Psy 307 Exam 2

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Psy 307 Exam 2 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    There is a type of validity that is _____.

    • A.

      Based on job analysis

    • B.

      Examines one measure at a time

    • C.

      Based on professional judgement

    • D.

      Involves face validity

    • E.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all the above" because all the options listed are types of validity. "Based on job analysis" refers to content validity, which ensures that the test measures the relevant skills and knowledge required for the job. "Examines one measure at a time" refers to construct validity, which assesses how well the test measures the theoretical construct it is intended to measure. "Based on professional judgement" refers to criterion-related validity, which involves comparing test scores with a criterion measure to determine how well the test predicts job performance. Lastly, "involves face validity" refers to the extent to which the test appears to measure what it is supposed to measure.

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  • 2. 

    The paradox of selection is that _____.

    • A.

      Both organizations and individuals are trying to attract

    • B.

      Both organizations and individuals are trying to select

    • C.

      What is done to attract makes selecting harder

    • D.

      All the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. What is done to attract makes selecting harder
    Explanation
    The paradox of selection refers to the situation where both organizations and individuals are simultaneously trying to attract and select each other. This creates a dilemma because the actions taken to attract potential candidates or opportunities can actually make the process of selecting the right fit more difficult. For example, organizations may use various marketing tactics to attract a large pool of candidates, but this can result in a larger number of applicants to sift through, making the selection process more challenging. Similarly, individuals may showcase their best qualities to attract potential employers, but this can make it harder for employers to accurately assess their suitability for the role.

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  • 3. 

    The less deviation from the regression line the _____ the correlation.  

    • A.

      Higher

    • B.

      Lower

    • C.

      More negative

    • D.

      Smaller

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Higher
    Explanation
    The less deviation from the regression line indicates a stronger correlation between the variables. This means that the relationship between the variables is more consistent and predictable, resulting in a higher correlation.

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  • 4. 

    _____ controls for error due to situation and is vulnarable to history effects.  

    • A.

      test-retest reliability

    • B.

      Sub-sample comparison reliability

    • C.

      Parallel forms reliability

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. test-retest reliability
    Explanation
    Test-retest reliability is the extent to which a measure produces consistent results when administered multiple times to the same group of individuals. It controls for error due to the situation, as it assesses the consistency of the measure across different testing occasions. It is also vulnerable to history effects, as any changes in the participants or the environment between the test and retest can influence the results. Therefore, test-retest reliability is the correct answer as it fits the given explanation.

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  • 5. 

    Aggregators need ____ to make up their minds.

    • A.

      Lots of information

    • B.

      Time

    • C.

      Clear understanding of their needs

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Aggregators need all of the above to make up their minds. Aggregators require lots of information to gather and analyze data from various sources. They also need time to process and evaluate this information. Additionally, a clear understanding of their needs is crucial for aggregators to make informed decisions. Therefore, all three options - lots of information, time, and a clear understanding of their needs - are necessary for aggregators to make up their minds.

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  • 6. 

    False negatives are _____.  

    • A.

      The percentage of people hired

    • B.

      the percentage of people interviewed

    • C.

      The percentage of successful people

    • D.

      The percentage of unsuccessful people

    • E.

      The percentage of people who would have been successful had they been hired

    Correct Answer
    E. The percentage of people who would have been successful had they been hired
    Explanation
    False negatives refer to the cases where a test or evaluation incorrectly identifies a negative outcome when it should have been positive. In the context of the question, false negatives are the percentage of people who would have been successful if they had been hired, but were wrongly identified as unsuccessful during the hiring process. This means that these individuals were not given the opportunity they deserved and were potentially overlooked due to an error in the hiring process.

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  • 7. 

    A company uses a manual dexterity test to hire people; it is discovered that manual dexterity is not related to success on the job. This indicates a problem with _____.

    • A.

      Reliability

    • B.

      Predictive validity

    • C.

      Content validity

    • D.

      Face validity

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Predictive validity
    Explanation
    This indicates a problem with predictive validity because the manual dexterity test is not able to accurately predict or measure success on the job.

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  • 8. 

    People who would have been successful but are not selected are called _____.  

    • A.

      False positives

    • B.

      False negatives

    • C.

      True negatives

    • D.

      True positives

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. False negatives
    Explanation
    False negatives refer to the situation where individuals who would have been successful are not selected. In other words, these are cases where the outcome is incorrectly classified as negative when it should have been positive. This term is commonly used in statistical analysis and classification models, where it represents the errors made by the model in failing to identify positive instances.

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  • 9. 

    False positives are people who _____.  

    • A.

      Would have been successful but were not hired

    • B.

      Are successful

    • C.

      Are not successful and were not hired

    • D.

      Who were hired but were not successful

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Who were hired but were not successful
    Explanation
    False positives refer to cases where individuals are incorrectly identified as belonging to a certain group or category. In the context of this question, false positives are individuals who were hired for a position but were ultimately not successful in their role. This means that they were given the opportunity and were hired, but for various reasons, they did not meet the expectations or requirements of the job.

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  • 10. 

    Assessment centers have multiple _____, _____, and _____.  

    • A.

      Dimensions, exercises, evaluators

    • B.

      Evaluators, performance factors, raters

    • C.

      Dimensions, evaluators, performance factors

    • D.

      Exercises, dimensions, behavior samples

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Dimensions, exercises, evaluators
    Explanation
    Assessment centers are designed to evaluate individuals based on various dimensions, such as their skills, competencies, and behaviors. These dimensions are assessed through a range of exercises, which can include group activities, role plays, and presentations. To ensure a comprehensive evaluation, assessment centers involve multiple evaluators who observe and assess the participants' performance. Therefore, the correct answer is "dimensions, exercises, evaluators."

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  • 11. 

    A supervisory rating of an employee's performance would be an example of what kind of criterion?  

    • A.

      Deficient criterion

    • B.

      Subjective criterion

    • C.

      psychological criterion

    • D.

      Personal criterion

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Subjective criterion
    Explanation
    A supervisory rating of an employee's performance is an example of a subjective criterion because it is based on the personal judgment and opinion of the supervisor. This type of criterion is subjective because it can vary from one supervisor to another and may be influenced by personal biases or preferences.

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  • 12. 

    The primary purposes for performance appriasal are _____, _____, and _____.

    • A.

      Decision making, development, review

    • B.

      human resource system evaluation, decision making, development

    • C.

      Development, training, decision making

    • D.

      Decision making, promotion, human resource system evaluation

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. human resource system evaluation, decision making, development
    Explanation
    Performance appraisal serves three primary purposes: human resource system evaluation, decision making, and development. It allows organizations to assess the effectiveness of their performance management systems, make informed decisions regarding employee promotions, terminations, or rewards, and identify areas for employee development and improvement.

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  • 13. 

    Focussing solely on production (output) measures may lead to problems with _____.  

    • A.

      Product quality

    • B.

      Product quantity

    • C.

      Productivity

    • D.

      Work process

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Product quality
    Explanation
    Focusing solely on production measures may lead to problems with product quality because when the emphasis is solely on increasing output, there is a risk of compromising the quality of the products being produced. This can result in lower customer satisfaction, increased product returns or complaints, and damage to the reputation of the company. It is important to balance production measures with quality control measures to ensure that both quantity and quality are achieved.

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  • 14. 

    In comparison to subjective criteria, objective criteria are more likely to be _____.  

    • A.

      Biased

    • B.

      Deficient

    • C.

      Relevant

    • D.

      Reliable

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Deficient
    Explanation
    Objective criteria are more likely to be deficient compared to subjective criteria. This means that objective criteria may lack completeness or be inadequate in some way. Unlike subjective criteria, which are based on personal opinions and judgments, objective criteria are based on measurable and observable facts. However, this objectivity can sometimes lead to a narrow or limited perspective, resulting in deficiencies in considering all relevant factors or aspects of a situation. Therefore, objective criteria may be insufficient in providing a comprehensive evaluation or assessment.

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  • 15. 

    "Objective criteria" tend to focus on _____.  

    • A.

      Work process

    • B.

      Work inputs

    • C.

      Work outcomes

    • D.

      Diagnosis of performance problems

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Work outcomes
    Explanation
    Objective criteria tend to focus on work outcomes because they are measurable and observable results of the work performed. Work outcomes provide clear and tangible evidence of the effectiveness and success of the work process and inputs. By focusing on work outcomes, objective criteria allow for an unbiased evaluation of performance and can be used to assess the achievement of goals and objectives.

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  • 16. 

    Rating quality is a function of _____, _____, and _____.

    • A.

      Rating form, rating instructions, motivation of rater

    • B.

      Motivation of rater, rating form, skill of the rater

    • C.

      Skill of the ratee, motivation of the rater, motivation of the ratee

    • D.

      Rating form, rating procedure, motivation of the rater

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Motivation of rater, rating form, skill of the rater
    Explanation
    The quality of a rating is determined by the motivation of the rater, the rating form used, and the skill of the rater. The motivation of the rater is important because it affects their level of engagement and effort in the rating process. The rating form used is also crucial as it provides the structure and criteria for evaluating the subject being rated. Lastly, the skill of the rater plays a role in the accuracy and reliability of the rating, as a more skilled rater is likely to provide a more accurate assessment.

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  • 17. 

    The tendency of the supervisor to avoid assigning high or low ratings to employees is called _____.  

    • A.

      Central tendency error

    • B.

      Leniency error

    • C.

      Halo error

    • D.

      Severity error

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Central tendency error
    Explanation
    Central tendency error refers to the tendency of a supervisor to avoid assigning extreme ratings to employees and instead give average or moderate ratings. This can happen when supervisors are unsure about how to evaluate employees or when they want to avoid conflict or controversy. It can result in all employees receiving similar ratings, making it difficult to differentiate between their performance levels.

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  • 18. 

    A problem often present in having someone from outside the organization evaluate performance is that they do not see ______ performance.

    • A.

      Lunch time

    • B.

      Typical

    • C.

      Summer

    • D.

      Maximum

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Typical
    Explanation
    When someone from outside the organization evaluates performance, they may not have a complete understanding of the typical or usual performance standards within the organization. They may not be aware of the specific expectations, norms, and standards that employees are expected to meet on a regular basis. Therefore, their evaluation may not accurately reflect the typical performance of employees within the organization.

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  • 19. 

    The forced distribution rating system does not have a problem with which type of common rating error?

    • A.

      Hallo

    • B.

      Central tendency

    • C.

      Severity

    • D.

      Leniency

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    The forced distribution rating system does not have a problem with any type of common rating error, including central tendency, severity, and leniency. This rating system aims to eliminate these biases by requiring managers to rank employees on a predetermined distribution curve, ensuring that a certain percentage of employees receive high ratings, a certain percentage receive low ratings, and the majority fall in the middle. This helps to prevent inflated ratings or biases towards certain employees, leading to a more accurate evaluation of performance.

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  • 20. 

    The tendency of a supervisor to let his/her overall impression of an employee influence ratings of the employee on specific performance dimensions is called _____.  

    • A.

      Contrast error

    • B.

      Central tendency error

    • C.

      Halo error

    • D.

      Proximity error

    • E.

      Severity error

    Correct Answer
    C. Halo error
    Explanation
    Halo error refers to the tendency of a supervisor to let their overall positive or negative impression of an employee influence their ratings on specific performance dimensions. In other words, if a supervisor has a generally positive impression of an employee, they may rate them higher on all performance dimensions, even if the employee's performance is not actually outstanding in all areas. This error can lead to inaccurate performance evaluations and can impact the employee's career progression.

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  • 21. 

    The importance of teaching tasks in a particular order is called _____.

    • A.

      Sequencing

    • B.

      Serializing

    • C.

      Ordering

    • D.

      Randomizing

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Sequencing
    Explanation
    The importance of teaching tasks in a particular order is called sequencing. This refers to the process of arranging or organizing tasks in a logical and sequential manner, ensuring that each task builds upon the previous one and prepares students for the next one. It helps in creating a coherent and structured learning experience, allowing students to grasp concepts more effectively and progress smoothly through the curriculum.

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  • 22. 

    To determine if a person needs training you hsould ask yourself _____.  

    • A.

      is there a disparity between what performance should be and what it is

    • B.

      is the disparity serious or part of a cycle

    • C.

      is low performance due to lack of knowledge or lack of motivation

    • D.

      All of the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above". This is because in order to determine if a person needs training, one should consider all of the factors mentioned in the options. These factors include assessing the disparity between expected performance and actual performance, determining if the disparity is serious or part of a cycle, and identifying whether low performance is due to a lack of knowledge or motivation. By considering all of these factors, one can effectively determine if a person needs training.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following techniques tends to be over used by managers?  

    • A.

      Selection

    • B.

      Job analysis

    • C.

      Performance measurement

    • D.

      Attitude measurement

    • E.

      Training

    Correct Answer
    E. Training
    Explanation
    Managers tend to overuse the training technique because they may believe that providing more training will automatically lead to improved performance. However, excessive training can be ineffective and wasteful if it does not address specific performance gaps or if employees are not given the opportunity to apply what they have learned. Additionally, overemphasizing training can neglect other important aspects of performance management, such as job analysis, performance measurement, and attitude measurement, which are essential for understanding and improving employee performance.

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  • 24. 

    Reinforcement _____ the probability of a response.  

    • A.

      Decreases

    • B.

      Stabilizes

    • C.

      Extinguishes

    • D.

      Increases

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Increases
    Explanation
    Reinforcement increases the probability of a response. This means that when a behavior is reinforced, the likelihood of that behavior occurring again in the future is heightened. Reinforcement can be positive, where a desirable stimulus is added, or negative, where an aversive stimulus is removed. Both types of reinforcement serve to increase the probability of a response.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following should play the largest role in training needs assessment?  

    • A.

      Organization analysis

    • B.

      Pretest-posttest design

    • C.

      test validation

    • D.

      Principles of learning

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Organization analysis
    Explanation
    Organization analysis should play the largest role in training needs assessment because it involves evaluating the goals, objectives, and resources of the organization to determine the specific training needs. By analyzing the organization, trainers can identify the skills and knowledge gaps that need to be addressed through training. This analysis helps ensure that the training program aligns with the overall goals and objectives of the organization, making it more effective and relevant. Pretest-posttest design, test validation, and principles of learning are also important factors in training needs assessment, but organization analysis takes priority as it provides the foundation for identifying the specific needs of the organization.

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  • 26. 

    Kolb's learning styles included all of the following except

    • A.

      Convergers

    • B.

      Divergers

    • C.

      Assimilators

    • D.

      Equivocators

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Equivocators
    Explanation
    Kolb's learning styles included convergers, divergers, and assimilators, but not equivocators. Equivocators is not a term commonly associated with Kolb's learning styles, so it is the correct answer.

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  • 27. 

    What is the most effective procedure for evaluating a training program?  

    • A.

      Experimental design

    • B.

      Post-test design

    • C.

      Before- after design

    • D.

      Quasi experimental design

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Experimental design
    Explanation
    The most effective procedure for evaluating a training program is through experimental design. This involves randomly assigning participants to either a control group or an experimental group, where the experimental group receives the training program and the control group does not. By comparing the outcomes of both groups, any differences can be attributed to the training program. This design allows for a cause-and-effect relationship to be established and provides the most rigorous and reliable evidence for evaluating the effectiveness of the training program.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following jobs would be the most likely candidate for simulation training?  

    • A.

      Airline pilot

    • B.

      Carpenter

    • C.

      Plumber

    • D.

      Insurance sales

    • E.

      School teacher

    Correct Answer
    A. Airline pilot
    Explanation
    Simulation training is commonly used in professions that require a high level of technical skill and expertise, as well as those that involve high-stakes decision-making. Airline pilots fit this criteria as they require extensive training to operate complex and sophisticated aircraft, make critical decisions in emergency situations, and handle various scenarios that may not be easily replicated in real-life situations. Therefore, airline pilots would be the most likely candidate for simulation training among the given options.

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  • 29. 

    Which test from the meta-analysis results should not be considered for use in selection of employees?  

    • A.

      Mechanical principles

    • B.

      Finger dexterity

    • C.

      Intelligence

    • D.

      Special relations

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Special relations
    Explanation
    The test on special relations should not be considered for use in the selection of employees. This is because special relations do not directly relate to the skills or abilities required for a particular job. The other options, such as mechanical principles, finger dexterity, and intelligence, are more relevant to assessing the suitability of candidates for specific roles.

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  • 30. 

    One potential disadvantage of off-the-job training is _____.  

    • A.

      Costs

    • B.

      Lack of trainee motivation

    • C.

      Lack of fidelity

    • D.

      Lack of participation

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Costs
    Explanation
    The potential disadvantage of off-the-job training is the costs associated with it. Off-the-job training often requires hiring external trainers or sending employees to external training programs, which can be expensive. Additionally, there may be additional costs for travel, accommodation, and materials.

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  • 31. 

    The best definition of a meta-analysis is _____.  

    • A.

      Compilation of studies

    • B.

      An average of results

    • C.

      Best extimate of effect

    • D.

      Inherently bivariate

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    A meta-analysis is a statistical technique that combines the results of multiple studies on a specific topic. It involves the compilation of studies, where data from individual studies are collected and analyzed together. The purpose of a meta-analysis is to provide a best estimate of the effect of a particular intervention or treatment by averaging the results of all the studies included. It is inherently bivariate because it considers both the effect size and the variability of the effect across studies. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above" as all the options mentioned are characteristics or components of a meta-analysis.

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  • 32. 

    To have a true experiment you must have _____.  

    • A.

      Random assignment and post-test

    • B.

      Post-test and control group

    • C.

      Random assignment and control group

    • D.

      Pretest and post-test

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Random assignment and control group
    Explanation
    A true experiment requires random assignment to ensure that participants are assigned to different groups in a random and unbiased manner. This helps to eliminate any potential confounding variables and ensures that any observed differences between groups can be attributed to the independent variable. Additionally, a control group is necessary to provide a baseline for comparison and to determine the effects of the independent variable. Therefore, random assignment and a control group are both essential components of a true experiment.

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  • 33. 

    Range restriction results when _____.  

    • A.

      Top performers are missing from the data

    • B.

      Low performers are missing from the data

    • C.

      Some part of the distribution of test scores is missing

    • D.

      The entire distribution of scores is not included in the analysis

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    Range restriction occurs when there is a limitation on the range of scores or data that are included in the analysis. This can happen when top performers or low performers are missing from the data, or when some part or the entire distribution of test scores is not included. In all of these cases, the range of scores is restricted, which can lead to biased or incomplete results.

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  • 34. 

    The biggest problem with the SAT Validation Study was the _____.  

    • A.

      Return rate

    • B.

      Incremental validity

    • C.

      Sample size

    • D.

      Predictive validity

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Return rate
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "return rate". The biggest problem with the SAT Validation Study was the low return rate of the surveys. This means that a significant number of participants did not complete and return the surveys, which can lead to biased results and affect the validity of the study.

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  • 35. 

    The ____ validity was better than the ____ valaidity in the SAT Writing Test Validation Study.  

    • A.

      Incremental/predictive

    • B.

      predictive/incremental

    • C.

      Construct/content

    • D.

      Predictive/construct

    • E.

      Content/predictive

    Correct Answer
    B. predictive/incremental
    Explanation
    The predictive validity was better than the incremental validity in the SAT Writing Test Validation Study. Predictive validity refers to the ability of a test to predict future performance or outcomes, while incremental validity refers to the additional value that a new test or measure adds to the prediction beyond what is already known. Therefore, the statement suggests that the SAT Writing Test had a higher ability to predict future performance than it did in adding additional value to the prediction.

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  • Jun 06, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 14, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Kmsmit26
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