3S071 Volume 1

1. What is a senior noncommissioned officer (SNCO) primary purpose?

Career progression.

Maintain readiness.

Mission accomplishment.

Review evaluation reports.

2. What rank transitions from being technical experts and first line supervisors to leaders with operational competence?

Staff sergeants.

Technical sergeants.

Master sergeants.

Senior master sergeants.

3. These are experienced operational leaders, skilled at merging subordinates' talents, skills, and resources with other teams' functions to most effectively accomplish the mission.

Technical sergeants.

Master sergeants.

Senior master sergeants.

Chief master sergeants.

4. What enlisted rank must epitomize the finest qualities of a military leader and develop future enlisted leaders?

Technical sergeants.

Master sergeants.

Senior master sergeants.

Chief master sergeants.

5. This office defines the Culture of Airmen, including core standards, values & expectations?

Directorate of Airman Development & Sustainment (AF/A1D)

Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P)

Directorate of Plans & Integration (AF/A1X)

Issues Team (AF/A11)

6. The strategy of the Air Force on-the job training (OJT) program provides realistic and flexible training by using all of the following capabilities except

Managing.

Executing.

Enhancing.

Developing.

7. The Air Force on-the job (OJT) program consists of all of the following components except job

Satisfaction.

Proficiency.

Knowledge.

Experience.

8. Which office does AF/A1 communicate with to ensure corporate Air Force requirements link mission capabilities to programmed resources?

Directorate of Airman Development & Sustainment (AF/A1D)

Directorate of Manpower & Organization (AF/A1M)

Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P)

Directorate of Plans & Integration (AF/A1X)

9. What is key to the total training program?

Career development courses (CDCs).

Specialty knowledge test (SKT).

On-the job training (OJT).

Upgrade training (UGT).

10. What training title is awarded after personnel complete a mandatory career development course (CDC), all core tasks identified in the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and other duty position tasks?

Apprentice.

Journeyman.

Craftsman.

Superintendent.

11. This office plans & executes the Base Realignment and Closure (BRAC) program?

Directorate of Airman Development & Sustainment (AF/A1D)

Directorate of Manpower & Organization (AF/A1M)

Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P)

Directorate of Plans & Integration (AF/A1X)

12. This type of training is defined as specialized, systematic and/or thorough technical training provided to enhance specific knowledge needs of each person involved in the training.

Initial skills.

On-the job.

Upgrade.

In-house.

13. As a supervisor, what do you require to develop a Master Training Plan (MTP) used to manage work center and individual training?

Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

Career Development Course (CDC).

Specialty Training Standard (STS).

Job Qualification Standard (JQS).

14. What document identifies all day-to day mission requirements, core tasks, in-garrison and contingency tasks, and additional duties performed in the work center?

Specialty Training Standard.

Job Qualification Standard.

Master Training Plan.

Master Task List.

15. Who is responsible for initiating personnel action on trainees entering, completing, or withdrawing from training?

Supervisors.

Unit training managers.

Career Assistance Advisors.

Air Force Career Field Managers.

16. The focal point of the Air Force training program is the

Trainee.

Trainer.

Supervisor.

Unit training manager.

17. Why is it important to document interruptions to upgrade training, such as leave or temporary duty, on the AF IMT 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet?

So the unit training manager (UTM) can reference the dates.

So the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) can reference the dates.

In case the trainee has difficulty with upgrade training and the course material.

In case the trainee has difficulty with upgrade training, documentation can be referenced.

18. All of the following are the trainee's responsibilities in the upgrade training process except

Documenting training progress on AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet.

Budgeting on- and off-duty time to complete assigned training tasks.

Comprehending the applicable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) requirements and career path.

Acknowledging and documenting task qualification upon completion of training.

19. Why is it important to develop and implement control measures when dealing with classified material?

So you know where the classified information is kept.

To keep track of the people dealing with the classified material.

So security forces knows where the classified information is kept.

To decrease the possibility of classified information falling into the wrong hands.

20. Which is not an installation security program manager's program responsibility?

Recognizing the training efforts of effective security managers publicly.

Assessing the effectiveness of training programs as part of the information security program review.

Indoctrinating personnel to the investigation position code reflected in the unit manpower document.

Developing and conducting classroom or one-on-one training for newly appointed security managers.

21. Within how many days of assignment to the unit must supervisors ensure their cleared personnel receive an initial security education orientation before they access classified information?

90

120

150

180

22. Which application is used only by adjudicative personnel and provides capabilities such as case management and adjudicative history and summary?

Joint Clearance and Access Verification System (JCAVS).

Joint Adjudication Management System (JAMS).

Personnel Occupying Information System (POIS).

Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS).

23. Which application is used for providing capabilities such as access indoctrination, debriefing history, incident and issue file reporting, history, and management of unit personnel security functions?

Joint Clearance and Access Verification System (JCAVS).

Joint Adjudication Management System (JAMS).

Personnel Occupying Information System (POIS).

Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS).

24. It is important to use the SF 312, Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement, when granting an individual access to classified information to ensure

All necessary access steps have been completed.

The security manager sends the proper form to be filed in archives.

You include this form as part of the Field Record Group.

You have a source document signed and dated by the individual.

25. The Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1) utilizes the Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P) to communicate all of the following except?

Developing objectives.

Performing analysis.

Developing force management policies.

Developing doctrine and legislative guidance.

26. Which office implements programs, such as "Stop Loss," to effectively shape and balance the Air Force's Total Force?

Directorate of Airman Development and Sustainment (AF/A1D).

Directorate of Manpower and Organization (AF/A1M).

Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P).

Directorate of Plans and Integration (AF/A1X).

27. When a individual refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) for access to classified information, the commander or staff agency chief does all of the following except

Initiates a security incident report.

Denies the individual access to classified information.

Initiates action to establish a Security Information File (SIF).

Grants temporary access to classified information until the form is signed.

28. Which office serves as the program manager for planning, programming, and developing information technology (IT) for the Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1)?

Directorate of Airman Development and Sustainment (AF/A1D).

Directorate of Manpower and Organization (AF/A1M).

Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P).

Directorate of Plans and Integration (AF/A1X).

29. It is important for the commander or staff agency chief to complete a three-step process against an individual who refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) because the

Refusal may initiate removal from the squadron.

Refusal may be indicative of suspicious or negative behavior.

Commander may be required to interview the member a second time.

Commander may be required to refer the individual to another commander.

30. Which field operating agency (FOA) primarily accomplishes their mission by ensuring the right numbers of people in the right grades and skills are available to perform the missions of unit commanders worldwide?

Air Force Manpower Agency (AFMA).

Air Force Personnel Operations Agency (AFPOA).

Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center ( HQ AFPC).

Headquarters Air Force Resource Management Process (HAFRMP).

31. Why is it imperative to complete the four-step authorization process when confirming a person's level of access to classified information?

Because each step is an intricate part of the “go, no-go” process.

Because each step is an intricate piece of the “checks and balance” process.

You will be unable to process the request, and therefore, the person will not get access.

You will be unable to process the request, no access is granted, and the process is repeated.

32. The Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) integrates and executes personnel operations to develop Air Force people and

Meet field commander requirements.

Ensure strategic goals are effectively aligned.

Design, develop, and test personnel processes.

Execute wartime and home station capabilities.

33. Who does the Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) support by providing transition assistance and support?

Active duty.

Air Force retirees.

Active duty, reservists, and guardsmen.

Active duty, reservists, guardsmen, and civilians.

34. Which directorate assists Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) with facilitating the professional development of all enlisted members and officers below the grade of colonel?

Assignments.

Personnel Data Systems.

Civilian Force Integration.

Air and Space Expeditionary Force Operations.

35. Authority to grant security clearance access to persons outside the Executive Branch without a previous clearance may not be delegated below the

Mission support group (MSG) commander.

Major command (MAJCOM) commander.

Numbered Air Force (NAF) commander.

Wing (WG) commander.

36. For assistance with recruiting and training interns to provide future Air Force leaders, Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) contacts the Directorate of

Assignments.

Personnel Data Systems.

Civilian Force Integration.

Air and Space Expeditionary Force Operations.

37. Why is it important to consider your environment when hand carrying sensitive material?

The material may get confiscated by unauthorized personnel.

The material may not be important enough to hand carry.

The foreign government may want to take it from you.

To avoid bringing unwanted attention to yourself.

38. Which directorate assists Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) with developing guidance, procedures and training for active duty, Guard, Reserve and civilian personnel accountability?

Assignments.

Force Operations.

Personnel Services.

Personnel Data Systems.

39. When transporting laptops and disks, couriers must do all of the following except

Password protect laptops.

Erase laptops and disks completely before transporting.

Wrap or secure classified media within a container if outer markings are visible.

Mark laptops and disks according to DOD 5200.1R, Information Security Program.

40. Which directorate is primarily responsible for reporting casualties worldwide, notifying family members, and providing assistance to families and field commanders on benefits and entitlements?

Air and Space Expeditionary Force Operations.

Personnel Services.

Force Operations.

Assignments.

41. Personnel who need to transport classified material will use the Department of State courier system to transport

Through secret internet protocol router networks.

From one storage unit to an available storage unit.

Through or within countries hostile to the United States.

Through or within a military installation in the United States.

42. Which directorate assists Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) with information technology and lifecycle management?

Staff.

Force Operations.

Personnel Services.

Personnel Data Systems.

43. Classified communications security (COMSEC) information may not be transmitted

During duty hours.

Over the weekend.

After hours.

Overnight.

44. Which directorate is responsible for developing guidance, procedures and training for active duty, guard, reserve, and civilian personnel directly supporting Air Force programs?

Staff.

Force Operations.

Personnel Services.

Personnel Data Systems.

45. Which field operating agency (FOA) is responsible for determining requirements needed to execute wartime and home-station capabilities supporting Air Force Concepts of Operations (CONOPS)?

Air Force Manpower Agency (AFMA).

Air Force Personnel Operations Agency (AFPOA).

Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center ( HQ AFPC).

Headquarters Air Force Military Personnel Center ( HQ AFMPC).

46. Who is responsible for making sure an authorized person is available to receive a secure package on a holiday and to verify the correct mailing address?

Sender.

Shipper.

Receiver.

Supplier.

47. Which is not considered one of the five principles of good communication?

Focus.

Justification.

Organization.

Understanding.

48. What field operating agency (FOA) does the Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1) look to for measuring and managing the outcome of improved service delivery and efficient investment in human capital?

Air Force Manpower Agency (AFMA).

Air Force Personnel Operations Agency (AFPOA).

Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).

Headquarters Air Force Military Personnel Center (HQ AFMPC).

49. How many effective communication steps are needed to become a better communicator whether you are writing or speaking?

Three.

Five.

Seven.

Nine.

50. In order to be successful when communicating with your audience, use all of the following tips except

Being inclusive.

Being original.

Extending courtesy.

Making it personal.

51. What authorizations were reduced to save money during Program Budget Decision (PBD) 720?

Programs.

Manpower.

Equipment.

Additional duties.

52. Use all of the following approaches when researching your topic to uncover information that supports your communication goals except

Assign a deadline.

Determine what is known.

Review the purpose and scope of the overall project.

Avoid asking your supervisor until you have all information to present.

53. What rule of e-mail communication would you use to make sure the subject line communicates your purpose?

Be selective about the message you send.

Keep your e-mail under control.

Be clear and concise.

Watch your tone.

54. What component is comprised of an information technology solution that is provided to commanders to support their personnel needs?

Military personnel data system (MILPDS).

Personnel service delivery model (PSDM).

Base-level service delivery model (BLSDM).

Automated records management system (ARMS).

55. What e-mail communication rule is violated if you discuss controversial, sensitive, official se only, classified, personal, or privacy act information?

Be selective about who received your message.

Be selective about the message you send.

Keep your e-mail under control.

Be clear and concise.

56. How many flights were each organization realigned and consolidated into during phase I of the Mission Support Squadron's (MSS) transformative structure testing?

Four

Five

Six

Seven

57. A member's date of enlistment (DOE), or day entering an extension, requires an E63 update be input into the military personnel data system (MILPDS) no earlier than

30 days prior.

60 days prior.

90 days prior.

120 days prior.

58. What Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to change an initial E63 projection prior to the effective date of a reenlistment action?

E63.

E64.

E6D.

E6F.

59. The major command (MAJCOM) is the highest level of command below Headquarters Air Force (HAF) and directly above the

Wing.

Numbered air force (NAF).

Commander’s support staff (CSS).

Military personnel section (MPS).

60. Which Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to change a date of separation only in the Master Military Pay Account (MMPA)?

E6C.

E6F.

TU4.

TU5.

61. What Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to cancel an extension prior to the effective date and is automatically output when the extension is cancelled?

E6F.

TU4.

TU5.

TU6.

62. What Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) reject code appears when a reenlistments clerk updates a reenlistment or extension, but does not include the obligated service?

BDE.

DJM.

RDJ.

VAM.

63. How do major commands (MAJCOM) monitor the effectiveness of military personnel sections (MPS) and commander support staff (CSS) programs?

Test analysis.

Periodic staff assistance visits.

Nuclear Surety Inspections (NSI).

Unit Compliance Inspections (UCI).

64. An individual cannot change a Military Personnel Data System (MILPDS) standard product. Who designs and controls those products?

Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).

Military Personnel Section (MPS).

Personnel System Manager (PSM).

Major Command (MAJCOM).

65. How often are transaction registers (TR) programmatically controlled and produced?

Daily.

Weekly.

Monthly.

Quarterly.

66. As of August 2009, how many major commands made up the Air Force structure?

8

9

10

11

67. What agency, or individual, coordinates on all suggested changes and/or improvements to management assessment products (MAP)?

Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).

Military Personnel Section (MPS).

Personnel System Manager (PSM).

Major Command (MAJCOM).

68. What management assessment product (MAP) reflects an inbound member's name if the member contacts customer service stating a sponsor has not been assigned?

7A, CUSTSVC-NO SPONSOR.

7B, EMPLOYMENTS-EXPIRED DS-LOST TIME.

13A, RELOC-NOTIFICATION NOT ON FILE.

13B, RELOC-PPC-PRP.

69. What management assessment product (MAP) would a member's name be reflected on if administrative certification under the personnel reliability program (PRP) is required and the member is projected to Minot AFB, ND?

MAP 7B, EMPLOYMENTS-EXPIRED DS-LOST TIME.

MAP 10, RELOC-AAC.

MAP 13B, RELOC-PPC-PRP.

MAP 15, EMPLOYMENTS-FUNCTCAT.

70. What management assessment product (MAP) can the career development section use to ensure database integrity if a member is projected for a permanent change of station (PCS) and is demoted before departing?

MAP 6, ENHANCEMENT-QUALITY-CHECK.

MAP 8, EMPLOYMENTS-EXPIRED DS-LOST TIME.

MAP 10, RELOC-AAC.

MAP 13A, RELOCATION-NOTIFICATION NOT ON FILE.

71. The Air Force Reserve Command's (AFRC) vision is to have citizen

Airmen fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power.

Officers fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power.

Enlisted fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power.

Airmen partially engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power.

72. Approximately how many aircraft are assigned to the Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC)?

380

400

420

440

73. The Air National Guard (ANG) has both a federal and

State mission.

Overseas mission.

Local government mission.

District of Columbia mission.

74. Which agency functions to assist the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) in carrying out the responsibilities of the office?

Air Staff

Air National Guard Bureau

Air Force Personnel Center

Air Force Reserve Command

75. Hurricane Katrina, that hit the Louisiana/Mississippi Gulf Coast in August 2005, was one of the most devastating hurricanes of all time. Which agency was activated to help with this natural disaster?

Air National Guard (ANG) Bureau.

Air Force Manpower Agency (AFMA).

Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).

Headquarters Air Force Reserve Command (HQ AFRC).

76. What percentage of the Air Force's tactical airlift support does the Air National Guard (ANG) provide for combat communications functions, aero medical evacuations, and aerial refueling operations?

25

50

75

100

77. When Air National Guard (ANG) units are not mobilized or under federal control, they report to the

Vice president.

President.

Governor.

Mayor.

78. How many subordinate units does the Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower & Personnel (AF/A1) have?

Two

Four

Six

Eight

79. What does the first position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identify?

Skill level.

Career field.

Career group.

Career field subdivision.

80. A combination of the first and the second positions of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies the

Skill level.

Career field.

Career group.

Career field subdivision.

81. What does the combination of the first, second, and third positions of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identify?

Skill level.

Career field.

Career group.

Career field subdivision.

82. The fourth position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies a

Skill level.

Career field.

Career group.

Career field subdivision.

83. Which skill level identifies enlisted personnel with a high degree of technical knowledge who have acquired additional supervisory capabilities through training and knowledge?

Three

Five

Seven

Nine

84. Which type of Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is initially based on how the member is classified at the time of enlistment or during basic training?

Duty.

Control.

Primary.

Secondary.

85. Which office is responsible for providing administrative support to the Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower & Personnel (AF/A1) by managing workflow, tracking correspondence, administering & monitoring security & safety programs, & overseeing supplies & equipment purchases?

Issues Team (AF/A11)

Executive Services (AF/A1Z)

HQ United States Air Force (USAF)

HQ Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)

86. The duties and responsibilities of the personnel craftsman include all of the following except

Advise civilians on civilian personnel issues and programs.

Create, maintain, and audit personnel records.

Provide casualty assistance.

Perform personnel actions.

87. Which is not a Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO) function that a personnel craftsman performs?

Preparation of movement.

Personnel accountability.

Personnel classification.

Personal support.

88. What skill level identifies enlisted personnel who, through experience, training, and performance, have shown a high degree of managerial and supervisory ability?

3

5

7

9

89. Regarding training, a superintendent must emphasize to an Airman that

Training is key to the success of the Air Force.

Advanced specialty training occurs as the trainee gains experience.

Completing a career development course is the most important form of training.

On-the-job training teaches the trainee everything they need to know about the job.

3S071 Volume 1

1. What is a senior noncommissioned officer (SNCO) primary purpose?

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. What rank transitions from being technical experts and first line supervisors to leaders with operational competence?

3. These are experienced operational leaders, skilled at merging subordinates' talents, skills, and resources with other teams' functions to most effectively accomplish the mission.

4. What enlisted rank must epitomize the finest qualities of a military leader and develop future enlisted leaders?

5. This office defines the Culture of Airmen, including core standards, values & expectations?

6. The strategy of the Air Force on-the job training (OJT) program provides realistic and flexible training by using all of the following capabilities except

7. The Air Force on-the job (OJT) program consists of all of the following components except job

8. Which office does AF/A1 communicate with to ensure corporate Air Force requirements link mission capabilities to programmed resources?

9. What is key to the total training program?

10. What training title is awarded after personnel complete a mandatory career development course (CDC), all core tasks identified in the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and other duty position tasks?

11. This office plans & executes the Base Realignment and Closure (BRAC) program?

12. This type of training is defined as specialized, systematic and/or thorough technical training provided to enhance specific knowledge needs of each person involved in the training.

13. As a supervisor, what do you require to develop a Master Training Plan (MTP) used to manage work center and individual training?

14. What document identifies all day-to day mission requirements, core tasks, in-garrison and contingency tasks, and additional duties performed in the work center?

15. Who is responsible for initiating personnel action on trainees entering, completing, or withdrawing from training?

16. The focal point of the Air Force training program is the

17. Why is it important to document interruptions to upgrade training, such as leave or temporary duty, on the AF IMT 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet?

18. All of the following are the trainee's responsibilities in the upgrade training process except

19. Why is it important to develop and implement control measures when dealing with classified material?

20. Which is not an installation security program manager's program responsibility?

21. Within how many days of assignment to the unit must supervisors ensure their cleared personnel receive an initial security education orientation before they access classified information?

22. Which application is used only by adjudicative personnel and provides capabilities such as case management and adjudicative history and summary?

23. Which application is used for providing capabilities such as access indoctrination, debriefing history, incident and issue file reporting, history, and management of unit personnel security functions?

24. It is important to use the SF 312, Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement, when granting an individual access to classified information to ensure

25. The Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1) utilizes the Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P) to communicate all of the following except?

26. Which office implements programs, such as "Stop Loss," to effectively shape and balance the Air Force's Total Force?

27. When a individual refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) for access to classified information, the commander or staff agency chief does all of the following except

28. Which office serves as the program manager for planning, programming, and developing information technology (IT) for the Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1)?

29. It is important for the commander or staff agency chief to complete a three-step process against an individual who refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) because the

30. Which field operating agency (FOA) primarily accomplishes their mission by ensuring the right numbers of people in the right grades and skills are available to perform the missions of unit commanders worldwide?

31. Why is it imperative to complete the four-step authorization process when confirming a person's level of access to classified information?

32. The Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) integrates and executes personnel operations to develop Air Force people and

33. Who does the Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) support by providing transition assistance and support?

34. Which directorate assists Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) with facilitating the professional development of all enlisted members and officers below the grade of colonel?

35. Authority to grant security clearance access to persons outside the Executive Branch without a previous clearance may not be delegated below the

36. For assistance with recruiting and training interns to provide future Air Force leaders, Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) contacts the Directorate of

37. Why is it important to consider your environment when hand carrying sensitive material?

38. Which directorate assists Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) with developing guidance, procedures and training for active duty, Guard, Reserve and civilian personnel accountability?

39. When transporting laptops and disks, couriers must do all of the following except

40. Which directorate is primarily responsible for reporting casualties worldwide, notifying family members, and providing assistance to families and field commanders on benefits and entitlements?

41. Personnel who need to transport classified material will use the Department of State courier system to transport

42. Which directorate assists Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) with information technology and lifecycle management?

43. Classified communications security (COMSEC) information may not be transmitted

44. Which directorate is responsible for developing guidance, procedures and training for active duty, guard, reserve, and civilian personnel directly supporting Air Force programs?

45. Which field operating agency (FOA) is responsible for determining requirements needed to execute wartime and home-station capabilities supporting Air Force Concepts of Operations (CONOPS)?

46. Who is responsible for making sure an authorized person is available to receive a secure package on a holiday and to verify the correct mailing address?

47. Which is not considered one of the five principles of good communication?

48. What field operating agency (FOA) does the Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1) look to for measuring and managing the outcome of improved service delivery and efficient investment in human capital?

49. How many effective communication steps are needed to become a better communicator whether you are writing or speaking?

50. In order to be successful when communicating with your audience, use all of the following tips except

51. What authorizations were reduced to save money during Program Budget Decision (PBD) 720?

52. Use all of the following approaches when researching your topic to uncover information that supports your communication goals except

53. What rule of e-mail communication would you use to make sure the subject line communicates your purpose?

54. What component is comprised of an information technology solution that is provided to commanders to support their personnel needs?

55. What e-mail communication rule is violated if you discuss controversial, sensitive, official se only, classified, personal, or privacy act information?

56. How many flights were each organization realigned and consolidated into during phase I of the Mission Support Squadron's (MSS) transformative structure testing?

57. A member's date of enlistment (DOE), or day entering an extension, requires an E63 update be input into the military personnel data system (MILPDS) no earlier than

58. What Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to change an initial E63 projection prior to the effective date of a reenlistment action?

59. The major command (MAJCOM) is the highest level of command below Headquarters Air Force (HAF) and directly above the

60. Which Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to change a date of separation only in the Master Military Pay Account (MMPA)?

61. What Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to cancel an extension prior to the effective date and is automatically output when the extension is cancelled?

62. What Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) reject code appears when a reenlistments clerk updates a reenlistment or extension, but does not include the obligated service?

63. How do major commands (MAJCOM) monitor the effectiveness of military personnel sections (MPS) and commander support staff (CSS) programs?

64. An individual cannot change a Military Personnel Data System (MILPDS) standard product. Who designs and controls those products?

65. How often are transaction registers (TR) programmatically controlled and produced?

66. As of August 2009, how many major commands made up the Air Force structure?

67. What agency, or individual, coordinates on all suggested changes and/or improvements to management assessment products (MAP)?

68. What management assessment product (MAP) reflects an inbound member's name if the member contacts customer service stating a sponsor has not been assigned?

69. What management assessment product (MAP) would a member's name be reflected on if administrative certification under the personnel reliability program (PRP) is required and the member is projected to Minot AFB, ND?

70. What management assessment product (MAP) can the career development section use to ensure database integrity if a member is projected for a permanent change of station (PCS) and is demoted before departing?

71. The Air Force Reserve Command's (AFRC) vision is to have citizen

72. Approximately how many aircraft are assigned to the Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC)?

73. The Air National Guard (ANG) has both a federal and

74. Which agency functions to assist the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) in carrying out the responsibilities of the office?

75. Hurricane Katrina, that hit the Louisiana/Mississippi Gulf Coast in August 2005, was one of the most devastating hurricanes of all time. Which agency was activated to help with this natural disaster?

76. What percentage of the Air Force's tactical airlift support does the Air National Guard (ANG) provide for combat communications functions, aero medical evacuations, and aerial refueling operations?

77. When Air National Guard (ANG) units are not mobilized or under federal control, they report to the