# Aircraft Quiz Volume 3

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 798  Settings  Volume 3 review questions

Related Topics
• 1.
The polar axis is the
• A.

Circle equal distance from the poles

• B.

Axis about which the earth rotates

• C.

Circle formed by any plane that passes through the center of the earth

• D.

Axis about which the moon rotates

• 2.
What is formed on the surface of the Earth by any plane that passes through the center of the Earth and divides it into two equal parts?
• A.

Parallel of latitude

• B.

Great circle

• C.

Meridian of longitude

• D.

Equator

• 3.
Which system utilizes the equator as one fixed regerence point and the Greenwich meridian as the other fixed reference point?
• A.

Instrument landing

• B.

Aircraft landing

• C.

Geographic coordinate

• D.

• 4.
The prime meridian is the
• A.

Circle equal distance between the north and south poles

• B.

Meridian passing through Greenwich, England

• C.

Meridian designated the 180 degree meridian

• D.

Circle designated 0 degree latitude

• 5.
From the prime meridian east to the international dateline, meridians are assigned values of
• A.

0 to 90 degrees east

• B.

0 to 180 degrees west

• C.

0 to 90 degrees west

• D.

0 to 180 east

• 6.
From the prime meridian west to the international dateline, meridians are assigned values of
• A.

0 to 90 degrees east

• B.

0 to 90 degrees west

• C.

0 to 180 degrees west

• D.

0 to 180 degrees east

• 7.
In navigation, the primary reference is
• A.

90 degrees

• B.

North

• C.

The equator

• D.

0 degrees

• 8.
North on a compass rose is
• A.

90 degrees

• B.

270 degrees

• C.

180 degrees

• D.

0 degrees

• 9.
Relative bearing of an aircraft is the direction measured clockwise from
• A.

The aircraft heading to the object

• B.

True north to the object

• C.

0 degrees to the object

• D.

The object to true north

• 10.
The effect of wind on an aircraft is
• A.

Unimportant

• B.

Negligible

• C.

Significant

• D.

Slight

• 11.
The sideward displacement of an aircraft by the wind is called
• A.

Deviation

• B.

Yaw

• C.

Groundspeed

• D.

Drift

• 12.
The rate of movement of an aircraft relative to the Earth's surface is called
• A.

Airspeed

• B.

Velocity

• C.

Groundspeed

• D.

Drift

• 13.
What is used to correct true heading and allow the aircraft to make good the desired true course?
• A.

Drift correction

• B.

Ground speed correction

• C.

Airspeed correction

• D.

Wind disbursement

• 14.
A vector diagram that shows the effect of the wind on the flight of an aircraft is called the
• A.

Wind triangle

• B.

• C.

Destination chart

• D.

Flight path

• 15.
On navigation charts, the lines that connect points of equal magnetic variation are called
• A.

Deviation lines

• B.

Agonic

• C.

Variation lines

• D.

Isogonic

• 16.
If the airspeed of the aircraft is too fast, a falling bomb
• A.

Hits the target

• B.

Overshoots the target

• C.

Falls to the side of the target

• D.

Falls short of the target

• 17.
Air resistance causing a falling bomb to
• A.

Fall unpredictably

• B.

Lag

• C.

• D.

Fall rapid

• 18.
A head wind causes a falling bomb to
• A.

Fall short of the target

• B.

Fall left or right of the target

• C.

Hit the target

• D.

Overshoot the target

• 19.
A cross wind causes a falling bomb to
• A.

Hit the target

• B.

Fall short of the target

• C.

Fall left or right of the target

• D.

Overshoot the target

• 20.
The configuration of the onboard weapons can be described in the
• A.

Release table

• B.

Stores table

• C.

Gravity table

• D.

Action point table

• 21.
The preplanned flight route can be described in the
• A.

Stores table

• B.

Gravity table

• C.

Release table

• D.

Action point table

• 22.
Which is not a basic inertial navigation system component?
• A.

Indicator

• B.

Computer

• C.

Integrator

• D.

Accelerometer

• 23.
The changing of position with respect to some other body is called
• A.

Speed

• B.

Reference

• C.

Motion

• D.

Velocity

• 24.
Which is used to maintain accelerometer orientation in the inertial navigation system?
• A.

Platform

• B.

Summing unit

• C.

Integrator

• D.

Computer

• 25.
What LRU consists of a gyro-stabilized platform, platform electronics, navigation computer, input/output functions, and power supply?
• A.

• B.

• C.

Terrain-following avionics control unit

• D.

Doppler velocity sensor

• 26.
What LRU is the prime sensor for measuring motion and velocity, and establishes and maintains a measurable frame of reference on the B-1B?
• A.

• B.

• C.

Terrain-following avionics control unit

• D.

Doppler velocity sensor

• 27.
Which component is the central controller for the INU?
• A.

Stabilized platform

• B.

Platform electronics

• C.

Power supply

• D.

• 28.
The indicators on the front of the inertial navigation unit are used to
• A.

• B.

Identify malfunctions within the inertial navigation unit

• C.

Indicate the normal operation of the inertial navigation unit

• D.

Provide inputs during checkout

• 29.
What schedules task execution that selects the inertial navigation unit's mode, performs mode initialization, provides geographic-oriented system outputs (including data representing Earth radii and gravity vectors), monitors the INU's performance, and reports system failures?
• A.

Avionics operational flight program

• B.

Built-in test function

• C.

Preprocessor formatting software

• D.

Operational flight program

• 30.
Which is vital to the performance of the inertial navigation system?
• A.

Operating temperature

• B.

Operating power

• C.

Operating pressure

• D.

Operating impedance

• 31.
Below what temperature does the modulator valve close to prevent over-cooling of the INU?
• A.

80 F

• B.

170 F

• C.

120 F

• D.

90 F

• 32.
What avionics multiplexing data bus provides the path for the inertial navigation unit to communicate with the avionics control unit complex and, eventually, all other aircraft systems?
• A.

AMUX

• B.

CMUX

• C.

DMUX

• D.

BMUX

• 33.
During the air align mode of the INU, how should the aircraft be flown?
• A.

With a slow descent at a constant velocity

• B.

Straight and level, and at a constant velocity

• C.

As normal; no special considerations are necessary

• D.

With a slow ascent at a constant velocity

• 34.
What inertial navigation unit mode continuously tracks aircraft position with respect to the point of origin and destination?
• A.

Air align

• B.

• C.

Navigate

• D.

Precision align

• 35.
What INU mode is about 45 minutes in duration?
• A.

• B.

Precision align

• C.

Air align

• D.

Navigate

• 36.
Errors in the orbit and clock data of the GPS satellites are detected in the
• A.

Global positioning system

• B.

Satellites

• C.

Monitor stations

• D.

Master control station

• 37.
In GPS, almanac data is transmitted to each satellite to each satellite to update the navigation data message once every
• A.

48 hours

• B.

24 hours

• C.

12 hours

• D.

6 hours

• 38.
How many radio-frequency signals are transmitted from each GPS satellite?
• A.

Three

• B.

One

• C.

Four

• D.

Two

• 39.
The GPS has a three-dimensional position navigation accuracy of
• A.

16 meters

• B.

0.16 meters

• C.

1.6 meters

• D.

160 meters

• 40.
The naviagtional system of GPS has a time accuracy to
• A.

50 nanoseconds

• B.

200 nanoseconds

• C.

100 nanoseconds

• D.

150 nanoseconds

• 41.
Which GPS component is passive, meaning it does not require power, adjustments, or controls to function?
• A.

Antenna amplifier

• B.

Antenna controller

• C.

• D.

Antenna

• 42.
Which GPS unit provides a display for the ARN-151?
• A.

Indicator control

• B.

• C.

Antenna controller

• D.

Mount

• 43.
The purpose of the ARN-151 receiver unit is to
• A.

Process the intermediate-frequency signal and calculate it into a navigation solution

• B.

• C.

Demodulate the radio-frequency signal to produce an audio signal

• D.

Demodulate the intermediate-frequency signal to produce an audio signal

• 44.
When the operator initializes the GPS, what is provided to the GPS to begin satellite tracking?
• A.

Position, altitude, and speed

• B.

Position, time, and almanac information

• C.

Altitude, time, and speed

• D.

Altitude, time, and almanac information

• 45.
Which GPS LRU nulls out (decreases) the unwanted signal by vector addition of all signal inputs?
• A.

Antenna controller

• B.

Antenna

• C.

• D.

Antenna amplifier

• 46.
Which part of a radar set amplifies and converts a wave into a video signal?
• A.

Transmitter

• B.

Indicator

• C.

• D.

Antenna

• 47.
In which radar system is the transmitter turned on for short periods of time and off for long periods of time?
• A.

Beacon

• B.

Frequency-shift

• C.

Frequency-modulation

• D.

Pulse-modulation

• 48.
In a pulse-modulation radar system, the transmitter does not interfere with the receiver because the transmitter
• A.

Uses a different antenna than the receiver

• B.

Transmits on a different frequency

• C.

Shifts the frequency of the pulse

• D.

Is turned off after each pulse

• 49.
To accurately locate an object in space by radar pulses, you need to know the
• A.

Altitude and speed

• B.

Range and direction

• C.

Altitude and range

• D.

Speed and direction

• 50.
Which radar system can only detect objects approaching or moving away from the receiver?
• A.

Frequency-modulation

• B.

Pulse-modulation

• C.

Beacon

• D.

Frequency-shift

• 51.
In a pulse-modulation radar system, the pulse repetition frequency is the number of pulses
• A.

That are transmitted within 1 second

• B.

That strike the target within 1 second

• C.

Transmitted during the listening time

• D.

That are received within 1 second

• 52.
Which component in a pulse-modulation radar set provides the voltages that operate the other radar components?
• A.

Transmitter

• B.

Power supply

• C.

Indicator

• D.

Antenna

• 53.
Which component in a pulse-modulation radar system shapes the radio-frequency energy into a narrow beam?
• A.

Antenna

• B.

Transmitter

• C.

Synchronizer

• D.

Indicator

• 54.
What is produced in the pulse-modulation radar system by heterodyning?
• A.

Intermediate-frequency

• B.

Very-low frequency

• C.

High-frequency

• D.

Very-high frequency

• 55.
The screen display on newer types of pulse-modulation radar indicators is called
• A.

A sweep

• B.

A map

• C.

The spot

• D.

A pulse

• 56.
In a frequency-shift radar system, the Doppler principle makes it possible to instantaneously sense and measure
• A.

Altitude and ground track

• B.

Target elevation and speed

• C.

• D.

Groundspeed and drift angle

• 57.
In a frequency-shift radar system, what is the relationship between a transmitter/receiver and an aircraft when no frequency shift between them can be measured?
• A.

They are a constant distance away from each other

• B.

The aircraft is flying away from the transmitter/receiver

• C.

The aircraft is not reflecting any of the radar pulses

• D.

The aircraft is flying towards the transmitter/receiver

• 58.
In a frequency-shift radar system, what is the relationship between a  transmitter/receiver and an aircraft when the received frequency is higher than the transmitted frequency?
• A.

They are a constant distance away from each other

• B.

The aircraft is flying away from the transmitter/receiver

• C.

The aircraft is flying towards the transmitter/receiver

• D.

The aircraft is not reflecting any of the radar pulses

• 59.
In a frequency-shift radar system, what is the relationship between a  transmitter/receiver and an aircraft when the received frequency is lower than the transmitted frequency?
• A.

They are a constant distance away from each other

• B.

The aircraft is flying away from the transmitter/receiver

• C.

The aircraft is not reflecting any of the radar pulses

• D.

The aircraft is flying towards the transmitter/receiver

• 60.
The dimensions of a waveguide determine the waveguide's
• A.

Frequency and power-handling capability

• B.

• C.

VSWR and power-handling ability

• D.

Frequency phase shift and power loss

• 61.
The VSWR is determined by comparing the radar's
• A.

Transmitter power to the transmitter frequency

• B.

Reflected power to the receiver sensitivity

• C.

Reflected power to the transmitter power

• D.

Transmitter power to the receiver sensitivity

• 62.
What radar set component provides stabilized pitch and roll reference data for control of antenna orientation, despite changes in aircraft attitude?
• A.

CN-221A

• B.

RT-289G

• C.

AM-853B

• D.

C-1242A

• 63.
Which radar set LRU performs highly accurate electronic beam steering?
• A.

• B.

Low observable antenna

• C.

• D.

• 64.
The part of the radar set's low observable antenna that is addressed to steer the radio-frequency beam is the
• A.

• B.

• C.

• D.

Phase control modules

• 65.
To which item does the radar set's dual-channel beam steering controller selectively send digital phasing and polarization commands
• A.

Roll resolver power supply

• B.

Phase control module power supple

• C.

Roll electronics assembly

• D.

Phase control module

• 66.
The purpose of the keyed automatic gain control gate while the radar altimeter is in track mode is to
• A.

Generate internal range voltages proportional to aircraft altitude

• B.

Control the processing of the ground returns

• C.

Encompass and lock-on to the return video pulses

• D.

Be timed to overlap return pulse leading edge

• 67.
Which radar altimeter mode is initiated when an insufficient amount of return video is present during the keyed automatic gain control gate?
• A.

Search/loss of track

• B.

Track

• C.

Ground map

• D.

Standby

• 68.
The radar altimeter TEST button provides the capability for testing the low-altitude fly-up circuits in the
• A.

Radar data terminals and terrain-following avionic control units

• B.

• C.

Ground navigation avionic control units and weapons delivery avionic control units

• D.

Terrain-following avionic control units and delivery avionic control units

• 69.
When is the radar altimeter height indicator OFF flag not displayed?
• A.

The height indicator is turned off

• B.

Aircraft altitude is above 5,000 feet above ground-level

• C.

The radar altimeter is tracking the terrain

• D.

Power to the radar altimeter is lost

• 70.
Which radar application is used to produce a pictorial map of the terrain?
• A.

Terrain avoidance

• B.

Ground mapping

• C.

• D.

Terrain-following

• 71.
• A.

Terrain avoidance

• B.

Ground mapping

• C.

Terrain-following

• D.

Search

• 72.
To achieve amplitude modulation, what device is used to ensure the output signal contains frequencies not present in the input signal?
• A.

Linear amplifier

• B.

Nonlinear amplifier

• C.

Balanced amplifier

• D.

Power amplifier

• 73.
The frequencies created by the heterodyining process in an apmplitude-modulated transmitter modulator are the
• A.

Sum of the two original frequncies and the two original frequencies

• B.

Difference between the two original frequencies and the two original frequencies

• C.

Sum of and difference between the two original frequencies

• D.

Two original frequencies

• 74.
In a frequency-modulated signal, the amount of frequency modulation is controlled by the modulating signal's
• A.

Phase

• B.

Rate

• C.

Amplitude

• D.

Frequency

• 75.
In a frequency-modulated signal, the amount of separation between the sideband frequencies is equal to the
• A.

Rate of carrier swing

• B.

Carrier frequency

• C.

Amplitude of the modulating signal

• D.

Modulating frequency

• 76.
The low-pass filter in the automatic frequency control circuitry of a frequency-modulated transmitter is designed to prevent
• A.

The lower sideband from being transmitted

• B.

The audio signal from the audio amplifier from tuning the reactance modulator

• C.

Correction voltage changes caused by the modulating signals

• D.

Carrier frequency feedback from tuning the reactance modulator

• 77.
In a signal-sideband system, which mode of operation transmits both sidebands and deletes the carrier?
• A.

Independent sideband

• B.

Amplitude-modulate equivalent

• C.

Single-sideband suppressed carrier

• D.

Single-sideband transmission

• 78.
In a single-sideband transmitter, the balance modulator's output consists of the
• A.

Lower sideband only

• B.

Upper sideband only

• C.

Carrier and upper and lower sidebands

• D.

Upper and lower sidebands

• 79.
The ability of a radio receiver to reproduce weak signals is called
• A.

Reception

• B.

Sensitivity

• C.

Detection

• D.

Reproduction

• 80.
Ina  typical amplitude-modulated superheterodyne receiver, the process used to tuned two or more circuits with a single control is called
• A.

Slug tuning

• B.

Ganged tuning

• C.

Staggered tuning

• D.

Parallel tuning

• 81.
In an amplitude-modulated receiver, the detector circuit responds only to the
• A.

Frequency variations of the intermediate-frequency signal

• B.

Pulse width of the intermediate-frequency signal

• C.

Rate of frequency deviation of the intermediate-frequency signal

• D.

Amplitude variations of the intermediate-frequency signal

• 82.
Two fundamental sections of the frequency-modulated receiver that are electrically different from those in the amplitude-modulated receiver are the
• A.

Limiter and audio amplifier

• B.

• C.

Local oscillator and detector

• D.

Discriminator and limiter

• 83.
The basic difference between the single-sideband receiver and a conventional superheterodyne receiver is the SSB receiver uses a
• A.

Special detector and carrier reinsertion oscillator

• B.

Discriminator and local oscillator circuit

• C.

Limiter and second mixer circuit

• D.

Carrier reinsertion oscillator and special mixer circuit

• 84.
A major draw back in using a SSB receiver over an AM receiver is the
• A.

Weak signals are easy to detect in the AM receiver

• B.

Need for critical frequency stability

• C.

SSB receiver has a narrower bandpass

• D.

AM receiver requires only one oscillator circuit

• 85.
A transmitting radio antenna is considered to be a transducer because it
• A.

Has electromagnetic fields that impress a voltage to be transmitted

• B.

Creates current oscillations to induce radio-frequency energy

• C.

Converts energy to magnetic and electrical fields of force

• D.

Transmits radio-frequency energy to distant locations

• 86.
• A.

Accepting and amplifying the minute current

• B.

Electromagnetic fields impressing a voltage across the antenna, thus causing current to flow

• C.

• D.

Converting energy to magnetic and electrical fields of force

• 87.
The radio-frequency line that has uniform capacitance between the conductors throughout the length of the line is the
• A.

Flexible coaxial line

• B.

Parallel two-wire

• C.

Air coaxial line

• D.

Shielded pair

• 88.
What is the transmitted frequency when an HF radio control is set to 27.5 MHz, the signal is modulated by a 1000-hertz tone, and lower sideband mode is selected
• A.

27.499 MHz

• B.

27.501 MHz

• C.

27.600 MHz

• D.

26.500 MHz

• 89.
In the ARC-190 HF radio system, the HF coupler matches the impedance of the antenna to the RT in order to
• A.

Give maximum power transfer

• B.

• C.

Increase transmitter selectivity

• D.

Increase the VSWR

• 90.
If the external blower for an ARC-190 HF radio system is overheating, it causes a RT fault and
• A.

Causes the RT fault light to turn off

• B.

Keeps the coupler from tuning

• C.

Keeps the transmitter from functioning

• D.

Reduces the external blower speed

• 91.
A VHF frequency-modulated radio is mainly used on aircraft that
• A.

Contact Army ground troops

• B.

Are under the control of civilian air traffic controllers

• C.

Use Air Force-controlled airfields

• D.

Contact airborne tankers for refueling

• 92.
Which VHF radio system has the best chance of receiving a signal from a station located beyond the horizon?
• A.

Super-high frequency

• B.

Very-high frequency frequency modulation

• C.

Very-high frequency amplitude modulation

• D.

Ultra-high frequency

• 93.
The frequency range of the ARC-186 VHF radio receiver in the AM mode is from
• A.

116 to 151.975 MHz

• B.

38 to 87.975 MHz

• C.

108 to 151.975 MHz

• D.

30 to 87.975 MHz

• 94.
On which frequencies can the ARC-186 VHF radio not transmit in the AM mode?
• A.

38 to 87.975 MHz

• B.

108 to 151.975 MHz

• C.

116 to 151.975 MHz

• D.

30 to 87.975 MHz

• 95.
The frequency range of the ARC-186 VHF radio receiver in the FM mode is from
• A.

116 to 151.975 MHz

• B.

108 to 151.975 MHz

• C.

30 to 87.975 MHz

• D.

38 to 87.975 MHz

• 96.
UHF radios are primarily used for
• A.

Line-of-sight communication

• B.

Communication with civilian air traffic controllers

• C.

Long range communications

• D.

Direction-finding operations

• 97.
HAVE QUICK radios resist jamming by
• A.

Encryption

• B.

Phase shifting

• C.

Retransmission

• D.

Frequency-hopping

• 98.
When two signals are received simultaneously on the same operating net, the HAVE QUICK II radio automatically goes into conferencing by
• A.

Setting the receiver to narrowband reception

• B.

Injecting a beat frequency to make both signals unintelligible

• C.

Offsetting the second transmitter frequency by 25 KHz

• D.

Resetting the net number for communication

• 99.
An advantage of the remote HAVE QUICK II configuration over the panel-mount cnfiguration in an aircraft is it
• A.

Reduces cost by using existing aircraft wiring

• B.

Can be used with a remote channel indicator

• C.

Can be used with a UHF direction finding system

• D.

Is more convenient for maintenance

• 100.
The AN/ARC-210 receiver/transmitter does not provide
• A.

Half-duplex, two-way communications of normal and secure voice frequency-modulated signals

• B.

Transmit-only mode of operation of normal and secure voice from 108.000 to 117.9975 MHz AM

• C.

Receive-only mode of operation of normal and secure voice from 108.000 to 117.9975 MHz AM

• D.

Half-duplex, two-way communications of normal and secure voice AM signals