2A656 - Final Quiz - 3 May 2017
Questions and Answers
- 1.
If your tasks include component repair, engine overhaul, or structural repair surfaces, you are doing what type of maintenance?
- A.
Flight Line
- B.
On-equipment
- C.
Organizational
- D.
Off-equipment
Correct Answer
D. Off-equipmentExplanation
Off-equipment maintenance refers to tasks that are performed on components, engines, or structures that have been removed from the aircraft. This type of maintenance is typically carried out in a repair shop or hangar, away from the flight line. It involves repairing or overhauling these off-equipment items to ensure they are in proper working condition before being reinstalled on the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 2.
If you work on an aircraft on the flight line, you are doing which level of maintenance?
- A.
Depot
- B.
Intermediate
- C.
Organizational
- D.
Off-equipment
Correct Answer
C. OrganizationalExplanation
If you work on an aircraft on the flight line, you are doing organizational level maintenance. Organizational maintenance refers to the level of maintenance performed on aircraft by the unit or organization that operates and supports them. This level of maintenance typically involves tasks such as inspections, servicing, and minor repairs that can be done without major equipment or facilities. It is usually conducted on-site, such as on the flight line, to ensure the aircraft's operational readiness and to maintain its overall performance.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Who is the key individual that ensures maintenance resources meet the mission requirements?
- A.
SQ/CC
- B.
GP/CC
- C.
WG/CC
- D.
Base/CC
Correct Answer
C. WG/CCExplanation
The key individual that ensures maintenance resources meet the mission requirements is the WG/CC, which stands for Wing Commander. The Wing Commander is responsible for overseeing the operations and resources of the entire wing, including maintenance. They ensure that the necessary resources are allocated and managed effectively to meet the mission requirements of the organization.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Who is responsible to the SQ/CC for maintenance production?
- A.
MXG/CC
- B.
MX Flight Chief
- C.
MX Operations
- D.
Flight Chief
Correct Answer
C. MX OperationsExplanation
MX Operations is responsible to the SQ/CC for maintenance production. They oversee and manage the day-to-day maintenance operations, ensuring that maintenance tasks are completed efficiently and on time. They coordinate with MX Flight Chief and other personnel to ensure smooth workflow and adherence to maintenance schedules. MXG/CC is responsible for overall management and supervision of the maintenance group, but MX Operations specifically handles maintenance production. Flight Chief may have a role in overseeing maintenance activities, but MX Operations is directly accountable to the SQ/CC in this context.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Who is responsible to the Maintenance Superintendent for leadership, supervison, and training of assigned personnel?
- A.
Shift Leader
- B.
Section Chief
- C.
Flight commander/Chief
- D.
MX Superintendet
Correct Answer
C. Flight commander/ChiefExplanation
The Flight commander/Chief is responsible for providing leadership, supervision, and training to the assigned personnel. They oversee the maintenance operations and ensure that the personnel are properly trained and guided in their tasks. This role plays a crucial role in maintaining the efficiency and effectiveness of the maintenance team, and they report directly to the Maintenance Superintendent, who holds the overall responsibility for the maintenance department.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Who directs the overall maintenance effort in their unit?
- A.
Section Chief
- B.
Flight Commander
- C.
SQ/CC
- D.
Production Superintendent
Correct Answer
D. Production SuperintendentExplanation
The Production Superintendent directs the overall maintenance effort in their unit. They are responsible for overseeing the production and maintenance activities, ensuring that the work is carried out efficiently and effectively. They coordinate with different teams and departments to ensure smooth operations and timely completion of tasks. The Production Superintendent also manages resources, schedules, and budgets to optimize productivity and meet organizational goals.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which flight in part of a maintenance squadron?
- A.
Test, Measurement, and Diagnostic Equpment
- B.
Maintenance Operations and Programs
- C.
QA
- D.
Resources
Correct Answer
A. Test, Measurement, and Diagnostic EqupmentExplanation
The flight that is part of a maintenance squadron is the Test, Measurement, and Diagnostic Equipment (TMDE) flight. This flight is responsible for maintaining and calibrating the various equipment used in the maintenance operations of the squadron. They ensure that the equipment is in proper working condition and accurately measures and diagnoses any issues.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which Specialty is not a section of the Accessory Maintenance Flight?
- A.
Survival Equipment
- B.
Fuels systems
- C.
Pneudraulics
- D.
Egress
Correct Answer
A. Survival EquipmentExplanation
Survival Equipment is not a section of the Accessory Maintenance Flight. The other options, Fuels systems, Pneudraulics, and Egress, are all sections of the Accessory Maintenance Flight.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which aircraft maintenance squadron section consists of crew chiefs?
- A.
Support
- B.
Aircraft
- C.
Weapons
- D.
Specialist
Correct Answer
B. AircraftExplanation
The correct answer is "Aircraft" because crew chiefs are responsible for the maintenance and repair of aircraft. They are in charge of inspecting, troubleshooting, and servicing the aircraft to ensure they are safe and operational. The aircraft maintenance squadron section specifically focuses on the maintenance and upkeep of the aircraft, making it the appropriate section for crew chiefs.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Quality maintenance is the responsibility of maintenance technicians, supervisors, and commanders who work in concert with
- A.
Maintenance training
- B.
Quality assurance
- C.
Resources
- D.
Egress
Correct Answer
B. Quality assuranceExplanation
Quality assurance is the correct answer because it is the process of ensuring that products or services meet the required standards of quality. In the context of the given statement, maintenance technicians, supervisors, and commanders are responsible for maintaining the quality of their work. They work in concert with quality assurance to ensure that the maintenance activities are carried out in accordance with the established standards and procedures. Quality assurance plays a vital role in ensuring that the maintenance work is done correctly and meets the expected quality standards.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The three phases of the operational events subsystem of the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) are
- A.
Input, output, and archive
- B.
On-line, off-line, and update
- C.
Mission tracking, data recording, and retrieval
- D.
Mission recording, mission accomplishment, and analysis.
Correct Answer
D. Mission recording, mission accomplishment, and analysis.Explanation
The three phases of the operational events subsystem of the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) are mission recording, mission accomplishment, and analysis. This suggests that the subsystem is designed to record and track mission-related events, monitor the accomplishment of missions, and analyze the data collected for further insights and improvements.Rate this question:
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- 12.
You are completing one of the aircraft and supporting maintenance forms. How do you correctly write 30 January 2016?
- A.
20160130
- B.
01/30/16
- C.
30/01/16
- D.
16/01/30
Correct Answer
A. 20160130Explanation
The correct answer is "20160130" because it follows the standard format of writing the date in the year-month-day order. In this format, the year is written first, followed by the month and then the day.Rate this question:
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- 13.
When a malfunction is entered on a maintenance form, who determines the correct symbol to use?
- A.
Your supervisor
- B.
Maintenance officer
- C.
Production superintendent
- D.
Individual making the entry
Correct Answer
D. Individual making the entryExplanation
The individual making the entry determines the correct symbol to use when a malfunction is entered on a maintenance form. This is because they are the one who is directly involved in the situation and has the most accurate knowledge about the specific malfunction. They would be responsible for accurately identifying and documenting the issue using the appropriate symbol, ensuring clear communication and understanding within the maintenance process.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What determines a red X "unsafe for flight" discrepancy
- A.
The removal of a component that affects safe operation of the equipment
- B.
Upon receipt of a routine action time compliance technical order (TCTO)
- C.
An inspection or operational check is due
- D.
An unknown condition
Correct Answer
A. The removal of a component that affects safe operation of the equipmentExplanation
The correct answer is "The removal of a component that affects safe operation of the equipment." This means that if a component is removed from the equipment and it has an impact on the safe operation of the equipment, it will result in a red X "unsafe for flight" discrepancy.Rate this question:
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- 15.
When a new Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781A is initiated, what kind of discrepancies cannot be transferred to the AFTO Form 781K?
- A.
Red X
- B.
Red dash
- C.
Red diagonal
- D.
Discrepancies with a supply document number
Correct Answer
A. Red XExplanation
When a new Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781A is initiated, discrepancies with a Red X cannot be transferred to the AFTO Form 781K.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) 781 series form provides the overall flight status, or condition of the aircraft?
- A.
AFTO 781 A
- B.
AFTO 781 H
- C.
AFTO 781 J
- D.
AFTO 781 K
Correct Answer
B. AFTO 781 HExplanation
The AFTO 781 H form provides the overall flight status or condition of the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 17.
The five authorized inspection concepts used by the Air Force are
- A.
Major, minor, phase, isochronal, postflight
- B.
Major, minor, shop, home station, postflight
- C.
Periodic, home station, postflight, isochronal, programmed depot maintenance
- D.
Periodic, phase, isochronal, programmed depot maintenance, airline/manufacturer maintenance
Correct Answer
D. Periodic, phase, isochronal, programmed depot maintenance, airline/manufacturer maintenanceExplanation
The correct answer is "periodic, phase, isochronal, programmed depot maintenance, airline/manufacturer maintenance". These concepts refer to different types of inspections conducted by the Air Force. Periodic inspections are scheduled at regular intervals, phase inspections are conducted after a certain number of flight hours, isochronal inspections are performed at specific calendar intervals, programmed depot maintenance involves more extensive repairs and maintenance, and airline/manufacturer maintenance refers to inspections conducted by outside entities.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which is a thorough and searching inspection?
- A.
Minor
- B.
Major
- C.
Postflight
- D.
Home station Check
Correct Answer
B. MajorExplanation
A major inspection refers to a comprehensive and detailed examination of something. It involves thoroughly examining and evaluating all aspects and components to ensure they are in proper working condition. This type of inspection is typically conducted to identify any potential issues or problems that may require significant attention or repairs. It is more extensive and comprehensive compared to a minor inspection, which typically focuses on specific areas or components. A major inspection is therefore the most thorough and searching inspection among the options provided.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The primary responsibility for formal upgrade training (UGT) rests with
- A.
Training management personnel
- B.
The commander.
- C.
The supervisor.
- D.
The individual
Correct Answer
B. The commander.Explanation
The primary responsibility for formal upgrade training (UGT) rests with the commander. This is because the commander is responsible for overseeing and managing the training program within their organization. They have the authority to allocate resources, set training objectives, and ensure that the necessary training is provided to their personnel. The commander plays a crucial role in identifying training needs, coordinating with training management personnel, and ultimately making decisions regarding the formal upgrade training of their personnel.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Training people to do tasks other than those in their primary Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is called
- A.
Cross-utilization training.
- B.
Management training
- C.
Qualification training.
- D.
Upgrade training.
Correct Answer
A. Cross-utilization training.Explanation
Cross-utilization training refers to the process of training individuals in tasks or skills that are outside their primary Air Force specialty code (AFSC). This type of training allows personnel to develop additional competencies and be able to perform duties in different areas within the Air Force. It enhances flexibility and adaptability within the workforce by enabling individuals to contribute in multiple roles and functions, thereby increasing overall operational efficiency and effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 21.
The main source of material deficiency information is found in
- A.
Integrated Maintenance Data Systems (IMDS).
- B.
Department of Defense (DD) forms
- C.
Applicable specifications
- D.
Regulations.
Correct Answer
A. Integrated Maintenance Data Systems (IMDS).Explanation
The main source of material deficiency information is found in Integrated Maintenance Data Systems (IMDS). IMDS is a comprehensive database that stores and manages maintenance-related information for various systems and equipment. It provides a centralized platform for tracking and reporting material deficiencies, allowing users to easily access and analyze this information. This makes IMDS an invaluable resource for identifying and addressing material deficiencies in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which technical order (TO) explains the Material Deficiency Reporting System?
- A.
00–5–15.
- B.
00–25–195.
- C.
00–25C–234.
- D.
00–35D–54.
Correct Answer
D. 00–35D–54.Explanation
The correct answer is 00–35D–54. This technical order (TO) specifically explains the Material Deficiency Reporting System.Rate this question:
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- 23.
If you fill out a Category II, Product Quality Deficiency Report for a defect in workmanship then you must forward the draft to the originating point within
- A.
1 workday.
- B.
2 workday.
- C.
3 workday.
- D.
4 workday.
Correct Answer
C. 3 workday.Explanation
If you fill out a Category II, Product Quality Deficiency Report for a defect in workmanship, it must be forwarded to the originating point within 3 workdays. This implies that there is a requirement to promptly address and report any issues related to workmanship defects in order to ensure timely resolution and prevent further complications.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The first part of a national stock number (NSN) indicates the
- A.
Part code.
- B.
Bureau code.
- C.
Item identification.
- D.
Supply classification.
Correct Answer
D. Supply classification.Explanation
The first part of a national stock number (NSN) indicates the supply classification. NSN is a 13-digit code used to identify items of supply in the military supply chain. The first two digits of the NSN represent the supply classification, which categorizes items based on their characteristics and intended use. This classification system helps in organizing and managing the vast array of items in the military inventory, making it easier to locate and distribute supplies when needed. Therefore, the correct answer is supply classification.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Bench stock supplies should be replenished when the authorized quantity on-hand drops below what percent?
- A.
40
- B.
50
- C.
60
- D.
70
Correct Answer
B. 50Explanation
Bench stock supplies should be replenished when the authorized quantity on-hand drops below 50%. This ensures that there is still a sufficient amount of supplies available for immediate use, while also allowing for a buffer to prevent stockouts or delays in operations. Replenishing at this threshold helps maintain a balance between having enough supplies and avoiding excessive inventory costs.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What types of property responsibility can be charged to Department of Defense (DOD) personnel?
- A.
Command and custodial.
- B.
Individual and custodial.
- C.
Command and supervisory.
- D.
Supervisory and custodial.
Correct Answer
A. Command and custodial.Explanation
The Department of Defense (DOD) personnel can be charged with both command and custodial property responsibility. Command responsibility refers to the responsibility of personnel in positions of authority to effectively manage and supervise the use and care of property. Custodial responsibility, on the other hand, refers to the responsibility of individuals to physically safeguard and maintain the property entrusted to them. Therefore, DOD personnel can be held accountable for both commanding the proper use of property and ensuring its safekeeping.Rate this question:
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- 27.
An airman who signs out a toolbox assumes which type of property responsibility for that toolbox?
- A.
Supervisory.
- B.
Custodial.
- C.
Individual.
- D.
Command.
Correct Answer
B. Custodial.Explanation
When an airman signs out a toolbox, they assume custodial property responsibility for that toolbox. This means that they are responsible for the care, safekeeping, and proper use of the toolbox. Custodial responsibility involves maintaining and protecting the property entrusted to them, ensuring that it is returned in the same condition as when it was signed out. Supervisory responsibility would involve overseeing others' use of the toolbox, individual responsibility would refer to personal belongings, and command responsibility would involve overall accountability for property within a unit.Rate this question:
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- 28.
How can personnel be relieved from property responsibility?
- A.
Turn-in only.
- B.
Turn-in or transfer.
- C.
Supply’s recommendation
- D.
Commander’s recommendation
Correct Answer
B. Turn-in or transfer.Explanation
Personnel can be relieved from property responsibility by either turning in the property or transferring it to another individual or unit. This means that they can either return the property to the supply or logistics department, or they can transfer the responsibility of the property to someone else who will then be accountable for it. This allows for a smooth transition of property responsibility and ensures that the property is properly accounted for.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which publications are considered working handbooks?
- A.
Air Force manuals.
- B.
Air Force pamphlets
- C.
Air Force instructions.
- D.
Recurring publications.
Correct Answer
A. Air Force manuals.Explanation
Air Force manuals are considered working handbooks because they provide comprehensive and detailed information on various topics related to Air Force operations, procedures, and guidelines. These manuals serve as practical guides and references for Air Force personnel, providing them with the necessary knowledge and instructions to carry out their duties effectively. Unlike pamphlets and instructions, which may provide more specific or limited information, manuals are designed to cover a wide range of subjects and serve as a comprehensive resource for Air Force personnel. Recurring publications may refer to any type of publication that is regularly published, but it does not specifically indicate that they are working handbooks.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Career development courses (CDC) are an example of
- A.
An Air Force pamphlet
- B.
A standard publication
- C.
A recurring publication.
- D.
A specialized publication.
Correct Answer
D. A specialized publication.Explanation
Career development courses (CDC) are considered a specialized publication because they focus specifically on providing information and resources for individuals seeking to advance their careers. Unlike an Air Force pamphlet, which may cover a variety of topics, or a standard publication, which may have a broader scope, CDCs are designed to cater to the specific needs and interests of individuals looking to develop their professional skills and knowledge. This specialization allows CDCs to offer targeted and in-depth content, making them a valuable resource for career growth and development.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The list of applicable publications (LOAP) lists technical orders (TO) that apply to
- A.
Active aircraft time compliance technical orders.
- B.
A specific aircraft
- C.
Overhaul depots.
- D.
A specific tester.
Correct Answer
B. A specific aircraftExplanation
The list of applicable publications (LOAP) is a compilation of technical orders (TO) that are relevant and applicable to a specific aircraft. This list helps in identifying the specific TOs that need to be followed and complied with for the maintenance and operation of that particular aircraft. It ensures that the correct procedures and guidelines are followed to ensure the safety and efficiency of the aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which technical order (TO) explains how to maintain and inspect a particular weapons system?
- A.
Operations and Maintenance
- B.
Methods and Procedures.
- C.
Time Compliance
- D.
Abbreviated.
Correct Answer
A. Operations and MaintenanceExplanation
The correct answer is Operations and Maintenance. This technical order provides instructions and guidelines on how to effectively maintain and inspect a specific weapons system. It covers various aspects such as regular maintenance procedures, inspection protocols, troubleshooting techniques, and safety precautions. By following the Operations and Maintenance TO, technicians can ensure the proper functioning and longevity of the weapons system, as well as identify and address any potential issues or malfunctions.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which technical order (TO) category includes inspection workcards and checklists?
- A.
Special.
- B.
Simplified.
- C.
Automation.
- D.
Abbreviated.
Correct Answer
D. Abbreviated.Explanation
The correct answer is "Abbreviated." This category includes inspection workcards and checklists.Rate this question:
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- 34.
A series of red Xs printed around the border of the first page of a time compliance technical order (TCTO) signifies
- A.
An inspection action TCTO.
- B.
An immediate action TCTO.
- C.
A routine action TCTO.
- D.
An urgent action TCTO.
Correct Answer
B. An immediate action TCTO.Explanation
The series of red Xs printed around the border of the first page of a time compliance technical order (TCTO) signifies an immediate action TCTO. The red Xs indicate that the TCTO requires immediate attention and action. This could be due to a critical issue or safety concern that needs to be addressed promptly.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which technical order (TO) explains the TO numbering system?
- A.
TO 00–5–1
- B.
TO 00–5–5.
- C.
TO 00–5–10.
- D.
TO 00–5–18.
Correct Answer
D. TO 00–5–18.Explanation
The correct answer is TO 00–5–18. This TO explains the TO numbering system.Rate this question:
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- 36.
The first number group within a basic technical order (TO) number identifies the
- A.
Specific equipment
- B.
Section of the TO.
- C.
TO category
- D.
Kind of TO
Correct Answer
C. TO categoryExplanation
The first number group within a basic technical order (TO) number identifies the TO category. This means that the TO category is specific to the equipment section of the TO. The TO category helps in organizing and classifying the technical orders based on the type or category of equipment they pertain to. It allows for easier referencing and retrieval of information related to specific equipment categories within the technical order system.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The "XD" in fault isolation (FI) code 33–10-XD–02 identifies the
- A.
System.
- B.
Location.
- C.
Subsystem.
- D.
Specific fault.
Correct Answer
D. Specific fault.Explanation
The "XD" in fault isolation (FI) code 33-10-XD-02 identifies the specific fault. Fault isolation codes are used to identify and categorize specific faults in a system. In this case, the "XD" code indicates a particular fault that has occurred. The code helps technicians and engineers to quickly identify and address the specific issue that needs to be resolved.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which type of technical order (TO) contain operational checkout procedures?
- A.
Job guide
- B.
Fault isolation.
- C.
General vehicle
- D.
Schematic diagram
Correct Answer
A. Job guideExplanation
A job guide is a type of technical order (TO) that contains operational checkout procedures. It provides step-by-step instructions for performing specific tasks or procedures related to the operation and maintenance of a particular system or equipment. These procedures help ensure that the system or equipment is functioning correctly and can be checked and verified during regular inspections or maintenance activities. The job guide may include instructions on how to perform operational tests, inspections, adjustments, or calibrations to ensure proper functioning and identify any potential issues or faults.Rate this question:
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- 39.
While troubleshooting, you are using a wiring diagram to help you locate a malfunctioning component. After determining which component is faulty, you need to determine its part number. To do this, you would check the wiring diagram’s
- A.
Numerical index.
- B.
Reference designator
- C.
Line replaceable unit index.
- D.
Line replaceable unit designation.
Correct Answer
B. Reference designatorExplanation
In order to determine the part number of the malfunctioning component, you would check the wiring diagram's reference designator. The reference designator is a code or label used to identify specific components on a diagram. By referring to the reference designator, you can easily locate the corresponding part number for the faulty component.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Safety and operational supplements to technical orders (TO) are filed in
- A.
Reverse numerical sequence in front of the basic TO.
- B.
Reverse numerical sequence behind the basic TO.
- C.
Numerical sequence in front of the basic TO.
- D.
Numerical sequence behind the basic TO.
Correct Answer
A. Reverse numerical sequence in front of the basic TO.Explanation
Safety and operational supplements to technical orders (TO) are filed in reverse numerical sequence in front of the basic TO. This means that the supplements are organized in descending order based on their numerical sequence, with the highest number being placed first. This arrangement allows for easy access and reference to the most recent supplements, as they are located at the front of the basic TO.Rate this question:
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- 41.
To correct errors in a technical order, submit an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form
- A.
22
- B.
33
- C.
100
- D.
200
Correct Answer
A. 22Explanation
The correct answer is 22 because the question states that to correct errors in a technical order, an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form needs to be submitted. Among the options provided, 22 is the only one that matches the format of an AFTO Form number.Rate this question:
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- 42.
How many hours do personnel at the Air Logistics Center (ALC) activity have to act upon receipt of an emergency Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 22 report?
- A.
AFTO Form 24.
- B.
AFTO Form 36.
- C.
AFTO Form 48.
- D.
AFTO Form 72.
Correct Answer
C. AFTO Form 48.Explanation
Personnel at the Air Logistics Center (ALC) activity have 48 hours to act upon receipt of an emergency Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 22 report.Rate this question:
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- 43.
How far away from parked aircraft should liquid oxygen (LOX) carts be stored?
- A.
25 feet.
- B.
50 feet
- C.
75 feet.
- D.
100 feet
Correct Answer
C. 75 feet.Explanation
Liquid oxygen (LOX) carts should be stored at least 75 feet away from parked aircraft. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of the aircraft and prevent any potential accidents or hazards. Storing LOX carts too close to aircraft can pose a risk due to the highly volatile nature of liquid oxygen, which can increase the chances of fire or explosion. Therefore, maintaining a safe distance of 75 feet is crucial to minimize any potential risks and ensure the safety of both the aircraft and personnel.Rate this question:
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- 44.
When servicing a low-pressure oxygen system, set the regulator valve at a maximum pressure in pound per square inch gage (psig) of
- A.
475 psig.
- B.
480 psig.
- C.
485 psig
- D.
500 psig.
Correct Answer
A. 475 psig.Explanation
When servicing a low-pressure oxygen system, it is important to set the regulator valve at a maximum pressure that is safe and appropriate for the system. In this case, the correct answer is 475 psig. This pressure ensures that the system is operating within the recommended range and avoids any potential risks or damage that could occur from higher pressures.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Liquid nitrogen must be stored at or below what minimum temperature to remain in a liquid state?
- A.
–310.8° F.
- B.
–315.8° F.
- C.
–320.8° F.
- D.
–325.8° F.
Correct Answer
C. –320.8° F.Explanation
Liquid nitrogen must be stored at or below -320.8° F in order to remain in a liquid state. At temperatures above this, nitrogen will evaporate and become a gas.Rate this question:
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- 46.
If your skin comes in contact with liquid nitrogen (LIN), you must
- A.
Attempt to rewarm the skin.
- B.
Seek medical attention immediately.
- C.
Cover the effected skin immediately.
- D.
Run cold water over the affected area
Correct Answer
B. Seek medical attention immediately.Explanation
If your skin comes in contact with liquid nitrogen (LIN), seeking medical attention immediately is the correct course of action. Liquid nitrogen is extremely cold and can cause severe burns and frostbite on the skin. It is important to seek medical attention because a healthcare professional will be able to properly assess the extent of the injury and provide appropriate treatment. Attempting to rewarm the skin or running cold water over the affected area may not be sufficient in treating the injury caused by liquid nitrogen. Additionally, covering the affected skin immediately may not be the most effective action to take in this situation.Rate this question:
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- 47.
What type of tasks may you perform in the immediate area of explosives?
- A.
Mission critical.
- B.
Routine.
- C.
None.
- D.
Core.
Correct Answer
A. Mission critical.Explanation
In the immediate area of explosives, tasks that are mission critical may be performed. This means that these tasks are of utmost importance and directly contribute to the success and safety of the mission involving explosives. These tasks are likely to involve handling, transporting, or disposing of explosives, and require specialized knowledge, skills, and precautions to prevent accidents or mishaps.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which types of items are classified as a Class/Division 1.4 explosive?
- A.
Low fragmentation items.
- B.
High fragmentation items.
- C.
Low explosive weight items.
- D.
High explosive weight items.
Correct Answer
C. Low explosive weight items.Explanation
Class/Division 1.4 explosives are classified as low explosive weight items. This means that these explosives have a relatively low weight and do not produce a high explosive force. They are less likely to cause significant damage or injury compared to high explosive weight items. It is important to properly classify explosives based on their weight and potential impact to ensure safe handling and transportation.Rate this question:
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- 49.
How much electrical current does it take to cause muscle paralysis?
- A.
0.001 amps
- B.
0.005 amps
- C.
0.010 amps
- D.
0.015 amps
Correct Answer
D. 0.015 ampsExplanation
Muscle paralysis can be caused by electrical current, and the amount of current required for this effect is measured in amperes (amps). The correct answer is 0.015 amps, which means that it takes 0.015 amps of electrical current to cause muscle paralysis. This level of current is sufficient to disrupt the normal functioning of the muscles and prevent them from contracting and moving properly.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Human awareness of static electricity begins at approximately
- A.
250 volts.
- B.
350 volts.
- C.
2500 volts
- D.
3500 volts.
Correct Answer
D. 3500 volts.Explanation
Human awareness of static electricity begins at approximately 3500 volts. At this voltage level, individuals may start to feel the effects of static electricity, such as a mild shock or a tingling sensation. This threshold varies between individuals and can be influenced by factors like humidity and clothing materials. Static electricity is generated when there is an imbalance of electric charges on the surface of objects, and it can be discharged through contact with a conductive material or through a spark.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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May 03, 2017Quiz Created by
Deanslee96
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