2A656 - Final Quiz - 3 May 2017

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  • 1/400 Questions

    Who directs the overall maintenance effort in their unit?

    • Section Chief
    • Flight Commander
    • SQ/CC
    • Production Superintendent
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Maintenance Management Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz titled '2A656 - Final Quiz - 3 May 2017' assesses knowledge in Air Force maintenance management, focusing on roles, responsibilities, and levels of maintenance. It targets skills like leadership in maintenance settings and operational understanding relevant for Air Force personnel.

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  • 2. 

    Which flight in part of a maintenance squadron?

    • Test, Measurement, and Diagnostic Equpment

    • Maintenance Operations and Programs

    • QA

    • Resources

    Correct Answer
    A. Test, Measurement, and Diagnostic Equpment
    Explanation
    The flight that is part of a maintenance squadron is the Test, Measurement, and Diagnostic Equipment (TMDE) flight. This flight is responsible for maintaining and calibrating the various equipment used in the maintenance operations of the squadron. They ensure that the equipment is in proper working condition and accurately measures and diagnoses any issues.

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  • 3. 

    Which aircraft maintenance squadron section consists of crew chiefs?

    • Support

    • Aircraft

    • Weapons

    • Specialist

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Aircraft" because crew chiefs are responsible for the maintenance and repair of aircraft. They are in charge of inspecting, troubleshooting, and servicing the aircraft to ensure they are safe and operational. The aircraft maintenance squadron section specifically focuses on the maintenance and upkeep of the aircraft, making it the appropriate section for crew chiefs.

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  • 4. 

    Quality maintenance is the responsibility of maintenance technicians, supervisors, and commanders who work in concert with

    • Maintenance training

    • Quality assurance

    • Resources

    • Egress

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality assurance
    Explanation
    Quality assurance is the correct answer because it is the process of ensuring that products or services meet the required standards of quality. In the context of the given statement, maintenance technicians, supervisors, and commanders are responsible for maintaining the quality of their work. They work in concert with quality assurance to ensure that the maintenance activities are carried out in accordance with the established standards and procedures. Quality assurance plays a vital role in ensuring that the maintenance work is done correctly and meets the expected quality standards.

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  • 5. 

    You are completing one of the aircraft and supporting maintenance forms. How do you correctly write 30 January 2016?

    • 20160130

    • 01/30/16

    • 30/01/16

    • 16/01/30

    Correct Answer
    A. 20160130
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "20160130" because it follows the standard format of writing the date in the year-month-day order. In this format, the year is written first, followed by the month and then the day.

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  • 6. 

    When a malfunction is entered on a maintenance form, who determines the correct symbol to use?

    • Your supervisor

    • Maintenance officer

    • Production superintendent

    • Individual making the entry

    Correct Answer
    A. Individual making the entry
    Explanation
    The individual making the entry determines the correct symbol to use when a malfunction is entered on a maintenance form. This is because they are the one who is directly involved in the situation and has the most accurate knowledge about the specific malfunction. They would be responsible for accurately identifying and documenting the issue using the appropriate symbol, ensuring clear communication and understanding within the maintenance process.

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  • 7. 

    What determines a red X "unsafe for flight" discrepancy

    • The removal of a component that affects safe operation of the equipment

    • Upon receipt of a routine action time compliance technical order (TCTO)

    • An inspection or operational check is due

    • An unknown condition

    Correct Answer
    A. The removal of a component that affects safe operation of the equipment
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "The removal of a component that affects safe operation of the equipment." This means that if a component is removed from the equipment and it has an impact on the safe operation of the equipment, it will result in a red X "unsafe for flight" discrepancy.

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  • 8. 

    When a new Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781A is initiated, what kind of discrepancies cannot be transferred to the AFTO Form 781K?

    • Red X

    • Red dash

    • Red diagonal

    • Discrepancies with a supply document number

    Correct Answer
    A. Red X
    Explanation
    When a new Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781A is initiated, discrepancies with a Red X cannot be transferred to the AFTO Form 781K.

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  • 9. 

    Which Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) 781 series form provides the overall flight status, or condition of the aircraft?

    • AFTO 781 A

    • AFTO 781 H

    • AFTO 781 J

    • AFTO 781 K

    Correct Answer
    A. AFTO 781 H
    Explanation
    The AFTO 781 H form provides the overall flight status or condition of the aircraft.

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  • 10. 

    Training people to do tasks other than those in their primary Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is called

    • Cross-utilization training.

    • Management training

    • Qualification training.

    • Upgrade training.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cross-utilization training.
    Explanation
    Cross-utilization training refers to the process of training individuals in tasks or skills that are outside their primary Air Force specialty code (AFSC). This type of training allows personnel to develop additional competencies and be able to perform duties in different areas within the Air Force. It enhances flexibility and adaptability within the workforce by enabling individuals to contribute in multiple roles and functions, thereby increasing overall operational efficiency and effectiveness.

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  • 11. 

    Which technical order (TO) explains the Material Deficiency Reporting System?

    • 00–5–15.

    • 00–25–195.

    • 00–25C–234.

    • 00–35D–54.

    Correct Answer
    A. 00–35D–54.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 00–35D–54. This technical order (TO) specifically explains the Material Deficiency Reporting System.

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  • 12. 

    An airman who signs out a toolbox assumes which type of property responsibility for that toolbox?

    • Supervisory.

    • Custodial.

    • Individual.

    • Command.

    Correct Answer
    A. Custodial.
    Explanation
    When an airman signs out a toolbox, they assume custodial property responsibility for that toolbox. This means that they are responsible for the care, safekeeping, and proper use of the toolbox. Custodial responsibility involves maintaining and protecting the property entrusted to them, ensuring that it is returned in the same condition as when it was signed out. Supervisory responsibility would involve overseeing others' use of the toolbox, individual responsibility would refer to personal belongings, and command responsibility would involve overall accountability for property within a unit.

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  • 13. 

    How can personnel be relieved from property responsibility?

    • Turn-in only.

    • Turn-in or transfer.

    • Supply’s recommendation

    • Commander’s recommendation

    Correct Answer
    A. Turn-in or transfer.
    Explanation
    Personnel can be relieved from property responsibility by either turning in the property or transferring it to another individual or unit. This means that they can either return the property to the supply or logistics department, or they can transfer the responsibility of the property to someone else who will then be accountable for it. This allows for a smooth transition of property responsibility and ensures that the property is properly accounted for.

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  • 14. 

    Which technical order (TO) category includes inspection workcards and checklists?

    • Special.

    • Simplified.

    • Automation.

    • Abbreviated.

    Correct Answer
    A. Abbreviated.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Abbreviated." This category includes inspection workcards and checklists.

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  • 15. 

    Which type of technical order (TO) contain operational checkout procedures?

    • Job guide

    • Fault isolation.

    • General vehicle

    • Schematic diagram

    Correct Answer
    A. Job guide
    Explanation
    A job guide is a type of technical order (TO) that contains operational checkout procedures. It provides step-by-step instructions for performing specific tasks or procedures related to the operation and maintenance of a particular system or equipment. These procedures help ensure that the system or equipment is functioning correctly and can be checked and verified during regular inspections or maintenance activities. The job guide may include instructions on how to perform operational tests, inspections, adjustments, or calibrations to ensure proper functioning and identify any potential issues or faults.

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  • 16. 

    While troubleshooting, you are using a wiring diagram to help you locate a malfunctioning component. After determining which component is faulty, you need to determine its part number. To do this, you would check the wiring diagram’s

    • Numerical index.

    • Reference designator

    • Line replaceable unit index.

    • Line replaceable unit designation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reference designator
    Explanation
    In order to determine the part number of the malfunctioning component, you would check the wiring diagram's reference designator. The reference designator is a code or label used to identify specific components on a diagram. By referring to the reference designator, you can easily locate the corresponding part number for the faulty component.

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  • 17. 

    To correct errors in a technical order, submit an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form

    • 22

    • 33

    • 100

    • 200

    Correct Answer
    A. 22
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 22 because the question states that to correct errors in a technical order, an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form needs to be submitted. Among the options provided, 22 is the only one that matches the format of an AFTO Form number.

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  • 18. 

    If your skin comes in contact with liquid nitrogen (LIN), you must

    • Attempt to rewarm the skin.

    • Seek medical attention immediately.

    • Cover the effected skin immediately.

    • Run cold water over the affected area

    Correct Answer
    A. Seek medical attention immediately.
    Explanation
    If your skin comes in contact with liquid nitrogen (LIN), seeking medical attention immediately is the correct course of action. Liquid nitrogen is extremely cold and can cause severe burns and frostbite on the skin. It is important to seek medical attention because a healthcare professional will be able to properly assess the extent of the injury and provide appropriate treatment. Attempting to rewarm the skin or running cold water over the affected area may not be sufficient in treating the injury caused by liquid nitrogen. Additionally, covering the affected skin immediately may not be the most effective action to take in this situation.

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  • 19. 

    What type of tasks may you perform in the immediate area of explosives?

    • Mission critical.

    • Routine.

    • None.

    • Core.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission critical.
    Explanation
    In the immediate area of explosives, tasks that are mission critical may be performed. This means that these tasks are of utmost importance and directly contribute to the success and safety of the mission involving explosives. These tasks are likely to involve handling, transporting, or disposing of explosives, and require specialized knowledge, skills, and precautions to prevent accidents or mishaps.

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  • 20. 

    Which area of a line replaceable unit (LRU) is most susceptible to electrostatic discharge (ESD) damage?

    • Connector pins.

    • Connector plug.

    • Wiring.

    • Case.

    Correct Answer
    A. Connector pins.
    Explanation
    Connector pins are the most susceptible to electrostatic discharge (ESD) damage in a line replaceable unit (LRU). ESD occurs when there is a sudden flow of electricity between two objects with different charges. Connector pins are exposed and can easily accumulate static charges, making them more vulnerable to ESD. The discharge can damage the delicate electronic components connected to the pins, leading to malfunction or failure of the LRU. Therefore, proper ESD precautions and handling techniques are crucial when dealing with connector pins to prevent damage.

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  • 21. 

    For personnel electrostatic discharge (ESD) grounding, you must use a skin contact wrist strap connected to the workbench surface. This strap must have a resistance of at least

    • 1 ohm.

    • 10 ohms

    • 1 megohm

    • 10 megohms

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 megohm
    Explanation
    A skin contact wrist strap with a resistance of 1 megohm is required for personnel electrostatic discharge (ESD) grounding. This resistance value ensures that any static electricity built up on the person's body can safely dissipate through the strap and into the workbench surface. A resistance of 1 ohm would be too low and could potentially cause a rapid discharge of static electricity, while resistances of 10 ohms and 10 megohms would be too high and may not provide sufficient grounding.

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  • 22. 

    Which situation illustrates a physical hazard presented by a chemical hazard?

    • Acute liver damage.

    • Irritation of the kidney

    • Second degree skin burn

    • Chronic exposure to vapors.

    Correct Answer
    A. Second degree skin burn
    Explanation
    A second-degree skin burn is an example of a physical hazard presented by a chemical hazard. This type of burn occurs when the skin comes into contact with a chemical that is corrosive or causes a thermal reaction. The chemical hazard in this situation is the substance that caused the burn, which could be a strong acid, base, or other corrosive material. The burn itself is a physical injury to the skin, caused by the chemical hazard.

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  • 23. 

    Who is responsible for seeking out and eliminating accident causes?

    • Unit commander

    • Safety officer.

    • Supervisors.

    • Everyone.

    Correct Answer
    A. Everyone.
    Explanation
    Everyone is responsible for seeking out and eliminating accident causes because safety is a collective effort. While the unit commander, safety officer, and supervisors play crucial roles in ensuring safety measures are in place, it is ultimately the responsibility of every individual to actively identify and address potential accident causes. By involving everyone in this process, the chances of accidents occurring can be significantly reduced, creating a safer environment for all.

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  • 24. 

    What should be the main concern when planning the layout of any shop area?

    • Safety.

    • Lighting.

    • Adequate work space.

    • Location of test equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Safety.
    Explanation
    When planning the layout of any shop area, the main concern should be safety. This is because ensuring a safe environment is crucial to prevent accidents and injuries. By prioritizing safety, potential hazards can be identified and mitigated, such as organizing equipment in a way that minimizes the risk of tripping or falling. Additionally, considering safety measures like fire exits, emergency exits, and proper ventilation can contribute to a safe working environment for employees and customers.

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  • 25. 

    What is considered normally a safe distance in front of jet engine intake ducts?

    • 10 feet.

    • 15 feet.

    • 20 feet.

    • 25 feet

    Correct Answer
    A. 25 feet
    Explanation
    A safe distance in front of jet engine intake ducts is typically considered to be 25 feet. This distance is necessary to prevent any objects or debris from being sucked into the engine, which could potentially cause damage or malfunction. By maintaining a significant distance, the risk of any foreign objects entering the engine is minimized, ensuring the safety and proper functioning of the aircraft.

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  • 26. 

    One precaution you must observe while working around an aircraft with ejection seats is to be sure that

    • The canopy is open.

    • The seat safety pins are installed.

    • No other people are around the aircraft.

    • No external power is connected to the aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    A. The seat safety pins are installed.
    Explanation
    When working around an aircraft with ejection seats, it is crucial to ensure that the seat safety pins are installed. These pins prevent accidental ejection and ensure the safety of personnel working in close proximity to the seats. Failing to have the safety pins installed can lead to serious accidents or injuries if the ejection mechanism is triggered unintentionally. Therefore, it is essential to double-check the presence of seat safety pins before conducting any work around the aircraft with ejection seats.

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  • 27. 

    Which mishap prevention tag is used to warn personnel against potential hazards?

    • Danger.

    • Caution.

    • Out of Order.

    • Do Not Start.

    Correct Answer
    A. Caution.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Caution." The tag "Caution" is used to warn personnel about potential hazards. It is typically used in situations where there is a moderate level of risk or danger. This tag alerts individuals to exercise caution and take necessary precautions to avoid accidents or injuries.

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  • 28. 

    Which type of nuclear radiation is the most deadly?

    • Alpha.

    • Beta.

    • Delta.

    • Gamma.

    Correct Answer
    A. Gamma.
    Explanation
    Gamma radiation is the most deadly type of nuclear radiation because it has the highest energy and can penetrate the deepest into the body. It is highly ionizing and can cause severe damage to cells and DNA, leading to various health issues such as radiation sickness, cancer, and even death. Unlike alpha and beta radiation, gamma radiation does not have mass or charge, allowing it to travel long distances and easily pass through materials. Therefore, exposure to gamma radiation poses the greatest risk to human health.

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  • 29. 

    What is the unit of measure for radiation quantity?

    • Dosimeter.

    • Roentgen.

    • Gamma.

    • Fallout.

    Correct Answer
    A. Roentgen.
    Explanation
    The unit of measure for radiation quantity is Roentgen. The Roentgen is a unit used to measure the amount of ionizing radiation in the air. It quantifies the amount of radiation that produces a certain amount of ionization in a specific volume of air. This unit is commonly used in the field of radiation protection and is essential for assessing the potential health effects of exposure to radiation.

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  • 30. 

    What kind of pliers are good for pulling cotter pins?

    • Snap ring.

    • Locking jaw.

    • Long-nose.

    • Diagonal cutting.

    Correct Answer
    A. Diagonal cutting.
    Explanation
    Diagonal cutting pliers are good for pulling cotter pins because they have a sharp cutting edge that can easily grip and cut through the pin. The diagonal shape of the cutting edge allows for better access and leverage when pulling the pin out. Snap ring pliers are specifically designed for removing snap rings, locking jaw pliers are used for holding and gripping objects, and long-nose pliers are used for reaching into tight spaces and bending wires. Therefore, the best option for pulling cotter pins would be diagonal cutting pliers.

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  • 31. 

    What type of pliers would you use to bend thin metal or form loops in wire?

    • Locking jaw.

    • Slip-joint.

    • Long-nose.

    • Diagonal cutting.

    Correct Answer
    A. Long-nose.
    Explanation
    Long-nose pliers have a pointed, narrow jaw that allows for precise bending of thin metal and forming loops in wire. The long and slender shape of the pliers provides better control and access to tight spaces. Slip-joint pliers have a wider jaw and are more suitable for gripping and holding objects, while diagonal cutting pliers are designed for cutting wires. Locking jaw pliers, also known as locking pliers or Vise-Grips, are used to securely hold objects in place. Therefore, the correct pliers to use for bending thin metal or forming loops in wire are long-nose pliers.

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  • 32. 

    One advantage of box-end wrenches is that they

    • Are the fastest to use

    • Can be hammered on safely.

    • Are not likely to slip off a nut

    • Are easy to use on recessed bolts.

    Correct Answer
    A. Are not likely to slip off a nut
    Explanation
    Box-end wrenches have a closed loop design that provides a secure grip on nuts, reducing the likelihood of slipping off. This advantage makes them a reliable tool for tightening or loosening nuts without the risk of damaging the nut or injuring oneself.

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  • 33. 

    Which wrench is usually the strongest, fastest, and safest in a tool kit?

    • Socket.

    • Box-end.

    • Open-end

    • Adjustable.

    Correct Answer
    A. Socket.
    Explanation
    The socket wrench is usually the strongest, fastest, and safest in a tool kit because it provides a secure grip on the fastener and distributes force evenly, reducing the risk of slipping and damaging the fastener or injuring the user. Additionally, socket wrenches are designed to work with a wide range of fastener sizes and types, allowing for versatility and efficiency in completing tasks.

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  • 34. 

    What type of gauge would you use to measure an actuating switch clearance?

    • Gap.

    • Thread.

    • Pressure.

    • Thickness.

    Correct Answer
    A. Thickness.
    Explanation
    To measure an actuating switch clearance, one would use a thickness gauge. A thickness gauge is a tool specifically designed to measure the distance between two surfaces, such as the gap between an actuating switch and its surrounding components. This type of gauge provides precise measurements, allowing for accurate assessment of the clearance. Gap, thread, and pressure gauges are not suitable for this purpose as they are designed for different measurement applications.

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  • 35. 

    Precaution concerning torque wrenches is to

    • Never use an extension with a torque wrench

    • Never use another wrench to secure a bolt before torquing.

    • Never use a torque wrench that has been dropped unless it has been verified.

    • Always calculate the leverage advantage before using a torque wrench above its rated capacity

    Correct Answer
    A. Never use a torque wrench that has been dropped unless it has been verified.
    Explanation
    It is important to never use a torque wrench that has been dropped unless it has been verified because dropping a torque wrench can cause it to become inaccurate or damaged. Even a small drop can affect the internal mechanisms of the wrench, leading to incorrect torque readings. Therefore, it is crucial to have the torque wrench verified by a professional or calibrated before using it again to ensure its accuracy and reliability.

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  • 36. 

    Before storing a torque wrench you have used, you should

    • Lubricate it with a light oil

    • Set it at its lowest setting.

    • Check it for accuracy

    • Set it at zero setting

    Correct Answer
    A. Set it at its lowest setting.
    Explanation
    Before storing a torque wrench, it is recommended to set it at its lowest setting. This is because leaving the torque wrench at a high setting for an extended period of time can cause the internal spring to weaken or lose its calibration. By setting it at the lowest setting, the tension on the internal spring is released, reducing the risk of damage and ensuring the accuracy of the torque wrench when it is next used.

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  • 37. 

    When installing a cotter pin, ensure the prong that bends over the bolt shank does not exceed the bolt nut

    • Grip.

    • Width.

    • Length.

    • Diameter.

    Correct Answer
    A. Diameter.
    Explanation
    When installing a cotter pin, it is important to ensure that the prong that bends over the bolt shank does not exceed the diameter of the bolt nut. This is because the cotter pin is used to secure the nut in place and prevent it from loosening. If the prong exceeds the diameter of the nut, it may not be able to effectively secure the nut, leading to potential loosening and failure of the fastening. Therefore, the diameter of the bolt nut is the crucial factor to consider when installing a cotter pin.

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  • 38. 

    A good rule to follow in using safety wire is

    • Never use the single-wire method.

    • Loop it so that it opposes the loosening of the part.

    • The diameter of the wire should fill one-half the hole

    • Use safety wire electrical connectors only in cockpit areas.

    Correct Answer
    A. Loop it so that it opposes the loosening of the part.
    Explanation
    When using safety wire, it is important to loop it in a way that opposes the loosening of the part. This means that the wire should be twisted or looped in a manner that prevents the part from becoming loose or undone. This technique helps to secure the part in place and prevent any potential accidents or failures caused by the part coming loose. Using the single-wire method or not looping the wire properly may not provide the necessary level of security and could lead to safety hazards.

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  • 39. 

    Wire insulation may consist of several layers of nonconducting material that provides

    • Thermal protection and fluid resistance

    • A method of identification

    • Protection from freezing.

    • Strength and flexibility

    Correct Answer
    A. Thermal protection and fluid resistance
    Explanation
    Wire insulation is designed to provide thermal protection and fluid resistance. The nonconducting material used in wire insulation acts as a barrier to prevent heat transfer, protecting the wire from overheating. Additionally, it also provides resistance to fluids, preventing them from seeping into the wire and causing damage. This is particularly important in applications where wires are exposed to harsh environments or fluids, such as automotive or industrial settings. By offering thermal protection and fluid resistance, wire insulation ensures the safe and efficient operation of electrical systems.

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  • 40. 

    Wires and wire bundles should be supported by clamps or grommets at intervals of no more than

    • 15 inches

    • 20 inches.

    • 24 inches

    • 26 inches

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 inches
    Explanation
    Wires and wire bundles should be supported by clamps or grommets at intervals of no more than 24 inches. This is important to prevent the wires from sagging or becoming loose, which could lead to potential hazards such as electrical shorts or damage to the wires. Adequate support ensures that the wires are secure and properly organized, promoting efficient functioning and reducing the risk of accidents or malfunctions.

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  • 41. 

    Which color code and corresponding wire sizes are valid for a preinsulated terminal?

    • Yellow—12 and 10

    • Brown—22 and 20.

    • Blue—20 and 18

    • Red—16 and 14.

    Correct Answer
    A. Yellow—12 and 10
    Explanation
    The color code and corresponding wire sizes for a preinsulated terminal are listed. The color "Yellow" corresponds to wire sizes 12 and 10. This means that a preinsulated terminal with a yellow color code can be used with wires of size 12 or 10.

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  • 42. 

    The indent-type crimping tool should be used only on

    • Pre-insulated splices.

    • Pre-insulated terminals

    • Non-insulated terminals

    • Non-insulated terminal boards

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-insulated terminals
    Explanation
    The indent-type crimping tool should be used only on non-insulated terminals. This is because the indent-type crimping tool creates a secure and reliable connection by indenting the terminal, which is suitable for non-insulated terminals that do not have any insulation covering. Using this tool on pre-insulated splices or terminals could damage the insulation and compromise the electrical connection. Similarly, non-insulated terminal boards do not have any insulation, making them compatible with the indent-type crimping tool.

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  • 43. 

    Why are solderless terminals preferred over soldered types?

    • The speed of connection is based on the mechanic’s skill

    • They are faster, cleaner, and more uniform.

    • They can be used with larger wiring.

    • They are standard size

    Correct Answer
    A. They are faster, cleaner, and more uniform.
    Explanation
    Solderless terminals are preferred over soldered types because they offer several advantages. Firstly, they are faster to install as they do not require the time-consuming process of soldering. Secondly, they provide a cleaner connection as there is no risk of solder splattering or creating messy joints. Lastly, solderless terminals offer more uniform connections, ensuring consistent performance and reducing the likelihood of loose or unreliable connections.

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  • 44. 

    What do you use as junction points for circuits that are frequently disconnected?

    • Connector plugs

    • Terminal boards

    • Shielded wires

    • Splices.

    Correct Answer
    A. Connector plugs
    Explanation
    Connector plugs are used as junction points for circuits that are frequently disconnected because they allow for easy and quick connection and disconnection of wires. They provide a secure and reliable connection, ensuring that the circuit remains intact during operation and can be easily disconnected when needed. Terminal boards are typically used for permanent connections, shielded wires are used to protect against interference, and splices are used to join two or more wires together, but none of these options offer the convenience and ease of use provided by connector plugs.

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  • 45. 

    The electrical magnetic pulse (EMP)-hardened cable provides a barrier to

    • Electrical grounding.

    • Electrical continuity

    • Electrical current flow

    • Electrostatic interference

    Correct Answer
    A. Electrostatic interference
    Explanation
    The EMP-hardened cable is designed to protect against electrostatic interference. Electrostatic interference refers to the unwanted electrical signals or noise that can disrupt the proper functioning of electronic devices. By providing a barrier to electrostatic interference, the EMP-hardened cable ensures that the electrical signals transmitted through the cable are not affected by external electrical disturbances, thus maintaining the integrity and reliability of the electrical system.

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  • 46. 

    Thermal shunts are used in soldering because they

    • Make the part heat faster

    • Protect heat-sensitive components

    • Keep the lead and component at the same temperature

    • Give good holding action to the component being soldered.

    Correct Answer
    A. Protect heat-sensitive components
    Explanation
    Thermal shunts are used in soldering to protect heat-sensitive components. When soldering, excessive heat can damage or even destroy components that are sensitive to high temperatures. Thermal shunts help to dissipate and distribute the heat evenly, preventing it from concentrating on one particular component and reducing the risk of heat damage. This is why they are used in soldering to protect these heat-sensitive components.

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  • 47. 

    How can you best determine a soldered connection’s quality?

    • Reheat it slightly

    • Pry on it with a soldering aid.

    • Give it a thorough visual inspection.

    • Pull on it gently with your fingers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Give it a thorough visual inspection.
    Explanation
    To determine the quality of a soldered connection, the best method is to give it a thorough visual inspection. By closely examining the soldered connection, one can look for any visible defects such as cold solder joints, insufficient solder, or solder bridges. Visual inspection allows for the identification of any irregularities or flaws in the soldering, ensuring that the connection is strong and reliable. Reheating, prying, or pulling on the connection may cause damage and should not be used as methods to determine its quality.

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  • 48. 

    How should you test the heat of a soldering iron?

    • Submerge the tip in flux

    • Hold the tip near your face.

    • Touch the tip to the solder, near your body

    • Touch the tip to the solder, away from your body.

    Correct Answer
    A. Touch the tip to the solder, away from your body.
    Explanation
    To test the heat of a soldering iron, you should touch the tip to the solder, away from your body. This is the correct answer because it ensures safety by keeping the soldering iron away from your body, reducing the risk of burns or accidents. By touching the tip to the solder, you can also observe if the solder melts and flows properly, indicating that the soldering iron is at the correct temperature for soldering.

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  • 49. 

    How should you remove excess solder from the soldering iron tip?

    • Give the iron a quick flip

    • Wipe the iron on a damp sponge or rag

    • Gently tap the iron on a trash can edge.

    • Let the iron cool and file away excess.

    Correct Answer
    A. Wipe the iron on a damp sponge or rag
    Explanation
    To remove excess solder from the soldering iron tip, it is recommended to wipe the iron on a damp sponge or rag. This method helps to clean the tip and remove any excess solder that may be present. The dampness of the sponge or rag helps to cool down the solder and make it easier to wipe away. It is important to clean the tip regularly to ensure proper soldering and prevent any buildup or contamination that may affect the quality of the solder joints.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 03, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Deanslee96

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