Z3D153 Ure Vol 1(Air Force )

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Z3D153 Ure Vol 1(Air Force ) - Quiz

Z3D153 URE Vol 1 Edit 3


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following is not a function of the sections within the career field training plan (CFETP) part I?

    • A.

      Indicates resource constraints

    • B.

      Identifies the specialty training standard (STS).

    • C.

      Explains the purpose of the CFETP and how it is to be used.

    • D.

      Identifies duties and responsibilities, skill and career progression, and career field path.

    Correct Answer
    B. Identifies the specialty training standard (STS).
    Explanation
    The sections within the career field training plan (CFETP) part I serve various functions such as indicating resource constraints, explaining the purpose of the CFETP and how it is to be used, and identifying duties and responsibilities, skill and career progression, and career field path. However, identifying the specialty training standard (STS) is not one of the functions of these sections. The STS is typically a separate document that outlines the specific training requirements and standards for a particular specialty within the career field.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is not a requirement for upgrade to 3D153?

    • A.

      Obtaining flight chief approval for the award of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) 3D153.

    • B.

      Completing Cyberspace Support career development course (CDC) 3DX5X.

    • C.

      Completing Radio Frequency (RF) Transmission Systems CDC 3D153

    • D.

      Completing all core tasks identified for 5 skill-level.

    Correct Answer
    A. Obtaining flight chief approval for the award of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) 3D153.
  • 3. 

    Which 3D career field installs, supports, and maintains servers or other computer systems

    • A.

      Knowledge Operations Management (3D0X1).

    • B.

      Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2).

    • C.

      Spectrum Operations (3D1X2)

    • D.

      Cyber Surety (3D0X3)

    Correct Answer
    B. Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2).
    Explanation
    Cyber Systems Operations (3D0X2) is the correct answer because this career field involves the installation, support, and maintenance of servers or other computer systems. This job requires individuals to have knowledge and skills in managing and operating computer systems, troubleshooting technical issues, and ensuring the security and efficiency of the systems. Knowledge Operations Management (3D0X1) focuses on managing information and data, Spectrum Operations (3D1X2) deals with the use and control of electromagnetic spectrum, and Cyber Surety (3D0X3) is responsible for ensuring the security and integrity of computer systems and networks.

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  • 4. 

    Which 3D career field deploys, sustains, troubleshoots and repairs voice, data and video network infrastructure systems, Internet protocol (IP) detection systems and cryptographic equipment?

    • A.

      Radio Frequency Transmission Systems (3D1X3).

    • B.

      Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2).

    • C.

      Spectrum Operations (3D1X4).

    • D.

      Client Systems (3D1X1).

    Correct Answer
    B. Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2).
    Explanation
    Cyber Transport Systems (3D1X2) is the correct answer because this career field involves deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing voice, data, and video network infrastructure systems, as well as internet protocol (IP) detection systems and cryptographic equipment. This field deals with the management and maintenance of network infrastructure, ensuring that communication systems are functioning properly and securely.

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  • 5. 

    What outlines mandatory training items that supervisors use to prepare job safety training guides (JSTG)?

    • A.

      Air Force Safety Outline (AFSO).

    • B.

      Air Force Safety Instruction (AFSI).

    • C.

      Job safety training outline (JSTO).

    • D.

      Job safety training instruction (JSTI).

    Correct Answer
    C. Job safety training outline (JSTO).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Job safety training outline (JSTO). This is because supervisors use the JSTO to outline the mandatory training items that are required for job safety. The JSTO serves as a guide for supervisors to prepare job safety training guides (JSTG), ensuring that all necessary training topics are covered. It provides a structured framework for organizing and delivering the training, ensuring that important safety information is effectively communicated to employees. The other options, such as the Air Force Safety Outline (AFSO) and Air Force Safety Instruction (AFSI), are not specifically related to the preparation of job safety training guides.

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  • 6. 

    Which AF Form is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk?

    • A.

      1118.

    • B.

      457.

    • C.

      55.

    • D.

      3.

    Correct Answer
    B. 457.
    Explanation
    AF Form 457 is used to report hazardous conditions that place Air Force personnel or property at risk. This form is specifically designed for reporting unsafe conditions, such as damaged equipment, faulty wiring, or potential safety hazards. By using AF Form 457, Air Force personnel can ensure that any hazardous conditions are properly documented and addressed, helping to maintain a safe working environment for all.

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  • 7. 

    Which hazard is caused by heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers?

    • A.

      Biological.

    • B.

      Chemical.

    • C.

      Physical.

    • D.

      Stress.

    Correct Answer
    D. Stress.
    Explanation
    The given hazards such as heavy workloads, lack of control over the pace of work, shift work, noise, working by yourself, and conflict with coworkers and employers are all factors that can contribute to stress in the workplace. Stress is not a specific hazard category like biological, chemical, or physical hazards, but rather a psychological and emotional response to these various workplace factors. It can have negative effects on an individual's mental and physical health, as well as their overall well-being and job performance.

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  • 8. 

    Which Air Force program provides a means of reporting hazards that involve flight, ground, weapons, or space safety?

    • A.

      Ground safety program.

    • B.

      Hazard reporting program.

    • C.

      Hazard communication program.

    • D.

      Ground safety mishap prevention program.

    Correct Answer
    B. Hazard reporting program.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Hazard reporting program. This program is designed to provide a means of reporting hazards that involve flight, ground, weapons, or space safety. It allows individuals to report any potential hazards or safety concerns they encounter, ensuring that appropriate actions can be taken to mitigate risks and prevent accidents or mishaps.

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  • 9. 

    To prevent manual handling hazards, utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than how many pounds?

    • A.

      25.

    • B.

      50.

    • C.

      75.

    • D.

      100.

    Correct Answer
    A. 25.
    Explanation
    To prevent manual handling hazards, it is recommended to utilize team lifting when lifting items that weigh more than 25 pounds. This means that when an object exceeds this weight, it should be lifted by two or more people working together to distribute the load and reduce the risk of injury. Team lifting helps to prevent strain on individual workers and promotes safe lifting practices in the workplace.

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  • 10. 

    The minimum milliamperes (mA) of current that result in cardiac arrest and can cause death is?

    • A.

      100 mA.

    • B.

      75 mA.

    • C.

      50 mA.

    • D.

      25 mA.

    Correct Answer
    C. 50 mA.
    Explanation
    The minimum milliamperes (mA) of current that can result in cardiac arrest and cause death is 50 mA. This means that any current above this threshold can potentially be fatal. It is important to note that the severity of the injury and the likelihood of death also depend on other factors such as the duration of exposure and the pathway of the current through the body.

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  • 11. 

    Within how many hours must a medical exam be conducted if non-ionizing radiation overexposure occurs?

    • A.

      24.

    • B.

      48.

    • C.

      72.

    • D.

      96.

    Correct Answer
    C. 72.
    Explanation
    A medical exam must be conducted within 72 hours if non-ionizing radiation overexposure occurs. This timeframe allows for prompt evaluation of any potential health effects and allows for timely intervention or treatment if necessary. Waiting longer than 72 hours may result in delayed diagnosis or treatment, which could lead to further complications or health risks.

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  • 12. 

    Which technical order (TO) publication series covers standard Air Force installationpractices?

    • A.

      TO 31–20 series.

    • B.

      TO 61–20 series.

    • C.

      TO 31–10 series.

    • D.

      TO 61–10 series.

    Correct Answer
    C. TO 31–10 series.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TO 31–10 series. This series of technical order publications covers standard Air Force installation practices.

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  • 13. 

    Which section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables?

    • A.

      Lower.

    • B.

      Upper.

    • C.

      Right.

    • D.

      Left.

    Correct Answer
    B. Upper.
    Explanation
    The upper section of a horizontal cable duct is used for signal and control cables. This is because signal and control cables are typically placed higher in the duct to avoid interference and ensure proper functioning. The lower section of the duct is usually reserved for power cables, which have different requirements and considerations.

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  • 14. 

    Why should the number of splices be controlled during fiber optic installation?

    • A.

      Minimize transmission loss.

    • B.

      To aid in troubleshooting.

    • C.

      Reduce potential damage.

    • D.

      Prevent eavesdropping.

    Correct Answer
    A. Minimize transmission loss.
    Explanation
    Controlling the number of splices during fiber optic installation helps to minimize transmission loss. Splices are points where two fiber optic cables are joined together, and each splice introduces a certain amount of loss in the signal. By minimizing the number of splices, the overall transmission loss can be reduced, leading to better signal quality and improved performance of the fiber optic system.

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  • 15. 

    How are connectorized cables labeled?

    • A.

      The first label is placed within 6 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second isplaced within one (1) inch of the first label and marked “FROM”.

    • B.

      The first label is placed within 6 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second isplaced within two (2) inches of the first label and marked “FROM”.

    • C.

      The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second isplaced within one (1) inch of the first label and marked “FROM”.

    • D.

      The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second isplaced within two (2) inches of the first label and marked “FROM”.

    Correct Answer
    D. The first label is placed within 12 inches of the connector and marked “TO”, and the second isplaced within two (2) inches of the first label and marked “FROM”.
    Explanation
    Connectorized cables are labeled by placing the first label within 12 inches of the connector and marking it "TO", and the second label within two (2) inches of the first label and marking it "FROM". This labeling system helps to identify the direction of the cable and ensures proper installation and connection.

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  • 16. 

    Which type of label will have machine printed markings of indelible ink?

    • A.

      Adhesive.

    • B.

      Special foil.

    • C.

      Cable sheath.

    • D.

      Heat shrink tubing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Adhesive.
    Explanation
    Adhesive labels are the type of labels that can have machine printed markings of indelible ink. This is because adhesive labels are commonly used for various purposes, including labeling products or packages, and they need to withstand different conditions, such as handling, transportation, or exposure to moisture. Machine printed markings of indelible ink ensure that the label remains readable and permanent, even in challenging environments. On the other hand, special foil, cable sheath, and heat shrink tubing are not typically used for printing markings with indelible ink.

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  • 17. 

    Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for equipment?

    • A.

      Supervisor.

    • B.

      Job control.

    • C.

      Commander.

    • D.

      Flight commander/chief.

    Correct Answer
    D. Flight commander/chief.
    Explanation
    The flight commander/chief is responsible for determining if local checklists and/or work cards are required for equipment. They have the authority and expertise to assess the specific needs and requirements of the equipment and the flight operations. The flight commander/chief ensures that the necessary checklists and work cards are in place to ensure the safety and efficiency of the equipment and the overall flight operations.

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  • 18. 

    What are the three main functions of grounding?

    • A.

      Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction.

    • B.

      Signal amplification, personnel safety, and emissions security.

    • C.

      Equipment protection, signal amplification, and capacitance reaction.

    • D.

      Corrosion prevention, emissions security, and over-voltage protection.

    Correct Answer
    A. Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction.
    Explanation
    Grounding serves three main functions: personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction. Grounding helps to prevent electrical shocks by providing a path for current to flow into the ground instead of through a person. It also helps to protect equipment by providing a reference point for voltage levels and preventing damage from electrical faults. Additionally, grounding can reduce electrical noise and interference, ensuring the proper functioning of electronic devices.

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  • 19. 

    The facility ground subsystem to uses surge arrestors is the

    • A.

      Earth electrode.

    • B.

      Fault protection.

    • C.

      Signal reference.

    • D.

      Lightning protection.

    Correct Answer
    D. Lightning protection.
    Explanation
    The facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors for lightning protection. Surge arrestors are devices designed to protect electrical equipment from damage caused by lightning strikes or power surges. They divert excess voltage from lightning strikes away from sensitive equipment, preventing damage and ensuring the safety of the facility. Therefore, lightning protection is the correct answer.

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  • 20. 

    What is the establishment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces?

    • A.

      Bonding.

    • B.

      Shielding.

    • C.

      Annealing.

    • D.

      Grounding.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bonding.
    Explanation
    Bonding refers to the process of creating a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces. This is done to ensure a strong and reliable connection between the surfaces, allowing for the efficient flow of electrical current or the transfer of signals. Bonding is commonly used in various applications such as electronics, telecommunications, and electrical systems to prevent interference, improve conductivity, and provide protection against static discharge. It involves joining the metal surfaces together using techniques such as welding, soldering, or adhesive bonding to establish a solid and continuous electrical connection.

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  • 21. 

    The RED designation is used for equipment processing

    • A.

      Unencrypted unclassified information.

    • B.

      Clear-text unclassified information.

    • C.

      Encrypted classified information.

    • D.

      Clear-text classified information.

    Correct Answer
    D. Clear-text classified information.
    Explanation
    The RED designation is used for clear-text classified information. This means that the equipment processing this information does not encrypt the data and the information is classified, meaning it is sensitive and requires protection.

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  • 22. 

    Which electronic discharge sensitive (ESD) class has a sensitivity range from 0 – 999 volts?

    • A.

      Class I.

    • B.

      Class II.

    • C.

      Class III.

    • D.

      Class IV.

    Correct Answer
    A. Class I.
    Explanation
    Class I is the correct answer because it is the only class that has a sensitivity range from 0-999 volts. Class II, Class III, and Class IV do not have this specific sensitivity range.

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  • 23. 

    Which of these activities would generate the most electrostatic voltage?

    • A.

      Working at a bench.

    • B.

      Walking across carpet.

    • C.

      Walking across a vinyl floor.

    • D.

      Picking up a common plastic bag.

    Correct Answer
    B. Walking across carpet.
    Explanation
    Walking across carpet generates the most electrostatic voltage because when we walk on a carpet, friction is created between our shoes and the carpet. This friction causes the transfer of electrons from the carpet to our shoes, creating a buildup of static electricity. This buildup of static electricity results in a higher electrostatic voltage compared to the other activities mentioned.

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  • 24. 

    Which distinct region of the electromagnetic pulse is produced by the interactions between the weapon products and the earth’s atmosphere? 

    • A.

      Secondary.

    • B.

      Radiated.

    • C.

      Plasma.

    • D.

      Source.

    Correct Answer
    D. Source.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Source". The source region of the electromagnetic pulse is produced by the interactions between the weapon products and the earth's atmosphere. This region is where the initial energy release occurs and is responsible for generating the electromagnetic pulse.

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  • 25. 

    What source region electromagnetic pulse region has a primarily vertical electromagnetic pulse electric field and what structures are affected? 

    • A.

      Radiated; antennas and bore site feedhorns.

    • B.

      Plasma; antennas and bore site feedhorns.

    • C.

      Secondary; cables and ground wires

    • D.

      Source; cables and ground wires.

    Correct Answer
    A. Radiated; antennas and bore site feedhorns.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Radiated; antennas and bore site feedhorns. When a radiated electromagnetic pulse occurs, it generates a primarily vertical electromagnetic pulse electric field. This type of pulse affects antennas and bore site feedhorns, which are structures used for transmitting and receiving electromagnetic signals.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following statements is true concerning shielding? 

    • A.

      Cables should be of unshielded construction.

    • B.

      Only ventilation ports are shielded along the walls.

    • C.

      Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier.

    • D.

      All power lines supplying shielded areas do not require filters.

    Correct Answer
    C. Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier.
    Explanation
    Sensitive equipment needs to be protected from electromagnetic interference (EMI), which can be caused by various sources such as power lines, radio waves, or nearby electronic devices. Shielding is a method used to reduce or eliminate EMI by enclosing sensitive equipment within a barrier that blocks or absorbs electromagnetic radiation. By locating sensitive equipment within a shielded barrier, it is protected from external interference and can operate without disruptions or malfunctions. This ensures the proper functioning and reliability of the sensitive equipment.

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  • 27. 

    Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving antenna for short distance normally indicates

    • A.

      Enemy jamming.

    • B.

      Internal interference.

    • C.

      Radio receiver trouble.

    • D.

      Unintentional interference.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enemy jamming.
    Explanation
    Little or no variations in the strength of the interfering signal when moving the receiving antenna for a short distance normally indicates enemy jamming. This is because enemy jammers often use high-power signals that are intentionally designed to overpower the desired signal. As a result, even when the receiving antenna is moved, the strength of the interfering signal remains relatively constant. On the other hand, internal interference, radio receiver trouble, and unintentional interference would typically cause variations in signal strength when the antenna is moved.

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  • 28. 

    What type of equipment often generates many spurious emissions?

    • A.

      Slow tuning receiver.

    • B.

      Rapid tuning receiver.

    • C.

      Slow tuning transmitter.

    • D.

      Rapid tuning transmitter.

    Correct Answer
    D. Rapid tuning transmitter.
    Explanation
    A rapid tuning transmitter often generates many spurious emissions. This is because when the transmitter rapidly changes frequency, it can cause unintended emissions at frequencies other than the desired one. These emissions can interfere with other nearby electronic devices and cause signal degradation or disruption. Slow tuning transmitters, on the other hand, change frequency gradually and are less likely to generate spurious emissions. Receivers, whether slow or rapid tuning, are designed to receive signals rather than generate emissions.

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  • 29. 

    What man-made noise results from voltage surges, arcing, or corona discharges? 

    • A.

      Relays.

    • B.

      Lighting.

    • C.

      Power line.

    • D.

      Switching equipment.

    Correct Answer
    C. Power line.
    Explanation
    Power line noise refers to the interference or disturbance caused by electrical power lines. Voltage surges, arcing, and corona discharges can generate electrical noise that affects the power line, leading to disruptions in the transmission of electricity. This noise can interfere with other electronic devices and cause disturbances in audio or video signals. Therefore, the correct answer is power line.

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  • 30. 

    Who is tasked to provide interference resolution support to the unified commanders? 

    • A.

      The operator.

    • B.

      Joint Spectrum Center.

    • C.

      Installation spectrum manager.

    • D.

      Federal Communications Commission.

    Correct Answer
    B. Joint Spectrum Center.
    Explanation
    The Joint Spectrum Center is tasked to provide interference resolution support to the unified commanders. They are responsible for managing the electromagnetic spectrum and ensuring that it is effectively used by military forces. This includes identifying and resolving any interference issues that may arise during military operations.

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  • 31. 

    Who is the focal point for emission security (EMSEC) matters at an installation? 

    • A.

      Information security officer (IAO).

    • B.

      Wing information assurance office (WIAO).

    • C.

      Information security program manager (ISPM).

    • D.

      Communications and information system officer (CSO).

    Correct Answer
    B. Wing information assurance office (WIAO).
    Explanation
    The Wing Information Assurance Office (WIAO) is the focal point for emission security (EMSEC) matters at an installation. They are responsible for ensuring that the installation's information systems and networks are secure and protected from unauthorized access or interference. The WIAO works closely with other personnel, such as the Information Security Officer (IAO) and the Communications and Information System Officer (CSO), to develop and implement security measures and protocols. The Information Security Program Manager (ISPM) may also play a role in overseeing the overall information security program at the installation, but the WIAO specifically focuses on EMSEC matters.

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  • 32. 

    What plays a major role in a conductor’s ability to minimizing compromising emanations? 

    • A.

      Distance and angles.

    • B.

      Distance and separation.

    • C.

      Induction and grounding.

    • D.

      Induction and impedance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Distance and angles.
    Explanation
    Distance and angles play a major role in a conductor's ability to minimize compromising emanations. By increasing the distance between conductors and using proper angles, the electromagnetic fields generated by the conductors can be reduced. This helps in preventing interference and ensures that the signals transmitted through the conductors are not compromised.

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  • 33. 

    What secondary cell is prone to the memory effect? 

    • A.

      Nickel cadmium.

    • B.

      Carbon zinc.

    • C.

      Lead-acid.

    • D.

      Lithium.

    Correct Answer
    A. Nickel cadmium.
    Explanation
    Nickel cadmium (NiCd) secondary cells are prone to the memory effect. The memory effect occurs when a battery is repeatedly charged and discharged without being fully discharged, causing the battery to "remember" the reduced capacity. This can result in a decrease in the overall capacity of the battery over time. NiCd batteries are particularly susceptible to this effect, while other secondary cells like carbon zinc, lead-acid, and lithium batteries are not as prone to the memory effect.

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  • 34. 

    What power line fault category is symptomatic of a short term decrease in voltage levels? 

    • A.

      Sag.

    • B.

      Spike.

    • C.

      Noise.

    • D.

      Blackout.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sag.
    Explanation
    A sag is a power line fault category that is symptomatic of a short-term decrease in voltage levels. It occurs when there is a temporary drop in voltage below the normal level, usually caused by a fault in the power system. This can result in equipment malfunction or failure, as the reduced voltage may not be sufficient for proper operation.

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  • 35. 

    What power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power? 

    • A.

      Sag.

    • B.

      Spike.

    • C.

      Noise.

    • D.

      Blackout.

    Correct Answer
    D. Blackout.
    Explanation
    A blackout is a complete loss of utility power, where all electrical devices connected to the power grid are unable to receive electricity. This can be caused by various factors such as equipment failure, severe weather conditions, or deliberate actions. During a blackout, there is no electricity flowing through the power lines, resulting in a total loss of power for the affected area.

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  • 36. 

    What power line fault category is more typically referred to as electromagnetic interference(EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI)?

    • A.

      Sag.

    • B.

      Spike.

    • C.

      Noise.

    • D.

      Blackout.

    Correct Answer
    C. Noise.
    Explanation
    Electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI) are commonly associated with the power line fault category known as "Noise." EMI refers to any unwanted electromagnetic disturbance that affects the performance of electrical equipment, while RFI specifically refers to electromagnetic interference in the radio frequency range. Both EMI and RFI can cause disruptions, distortions, or malfunctions in electronic devices and communication systems. Therefore, the correct answer is "Noise."

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  • 37. 

    What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) has traditionally been referred to as“offline” by technicians?

    • A.

      Passive standby.

    • B.

      Line interactive.

    • C.

      Double conversion.

    • D.

      Ferro resonant standby.

    Correct Answer
    A. Passive standby.
    Explanation
    Passive standby is the type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) that has traditionally been referred to as "offline" by technicians. This type of UPS is designed to provide backup power by switching to battery power when the main power source fails. It offers basic protection against power outages and voltage fluctuations but does not provide continuous power conditioning like other types of UPS systems.

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  • 38. 

    What type of uninterruptible power supply (UPS) uses a transformer or inductor betweenthe utility power source and the load to correct or filter some variations in input power?

    • A.

      Passive standby.

    • B.

      Line interactive.

    • C.

      Double conversion.

    • D.

      Ferro resonant standby.

    Correct Answer
    B. Line interactive.
    Explanation
    A line interactive uninterruptible power supply (UPS) uses a transformer or inductor between the utility power source and the load to correct or filter some variations in input power. This type of UPS is able to provide voltage regulation and filtering without switching to battery power, making it an efficient and cost-effective solution for protecting sensitive electronic equipment from power fluctuations.

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  • 39. 

    How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercialapplications?

    • A.

      Single.

    • B.

      Double.

    • C.

      Three.

    • D.

      Four

    Correct Answer
    C. Three.
    Explanation
    In industrial and commercial applications, three phases of generator power are usually required. This is because three-phase power provides a more balanced and efficient distribution of electrical power compared to single or double phases. It allows for higher power transmission, reduces power loss, and enables the operation of larger motors and equipment. Additionally, three-phase power is commonly used in industrial settings to power machinery, lighting systems, and other electrical loads.

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  • 40. 

    What are the three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today? 

    • A.

      Binary amplitude shift keying, frequency shift keying, and phase shift keying.

    • B.

      Pulse amplitude, pulse width, and pulse position.

    • C.

      Amplitude, frequency, and phase.

    • D.

      Analog, digital and shift keying.

    Correct Answer
    C. Amplitude, frequency, and phase.
    Explanation
    The three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today are amplitude, frequency, and phase. These categories refer to different ways in which the characteristics of the RF signal are modified in order to carry information. Amplitude modulation involves varying the amplitude of the RF signal to encode information. Frequency modulation involves varying the frequency of the RF signal. Phase modulation involves varying the phase of the RF signal. These modulation techniques are commonly used in various RF communication systems to transmit and receive information effectively.

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  • 41. 

    When the modulating signal and carrier signal are combined within a modulator, the output signal contains 

    • A.

      Modulating signal, upper sideband, and lower sideband.

    • B.

      Carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband.

    • C.

      Upper sideband and modulating signal.

    • D.

      Carrier and modulating signal.

    Correct Answer
    B. Carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband.
    Explanation
    When the modulating signal and carrier signal are combined within a modulator, the process of modulation occurs. This results in the generation of upper sideband and lower sideband frequencies, which are the sum and difference frequencies of the carrier and modulating signal. Additionally, the carrier signal itself is also present in the output signal. Therefore, the correct answer is that the output signal contains the carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband frequencies.

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  • 42. 

    What factor determines the spacing of the sidebands in an amplitude modulated signal? 

    • A.

      Amplitude of the modulating signal.

    • B.

      Frequency of the modulating signal.

    • C.

      Amplitude of the carrier signal.

    • D.

      Frequency of the carrier signal.

    Correct Answer
    B. Frequency of the modulating signal.
    Explanation
    The spacing of the sidebands in an amplitude modulated signal is determined by the frequency of the modulating signal. As the modulating signal varies in frequency, it causes the carrier signal to vary in amplitude. This variation in amplitude results in the creation of sidebands, which are additional frequencies that surround the carrier frequency. The frequency of these sidebands is directly proportional to the frequency of the modulating signal. Therefore, the frequency of the modulating signal determines the spacing between the sidebands in an amplitude modulated signal.

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  • 43. 

    The amount of effect or change that the intelligence has on the carrier in an amplitude modulated signal is expressed as the 

    • A.

      Percent of modulation.

    • B.

      Modulation index.

    • C.

      Bandwidth.

    • D.

      Deviation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Percent of modulation.
    Explanation
    The percent of modulation is the correct answer because it represents the amount of effect or change that the intelligence (information) has on the carrier signal in an amplitude modulated signal. It is a measure of how much the amplitude of the carrier signal is varied in relation to the information being transmitted. The percent of modulation is calculated by taking the peak amplitude of the modulated signal and dividing it by the peak amplitude of the unmodulated carrier signal, then multiplying by 100.

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  • 44. 

    Reducing modulation to less than 100 percent gives 

    • A.

      More total power.

    • B.

      A reduction in carrier power.

    • C.

      No reduction in carrier power.

    • D.

      A reduction in carrier and sideband power.

    Correct Answer
    C. No reduction in carrier power.
    Explanation
    Reducing modulation to less than 100 percent means that the amplitude of the modulating signal is decreased, resulting in a smaller variation in the amplitude of the carrier signal. This reduction in modulation does not affect the power of the carrier signal, as the power is determined by the amplitude squared. Therefore, there is no reduction in carrier power when modulation is reduced to less than 100 percent.

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  • 45. 

    The output of the oscillator in a frequency modulation (FM) modulator increases in frequency with each 

    • A.

      Positive half cycle of the carrier.

    • B.

      Negative half cycle of the carrier.

    • C.

      Positive half cycle of the modulating signal.

    • D.

      Negative half cycle of the modulating signal.

    Correct Answer
    C. Positive half cycle of the modulating signal.
    Explanation
    In frequency modulation (FM), the frequency of the carrier signal is varied in accordance with the modulating signal. The modulating signal is the signal that carries the information to be transmitted. In this case, the output of the oscillator in the FM modulator increases in frequency with each positive half cycle of the modulating signal. This means that as the modulating signal goes through its positive half cycle, the frequency of the carrier signal also increases.

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  • 46. 

    A 5 kilohertz (kHz) modulating signal has enough peak voltage to cause a deviation of 15 kHz. What is the modulation index? 

    • A.

      5.

    • B.

      3.

    • C.

      0.5.

    • D.

      0.3.

    Correct Answer
    B. 3.
    Explanation
    The modulation index is a measure of how much the carrier wave is modulated by the modulating signal. In this case, the modulating signal has a frequency of 5 kHz and is able to cause a deviation of 15 kHz. The modulation index can be calculated by dividing the deviation by the modulating frequency. In this case, the modulation index would be 15 kHz divided by 5 kHz, which equals 3.

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  • 47. 

    What is the narrow frequency band between adjacent stations used to prevent frequency modulated sidebands from overlapping? 

    • A.

      Space.

    • B.

      Guard band.

    • C.

      Buffer zone.

    • D.

      Prevention field.

    Correct Answer
    B. Guard band.
    Explanation
    A guard band is a narrow frequency band between adjacent stations that is used to prevent frequency modulated sidebands from overlapping. It acts as a buffer zone, ensuring that the signals from neighboring stations do not interfere with each other. The guard band helps to maintain the integrity and clarity of the transmitted signals by providing separation and preventing any overlap or distortion.

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  • 48. 

    What is the advantage of adding more phase shifts? 

    • A.

      Easier detection.

    • B.

      Smaller bit error rate.

    • C.

      Better signal-to-noise ratio.

    • D.

      Higher data rates within a given bandwidth.

    Correct Answer
    D. Higher data rates within a given bandwidth.
    Explanation
    Adding more phase shifts allows for more bits to be encoded and transmitted within a given bandwidth. This means that more data can be transmitted in a shorter amount of time, resulting in higher data rates. This advantage is particularly useful in situations where there is limited bandwidth available, as it allows for more efficient use of the available spectrum.

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  • 49. 

    What is the first step in the pulse code modulation process? 

    • A.

      Discrete amplitudes are assigned to the sampling pulses.

    • B.

      A binary code number is assigned to the sample.

    • C.

      The quantizer limits the amplitude of the pulses.

    • D.

      The analog signal is band limited.

    Correct Answer
    D. The analog signal is band limited.
    Explanation
    The first step in the pulse code modulation process is to band limit the analog signal. This means that the signal is filtered to remove any frequencies outside of a certain range, ensuring that only the desired frequencies are present. This step is important because it helps prevent distortion and interference in the subsequent steps of the process.

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  • 50. 

    Quantization in the pulse code modulation process is  

    • A.

      Converting a continuous time signal into a discrete time signal.

    • B.

      Ensuring the input to the sampler never exceeds maximum frequency.

    • C.

      Placing an infinite number of amplitude values to a finite number of values.

    • D.

      Limiting the highest and lowest frequency encoded before it goes to the sampler.

    Correct Answer
    C. Placing an infinite number of amplitude values to a finite number of values.
    Explanation
    Quantization in the pulse code modulation process involves placing an infinite number of amplitude values to a finite number of values. This means that the continuous time signal is divided into discrete levels, and each level represents a specific amplitude value. By doing this, the signal is approximated and represented using a limited number of values, which allows for efficient digital storage and transmission of the signal.

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