Z3D153 Ure Vol 1(Air Force )

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1. Which of the following is not a requirement for upgrade to 3D153?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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About This Quiz
Z3D153 Ure Vol 1(Air Force ) - Quiz

This quiz, titled 'Z3D153 URE Vol 1(Air force)', evaluates knowledge crucial for Air Force specialty codes in cyber operations. It covers training standards, upgrade requirements, and specific roles within cyber systems and transport systems, enhancing both safety and operational competence.

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2. What power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power? 

Explanation

A blackout is a complete loss of utility power, where all electrical devices connected to the power grid are unable to receive electricity. This can be caused by various factors such as equipment failure, severe weather conditions, or deliberate actions. During a blackout, there is no electricity flowing through the power lines, resulting in a total loss of power for the affected area.

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3. Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic voltage?

Explanation

Walking across carpet generates the most electrostatic voltage because when we walk on a carpet, friction is created between our shoes and the carpet. This friction causes the transfer of electrons from the carpet to our shoes, creating a buildup of static electricity. This buildup of static electricity results in a higher electrostatic voltage compared to the other activities mentioned.

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4. Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user? 

Explanation

Biometrics is the correct answer because it is a form of identity management process that uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user. Biometrics involves the measurement and analysis of unique physical or behavioral characteristics, such as fingerprints, to verify a person's identity. By scanning and comparing the fingerprint of an individual, biometric systems can accurately authenticate and grant access to authorized users. This method is widely used in various industries and sectors to enhance security and prevent unauthorized access.

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5. Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack? 

Explanation

Spam is considered more of an annoyance than an attack because it involves the mass sending of unsolicited and often irrelevant messages to a large number of recipients. While it can be disruptive and time-consuming to deal with, spam typically does not pose a direct threat to the security or integrity of systems or personal information. In contrast, viruses, spyware, and phishing attacks are designed to infiltrate systems, steal data, or cause harm, making them more malicious and dangerous threat vectors.

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6. What physical security implementation will ensure continuous operation of critical network equipment? 

Explanation

An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) ensures continuous operation of critical network equipment by providing backup power in case of a power outage or fluctuation. This allows the equipment to remain powered on and functioning properly, preventing any disruptions or downtime. Data encryption, virtual private network (VPN), and network management system are all important security measures, but they do not directly address the issue of continuous operation in the event of a power failure.

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7. Which of the following statements is true concerning shielding? 

Explanation

Sensitive equipment needs to be protected from electromagnetic interference (EMI), which can be caused by various sources such as power lines, radio waves, or nearby electronic devices. Shielding is a method used to reduce or eliminate EMI by enclosing sensitive equipment within a barrier that blocks or absorbs electromagnetic radiation. By locating sensitive equipment within a shielded barrier, it is protected from external interference and can operate without disruptions or malfunctions. This ensures the proper functioning and reliability of the sensitive equipment.

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8. What power line fault category is symptomatic of a short term decrease in voltage levels? 

Explanation

A sag is a power line fault category that is symptomatic of a short-term decrease in voltage levels. It occurs when there is a temporary drop in voltage below the normal level, usually caused by a fault in the power system. This can result in equipment malfunction or failure, as the reduced voltage may not be sufficient for proper operation.

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9. What power line fault category is more typically referred to as electromagnetic interference(EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI)?

Explanation

Electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI) are commonly associated with the power line fault category known as "Noise." EMI refers to any unwanted electromagnetic disturbance that affects the performance of electrical equipment, while RFI specifically refers to electromagnetic interference in the radio frequency range. Both EMI and RFI can cause disruptions, distortions, or malfunctions in electronic devices and communication systems. Therefore, the correct answer is "Noise."

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10. Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program? 

Explanation

Patches are a small piece of code that software developers create to address flaws found in the original code of a program. They are used to fix vulnerabilities and improve the security and functionality of the software. Patches are typically released by the software vendor or developer, and users are advised to regularly install these updates to protect their systems from potential exploits or attacks.

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11. Which AF Form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?

Explanation

AF Form 457 is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk. This form is specifically designed for reporting unsafe conditions, such as damaged equipment, faulty wiring, or potential safety hazards. By using AF Form 457, Air Force personnel can ensure that any hazardous conditions are properly documented and addressed, helping to maintain a safe working environment for all.

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12. Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?

Explanation

The given hazards such as heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers are all factors that can contribute to stress in the workplace. Stress is not a specific hazard category like biological, chemical, or physical hazards, but rather a psychological and emotional response to these various workplace factors. It can have negative effects on an individual's mental and physical health, as well as their overall well-being and job performance.

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13. When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take? 

Explanation

When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, it is important to disconnect the power from the circuit being tested as a preliminary precaution. This is necessary to ensure the safety of the person taking the reading and to prevent any potential damage to the ohmmeter or the circuit. By disconnecting the power, the risk of electrical shock or short circuiting is minimized, allowing for a more accurate and safe resistance reading to be obtained.

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14. What type of error is the result of a bit not positioned where it should be? 

Explanation

A bit slip is a type of error that occurs when a bit is not positioned where it should be. This can happen in data transmission when bits are shifted or slipped from their intended positions, resulting in errors in the received data. Cyclic redundancy check is a method used to detect errors in data transmission, but it is not specifically related to a bit being misplaced. Bipolar violation refers to a violation of the coding rules in bipolar line coding, and frame refers to a unit of data in a communication protocol.

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15. What are the three main functions of grounding?

Explanation

Grounding serves three main functions: personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction. Grounding helps to prevent electrical shocks by providing a path for current to flow into the ground instead of through a person. It also helps to protect equipment by providing a reference point for voltage levels and preventing damage from electrical faults. Additionally, grounding can reduce electrical noise and interference, ensuring the proper functioning of electronic devices.

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16. What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) has traditionally been referred to as"offline" by technicians?

Explanation

Passive standby is the type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) that has traditionally been referred to as "offline" by technicians. This type of UPS is designed to provide backup power by switching to battery power when the main power source fails. It offers basic protection against power outages and voltage fluctuations but does not provide continuous power conditioning like other types of UPS systems.

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17. What outlines mandatory training items that supervisors use to prepare job safety training guides (JSTG)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Job safety training outline (JSTO). This is because supervisors use the JSTO to outline the mandatory training items that are required for job safety. The JSTO serves as a guide for supervisors to prepare job safety training guides (JSTG), ensuring that all necessary training topics are covered. It provides a structured framework for organizing and delivering the training, ensuring that important safety information is effectively communicated to employees. The other options, such as the Air Force Safety Outline (AFSO) and Air Force Safety Instruction (AFSI), are not specifically related to the preparation of job safety training guides.

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18. When using a multimeter, which option should be used if the display is unreadable due to fluctuations? 

Explanation

When using a multimeter, the option that should be used if the display is unreadable due to fluctuations is "Display hold." This feature allows the multimeter to freeze the reading on the display, allowing the user to view the measurement without being affected by any fluctuations in the value. This can be particularly useful when dealing with rapidly changing or unstable readings, ensuring accurate and readable results.

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19. What type of equipment often generates many spurious emissions?

Explanation

A rapid tuning transmitter often generates many spurious emissions. This is because when the transmitter rapidly changes frequency, it can cause unintended emissions at frequencies other than the desired one. These emissions can interfere with other nearby electronic devices and cause signal degradation or disruption. Slow tuning transmitters, on the other hand, change frequency gradually and are less likely to generate spurious emissions. Receivers, whether slow or rapid tuning, are designed to receive signals rather than generate emissions.

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20. The minimum milliamperes (mA) of current that result in cardiac arrest and can cause death is?

Explanation

The minimum milliamperes (mA) of current that can result in cardiac arrest and cause death is 50 mA. This means that any current above this threshold can potentially be fatal. It is important to note that the severity of the injury and the likelihood of death also depend on other factors such as the duration of exposure and the pathway of the current through the body.

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21. What active test is selected to determine if a network node is connected or responding? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Packet internetwork groper (PING). PING is an active test that is used to determine if a network node is connected or responding. It sends a small packet of data to the node and waits for a response. If a response is received, it indicates that the node is connected and responding. PING is commonly used to troubleshoot network connectivity issues and to measure the round-trip time for data packets to travel to a destination and back.

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22. Which section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?

Explanation

The upper section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables. This is because signal and control cables are typically placed higher in the duct to avoid interference and ensure proper functioning. The lower section of the duct is usually reserved for power cables, which have different requirements and considerations.

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23. Why should the number of splices be controlled during fiber optic installation?

Explanation

Controlling the number of splices during fiber optic installation helps to minimize transmission loss. Splices are points where two fiber optic cables are joined together, and each splice introduces a certain amount of loss in the signal. By minimizing the number of splices, the overall transmission loss can be reduced, leading to better signal quality and improved performance of the fiber optic system.

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24. Two types of network cables are

Explanation

The correct answer is straight through and crossover. Straight through cables are used to connect different types of devices, such as a computer to a switch or a router to a modem. The wires inside the cable are connected in the same order on both ends. On the other hand, crossover cables are used to connect similar devices, such as a computer to another computer or a switch to another switch. The wires inside the cable are crossed over, so that the transmit signal from one device is connected to the receive signal of the other device.

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25. An optical transmitter is comprised of

Explanation

The correct answer is a driver, optical source, and fiber optic pigtail. An optical transmitter is a device that converts electrical signals into optical signals for transmission through fiber optic cables. The driver is responsible for converting the electrical signals into a format suitable for the optical source. The optical source generates the actual optical signal, which is then coupled to the fiber optic cable through a fiber optic pigtail. This combination of components allows for the efficient transmission of data through optical fibers.

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26. Virtual private networks (VPNs) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an 

Explanation

VPNs allow the AF to extend network resources across a public network. This means that the AF can securely access and utilize network resources from any location, even if they are connected to a different network. By using encryption and tunneling protocols, VPNs ensure that data transmitted over the public network remains secure and private. This allows the AF to connect to and utilize resources on the internet or other public networks while maintaining the confidentiality and integrity of their data.

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27. What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and performing math computations? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Microprocessors. A digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data using microprocessors. These microprocessors are responsible for measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and performing math computations on the acquired data. They play a crucial role in processing and analyzing the captured signals, allowing for accurate measurements and calculations to be made.

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28. What are the three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today? 

Explanation

The three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today are amplitude, frequency, and phase. These categories refer to different ways in which the characteristics of the RF signal are modified in order to carry information. Amplitude modulation involves varying the amplitude of the RF signal to encode information. Frequency modulation involves varying the frequency of the RF signal. Phase modulation involves varying the phase of the RF signal. These modulation techniques are commonly used in various RF communication systems to transmit and receive information effectively.

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29. A 5 kilohertz (kHz) modulating signal has enough peak voltage to cause a deviation of 15 kHz. What is the modulation index? 

Explanation

The modulation index is a measure of how much the carrier wave is modulated by the modulating signal. In this case, the modulating signal has a frequency of 5 kHz and is able to cause a deviation of 15 kHz. The modulation index can be calculated by dividing the deviation by the modulating frequency. In this case, the modulation index would be 15 kHz divided by 5 kHz, which equals 3.

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30. What is the narrow frequency band between adjacent stations used to prevent frequency modulated sidebands from overlapping? 

Explanation

A guard band is a narrow frequency band between adjacent stations that is used to prevent frequency modulated sidebands from overlapping. It acts as a buffer zone, ensuring that the signals from neighboring stations do not interfere with each other. The guard band helps to maintain the integrity and clarity of the transmitted signals by providing separation and preventing any overlap or distortion.

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31. Which type of label will have machine printed markings of indelible ink?

Explanation

Adhesive labels are the type of labels that can have machine printed markings of indelible ink. This is because adhesive labels are commonly used for various purposes, including labeling products or packages, and they need to withstand different conditions, such as handling, transportation, or exposure to moisture. Machine printed markings of indelible ink ensure that the label remains readable and permanent, even in challenging environments. On the other hand, special foil, cable sheath, and heat shrink tubing are not typically used for printing markings with indelible ink.

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32. What operational capability of the communication service monitor produce sine, square and triangle waveforms? 

Explanation

The operational capability of a function generator is to produce sine, square, and triangle waveforms. A function generator is a versatile electronic device that can generate various types of waveforms with different frequencies and amplitudes. It is commonly used in communication service monitors to test and calibrate electronic equipment. The scope, duplex, and receiver are not directly related to the generation of waveforms, making them incorrect choices for this question.

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33. Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from 0 – 999 volts?

Explanation

Class I is the correct answer because it is the only class that has a sensitivity range from 0-999 volts. Class II, Class III, and Class IV do not have this specific sensitivity range.

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34. When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction take place?

Explanation

In forward error control, error correction takes place at the receiving end. This means that the receiver is responsible for identifying and correcting any errors that may have occurred during the transmission of data. By implementing error correction techniques at the receiving end, the receiver can detect and fix errors, ensuring that the received data is accurate and reliable. This approach allows for efficient and effective error correction without the need for retransmission or additional communication with the transmitting end.

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35. Which 3D career field installs, supports, and maintains servers or other computer systems

Explanation

Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2) is the correct answer because this career field involves the installation, support, and maintenance of servers or other computer systems. This job requires individuals to have knowledge and skills in managing and operating computer systems, troubleshooting technical issues, and ensuring the security and efficiency of the systems. Knowledge Operations Management (3D0X1) focuses on managing information and data, Spectrum Operations (3D1X2) deals with the use and control of electromagnetic spectrum, and Cyber Surety (3D0X3) is responsible for ensuring the security and integrity of computer systems and networks.

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36. Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving antenna for short distance normally indicates

Explanation

Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving antenna for a short distance normally indicates enemy jamming. This is because enemy jammers often use high-power signals that are intentionally designed to overpower the desired signal. As a result, even when the receiving antenna is moved, the strength of the interfering signal remains relatively constant. On the other hand, internal interference, radio receiver trouble, and unintentional interference would typically cause variations in signal strength when the antenna is moved.

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37. To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?

Explanation

To prevent manual handling hazards, it is recommended to utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than 25 pounds. This means that when an object exceeds this weight, it should be lifted by two or more people working together to distribute the load and reduce the risk of injury. Team lifting helps to prevent strain on individual workers and promotes safe lifting practices in the workplace.

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38. Which oscilloscope probe is essentially just a shielded piece of wire

Explanation

The correct answer is Passive 1:1. A passive 1:1 oscilloscope probe is essentially just a shielded piece of wire. It does not have any active components and simply transfers the signal from the circuit to the oscilloscope without any amplification or attenuation.

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39. Within how many hours must a medical exam be conducted if non-ionizing radiation overexposure occurs?

Explanation

A medical exam must be conducted within 72 hours if non-ionizing radiation overexposure occurs. This timeframe allows for prompt evaluation of any potential health effects and allows for timely intervention or treatment if necessary. Waiting longer than 72 hours may result in delayed diagnosis or treatment, which could lead to further complications or health risks.

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40. When transmitter decibel (dB) power is doubled, it has increased by 

Explanation

When the transmitter decibel (dB) power is doubled, it results in an increase of 3 dB. This is because the decibel scale is logarithmic, meaning that a doubling of power corresponds to an increase of 3 dB.

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41. What secondary cell is prone to the memory effect? 

Explanation

Nickel cadmium (NiCd) secondary cells are prone to the memory effect. The memory effect occurs when a battery is repeatedly charged and discharged without being fully discharged, causing the battery to "remember" the reduced capacity. This can result in a decrease in the overall capacity of the battery over time. NiCd batteries are particularly susceptible to this effect, while other secondary cells like carbon zinc, lead-acid, and lithium batteries are not as prone to the memory effect.

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42. What test equipment combines the operations of many test instruments into a single compact unit?

Explanation

A communication service monitor combines the operations of many test instruments into a single compact unit. It is designed to measure and analyze various parameters in communication systems, such as signal strength, frequency, modulation, and distortion. This type of equipment is commonly used in the telecommunications industry for testing and troubleshooting communication networks.

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43. The facility ground subsystem to uses surge arrestors is the

Explanation

The facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors for lightning protection. Surge arrestors are devices designed to protect electrical equipment from damage caused by lightning strikes or power surges. They divert excess voltage from lightning strikes away from sensitive equipment, preventing damage and ensuring the safety of the facility. Therefore, lightning protection is the correct answer.

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44. What is the establishment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces?

Explanation

Bonding refers to the process of creating a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces. This is done to ensure a strong and reliable connection between the surfaces, allowing for the efficient flow of electrical current or the transfer of signals. Bonding is commonly used in various applications such as electronics, telecommunications, and electrical systems to prevent interference, improve conductivity, and provide protection against static discharge. It involves joining the metal surfaces together using techniques such as welding, soldering, or adhesive bonding to establish a solid and continuous electrical connection.

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45. Simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems, and help plan for 

Explanation

SNMP is a tool used by network administrators to manage network performance, investigate and solve network problems, and help plan for future growth. This implies that SNMP is used for monitoring and optimizing network performance in order to accommodate future growth needs.

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46. Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots and repairs voice, data and video network infrastructure systems, Internet protocol (IP) detection systems and cryptographic equipment?

Explanation

Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2) is the correct answer because this career field involves deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing voice, data, and video network infrastructure systems, as well as internet protocol (IP) detection systems and cryptographic equipment. This field deals with the management and maintenance of network infrastructure, ensuring that communication systems are functioning properly and securely.

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47. Which technical order (TO) publication series covers standard Air Force installationpractices?

Explanation

The correct answer is TO 31–10 series. This series of technical order publications covers standard Air Force installation practices.

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48. The amount of effect or change that the intelligence has on the carrier in an amplitude modulated signal is expressed as the 

Explanation

The percent of modulation is the correct answer because it represents the amount of effect or change that the intelligence (information) has on the carrier signal in an amplitude modulated signal. It is a measure of how much the amplitude of the carrier signal is varied in relation to the information being transmitted. The percent of modulation is calculated by taking the peak amplitude of the modulated signal and dividing it by the peak amplitude of the unmodulated carrier signal, then multiplying by 100.

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49. How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercialapplications?

Explanation

In industrial and commercial applications, three phases of generator power are usually required. This is because three-phase power provides a more balanced and efficient distribution of electrical power compared to single or double phases. It allows for higher power transmission, reduces power loss, and enables the operation of larger motors and equipment. Additionally, three-phase power is commonly used in industrial settings to power machinery, lighting systems, and other electrical loads.

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50. Which type of cable is the hardest to splice?

Explanation

Single mode fiber is the hardest to splice because it has a smaller core size compared to multimode fibers. This smaller core size requires more precise alignment during the splicing process, making it more difficult to achieve a successful splice. Additionally, single mode fiber has a lower tolerance for misalignment or imperfections, further increasing the complexity of splicing.

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51. How are connectorized cables labeled?

Explanation

Connectorized cables are labeled by placing the first label within 12 inches of the connector and marking it "TO", and the second label within two (2) inches of the first label and marking it "FROM". This labeling system helps to identify the direction of the cable and ensures proper installation and connection.

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52. Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for equipment?

Explanation

The flight commander/chief is responsible for determining if local checklists and/or work cards are required for equipment. They have the authority and expertise to assess the specific needs and requirements of the equipment and the flight operations. The flight commander/chief ensures that the necessary checklists and work cards are in place to ensure the safety and efficiency of the equipment and the overall flight operations.

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53. In asynchronous transmissions, what bit is used by the receiving device to verify that the transmission was received correctly? 

Explanation

Parity bit is used by the receiving device to verify that the transmission was received correctly in asynchronous transmissions. Parity bit is an extra bit added to each data byte that is transmitted. The value of the parity bit is determined based on the number of 1s in the data byte. The receiving device checks the parity bit to ensure that the number of 1s in the received data byte matches the expected parity. If they do not match, it indicates that an error occurred during transmission.

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54. What allows transportation of all active virtual LANs (VLAN) between switches using a single physical link?

Explanation

Trunks allow the transportation of all active VLANs between switches using a single physical link. Trunks are a type of network connection that can carry multiple VLANs simultaneously, allowing for efficient communication between switches. By using trunks, switches can transmit and receive traffic from different VLANs over the same physical link, reducing the need for multiple physical connections and simplifying network management.

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55. Which of the following is not a basic SNMP command? 

Explanation

The SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used to manage and monitor network devices. The basic SNMP commands include Write, Read, and Trap. Write is used to modify configuration settings on network devices, Read is used to retrieve information from network devices, and Trap is used to send notifications to a management system. However, Get is not a basic SNMP command. Get is used to retrieve specific information from a network device, but it is not considered one of the fundamental commands in SNMP.

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56. In general, you should deny direct dial-in access to a network device by disabling the 

Explanation

Denying direct dial-in access to a network device is important for security purposes. By disabling the auxiliary port, which is used for connecting modems or other external devices, unauthorized users cannot gain access to the device remotely. This helps prevent potential attacks or breaches on the network.

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57. Which mode of triggering an oscilloscope causes a trace to be drawn on the screen at all times, whether there is an input signal or not? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Auto. Auto triggering mode in an oscilloscope continuously draws a trace on the screen, regardless of the presence of an input signal. This mode is useful when there is no signal or when the signal is too weak to trigger the oscilloscope in other modes. It ensures that the display is always active, allowing the user to monitor any potential signals that may appear.

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58. Which of the following is not a type of power level displayed by a power meter? 

Explanation

Decibels is not a type of power level displayed by a power meter. While dBm, Watts, and Milliwatts are all commonly used units to measure power levels, Decibels is a unit used to express the ratio between two power levels or the ratio of a power level to a reference level. It is a logarithmic scale and is often used to compare power levels or signal strengths.

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59. If an error should occur, what transmission is lost in an synchronous transmission? 

Explanation

In synchronous transmission, data is sent in blocks. Each block contains multiple characters. If an error occurs during transmission, it means that one of these blocks of data is lost. Therefore, the correct answer is "Block of data."

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60. What two error detection methods, when used together, are 98 percent effective in detecting errors? 

Explanation

VRC (Vertical Redundancy Check) and LRC (Longitudinal Redundancy Check) are two error detection methods that, when used together, are 98 percent effective in detecting errors. VRC checks for errors by adding a parity bit to each character, while LRC checks for errors by adding a parity bit to each column of characters. By combining these two methods, a high level of error detection can be achieved.

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61. What man-made noise results from voltage surges, arcing, or corona discharges? 

Explanation

Power line noise refers to the interference or disturbance caused by electrical power lines. Voltage surges, arcing, and corona discharges can generate electrical noise that affects the power line, leading to disruptions in the transmission of electricity. This noise can interfere with other electronic devices and cause disturbances in audio or video signals. Therefore, the correct answer is power line.

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62. What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules? 

Explanation

A bipolar violation is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity that violates alternate mark inversion coding rules. This violation occurs when there is a violation of the alternating pattern of positive and negative pulses in the signal. A cyclic redundancy check is a method used to detect errors in data transmission. Bit slip refers to the shifting of bits in a data stream. A frame refers to a unit of data transmission.

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63. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) has recommended a ground resistance value of 

Explanation

The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) recommends a ground resistance value of 5 ohms or less. This is because a low ground resistance ensures effective grounding, which is essential for electrical safety. A lower resistance value ensures better dissipation of fault currents and reduces the risk of electric shock or equipment damage. Therefore, a ground resistance value of 5 ohms or less is considered to be the best practice according to IEEE standards.

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64. Reducing modulation to less than 100 percent gives 

Explanation

Reducing modulation to less than 100 percent means that the amplitude of the modulating signal is decreased, resulting in a smaller variation in the amplitude of the carrier signal. This reduction in modulation does not affect the power of the carrier signal, as the power is determined by the amplitude squared. Therefore, there is no reduction in carrier power when modulation is reduced to less than 100 percent.

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65. What active test is selected to see the path that the packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to compete the trip? 

Explanation

Trace route is the active test that is selected to see the path that the packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to complete the trip. This tool allows the user to trace the route that packets take from their source to a destination, showing each hop along the way and the time it takes for the packets to reach each hop. It helps in troubleshooting network connectivity issues and identifying any bottlenecks or delays in the network.

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66. What is the advantage of adding more phase shifts? 

Explanation

Adding more phase shifts allows for more bits to be encoded and transmitted within a given bandwidth. This means that more data can be transmitted in a shorter amount of time, resulting in higher data rates. This advantage is particularly useful in situations where there is limited bandwidth available, as it allows for more efficient use of the available spectrum.

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67. Which device has multiport connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network?

Explanation

Routers are devices that have multiport connectivity and are responsible for directing data between nodes on a network. They analyze the destination address of incoming data packets and determine the most efficient path to forward them to their intended destination. This allows routers to efficiently manage network traffic and ensure that data reaches its intended recipient. Bridges, gateways, and repeaters also play important roles in networking, but they do not have the same level of multiport connectivity and data directing capabilities as routers.

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68. Which of the following is not a function that a virtual private network (VPN) concentrator performs? 

Explanation

A VPN concentrator performs various functions to ensure secure and efficient communication between remote users and a private network. It manages data transfer across the tunnel, encrypts and decrypts data, and establishes tunnels. However, encapsulating data is not a function of a VPN concentrator. Encapsulation refers to the process of adding headers or wrappers to the original data to enable it to be transmitted over a network. This task is typically performed by network devices such as routers or switches, rather than a VPN concentrator.

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69. What software do video compression circuits use to determine the amount of change that occurs between frames? 

Explanation

Video compression circuits use compression and decompression (codec) algorithms to determine the amount of change that occurs between frames. These algorithms analyze the data in each frame and identify areas of similarity or redundancy, allowing them to efficiently encode and compress the video data. By using these algorithms, video compression circuits can reduce the amount of data needed to store or transmit video, without significantly sacrificing quality.

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70. Which Air Force program provides a means of reporting hazards that involve flight, ground, weapons, or space safety?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Hazard reporting program. This program is designed to provide a means of reporting hazards that involve flight, ground, weapons, or space safety. It allows individuals to report any potential hazards or safety concerns they encounter, ensuring that appropriate actions can be taken to mitigate risks and prevent accidents or mishaps.

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71. The 10:1 power ratio represented by 1 bel can also be represented by how many decibels (dB)? 

Explanation

The 10:1 power ratio represented by 1 bel can also be represented by 10 decibels (dB). Decibels are a logarithmic unit used to measure the ratio between two power levels. Each increase of 10 dB represents a tenfold increase in power. Therefore, a 10:1 power ratio would be equivalent to a 10 dB increase.

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72. Quantization in the pulse code modulation process is  

Explanation

Quantization in the pulse code modulation process involves placing an infinite number of amplitude values to a finite number of values. This means that the continuous time signal is divided into discrete levels, and each level represents a specific amplitude value. By doing this, the signal is approximated and represented using a limited number of values, which allows for efficient digital storage and transmission of the signal.

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73. What is the bandwidth of multimode step-index optical fiber cable?

Explanation

Multimode step-index optical fiber cable has a bandwidth range of 10 MHz – 100 MHz/km. This means that the cable can transmit data at frequencies between 10 MHz and 100 MHz per kilometer of cable length. The bandwidth determines the amount of data that can be transmitted through the cable, with a higher bandwidth allowing for greater data transmission capacity.

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74. Which of the following is not a function of the sections within the career field training plan (CFETP) part I?

Explanation

The sections within the career field training plan (CFETP) part I serve various functions such as indicating resource constraints, explaining the purpose of the CFETP and how it is to be used, and identifying duties and responsibilities, skill and career progression, and career field path. However, identifying the specialty training standard (STS) is not one of the functions of these sections. The STS is typically a separate document that outlines the specific training requirements and standards for a particular specialty within the career field.

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75. What source region electromagnetic pulse region has a primarily vertical electromagnetic pulse electric field and what structures are affected? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Radiated; antennas and bore site feedhorns. When a radiated electromagnetic pulse occurs, it generates a primarily vertical electromagnetic pulse electric field. This type of pulse affects antennas and bore site feedhorns, which are structures used for transmitting and receiving electromagnetic signals.

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76. Who is the focal point for emission security (EMSEC) matters at an installation? 

Explanation

The Wing Information Assurance Office (WIAO) is the focal point for emission security (EMSEC) matters at an installation. They are responsible for ensuring that the installation's information systems and networks are secure and protected from unauthorized access or interference. The WIAO works closely with other personnel, such as the Information Security Officer (IAO) and the Communications and Information System Officer (CSO), to develop and implement security measures and protocols. The Information Security Program Manager (ISPM) may also play a role in overseeing the overall information security program at the installation, but the WIAO specifically focuses on EMSEC matters.

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77. What is the first step in testing ground? 

Explanation

The first step in testing ground is to disconnect the earth electrode under test from its connection to the site. This allows for an accurate measurement of ground resistance without any interference from other connected equipment or structures.

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78. The output of the oscillator in a frequency modulation (FM) modulator increases in frequency with each 

Explanation

In frequency modulation (FM), the frequency of the carrier signal is varied in accordance with the modulating signal. The modulating signal is the signal that carries the information to be transmitted. In this case, the output of the oscillator in the FM modulator increases in frequency with each positive half cycle of the modulating signal. This means that as the modulating signal goes through its positive half cycle, the frequency of the carrier signal also increases.

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79. A radio frequency generator is used to 

Explanation

A radio frequency generator is used to align telemetry receivers. This means that it is used to adjust and calibrate the receivers so that they can accurately receive and interpret telemetry signals. The other options mentioned, such as monitoring odd harmonics, modulating subcarrier oscillators, and checking galvanometer frequency response, are not typically functions of a radio frequency generator.

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80. The RED designation is used for equipment processing

Explanation

The RED designation is used for clear-text classified information. This means that the equipment processing this information does not encrypt the data and the information is classified, meaning it is sensitive and requires protection.

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81. Which routing protocol do Internet backbones use? 

Explanation

Internet backbones use Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) as the routing protocol. BGP is specifically designed for large-scale networks and is used to exchange routing information between different autonomous systems (AS) on the Internet. It allows routers in different ASs to communicate and make routing decisions based on policies and network conditions. BGP is known for its scalability, stability, and ability to handle complex routing scenarios, making it the protocol of choice for Internet backbone networks.

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82. Who is tasked to provide interference resolution support to the unified commanders? 

Explanation

The Joint Spectrum Center is tasked to provide interference resolution support to the unified commanders. They are responsible for managing the electromagnetic spectrum and ensuring that it is effectively used by military forces. This includes identifying and resolving any interference issues that may arise during military operations.

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83. Plug-in elements of the wattmeter are selected based on the 

Explanation

The plug-in elements of the wattmeter are selected based on the frequency and power to be measured. This means that the wattmeter will be able to accurately measure the power and frequency of the electrical system it is connected to. The selection of the plug-in elements will depend on the specific requirements of the measurement, such as the frequency range and power levels that need to be measured.

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84. The significance the amount of ones have in a data bit pattern when using vertical redundancy check (VRC) is that it determines 

Explanation

The significance of the amount of ones in a data bit pattern when using vertical redundancy check (VRC) is that it determines the parity. Parity refers to the number of ones in a data bit pattern, and it is used as a simple error detection mechanism. By counting the number of ones in a data bit pattern, the VRC can determine if there is an odd or even number of ones. This information can then be used to detect errors in the transmission of data.

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85. What plays a major role in a conductor's ability to minimizing compromising emanations? 

Explanation

Distance and angles play a major role in a conductor's ability to minimize compromising emanations. By increasing the distance between conductors and using proper angles, the electromagnetic fields generated by the conductors can be reduced. This helps in preventing interference and ensures that the signals transmitted through the conductors are not compromised.

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86. In telecommunications cable, the "tip" or "primary" wire color group order is

Explanation

The correct answer is white, red, black, yellow, and violet. This is the correct order for the "tip" or "primary" wire color group in telecommunications cable. The other options provided do not follow the standard color coding for these wires.

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87. A short section of single fiber cable that has a connector at each end is called a

Explanation

A short section of single fiber cable that has a connector at each end is called a patch cord. Patch cords are commonly used in telecommunications and computer networking to connect devices or equipment together. They allow for easy and quick connections between devices and can be easily plugged and unplugged. The other options, pigtail, jumper, and breakout cables, do not accurately describe a single fiber cable with connectors at both ends.

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88. In real-time sampling, what type of interpolation is used when measuring pulse waves? 

Explanation

In real-time sampling, linear interpolation is used when measuring pulse waves. Linear interpolation involves connecting two adjacent data points with a straight line. This method estimates the values between the two points based on the slope of the line. In the context of measuring pulse waves, linear interpolation helps to approximate the values of the waveform at specific time intervals, providing a smooth representation of the original signal.

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89. When the modulating signal and carrier signal are combined within a modulator, the output signal contains 

Explanation

When the modulating signal and carrier signal are combined within a modulator, the process of modulation occurs. This results in the generation of upper sideband and lower sideband frequencies, which are the sum and difference frequencies of the carrier and modulating signal. Additionally, the carrier signal itself is also present in the output signal. Therefore, the correct answer is that the output signal contains the carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband frequencies.

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90. What component on a protocol analyzer process the frames based on the selected test and user configuration inputs? 

Explanation

The central processing unit (CPU) is responsible for processing the frames on a protocol analyzer based on the selected test and user configuration inputs. The CPU performs tasks such as filtering, buffering, and counting the frames to analyze and interpret the data according to the specified criteria. It acts as the brain of the protocol analyzer, executing the necessary computations and operations to provide meaningful insights and analysis of the captured frames.

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91. What function is not part of the communication service monitor? 

Explanation

The communication service monitor is a device used to test and monitor communication systems. It typically includes functions such as a radio frequency generator, oscilloscope, and receiver. However, an analog multimeter is not typically included in a communication service monitor. An analog multimeter is a device used to measure electrical quantities such as voltage, current, and resistance, but it is not specifically designed for communication system testing and monitoring.

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92. What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) uses a transformer or inductor betweenthe utility power source and the load to correct or filter some variations in input power?

Explanation

A line interactive uninterruptible power supply (UPS) uses a transformer or inductor between the utility power source and the load to correct or filter some variations in input power. This type of UPS is able to provide voltage regulation and filtering without switching to battery power, making it an efficient and cost-effective solution for protecting sensitive electronic equipment from power fluctuations.

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93. The size of a test pattern segment transmitted from a bit error rate test (BERT) is determined by the 

Explanation

The size of a test pattern segment transmitted from a bit error rate test (BERT) is determined by the number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern. This means that the size of the test pattern segment is determined by the number of bits needed to represent the entire test pattern, rather than the total amount of bandwidth or the number of bytes.

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94. Which are the correct four classes of electronic counters? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Frequency counters, universal counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters." These four classes of electronic counters are commonly used in various applications. Frequency counters are used to measure the frequency of a signal, universal counters can measure frequency as well as other parameters like period and time intervals, microwave counters are specifically designed to handle high-frequency signals, and reciprocal counters are used to measure time intervals by counting the number of clock pulses.

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95. Which distinct region of the electromagnetic pulse is produced by the interactions between the weapon products and the earth's atmosphere? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Source". The source region of the electromagnetic pulse is produced by the interactions between the weapon products and the earth's atmosphere. This region is where the initial energy release occurs and is responsible for generating the electromagnetic pulse.

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96. What is the first step in the pulse code modulation process? 

Explanation

The first step in the pulse code modulation process is to band limit the analog signal. This means that the signal is filtered to remove any frequencies outside of a certain range, ensuring that only the desired frequencies are present. This step is important because it helps prevent distortion and interference in the subsequent steps of the process.

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97. What factor determines the spacing of the sidebands in an amplitude modulated signal? 

Explanation

The spacing of the sidebands in an amplitude modulated signal is determined by the frequency of the modulating signal. As the modulating signal varies in frequency, it causes the carrier signal to vary in amplitude. This variation in amplitude results in the creation of sidebands, which are additional frequencies that surround the carrier frequency. The frequency of these sidebands is directly proportional to the frequency of the modulating signal. Therefore, the frequency of the modulating signal determines the spacing between the sidebands in an amplitude modulated signal.

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98. A known current is generated by the earth ground tester between the earth ground electrode and the 

Explanation

The known current is generated by the earth ground tester between the earth ground electrode and the auxiliary current probe.

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99. What component of a protocol analyzer stores all frames based on the user configuration inputs? 

Explanation

A protocol analyzer is a tool used to capture and analyze network traffic. One of its key functions is to store frames for analysis. The component responsible for storing these frames is called a buffer. The buffer stores the frames based on the user's configuration inputs, allowing them to capture and analyze specific network traffic of interest.

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100. Voltage potential is measured in the fall of potential ground testing method between the 

Explanation

In the fall of potential ground testing method, voltage potential is measured between the auxiliary potential electrode and the earth test ground electrode. This method involves applying a known voltage to the ground electrode and measuring the potential difference between the auxiliary potential electrode and the ground electrode. By comparing the measured potential with the applied voltage, the resistance of the ground can be determined. Therefore, the correct answer is the auxiliary potential electrode and the earth test ground electrode.

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