Aircraft Quiz Volume 3

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 798

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Aircraft Quizzes & Trivia

Volume 3 review questions


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The polar axis is the
    • A. 

      Circle equal distance from the poles

    • B. 

      Axis about which the earth rotates

    • C. 

      Circle formed by any plane that passes through the center of the earth

    • D. 

      Axis about which the moon rotates

  • 2. 
    What is formed on the surface of the Earth by any plane that passes through the center of the Earth and divides it into two equal parts?
    • A. 

      Parallel of latitude

    • B. 

      Great circle

    • C. 

      Meridian of longitude

    • D. 

      Equator

  • 3. 
    Which system utilizes the equator as one fixed regerence point and the Greenwich meridian as the other fixed reference point?
    • A. 

      Instrument landing

    • B. 

      Aircraft landing

    • C. 

      Geographic coordinate

    • D. 

      Inertial navigation

  • 4. 
    The prime meridian is the
    • A. 

      Circle equal distance between the north and south poles

    • B. 

      Meridian passing through Greenwich, England

    • C. 

      Meridian designated the 180 degree meridian

    • D. 

      Circle designated 0 degree latitude

  • 5. 
    From the prime meridian east to the international dateline, meridians are assigned values of
    • A. 

      0 to 90 degrees east

    • B. 

      0 to 180 degrees west

    • C. 

      0 to 90 degrees west

    • D. 

      0 to 180 east

  • 6. 
    From the prime meridian west to the international dateline, meridians are assigned values of
    • A. 

      0 to 90 degrees east

    • B. 

      0 to 90 degrees west

    • C. 

      0 to 180 degrees west

    • D. 

      0 to 180 degrees east

  • 7. 
    In navigation, the primary reference is
    • A. 

      90 degrees

    • B. 

      North

    • C. 

      The equator

    • D. 

      0 degrees

  • 8. 
    North on a compass rose is
    • A. 

      90 degrees

    • B. 

      270 degrees

    • C. 

      180 degrees

    • D. 

      0 degrees

  • 9. 
    Relative bearing of an aircraft is the direction measured clockwise from
    • A. 

      The aircraft heading to the object

    • B. 

      True north to the object

    • C. 

      0 degrees to the object

    • D. 

      The object to true north

  • 10. 
    The effect of wind on an aircraft is
    • A. 

      Unimportant

    • B. 

      Negligible

    • C. 

      Significant

    • D. 

      Slight

  • 11. 
    The sideward displacement of an aircraft by the wind is called
    • A. 

      Deviation

    • B. 

      Yaw

    • C. 

      Groundspeed

    • D. 

      Drift

  • 12. 
    The rate of movement of an aircraft relative to the Earth's surface is called
    • A. 

      Airspeed

    • B. 

      Velocity

    • C. 

      Groundspeed

    • D. 

      Drift

  • 13. 
    What is used to correct true heading and allow the aircraft to make good the desired true course?
    • A. 

      Drift correction

    • B. 

      Ground speed correction

    • C. 

      Airspeed correction

    • D. 

      Wind disbursement

  • 14. 
    A vector diagram that shows the effect of the wind on the flight of an aircraft is called the
    • A. 

      Wind triangle

    • B. 

      Navigation chart

    • C. 

      Destination chart

    • D. 

      Flight path

  • 15. 
    On navigation charts, the lines that connect points of equal magnetic variation are called
    • A. 

      Deviation lines

    • B. 

      Agonic

    • C. 

      Variation lines

    • D. 

      Isogonic

  • 16. 
    If the airspeed of the aircraft is too fast, a falling bomb
    • A. 

      Hits the target

    • B. 

      Overshoots the target

    • C. 

      Falls to the side of the target

    • D. 

      Falls short of the target

  • 17. 
    Air resistance causing a falling bomb to
    • A. 

      Fall unpredictably

    • B. 

      Lag

    • C. 

      Lead

    • D. 

      Fall rapid

  • 18. 
    A head wind causes a falling bomb to
    • A. 

      Fall short of the target

    • B. 

      Fall left or right of the target

    • C. 

      Hit the target

    • D. 

      Overshoot the target

  • 19. 
    A cross wind causes a falling bomb to
    • A. 

      Hit the target

    • B. 

      Fall short of the target

    • C. 

      Fall left or right of the target

    • D. 

      Overshoot the target

  • 20. 
    The configuration of the onboard weapons can be described in the
    • A. 

      Release table

    • B. 

      Stores table

    • C. 

      Gravity table

    • D. 

      Action point table

  • 21. 
    The preplanned flight route can be described in the
    • A. 

      Stores table

    • B. 

      Gravity table

    • C. 

      Release table

    • D. 

      Action point table

  • 22. 
    Which is not a basic inertial navigation system component?
    • A. 

      Indicator

    • B. 

      Computer

    • C. 

      Integrator

    • D. 

      Accelerometer

  • 23. 
    The changing of position with respect to some other body is called
    • A. 

      Speed

    • B. 

      Reference

    • C. 

      Motion

    • D. 

      Velocity

  • 24. 
    Which is used to maintain accelerometer orientation in the inertial navigation system?
    • A. 

      Platform

    • B. 

      Summing unit

    • C. 

      Integrator

    • D. 

      Computer

  • 25. 
    What LRU consists of a gyro-stabilized platform, platform electronics, navigation computer, input/output functions, and power supply?
    • A. 

      General navigation avionics control unit

    • B. 

      Inertial navigation unit

    • C. 

      Terrain-following avionics control unit

    • D. 

      Doppler velocity sensor

  • 26. 
    What LRU is the prime sensor for measuring motion and velocity, and establishes and maintains a measurable frame of reference on the B-1B?
    • A. 

      General navigation avionics control unit

    • B. 

      Inertial navigation unit

    • C. 

      Terrain-following avionics control unit

    • D. 

      Doppler velocity sensor

  • 27. 
    Which component is the central controller for the INU?
    • A. 

      Stabilized platform

    • B. 

      Platform electronics

    • C. 

      Power supply

    • D. 

      Navigation computer

  • 28. 
    The indicators on the front of the inertial navigation unit are used to
    • A. 

      Allow adjustments to the inertial navigation unit

    • B. 

      Identify malfunctions within the inertial navigation unit

    • C. 

      Indicate the normal operation of the inertial navigation unit

    • D. 

      Provide inputs during checkout

  • 29. 
    What schedules task execution that selects the inertial navigation unit's mode, performs mode initialization, provides geographic-oriented system outputs (including data representing Earth radii and gravity vectors), monitors the INU's performance, and reports system failures?
    • A. 

      Avionics operational flight program

    • B. 

      Built-in test function

    • C. 

      Preprocessor formatting software

    • D. 

      Operational flight program

  • 30. 
    Which is vital to the performance of the inertial navigation system?
    • A. 

      Operating temperature

    • B. 

      Operating power

    • C. 

      Operating pressure

    • D. 

      Operating impedance

  • 31. 
    Below what temperature does the modulator valve close to prevent over-cooling of the INU?
    • A. 

      80 F

    • B. 

      170 F

    • C. 

      120 F

    • D. 

      90 F

  • 32. 
    What avionics multiplexing data bus provides the path for the inertial navigation unit to communicate with the avionics control unit complex and, eventually, all other aircraft systems?
    • A. 

      AMUX

    • B. 

      CMUX

    • C. 

      DMUX

    • D. 

      BMUX

  • 33. 
    During the air align mode of the INU, how should the aircraft be flown?
    • A. 

      With a slow descent at a constant velocity

    • B. 

      Straight and level, and at a constant velocity

    • C. 

      As normal; no special considerations are necessary

    • D. 

      With a slow ascent at a constant velocity

  • 34. 
    What inertial navigation unit mode continuously tracks aircraft position with respect to the point of origin and destination?
    • A. 

      Air align

    • B. 

      Stored heading align

    • C. 

      Navigate

    • D. 

      Precision align

  • 35. 
    What INU mode is about 45 minutes in duration?
    • A. 

      Stored heading align

    • B. 

      Precision align

    • C. 

      Air align

    • D. 

      Navigate

  • 36. 
    Errors in the orbit and clock data of the GPS satellites are detected in the
    • A. 

      Global positioning system

    • B. 

      Satellites

    • C. 

      Monitor stations

    • D. 

      Master control station

  • 37. 
    In GPS, almanac data is transmitted to each satellite to each satellite to update the navigation data message once every
    • A. 

      48 hours

    • B. 

      24 hours

    • C. 

      12 hours

    • D. 

      6 hours

  • 38. 
    How many radio-frequency signals are transmitted from each GPS satellite?
    • A. 

      Three

    • B. 

      One

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Two

  • 39. 
    The GPS has a three-dimensional position navigation accuracy of
    • A. 

      16 meters

    • B. 

      0.16 meters

    • C. 

      1.6 meters

    • D. 

      160 meters

  • 40. 
    The naviagtional system of GPS has a time accuracy to
    • A. 

      50 nanoseconds

    • B. 

      200 nanoseconds

    • C. 

      100 nanoseconds

    • D. 

      150 nanoseconds

  • 41. 
    Which GPS component is passive, meaning it does not require power, adjustments, or controls to function?
    • A. 

      Antenna amplifier

    • B. 

      Antenna controller

    • C. 

      Receiver

    • D. 

      Antenna

  • 42. 
    Which GPS unit provides a display for the ARN-151?
    • A. 

      Indicator control

    • B. 

      Receiver

    • C. 

      Antenna controller

    • D. 

      Mount

  • 43. 
    The purpose of the ARN-151 receiver unit is to
    • A. 

      Process the intermediate-frequency signal and calculate it into a navigation solution

    • B. 

      Process the radio-frequency signal and calculate it into a navigation solution

    • C. 

      Demodulate the radio-frequency signal to produce an audio signal

    • D. 

      Demodulate the intermediate-frequency signal to produce an audio signal

  • 44. 
    When the operator initializes the GPS, what is provided to the GPS to begin satellite tracking?
    • A. 

      Position, altitude, and speed

    • B. 

      Position, time, and almanac information

    • C. 

      Altitude, time, and speed

    • D. 

      Altitude, time, and almanac information

  • 45. 
    Which GPS LRU nulls out (decreases) the unwanted signal by vector addition of all signal inputs?
    • A. 

      Antenna controller

    • B. 

      Antenna

    • C. 

      Receiver

    • D. 

      Antenna amplifier

  • 46. 
    Which part of a radar set amplifies and converts a wave into a video signal?
    • A. 

      Transmitter

    • B. 

      Indicator

    • C. 

      Receiver

    • D. 

      Antenna

  • 47. 
    In which radar system is the transmitter turned on for short periods of time and off for long periods of time?
    • A. 

      Beacon

    • B. 

      Frequency-shift

    • C. 

      Frequency-modulation

    • D. 

      Pulse-modulation

  • 48. 
    In a pulse-modulation radar system, the transmitter does not interfere with the receiver because the transmitter
    • A. 

      Uses a different antenna than the receiver

    • B. 

      Transmits on a different frequency

    • C. 

      Shifts the frequency of the pulse

    • D. 

      Is turned off after each pulse

  • 49. 
    To accurately locate an object in space by radar pulses, you need to know the
    • A. 

      Altitude and speed

    • B. 

      Range and direction

    • C. 

      Altitude and range

    • D. 

      Speed and direction

  • 50. 
    Which radar system can only detect objects approaching or moving away from the receiver?
    • A. 

      Frequency-modulation

    • B. 

      Pulse-modulation

    • C. 

      Beacon

    • D. 

      Frequency-shift

  • 51. 
    In a pulse-modulation radar system, the pulse repetition frequency is the number of pulses
    • A. 

      That are transmitted within 1 second

    • B. 

      That strike the target within 1 second

    • C. 

      Transmitted during the listening time

    • D. 

      That are received within 1 second

  • 52. 
    Which component in a pulse-modulation radar set provides the voltages that operate the other radar components?
    • A. 

      Transmitter

    • B. 

      Power supply

    • C. 

      Indicator

    • D. 

      Antenna

  • 53. 
    Which component in a pulse-modulation radar system shapes the radio-frequency energy into a narrow beam?
    • A. 

      Antenna

    • B. 

      Transmitter

    • C. 

      Synchronizer

    • D. 

      Indicator

  • 54. 
    What is produced in the pulse-modulation radar system by heterodyning?
    • A. 

      Intermediate-frequency

    • B. 

      Very-low frequency

    • C. 

      High-frequency

    • D. 

      Very-high frequency

  • 55. 
    The screen display on newer types of pulse-modulation radar indicators is called
    • A. 

      A sweep

    • B. 

      A map

    • C. 

      The spot

    • D. 

      A pulse

  • 56. 
    In a frequency-shift radar system, the Doppler principle makes it possible to instantaneously sense and measure
    • A. 

      Altitude and ground track

    • B. 

      Target elevation and speed

    • C. 

      Magnetic heading and altitude

    • D. 

      Groundspeed and drift angle

  • 57. 
    In a frequency-shift radar system, what is the relationship between a transmitter/receiver and an aircraft when no frequency shift between them can be measured?
    • A. 

      They are a constant distance away from each other

    • B. 

      The aircraft is flying away from the transmitter/receiver

    • C. 

      The aircraft is not reflecting any of the radar pulses

    • D. 

      The aircraft is flying towards the transmitter/receiver

  • 58. 
    In a frequency-shift radar system, what is the relationship between a  transmitter/receiver and an aircraft when the received frequency is higher than the transmitted frequency?
    • A. 

      They are a constant distance away from each other

    • B. 

      The aircraft is flying away from the transmitter/receiver

    • C. 

      The aircraft is flying towards the transmitter/receiver

    • D. 

      The aircraft is not reflecting any of the radar pulses

  • 59. 
    In a frequency-shift radar system, what is the relationship between a  transmitter/receiver and an aircraft when the received frequency is lower than the transmitted frequency?
    • A. 

      They are a constant distance away from each other

    • B. 

      The aircraft is flying away from the transmitter/receiver

    • C. 

      The aircraft is not reflecting any of the radar pulses

    • D. 

      The aircraft is flying towards the transmitter/receiver

  • 60. 
    The dimensions of a waveguide determine the waveguide's
    • A. 

      Frequency and power-handling capability

    • B. 

      Radiation loss and frequency

    • C. 

      VSWR and power-handling ability

    • D. 

      Frequency phase shift and power loss

  • 61. 
    The VSWR is determined by comparing the radar's
    • A. 

      Transmitter power to the transmitter frequency

    • B. 

      Reflected power to the receiver sensitivity

    • C. 

      Reflected power to the transmitter power

    • D. 

      Transmitter power to the receiver sensitivity

  • 62. 
    What radar set component provides stabilized pitch and roll reference data for control of antenna orientation, despite changes in aircraft attitude?
    • A. 

      CN-221A

    • B. 

      RT-289G

    • C. 

      AM-853B

    • D. 

      C-1242A

  • 63. 
    Which radar set LRU performs highly accurate electronic beam steering?
    • A. 

      Radar transmitter

    • B. 

      Low observable antenna

    • C. 

      Radar set control

    • D. 

      Radar data terminal

  • 64. 
    The part of the radar set's low observable antenna that is addressed to steer the radio-frequency beam is the
    • A. 

      Radio-frequency roll resolver

    • B. 

      Radio-frequency quadrant manifolds

    • C. 

      Radio-frequency monopulse comparator

    • D. 

      Phase control modules

  • 65. 
    To which item does the radar set's dual-channel beam steering controller selectively send digital phasing and polarization commands
    • A. 

      Roll resolver power supply

    • B. 

      Phase control module power supple

    • C. 

      Roll electronics assembly

    • D. 

      Phase control module

  • 66. 
    The purpose of the keyed automatic gain control gate while the radar altimeter is in track mode is to
    • A. 

      Generate internal range voltages proportional to aircraft altitude

    • B. 

      Control the processing of the ground returns

    • C. 

      Encompass and lock-on to the return video pulses

    • D. 

      Be timed to overlap return pulse leading edge

  • 67. 
    Which radar altimeter mode is initiated when an insufficient amount of return video is present during the keyed automatic gain control gate?
    • A. 

      Search/loss of track

    • B. 

      Track

    • C. 

      Ground map

    • D. 

      Standby

  • 68. 
    The radar altimeter TEST button provides the capability for testing the low-altitude fly-up circuits in the
    • A. 

      Radar data terminals and terrain-following avionic control units

    • B. 

      Radar data terminals and ground navigation avionic control units

    • C. 

      Ground navigation avionic control units and weapons delivery avionic control units

    • D. 

      Terrain-following avionic control units and delivery avionic control units

  • 69. 
    When is the radar altimeter height indicator OFF flag not displayed?
    • A. 

      The height indicator is turned off

    • B. 

      Aircraft altitude is above 5,000 feet above ground-level

    • C. 

      The radar altimeter is tracking the terrain

    • D. 

      Power to the radar altimeter is lost

  • 70. 
    Which radar application is used to produce a pictorial map of the terrain?
    • A. 

      Terrain avoidance

    • B. 

      Ground mapping

    • C. 

      Synthetic aperture radar

    • D. 

      Terrain-following

  • 71. 
    Which radar application is used primarily as an aid to navigation?
    • A. 

      Terrain avoidance

    • B. 

      Ground mapping

    • C. 

      Terrain-following

    • D. 

      Search

  • 72. 
    To achieve amplitude modulation, what device is used to ensure the output signal contains frequencies not present in the input signal?
    • A. 

      Linear amplifier

    • B. 

      Nonlinear amplifier

    • C. 

      Balanced amplifier

    • D. 

      Power amplifier

  • 73. 
    The frequencies created by the heterodyining process in an apmplitude-modulated transmitter modulator are the
    • A. 

      Sum of the two original frequncies and the two original frequencies

    • B. 

      Difference between the two original frequencies and the two original frequencies

    • C. 

      Sum of and difference between the two original frequencies

    • D. 

      Two original frequencies

  • 74. 
    In a frequency-modulated signal, the amount of frequency modulation is controlled by the modulating signal's
    • A. 

      Phase

    • B. 

      Rate

    • C. 

      Amplitude

    • D. 

      Frequency

  • 75. 
    In a frequency-modulated signal, the amount of separation between the sideband frequencies is equal to the
    • A. 

      Rate of carrier swing

    • B. 

      Carrier frequency

    • C. 

      Amplitude of the modulating signal

    • D. 

      Modulating frequency

  • 76. 
    The low-pass filter in the automatic frequency control circuitry of a frequency-modulated transmitter is designed to prevent
    • A. 

      The lower sideband from being transmitted

    • B. 

      The audio signal from the audio amplifier from tuning the reactance modulator

    • C. 

      Correction voltage changes caused by the modulating signals

    • D. 

      Carrier frequency feedback from tuning the reactance modulator

  • 77. 
    In a signal-sideband system, which mode of operation transmits both sidebands and deletes the carrier?
    • A. 

      Independent sideband

    • B. 

      Amplitude-modulate equivalent

    • C. 

      Single-sideband suppressed carrier

    • D. 

      Single-sideband transmission

  • 78. 
    In a single-sideband transmitter, the balance modulator's output consists of the
    • A. 

      Lower sideband only

    • B. 

      Upper sideband only

    • C. 

      Carrier and upper and lower sidebands

    • D. 

      Upper and lower sidebands

  • 79. 
    The ability of a radio receiver to reproduce weak signals is called
    • A. 

      Reception

    • B. 

      Sensitivity

    • C. 

      Detection

    • D. 

      Reproduction

  • 80. 
    Ina  typical amplitude-modulated superheterodyne receiver, the process used to tuned two or more circuits with a single control is called
    • A. 

      Slug tuning

    • B. 

      Ganged tuning

    • C. 

      Staggered tuning

    • D. 

      Parallel tuning

  • 81. 
    In an amplitude-modulated receiver, the detector circuit responds only to the
    • A. 

      Frequency variations of the intermediate-frequency signal

    • B. 

      Pulse width of the intermediate-frequency signal

    • C. 

      Rate of frequency deviation of the intermediate-frequency signal

    • D. 

      Amplitude variations of the intermediate-frequency signal

  • 82. 
    Two fundamental sections of the frequency-modulated receiver that are electrically different from those in the amplitude-modulated receiver are the
    • A. 

      Limiter and audio amplifier

    • B. 

      Radio-frequency amplifier and discriminator

    • C. 

      Local oscillator and detector

    • D. 

      Discriminator and limiter

  • 83. 
    The basic difference between the single-sideband receiver and a conventional superheterodyne receiver is the SSB receiver uses a
    • A. 

      Special detector and carrier reinsertion oscillator

    • B. 

      Discriminator and local oscillator circuit

    • C. 

      Limiter and second mixer circuit

    • D. 

      Carrier reinsertion oscillator and special mixer circuit

  • 84. 
    A major draw back in using a SSB receiver over an AM receiver is the
    • A. 

      Weak signals are easy to detect in the AM receiver

    • B. 

      Need for critical frequency stability

    • C. 

      SSB receiver has a narrower bandpass

    • D. 

      AM receiver requires only one oscillator circuit

  • 85. 
    A transmitting radio antenna is considered to be a transducer because it
    • A. 

      Has electromagnetic fields that impress a voltage to be transmitted

    • B. 

      Creates current oscillations to induce radio-frequency energy

    • C. 

      Converts energy to magnetic and electrical fields of force

    • D. 

      Transmits radio-frequency energy to distant locations

  • 86. 
    A receiving radio antenna receivers radio-frequency signals by
    • A. 

      Accepting and amplifying the minute current

    • B. 

      Electromagnetic fields impressing a voltage across the antenna, thus causing current to flow

    • C. 

      Removing the radio-frequency carrier wave

    • D. 

      Converting energy to magnetic and electrical fields of force

  • 87. 
    The radio-frequency line that has uniform capacitance between the conductors throughout the length of the line is the
    • A. 

      Flexible coaxial line

    • B. 

      Parallel two-wire

    • C. 

      Air coaxial line

    • D. 

      Shielded pair

  • 88. 
    What is the transmitted frequency when an HF radio control is set to 27.5 MHz, the signal is modulated by a 1000-hertz tone, and lower sideband mode is selected
    • A. 

      27.499 MHz

    • B. 

      27.501 MHz

    • C. 

      27.600 MHz

    • D. 

      26.500 MHz

  • 89. 
    In the ARC-190 HF radio system, the HF coupler matches the impedance of the antenna to the RT in order to
    • A. 

      Give maximum power transfer

    • B. 

      Increase receiver sensitivity

    • C. 

      Increase transmitter selectivity

    • D. 

      Increase the VSWR

  • 90. 
    If the external blower for an ARC-190 HF radio system is overheating, it causes a RT fault and
    • A. 

      Causes the RT fault light to turn off

    • B. 

      Keeps the coupler from tuning

    • C. 

      Keeps the transmitter from functioning

    • D. 

      Reduces the external blower speed

  • 91. 
    A VHF frequency-modulated radio is mainly used on aircraft that
    • A. 

      Contact Army ground troops

    • B. 

      Are under the control of civilian air traffic controllers

    • C. 

      Use Air Force-controlled airfields

    • D. 

      Contact airborne tankers for refueling

  • 92. 
    Which VHF radio system has the best chance of receiving a signal from a station located beyond the horizon?
    • A. 

      Super-high frequency

    • B. 

      Very-high frequency frequency modulation

    • C. 

      Very-high frequency amplitude modulation

    • D. 

      Ultra-high frequency

  • 93. 
    The frequency range of the ARC-186 VHF radio receiver in the AM mode is from
    • A. 

      116 to 151.975 MHz

    • B. 

      38 to 87.975 MHz

    • C. 

      108 to 151.975 MHz

    • D. 

      30 to 87.975 MHz

  • 94. 
    On which frequencies can the ARC-186 VHF radio not transmit in the AM mode?
    • A. 

      38 to 87.975 MHz

    • B. 

      108 to 151.975 MHz

    • C. 

      116 to 151.975 MHz

    • D. 

      30 to 87.975 MHz

  • 95. 
    The frequency range of the ARC-186 VHF radio receiver in the FM mode is from
    • A. 

      116 to 151.975 MHz

    • B. 

      108 to 151.975 MHz

    • C. 

      30 to 87.975 MHz

    • D. 

      38 to 87.975 MHz

  • 96. 
    UHF radios are primarily used for
    • A. 

      Line-of-sight communication

    • B. 

      Communication with civilian air traffic controllers

    • C. 

      Long range communications

    • D. 

      Direction-finding operations

  • 97. 
    HAVE QUICK radios resist jamming by
    • A. 

      Encryption

    • B. 

      Phase shifting

    • C. 

      Retransmission

    • D. 

      Frequency-hopping

  • 98. 
    When two signals are received simultaneously on the same operating net, the HAVE QUICK II radio automatically goes into conferencing by
    • A. 

      Setting the receiver to narrowband reception

    • B. 

      Injecting a beat frequency to make both signals unintelligible

    • C. 

      Offsetting the second transmitter frequency by 25 KHz

    • D. 

      Resetting the net number for communication

  • 99. 
    An advantage of the remote HAVE QUICK II configuration over the panel-mount cnfiguration in an aircraft is it
    • A. 

      Reduces cost by using existing aircraft wiring

    • B. 

      Can be used with a remote channel indicator

    • C. 

      Can be used with a UHF direction finding system

    • D. 

      Is more convenient for maintenance

  • 100. 
    The AN/ARC-210 receiver/transmitter does not provide
    • A. 

      Half-duplex, two-way communications of normal and secure voice frequency-modulated signals

    • B. 

      Transmit-only mode of operation of normal and secure voice from 108.000 to 117.9975 MHz AM

    • C. 

      Receive-only mode of operation of normal and secure voice from 108.000 to 117.9975 MHz AM

    • D. 

      Half-duplex, two-way communications of normal and secure voice AM signals