Z3D153 Ure Vol 1(Air Force )

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1/100 Questions

Which of the following is not a requirement for upgrade to 3D153?
- Obtaining flight chief approval for the award of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) 3D153.
- Completing Cyberspace Support career development course (CDC) 3DX5X.
- Completing Radio Frequency (RF) Transmission Systems CDC 3D153
- Completing all core tasks identified for 5 skill-level.

About This Quiz

This quiz, titled 'Z3D153 URE Vol 1(Air force)', evaluates knowledge crucial for Air Force specialty codes in cyber operations. It covers training standards, upgrade requirements, and specific roles within cyber systems and transport systems, enhancing both safety and operational competence.

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2.

Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic voltage?
- Working at a bench.
- Walking across carpet.
- Walking across a vinyl floor.
- Picking up a common plastic bag.
Correct Answer

A. Walking across carpet.

Explanation

Walking across carpet generates the most electrostatic voltage because when we walk on a carpet, friction is created between our shoes and the carpet. This friction causes the transfer of electrons from the carpet to our shoes, creating a buildup of static electricity. This buildup of static electricity results in a higher electrostatic voltage compared to the other activities mentioned.

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3.

What power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?
- Sag.
- Spike.
- Noise.
- Blackout.
Correct Answer

A. Blackout.

Explanation

A blackout is a complete loss of utility power, where all electrical devices connected to the power grid are unable to receive electricity. This can be caused by various factors such as equipment failure, severe weather conditions, or deliberate actions. During a blackout, there is no electricity flowing through the power lines, resulting in a total loss of power for the affected area.

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4.

Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?
- Token.
- Biometrics.
- Multifactor.
- Knowledge-based
Correct Answer

A. Biometrics.

Explanation

Biometrics is the correct answer because it is a form of identity management process that uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user. Biometrics involves the measurement and analysis of unique physical or behavioral characteristics, such as fingerprints, to verify a person's identity. By scanning and comparing the fingerprint of an individual, biometric systems can accurately authenticate and grant access to authorized users. This method is widely used in various industries and sectors to enhance security and prevent unauthorized access.

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5.

Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?
- Virus.
- Spam.
- Spyware.
- Phishing.
Correct Answer

A. Spam.

Explanation

Spam is considered more of an annoyance than an attack because it involves the mass sending of unsolicited and often irrelevant messages to a large number of recipients. While it can be disruptive and time-consuming to deal with, spam typically does not pose a direct threat to the security or integrity of systems or personal information. In contrast, viruses, spyware, and phishing attacks are designed to infiltrate systems, steal data, or cause harm, making them more malicious and dangerous threat vectors.

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6.

Which of the following statements is true concerning shielding?
- Cables should be of unshielded construction.
- Only ventilation ports are shielded along the walls.
- Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier.
- All power lines supplying shielded areas do not require filters.
Correct Answer

A. Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier.

Explanation

Sensitive equipment needs to be protected from electromagnetic interference (EMI), which can be caused by various sources such as power lines, radio waves, or nearby electronic devices. Shielding is a method used to reduce or eliminate EMI by enclosing sensitive equipment within a barrier that blocks or absorbs electromagnetic radiation. By locating sensitive equipment within a shielded barrier, it is protected from external interference and can operate without disruptions or malfunctions. This ensures the proper functioning and reliability of the sensitive equipment.

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7.

What physical security implementation will ensure continuous operation of critical network equipment?
- Data encryption.
- Virtual private network.
- Uninterruptible power supply.
- Network management system.
Correct Answer

A. Uninterruptible power supply.

Explanation

An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) ensures continuous operation of critical network equipment by providing backup power in case of a power outage or fluctuation. This allows the equipment to remain powered on and functioning properly, preventing any disruptions or downtime. Data encryption, virtual private network (VPN), and network management system are all important security measures, but they do not directly address the issue of continuous operation in the event of a power failure.

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8.

Which AF Form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?
- 1118.
- 457.
- 55.
- 3.
Correct Answer

A. 457.

Explanation

AF Form 457 is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk. This form is specifically designed for reporting unsafe conditions, such as damaged equipment, faulty wiring, or potential safety hazards. By using AF Form 457, Air Force personnel can ensure that any hazardous conditions are properly documented and addressed, helping to maintain a safe working environment for all.

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9.

Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?
- Biological.
- Chemical.
- Physical.
- Stress.
Correct Answer

A. Stress.

Explanation

The given hazards such as heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers are all factors that can contribute to stress in the workplace. Stress is not a specific hazard category like biological, chemical, or physical hazards, but rather a psychological and emotional response to these various workplace factors. It can have negative effects on an individual's mental and physical health, as well as their overall well-being and job performance.

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1
10.

What power line fault category is symptomatic of a short term decrease in voltage levels?
- Sag.
- Spike.
- Noise.
- Blackout.
Correct Answer

A. Sag.

Explanation

A sag is a power line fault category that is symptomatic of a short-term decrease in voltage levels. It occurs when there is a temporary drop in voltage below the normal level, usually caused by a fault in the power system. This can result in equipment malfunction or failure, as the reduced voltage may not be sufficient for proper operation.

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1
11.

What power line fault category is more typically referred to as electromagnetic interference(EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI)?
- Sag.
- Spike.
- Noise.
- Blackout.
Correct Answer

A. Noise.

Explanation

Electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI) are commonly associated with the power line fault category known as "Noise." EMI refers to any unwanted electromagnetic disturbance that affects the performance of electrical equipment, while RFI specifically refers to electromagnetic interference in the radio frequency range. Both EMI and RFI can cause disruptions, distortions, or malfunctions in electronic devices and communication systems. Therefore, the correct answer is "Noise."

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12.

Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?
- Patches.
- Antivirus.
- Software removal.
- Vulnerability scanner.
Correct Answer

A. Patches.

Explanation

Patches are a small piece of code that software developers create to address flaws found in the original code of a program. They are used to fix vulnerabilities and improve the security and functionality of the software. Patches are typically released by the software vendor or developer, and users are advised to regularly install these updates to protect their systems from potential exploits or attacks.

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13.

When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?
- Properly seat the test lead into the current input terminal jack.
- Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.
- Place the meter in the frequency mode.
- Set the range for maximum reading.
Correct Answer

A. Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.

Explanation

When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, it is important to disconnect the power from the circuit being tested as a preliminary precaution. This is necessary to ensure the safety of the person taking the reading and to prevent any potential damage to the ohmmeter or the circuit. By disconnecting the power, the risk of electrical shock or short circuiting is minimized, allowing for a more accurate and safe resistance reading to be obtained.

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14.

What type of error is the result of a bit not positioned where it should be?
- Cyclic redundancy check.
- Bipolar violation.
- Bit slip.
- Frame.
Correct Answer

A. Bit slip.

Explanation

A bit slip is a type of error that occurs when a bit is not positioned where it should be. This can happen in data transmission when bits are shifted or slipped from their intended positions, resulting in errors in the received data. Cyclic redundancy check is a method used to detect errors in data transmission, but it is not specifically related to a bit being misplaced. Bipolar violation refers to a violation of the coding rules in bipolar line coding, and frame refers to a unit of data in a communication protocol.

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15.

What outlines mandatory training items that supervisors use to prepare job safety training guides (JSTG)?
- Air Force Safety Outline (AFSO).
- Air Force Safety Instruction (AFSI).
- Job safety training outline (JSTO).
- Job safety training instruction (JSTI).
Correct Answer

A. Job safety training outline (JSTO).

Explanation

The correct answer is Job safety training outline (JSTO). This is because supervisors use the JSTO to outline the mandatory training items that are required for job safety. The JSTO serves as a guide for supervisors to prepare job safety training guides (JSTG), ensuring that all necessary training topics are covered. It provides a structured framework for organizing and delivering the training, ensuring that important safety information is effectively communicated to employees. The other options, such as the Air Force Safety Outline (AFSO) and Air Force Safety Instruction (AFSI), are not specifically related to the preparation of job safety training guides.

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1
16.

The minimum milliamperes (mA) of current that result in cardiac arrest and can cause death is?
- 100 mA.
- 75 mA.
- 50 mA.
- 25 mA.
Correct Answer

A. 50 mA.

Explanation

The minimum milliamperes (mA) of current that can result in cardiac arrest and cause death is 50 mA. This means that any current above this threshold can potentially be fatal. It is important to note that the severity of the injury and the likelihood of death also depend on other factors such as the duration of exposure and the pathway of the current through the body.

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17.

What are the three main functions of grounding?
- Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction.
- Signal amplification, personnel safety, and emissions security.
- Equipment protection, signal amplification, and capacitance reaction.
- Corrosion prevention, emissions security, and over-voltage protection.
Correct Answer

A. Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction.

Explanation

Grounding serves three main functions: personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction. Grounding helps to prevent electrical shocks by providing a path for current to flow into the ground instead of through a person. It also helps to protect equipment by providing a reference point for voltage levels and preventing damage from electrical faults. Additionally, grounding can reduce electrical noise and interference, ensuring the proper functioning of electronic devices.

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18.

What type of equipment often generates many spurious emissions?
- Slow tuning receiver.
- Rapid tuning receiver.
- Slow tuning transmitter.
- Rapid tuning transmitter.
Correct Answer

A. Rapid tuning transmitter.

Explanation

A rapid tuning transmitter often generates many spurious emissions. This is because when the transmitter rapidly changes frequency, it can cause unintended emissions at frequencies other than the desired one. These emissions can interfere with other nearby electronic devices and cause signal degradation or disruption. Slow tuning transmitters, on the other hand, change frequency gradually and are less likely to generate spurious emissions. Receivers, whether slow or rapid tuning, are designed to receive signals rather than generate emissions.

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19.

What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) has traditionally been referred to as“offline” by technicians?
- Passive standby.
- Line interactive.
- Double conversion.
- Ferro resonant standby.
Correct Answer

A. Passive standby.

Explanation

Passive standby is the type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) that has traditionally been referred to as "offline" by technicians. This type of UPS is designed to provide backup power by switching to battery power when the main power source fails. It offers basic protection against power outages and voltage fluctuations but does not provide continuous power conditioning like other types of UPS systems.

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20.

When using a multimeter, which option should be used if the display is unreadable due to fluctuations?
- Range.
- Frequency.
- Display hold.
- Minimum/maximum
Correct Answer

A. Display hold.

Explanation

When using a multimeter, the option that should be used if the display is unreadable due to fluctuations is "Display hold." This feature allows the multimeter to freeze the reading on the display, allowing the user to view the measurement without being affected by any fluctuations in the value. This can be particularly useful when dealing with rapidly changing or unstable readings, ensuring accurate and readable results.

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21.

Which section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?
- Lower.
- Upper.
- Right.
- Left.
Correct Answer

A. Upper.

Explanation

The upper section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables. This is because signal and control cables are typically placed higher in the duct to avoid interference and ensure proper functioning. The lower section of the duct is usually reserved for power cables, which have different requirements and considerations.

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22.

Why should the number of splices be controlled during fiber optic installation?
- Minimize transmission loss.
- To aid in troubleshooting.
- Reduce potential damage.
- Prevent eavesdropping.
Correct Answer

A. Minimize transmission loss.

Explanation

Controlling the number of splices during fiber optic installation helps to minimize transmission loss. Splices are points where two fiber optic cables are joined together, and each splice introduces a certain amount of loss in the signal. By minimizing the number of splices, the overall transmission loss can be reduced, leading to better signal quality and improved performance of the fiber optic system.

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23.

What are the three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today?
- Binary amplitude shift keying, frequency shift keying, and phase shift keying.
- Pulse amplitude, pulse width, and pulse position.
- Amplitude, frequency, and phase.
- Analog, digital and shift keying.
Correct Answer

A. Amplitude, frequency, and phase.

Explanation

The three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today are amplitude, frequency, and phase. These categories refer to different ways in which the characteristics of the RF signal are modified in order to carry information. Amplitude modulation involves varying the amplitude of the RF signal to encode information. Frequency modulation involves varying the frequency of the RF signal. Phase modulation involves varying the phase of the RF signal. These modulation techniques are commonly used in various RF communication systems to transmit and receive information effectively.

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24.

Two types of network cables are
- Straight through and crossover.
- Straight through and flip/flop.
- High and low baud.
- “n” and “g”.
Correct Answer

A. Straight through and crossover.

Explanation

The correct answer is straight through and crossover. Straight through cables are used to connect different types of devices, such as a computer to a switch or a router to a modem. The wires inside the cable are connected in the same order on both ends. On the other hand, crossover cables are used to connect similar devices, such as a computer to another computer or a switch to another switch. The wires inside the cable are crossed over, so that the transmit signal from one device is connected to the receive signal of the other device.

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25.

An optical transmitter is comprised of
- Positive intrinsic negative and avalanche photodiodes.
- Repeaters, regenerators, and optical amplifiers.
- A driver, optical source, and fiber optic pigtail.
- A light detector and output circuits.
Correct Answer

A. A driver, optical source, and fiber optic pigtail.

Explanation

The correct answer is a driver, optical source, and fiber optic pigtail. An optical transmitter is a device that converts electrical signals into optical signals for transmission through fiber optic cables. The driver is responsible for converting the electrical signals into a format suitable for the optical source. The optical source generates the actual optical signal, which is then coupled to the fiber optic cable through a fiber optic pigtail. This combination of components allows for the efficient transmission of data through optical fibers.

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26.

Virtual private networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an
- Department of Defense network.
- Air Force network.
- Local area network.
- Public network.
Correct Answer

A. Public network.

Explanation

VPNs allow the AF to extend network resources across a public network. This means that the AF can securely access and utilize network resources from any location, even if they are connected to a different network. By using encryption and tunneling protocols, VPNs ensure that data transmitted over the public network remains secure and private. This allows the AF to connect to and utilize resources on the internet or other public networks while maintaining the confidentiality and integrity of their data.

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27.

What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and performing math computations?
- Microprocessors.
- Acquisition.
- Memory.
- Input.
Correct Answer

A. Microprocessors.

Explanation

The correct answer is Microprocessors. A digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data using microprocessors. These microprocessors are responsible for measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and performing math computations on the acquired data. They play a crucial role in processing and analyzing the captured signals, allowing for accurate measurements and calculations to be made.

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28.

What active test is selected to determine if a network node is connected or responding?
- Packet internetwork groper (PING).
- Traffic generator.
- Route generator.
- Trace route.
Correct Answer

A. Packet internetwork groper (PING).

Explanation

The correct answer is Packet internetwork groper (PING). PING is an active test that is used to determine if a network node is connected or responding. It sends a small packet of data to the node and waits for a response. If a response is received, it indicates that the node is connected and responding. PING is commonly used to troubleshoot network connectivity issues and to measure the round-trip time for data packets to travel to a destination and back.

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29.

Which 3D career field installs, supports, and maintains servers or other computer systems
- Knowledge Operations Management (3D0X1).
- Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2).
- Spectrum Operations (3D1X2)
- Cyber Surety (3D0X3)
Correct Answer

A. Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2).

Explanation

Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2) is the correct answer because this career field involves the installation, support, and maintenance of servers or other computer systems. This job requires individuals to have knowledge and skills in managing and operating computer systems, troubleshooting technical issues, and ensuring the security and efficiency of the systems. Knowledge Operations Management (3D0X1) focuses on managing information and data, Spectrum Operations (3D1X2) deals with the use and control of electromagnetic spectrum, and Cyber Surety (3D0X3) is responsible for ensuring the security and integrity of computer systems and networks.

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30.

To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?
- 25.
- 50.
- 75.
- 100.
Correct Answer

A. 25.

Explanation

To prevent manual handling hazards, it is recommended to utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than 25 pounds. This means that when an object exceeds this weight, it should be lifted by two or more people working together to distribute the load and reduce the risk of injury. Team lifting helps to prevent strain on individual workers and promotes safe lifting practices in the workplace.

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31.

Within how many hours must a medical exam be conducted if non-ionizing radiation overexposure occurs?
- 24.
- 48.
- 72.
- 96.
Correct Answer

A. 72.

Explanation

A medical exam must be conducted within 72 hours if non-ionizing radiation overexposure occurs. This timeframe allows for prompt evaluation of any potential health effects and allows for timely intervention or treatment if necessary. Waiting longer than 72 hours may result in delayed diagnosis or treatment, which could lead to further complications or health risks.

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1
32.

Which type of label will have machine printed markings of indelible ink?
- Adhesive.
- Special foil.
- Cable sheath.
- Heat shrink tubing.
Correct Answer

A. Adhesive.

Explanation

Adhesive labels are the type of labels that can have machine printed markings of indelible ink. This is because adhesive labels are commonly used for various purposes, including labeling products or packages, and they need to withstand different conditions, such as handling, transportation, or exposure to moisture. Machine printed markings of indelible ink ensure that the label remains readable and permanent, even in challenging environments. On the other hand, special foil, cable sheath, and heat shrink tubing are not typically used for printing markings with indelible ink.

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33.

Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from 0 – 999 volts?
- Class I.
- Class II.
- Class III.
- Class IV.
Correct Answer

A. Class I.

Explanation

Class I is the correct answer because it is the only class that has a sensitivity range from 0-999 volts. Class II, Class III, and Class IV do not have this specific sensitivity range.

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34.

Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving antenna for short distance normally indicates
- Enemy jamming.
- Internal interference.
- Radio receiver trouble.
- Unintentional interference.
Correct Answer

A. Enemy jamming.

Explanation

Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving antenna for a short distance normally indicates enemy jamming. This is because enemy jammers often use high-power signals that are intentionally designed to overpower the desired signal. As a result, even when the receiving antenna is moved, the strength of the interfering signal remains relatively constant. On the other hand, internal interference, radio receiver trouble, and unintentional interference would typically cause variations in signal strength when the antenna is moved.

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35.

A 5 kilohertz (kHz) modulating signal has enough peak voltage to cause a deviation of 15 kHz. What is the modulation index?
- 5.
- 3.
- 0.5.
- 0.3.
Correct Answer

A. 3.

Explanation

The modulation index is a measure of how much the carrier wave is modulated by the modulating signal. In this case, the modulating signal has a frequency of 5 kHz and is able to cause a deviation of 15 kHz. The modulation index can be calculated by dividing the deviation by the modulating frequency. In this case, the modulation index would be 15 kHz divided by 5 kHz, which equals 3.

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36.

What is the narrow frequency band between adjacent stations used to prevent frequency modulated sidebands from overlapping?
- Space.
- Guard band.
- Buffer zone.
- Prevention field.
Correct Answer

A. Guard band.

Explanation

A guard band is a narrow frequency band between adjacent stations that is used to prevent frequency modulated sidebands from overlapping. It acts as a buffer zone, ensuring that the signals from neighboring stations do not interfere with each other. The guard band helps to maintain the integrity and clarity of the transmitted signals by providing separation and preventing any overlap or distortion.

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37.

When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction take place?
- Receiving end.
- In the oscillator.
- Transmitting end.
- In the primary buffers.
Correct Answer

A. Receiving end.

Explanation

In forward error control, error correction takes place at the receiving end. This means that the receiver is responsible for identifying and correcting any errors that may have occurred during the transmission of data. By implementing error correction techniques at the receiving end, the receiver can detect and fix errors, ensuring that the received data is accurate and reliable. This approach allows for efficient and effective error correction without the need for retransmission or additional communication with the transmitting end.

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38.

Which oscilloscope probe is essentially just a shielded piece of wire
- Current.
- Passive 1:1.
- Passive divider, 1:10.
- Active field effect transistor.
Correct Answer

A. Passive 1:1.

Explanation

The correct answer is Passive 1:1. A passive 1:1 oscilloscope probe is essentially just a shielded piece of wire. It does not have any active components and simply transfers the signal from the circuit to the oscilloscope without any amplification or attenuation.

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39.

What operational capability of the communication service monitor produce sine, square and triangle waveforms?
- Scope.
- Duplex.
- Receiver.
- Function generator.
Correct Answer

A. Function generator.

Explanation

The operational capability of a function generator is to produce sine, square, and triangle waveforms. A function generator is a versatile electronic device that can generate various types of waveforms with different frequencies and amplitudes. It is commonly used in communication service monitors to test and calibrate electronic equipment. The scope, duplex, and receiver are not directly related to the generation of waveforms, making them incorrect choices for this question.

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40.

Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots and repairs voice, data and video network infrastructure systems, Internet protocol (IP) detection systems and cryptographic equipment?
- Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3).
- Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2).
- Spectrum Operations (3D1X4).
- Client Systems (3D1X1).
Correct Answer

A. Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2).

Explanation

Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2) is the correct answer because this career field involves deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing voice, data, and video network infrastructure systems, as well as internet protocol (IP) detection systems and cryptographic equipment. This field deals with the management and maintenance of network infrastructure, ensuring that communication systems are functioning properly and securely.

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1
41.

Which technical order (TO) publication series covers standard Air Force installationpractices?
- TO 31–20 series.
- TO 61–20 series.
- TO 31–10 series.
- TO 61–10 series.
Correct Answer

A. TO 31–10 series.

Explanation

The correct answer is TO 31–10 series. This series of technical order publications covers standard Air Force installation practices.

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42.

The facility ground subsystem to uses surge arrestors is the
- Earth electrode.
- Fault protection.
- Signal reference.
- Lightning protection.
Correct Answer

A. Lightning protection.

Explanation

The facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors for lightning protection. Surge arrestors are devices designed to protect electrical equipment from damage caused by lightning strikes or power surges. They divert excess voltage from lightning strikes away from sensitive equipment, preventing damage and ensuring the safety of the facility. Therefore, lightning protection is the correct answer.

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43.

What is the establishment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces?
- Bonding.
- Shielding.
- Annealing.
- Grounding.
Correct Answer

A. Bonding.

Explanation

Bonding refers to the process of creating a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces. This is done to ensure a strong and reliable connection between the surfaces, allowing for the efficient flow of electrical current or the transfer of signals. Bonding is commonly used in various applications such as electronics, telecommunications, and electrical systems to prevent interference, improve conductivity, and provide protection against static discharge. It involves joining the metal surfaces together using techniques such as welding, soldering, or adhesive bonding to establish a solid and continuous electrical connection.

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44.

What secondary cell is prone to the memory effect?
- Nickel cadmium.
- Carbon zinc.
- Lead-acid.
- Lithium.
Correct Answer

A. Nickel cadmium.

Explanation

Nickel cadmium (NiCd) secondary cells are prone to the memory effect. The memory effect occurs when a battery is repeatedly charged and discharged without being fully discharged, causing the battery to "remember" the reduced capacity. This can result in a decrease in the overall capacity of the battery over time. NiCd batteries are particularly susceptible to this effect, while other secondary cells like carbon zinc, lead-acid, and lithium batteries are not as prone to the memory effect.

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1
45.

Simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems, and help plan for
- Future growth.
- Network security.
- Remote monitoring.
- Network contingencies.
Correct Answer

A. Future growth.

Explanation

SNMP is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems, and help plan for future growth. This implies that SNMP is used for monitoring and optimizing network performance in order to accommodate future growth needs.

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46.

When transmitter decibel (dB) power is doubled, it has increased by
- 1 dB.
- 2 dB.
- 3 dB.
- 4 dB.
Correct Answer

A. 3 dB.

Explanation

When the transmitter decibel (dB) power is doubled, it results in an increase of 3 dB. This is because the decibel scale is logarithmic, meaning that a doubling of power corresponds to an increase of 3 dB.

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47.

What test equipment combines the operations of many test instruments into a single compact unit?
- Volt meter.
- Oscilloscope.
- Impedance meter.
- Communication service monitor.
Correct Answer

A. Communication service monitor.

Explanation

A communication service monitor combines the operations of many test instruments into a single compact unit. It is designed to measure and analyze various parameters in communication systems, such as signal strength, frequency, modulation, and distortion. This type of equipment is commonly used in the telecommunications industry for testing and troubleshooting communication networks.

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48.

How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercialapplications?
- Single.
- Double.
- Three.
- Four
Correct Answer

A. Three.

Explanation

In industrial and commercial applications, three phases of generator power are usually required. This is because three-phase power provides a more balanced and efficient distribution of electrical power compared to single or double phases. It allows for higher power transmission, reduces power loss, and enables the operation of larger motors and equipment. Additionally, three-phase power is commonly used in industrial settings to power machinery, lighting systems, and other electrical loads.

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2
49.

The amount of effect or change that the intelligence has on the carrier in an amplitude modulated signal is expressed as the
- Percent of modulation.
- Modulation index.
- Bandwidth.
- Deviation.
Correct Answer

A. Percent of modulation.

Explanation

The percent of modulation is the correct answer because it represents the amount of effect or change that the intelligence (information) has on the carrier signal in an amplitude modulated signal. It is a measure of how much the amplitude of the carrier signal is varied in relation to the information being transmitted. The percent of modulation is calculated by taking the peak amplitude of the modulated signal and dividing it by the peak amplitude of the unmodulated carrier signal, then multiplying by 100.

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Mar 20, 2023

Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
Mar 14, 2017

Quiz Created by
Trevormayer88

Z3D153 Ure Vol 1(Air Force )

Which of the following is not a requirement for upgrade to 3D153?

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Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic voltage?

What power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?

Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?

Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?

Which of the following statements is true concerning shielding?

What physical security implementation will ensure continuous operation of critical network equipment?

Which AF Form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?

Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?

What power line fault category is symptomatic of a short term decrease in voltage levels?

What power line fault category is more typically referred to as electromagnetic interference(EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI)?

Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?

When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?

What type of error is the result of a bit not positioned where it should be?

What outlines mandatory training items that supervisors use to prepare job safety training guides (JSTG)?

The minimum milliamperes (mA) of current that result in cardiac arrest and can cause death is?

What are the three main functions of grounding?

What type of equipment often generates many spurious emissions?

What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) has traditionally been referred to as“offline” by technicians?

When using a multimeter, which option should be used if the display is unreadable due to fluctuations?

Which section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?

Why should the number of splices be controlled during fiber optic installation?

What are the three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today?

Two types of network cables are

An optical transmitter is comprised of

Virtual private networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an

What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and performing math computations?

What active test is selected to determine if a network node is connected or responding?

Which 3D career field installs, supports, and maintains servers or other computer systems

To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?

Within how many hours must a medical exam be conducted if non-ionizing radiation overexposure occurs?

Which type of label will have machine printed markings of indelible ink?

Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from 0 – 999 volts?

Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving antenna for short distance normally indicates

A 5 kilohertz (kHz) modulating signal has enough peak voltage to cause a deviation of 15 kHz. What is the modulation index?

What is the narrow frequency band between adjacent stations used to prevent frequency modulated sidebands from overlapping?

When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction take place?

Which oscilloscope probe is essentially just a shielded piece of wire

What operational capability of the communication service monitor produce sine, square and triangle waveforms?

Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots and repairs voice, data and video network infrastructure systems, Internet protocol (IP) detection systems and cryptographic equipment?

Which technical order (TO) publication series covers standard Air Force installationpractices?

The facility ground subsystem to uses surge arrestors is the

What is the establishment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces?

What secondary cell is prone to the memory effect?

Simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems, and help plan for

When transmitter decibel (dB) power is doubled, it has increased by

What test equipment combines the operations of many test instruments into a single compact unit?

How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercialapplications?

The amount of effect or change that the intelligence has on the carrier in an amplitude modulated signal is expressed as the