generate thrust by accelerating a large mass of air. While the fan also contributes to noise reduction and engine cooling, its main purpose is to provide the propulsive force that moves the aircraft forward.Rate this question:
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- 6.
When does oil quantity indication begin to pulse?
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Decreasing below 5 qts .
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During engine start .
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Oil quantity detector fault.
Correct Answer
A. Decreasing below 5 qts .Explanation
When the oil quantity in the engine decreases below 5 quarts, the oil quantity indication begins to pulse. This pulsing is a signal to alert the pilot or operator that the oil level is getting critically low and immediate action should be taken to prevent any damage to the engine. It is important to monitor the oil quantity closely and ensure that it is maintained at a safe level to ensure proper lubrication and functioning of the engine.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What does the FLEX represent in the FLX/MCT detent?
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This is a reduced thrust setting used for takeoff.
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This is the maximum continuous thrust setting for single engine operations.
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This is the thrust setting that should be chosen in the case of a single engine go around .
Correct Answer
A. This is a reduced thrust setting used for takeoff.Explanation
The term "FLEX" in the FLX/MCT detent represents a reduced thrust setting used for takeoff. This setting allows the aircraft to achieve the necessary performance for takeoff while reducing engine wear and increasing engine life. By using a lower thrust setting, the aircraft can also save fuel and reduce noise emissions during takeoff.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What is required for the FADEC to compute a reduced thrust setting?
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A FLEX temperature must be entered on the INIT page of the MCDU.
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Nothing , it is automatic function of the FADEC.
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A FLEX temperature must be entered on the TAKE OF PERF page of the MCDU.
Correct Answer
A. A FLEX temperature must be entered on the TAKE OF PERF page of the MCDU.Explanation
The FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) requires a FLEX temperature to be entered on the TAKE OFF PERF (Performance) page of the MCDU (Multifunction Control and Display Unit) in order to compute a reduced thrust setting. This is because the FLEX temperature is used to determine the maximum thrust that can be used for takeoff, based on factors such as runway length, aircraft weight, and ambient conditions. By entering the FLEX temperature, the FADEC can calculate the appropriate thrust level to optimize performance and ensure a safe takeoff.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What would happen during the take-off roll if the thrust levers were set to the FLEX/MCT detent without FLEX temperature being entered?
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Nothing , the thrust setting would be at FLEX since FADEC automatically calculates a reduced thrust setting .
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A LEVEL TWO warning would sound along with the appearance of an ECAM message .
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The thrust setting would be MCT and there would be no corresponding warnings.
Correct Answer
A. A LEVEL TWO warning would sound along with the appearance of an ECAM message .Explanation
If the thrust levers were set to the FLEX/MCT detent without entering the FLEX temperature, a LEVEL TWO warning would sound along with the appearance of an ECAM message. This is because the FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) automatically calculates a reduced thrust setting based on the entered FLEX temperature. Without the FLEX temperature being entered, the FADEC cannot calculate the appropriate thrust setting, leading to a warning and ECAM message.Rate this question:
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- 10.
During normal operation, in what detent are the thrust levers positioned once the thrust reduction altitude has been reached?
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FLX
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CR
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CL
Correct Answer
A. CLExplanation
During normal operation, once the thrust reduction altitude has been reached, the thrust levers are positioned in the CL (Climb) detent. This detent allows the aircraft to maintain a constant climb rate without any further increase in thrust. It is a standard procedure to reduce thrust at a specific altitude to optimize fuel consumption and engine performance while still maintaining a safe ascent. The CL detent ensures that the thrust levers remain in the appropriate position for this phase of flight.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Where is the thrust redaction altitude found and is the number always the same?
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Column four , row three of the FMA , it will always be 1500 ft AGL.
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TAKE OFF PERF page of the MCDU ,it can be modified.
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PROG page of the MCDU it can be modified in order to meet constrains.
Correct Answer
A. TAKE OFF PERF page of the MCDU ,it can be modified.Explanation
The correct answer is "TAKE OFF PERF page of the MCDU, it can be modified." This is because the TAKE OFF PERF page of the MCDU (Multipurpose Control and Display Unit) allows pilots to input specific performance data for takeoff, including the thrust reduction altitude. This altitude can be modified based on various factors such as aircraft weight, runway conditions, and performance requirements. Therefore, the number for the thrust reduction altitude found on the TAKE OFF PERF page of the MCDU is not always the same and can be adjusted as needed.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Using manual thrust, the thrust lever position will determine the thrust setting for the engine.
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True ; they will operate like conventional throttles.
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True; but care must be taken not to overspeed the engines.
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False ; the next higher detent will be the thrust limit .
Correct Answer
A. True ; they will operate like conventional throttles.Explanation
The explanation for the given correct answer is that when using manual thrust, the thrust lever position will determine the thrust setting for the engine. This means that the thrust levers will function in a similar way to conventional throttles, where the position of the lever determines the amount of thrust being produced by the engine.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Verification that Auto thrust (A/THR) is active can be made by:
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Watching the automatic movement of the thrust levers.
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Only when the thrust lever are set at TOGA.
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Only by locking at column five of the FMA .
Correct Answer
A. Only by locking at column five of the FMA .Explanation
The correct answer is "Only by locking at column five of the FMA." This means that the only way to verify that Auto thrust (A/THR) is active is by looking at column five of the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA). This column displays the active mode of the autothrust system, indicating whether it is engaged or not. The other options mentioned, such as watching the automatic movement of the thrust levers or only when the thrust lever are set at TOGA, do not provide a reliable verification of the autothrust system's activation.Rate this question:
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- 14.
How can A/THR be ARMED automatically?
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Whenever a takeoff or go/around is initiated with at least one flight director ON.
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When Alpha floor protection is activated.
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Both A and B are correct.
Correct Answer
A. Both A and B are correct.Explanation
Both options A and B are correct because A/THR (Autothrust) can be armed automatically in two scenarios. Firstly, whenever a takeoff or go/around is initiated with at least one flight director ON, the A/THR system can be armed automatically. Secondly, when Alpha floor protection is activated, the A/THR system can also be armed automatically.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What is considered to be the active range of the A/THR system?
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During single engine operations from just above the IDLE stop tp the FLX/MCT detent.
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During two engine operations from just above the IDLE stop to CL detent .
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Both A and B above .
Correct Answer
A. Both A and B above .Explanation
The active range of the A/THR system is considered to be from just above the IDLE stop to the FLX/MCT detent during single engine operations, and from just above the IDLE stop to the CL detent during two engine operations.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What is Alpha floor protection?
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It helps prevent the aircraft from stalling and protects against wind shear encounters,
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It is a function of the flight control laws to prevent the aircraft from stalling.
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It helps prevent the aircraft from stalling by limiting the angle of bank at low airspeeds .
Correct Answer
A. It helps prevent the aircraft from stalling and protects against wind shear encounters,Explanation
Alpha floor protection is a function of the flight control laws that helps prevent the aircraft from stalling and protects against wind shear encounters. It is designed to automatically increase thrust to maximum power if the aircraft's angle of attack (AOA) reaches a certain threshold. This additional thrust helps to maintain lift and prevent the aircraft from stalling, especially during critical phases of flight such as takeoff and landing. In addition, alpha floor protection also provides protection against wind shear encounters, which can cause sudden changes in airspeed and altitude.Rate this question:
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- 17.
The alpha floor is available:
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From lift off down to 100 feet radio altitude in the landing configuration.
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From lift off and down to 50 feet radio altitude in the landing configuration.
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From lift off and down to 500 feet radio altitude in the landing configuration.
Correct Answer
A. From lift off down to 100 feet radio altitude in the landing configuration.Explanation
The alpha floor is a mode in the aircraft's autopilot system that automatically increases engine thrust to maximum power in order to prevent the aircraft from stalling. It is available from lift off down to 100 feet radio altitude in the landing configuration. This means that during takeoff and landing, the alpha floor mode will be active and provide maximum thrust to ensure the aircraft's safety and stability in critical phases of flight.Rate this question:
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- 18.
If the thrust levers are set in the idle detent, is Alpha floor protection still available?
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No , because the idle detent is out of the A/THR active range.
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Yes ; thrust lever position is disregarded.
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Yes ; as long as A/THR appears in column five.
Correct Answer
A. Yes ; thrust lever position is disregarded.Explanation
In this question, the correct answer is "Yes ; thrust lever position is disregarded." This means that even if the thrust levers are set in the idle detent, the Alpha floor protection is still available. The reason for this is that the Alpha floor protection system disregards the position of the thrust levers and activates based on the angle of attack (Alpha) of the aircraft. Therefore, regardless of the thrust lever position, the Alpha floor protection system will still be available.Rate this question:
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- 19.
When the Alpha floor is active, what power setting is automatically commanded, and what FMA annunciation would appear in Column one?
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TOGA , A/FLOOR.
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CLB ,CLB
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MCT , THR LK
Correct Answer
A. TOGA , A/FLOOR.Explanation
When the Alpha floor is active, the power setting that is automatically commanded is TOGA (Takeoff/Go-Around). The FMA (Flight Mode Annunciator) annunciation that would appear in Column one is A/FLOOR, indicating that the aircraft is in Alpha floor mode where automatic thrust is applied to prevent the aircraft from stalling.Rate this question:
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- 20.
It is possible to disconnect the Alpha floor?
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NO , Alpha floor protection is always available.
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Yes , by placing the thrust levers to IDLE.
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Yes , by depressing the autothrotle push button on the FCU.
Correct Answer
A. Yes , by depressing the autothrotle push button on the FCU.Explanation
The correct answer is "Yes, by depressing the autothrottle push button on the FCU." This means that it is possible to disconnect the Alpha floor protection by pressing the autothrottle push button on the Flight Control Unit (FCU). This action will disconnect the Alpha floor protection system.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Holding the instinctive disconnect push buttons for more than fifteen seconds will:
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Disengage the A/THR (including A.Floor )for the remainder of the flight .
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Disengage the A/THR (excluding A, Floor ) for the remainder of the flight.
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Disengage the A/THR (Including A,Floor ) until below 500 feet AGL for the remainder of the flight.
Correct Answer
A. Disengage the A/THR (including A.Floor )for the remainder of the flight .Explanation
Holding the instinctive disconnect push buttons for more than fifteen seconds will disengage the A/THR (including A.Floor) for the remainder of the flight. This means that the automatic thrust control system, including the automatic floor function, will be deactivated and the pilots will have to manually control the thrust for the rest of the flight.Rate this question:
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- 22.
While flying the airplane with A/THR active the speed knob is pulled and turned to a selected speed that happens to be slower than the Alpha port, What speed will the A/C slow?
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Vf
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Vso
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Vls
Correct Answer
A. VlsExplanation
When the speed knob is pulled and turned to a selected speed that is slower than the Alpha port, the aircraft will slow down to Vls. Vls refers to the lowest selectable speed, also known as the stalling speed in landing configuration. This speed is crucial to prevent the aircraft from stalling or losing lift during approach and landing. By selecting a speed slower than the Alpha port, the A/THR (Autothrust) system will adjust the thrust to maintain the aircraft at Vls, ensuring safe flight operations.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The left column, first line of the FMA is used to indicate:
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If A/THR is off , armed or active .
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The mode of the A/THR in use when A/THR is armed or active .
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Amber caution messages.
Correct Answer
A. The mode of the A/THR in use when A/THR is armed or active .Explanation
The left column, first line of the FMA is used to indicate the mode of the A/THR in use when A/THR is armed or active.Rate this question:
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- 24.
As far as FMA annunciation are concerned, what would indicate that the A/THR system is active?
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A/THR changes from blue to white as shown in column five line three.
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SPEED , appears in green in column one ,line one .
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A/THR changes from white to blue in column five , line one.
Correct Answer
A. A/THR changes from blue to white as shown in column five line three.Explanation
The correct answer is that the A/THR system is active when it changes from blue to white as shown in column five, line three. This indicates that the system is engaged and controlling the aircraft's thrust.Rate this question:
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- 25.
For reverser actuation, the left engine uses.......... hydraulic system pressure and the right engine uses....... hydraulic system pressure.
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Green , yellow
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Yellow , blue.
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Yellow , green.
Correct Answer
A. Green , yellowExplanation
The left engine uses green hydraulic system pressure for reverser actuation, while the right engine uses yellow hydraulic system pressure.Rate this question:
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- 26.
During an automatic start, the FADEC controls:
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The start valves , igniters and fuel flow .
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The start valves , igniters , HP and LP fuel valves.
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The start valves , igniters ,HP and LP fuel valves and fuel flow.
Correct Answer
A. The start valves , igniters ,HP and LP fuel valves and fuel flow.Explanation
During an automatic start, the FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) is responsible for controlling various components. The start valves are controlled by the FADEC to regulate the flow of air during the start-up process. The igniters are also controlled by the FADEC to provide the necessary spark for ignition. Additionally, the FADEC controls the high-pressure (HP) and low-pressure (LP) fuel valves, which regulate the flow of fuel into the engine. Lastly, the FADEC manages the fuel flow, ensuring the proper amount of fuel is delivered to the engine for a successful start.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What conditions automatically activate continuous ignition?
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Engine flameout , TO/GA selected in flight , engine anti ice selected ON and laps lever 0.
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Engine flameout , ignition delay , engine anti ice selected OFF and HMU failure .
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None of the above.
Correct Answer
A. None of the above.Explanation
The correct answer is "None of the above." This means that there are no specific conditions mentioned in the options that automatically activate continuous ignition. Therefore, it can be inferred that continuous ignition does not have any automatic activation criteria listed in the given options.Rate this question:
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- 28.
The FADEC will automatically abort an abnormal start thereby providing engine limit protection, but will the FADEC also automatically dry crank the engine?
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No, that is why there is a CRANK selection on the ENG MODE selector.
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Yes , even if the crew interrupts the start by placing the ENG MASTER switch to OFF.
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Yes, as long as the ENG MASTER switch remains in the ON position.
Correct Answer
A. Yes, as long as the ENG MASTER switch remains in the ON position.Explanation
The correct answer is "Yes, as long as the ENG MASTER switch remains in the ON position." This means that the FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) will automatically dry crank the engine if the ENG MASTER switch is in the ON position. It implies that the FADEC has the capability to initiate and control the engine start process without any intervention from the crew.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What abnormalities would cause the FADEC to automatically abort a start?
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A hot start, an overtem, a stalled or no lightoff.
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A hot start, a stalled , an overtime , or APU underspeed.
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A hot start, an overtemp, or an engine overspeed.
Correct Answer
A. A hot start, an overtem, a stalled or no lightoff.Explanation
The FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) is a system that controls and monitors the engine start process. A hot start occurs when the engine exceeds its temperature limits during start-up. An overtemp refers to the engine exceeding safe temperature limits during operation. A stalled start happens when the engine fails to accelerate properly during start-up. No lightoff means that the engine does not ignite and start running. Any of these abnormalities during start-up would trigger the FADEC to automatically abort the start process.Rate this question:
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- 30.
During a manual start, how is the start valve opened?
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It is automatic once the ENG MASTER is placed to the ON position.
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By depressing the ENG MAN START pb´s on the overhead panel.
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By depressing the ENG MAN START pb´s on the overhead panel while the ENG MODE selector is in IGN position.
Correct Answer
A. By depressing the ENG MAN START pb´s on the overhead panel while the ENG MODE selector is in IGN position. -
- 31.
Which of the following is NOT a type of engine used on the Airbus A320 family of aircraft?
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CFM International CFM56
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International Aero Engines V2500
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Pratt & Whitney PW1000G
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Rolls-Royce Trent 1000
Correct Answer
A. Rolls-Royce Trent 1000Explanation
The Rolls-Royce Trent 1000 is a high-bypass turbofan engine primarily used on Boeing aircraft, not the Airbus A320. The CFM56 and V2500 are the two main engine options for the A320ceo (current engine option), while the PW1000G is used on the A320neo (new engine option).Rate this question:
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- 32.
Does the FADEC provide EGT limit protection constantly?
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Yes , in all phases of flight.
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No , EGT limit protection is only available during ground auto starts.
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No, EGT limit protection is only available during ground auto starts and single engine operations.
Correct Answer
A. No , EGT limit protection is only available during ground auto starts.Explanation
The correct answer is "No, EGT limit protection is only available during ground auto starts." This means that the FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control) does not provide EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) limit protection constantly in all phases of flight. It is only available during ground auto starts, which suggests that the EGT limit protection may not be active during other phases of flight.Rate this question:
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- 33.
When is T.O. INHIBIT and LDG INHIBIT active?
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T.O to 1500 feet AGL ,LND below 750 feet AGL.
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T.O to 1000 feet AGL , LND below 1000 feet AGL.
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T.O. to 750 feet AGL ,LND below 1500 feet AGL.
Correct Answer
A. T.O to 1500 feet AGL ,LND below 750 feet AGL. -
- 34.
The idle setting on the aircraft is capable of modulating due to certain conditions. During descent what might cause the IDLE n1 setting to increase?
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The slats are extended.
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For a higher than normal bleed air demand or warmer than normal engine oil temp in flight.
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A and B
Correct Answer
A. A and BExplanation
During descent, the slats are extended to increase the lift and maintain the desired descent rate. This increase in lift requires more engine power, causing the IDLE N1 setting to increase. Additionally, if there is a higher than normal bleed air demand or warmer than normal engine oil temperature in flight, the engine may need to work harder to compensate for these conditions, leading to an increase in the IDLE N1 setting. Therefore, both the extension of slats and the higher demands or temperatures can cause the IDLE N1 setting to increase.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What is the difference between the variable thrust and the speed mode?
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In the variable thrust mode , thrust is fixed and speed is controlled by the elevator.
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In the fixed thrust mode , thrust is variable and speed is controlled by the elevator.
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In the fixed thrust mode, thrusts fixed and the elevator controls the speed .
Correct Answer
A. In the fixed thrust mode, thrusts fixed and the elevator controls the speed .Explanation
In the fixed thrust mode, the thrust is set at a constant value and cannot be changed. In this mode, the elevator is responsible for controlling the speed of the vehicle. By adjusting the elevator, the pilot can change the angle of attack of the aircraft, which in turn affects the lift and drag forces. This allows the pilot to control the speed of the aircraft without changing the thrust.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What are the two basic modes of the A/THR system?
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Thrust and Mach.
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Variable thrust and fixed speed .
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Mach and speed.
Correct Answer
A. Variable thrust and fixed speed .Explanation
The correct answer is "Variable thrust and fixed speed." The A/THR system, which stands for Autothrust, has two basic modes. In the variable thrust mode, the system adjusts the thrust of the engines to maintain a specific target speed. This allows for flexibility in different flight conditions and helps to optimize fuel efficiency. On the other hand, the fixed speed mode maintains a constant speed, regardless of changes in the aircraft's flight path or external factors. By combining these two modes, the A/THR system ensures both speed control and efficient engine performance.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Can the engines be over boosted in the TOGA position?
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No , because the EIU is responsible for monitoring N1 and N2 .
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Yes, if the auto thrust function is no active .
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No , because the ECU provides engine protection limit by monitoring N1 , N2 and HMU fuel flow adjustments.
Correct Answer
A. No , because the ECU provides engine protection limit by monitoring N1 , N2 and HMU fuel flow adjustments.Explanation
The correct answer is No, because the ECU provides engine protection limit by monitoring N1, N2, and HMU fuel flow adjustments. The ECU (Engine Control Unit) is responsible for ensuring that the engines operate within safe limits. It monitors various parameters such as N1 and N2 (engine rotational speeds) and HMU fuel flow adjustments (Hydromechanical Unit fuel flow adjustments). If the engines were to be overboosted in the TOGA (Takeoff/Go-around) position, the ECU would detect this and intervene to prevent any damage to the engines. Therefore, the engines cannot be overboosted in the TOGA position due to the engine protection provided by the ECU.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Where is the information displayed by DMC 1 and DMC 2? This question belongs to Autopilot/PFD/NAVIGATION, Not to this subject.
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DMC 1 supplies data to PFD 1 , ND 1 and LOWER ECAM ,DMC 2 supplies data for PFD 2 , ND 2 and UPPER ECAM.
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DMC 1 supplies data for PFD 2 , ND 2 and LOWER ECAM , DMC 2 supplies data for PFD 1 , ND 1 and UPPER ECAM.
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DMC 1 supplies data to PFD 1 , ND 1 and UPPER ECAM, DMC 2 supplies data for PFD 2 , ND 2 and LOWER ECAM.
Correct Answer
A. DMC 1 supplies data to PFD 1 , ND 1 and UPPER ECAM, DMC 2 supplies data for PFD 2 , ND 2 and LOWER ECAM.Explanation
The correct answer states that DMC 1 supplies data to PFD 1, ND 1, and UPPER ECAM, while DMC 2 supplies data for PFD 2, ND 2, and LOWER ECAM. This means that DMC 1 is responsible for providing information to the primary flight display (PFD) and navigation display (ND) on the captain's side, as well as the upper engine condition monitoring (ECAM) display. On the other hand, DMC 2 supplies data to the PFD and ND on the first officer's side, as well as the lower ECAM display.Rate this question:
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- 39.
On the Autoland approach, with both autopilots on, which FMGC is master?
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FMGC 1
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FMGC 2
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Both.
Correct Answer
A. FMGC 1Explanation
In an Autoland approach with both autopilots engaged, the master FMGC (Flight Management and Guidance Computer) would be FMGC 1. This means that FMGC 1 is responsible for controlling and managing the flight guidance system during the approach and landing phase. FMGC 2 may still be active and providing redundancy, but it is not the primary controller in this scenario.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What does the LOW ACCURACY message mean?
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FMGC 1 and 2 position difference exceeds limits.
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FMGC position and IR position difference exceeds limits.
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FMGC position and actual radio position difference exceeds limits.
Correct Answer
A. FMGC position and actual radio position difference exceeds limits.Explanation
The LOW ACCURACY message indicates that the difference between the FMGC position and the actual radio position exceeds the set limits. This means that the calculated position by the Flight Management and Guidance Computer (FMGC) does not match the actual position determined by the radio. This could be due to various factors such as inaccuracies in the FMGC calculations or errors in the radio position data. It is important to address this issue to ensure accurate navigation and flight control.Rate this question:
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