3DX7X Vol 1: Unit 6

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| By Denise Buffoni
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Denise Buffoni
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 8 | Total Attempts: 3,968
| Attempts: 169
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  • 1/18 Questions

    Which identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user?

    • Token
    • Biometrics
    • Multifactor
    • Knowledge-based
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About This Quiz

This quiz, titled '3DX7X Vol 1: Unit 6', assesses knowledge crucial to Cyberspace Operations within the Air Force. It covers legal, operational, and strategic aspects, emphasizing the importance of careful planning, authority, and electronic warfare capabilities to achieve information superiority and operational effectiveness.

3DX7X Vol 1: Unit 6 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?

    • Patches

    • Antivirus

    • Software removal

    • Vulnerability scanner

    Correct Answer
    A. Patches
    Explanation
    Patches are a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program. They are used as a preventive measure to fix vulnerabilities and improve the security of the software. Patches are typically released by the software vendor after vulnerabilities are discovered, and users are advised to install them to protect their systems from potential attacks.

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  • 3. 

    Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?

    • Virus

    • Spam

    • Spyware

    • Phishing

    Correct Answer
    A. Spam
    Explanation
    Spam is considered more of an annoyance than an attack because it involves the sending of unsolicited and unwanted messages, typically in bulk, to a large number of recipients. While spam can be a nuisance and consume resources, it is generally not as harmful or malicious as other threat vectors like viruses, spyware, or phishing. Spam is primarily intended to promote products, services, or scams, rather than directly causing harm to a computer or compromising sensitive information.

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  • 4. 

    Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?

    • Token

    • Biometrics

    • Multifactor

    • Knowledge-based

    Correct Answer
    A. Biometrics
    Explanation
    Biometrics is the identity management process that uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user. Biometrics refers to the unique physical or behavioral characteristics of an individual, such as fingerprints, iris patterns, or voice recognition, which are used to verify their identity. By scanning and analyzing a person's fingerprint, biometric systems can accurately authenticate and grant access to authorized individuals. This method offers a high level of security as fingerprints are difficult to replicate or forge, making it an effective and reliable form of user authentication.

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  • 5. 

    Which operations center monitors and controls Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity to provide situational awareness, and report suspicious/malicious activity?

    • Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC)

    • Base Defense Operations Center

    • 624th Operations Center

    • Air Operations Center

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC)
    Explanation
    The Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC) is responsible for monitoring and controlling Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity. It provides situational awareness by constantly monitoring the network for any suspicious or malicious activity. The I-NOSC also reports any such activity to ensure the security and integrity of the Air Force network. The other options, such as the Base Defense Operations Center, 624th Operations Center, and Air Operations Center, are not specifically tasked with monitoring and controlling network access points and network activity.

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  • 6. 

    Within the information environment what term describes the advantage, or imbalance, in one's favor?

    • Information Management

    • Network-centric warfare

    • Information Superiority

    • Information Operations

    Correct Answer
    A. Information Superiority
    Explanation
    Information superiority refers to the advantage or imbalance in one's favor within the information environment. It is the ability to effectively collect, process, and disseminate information to gain a competitive edge over adversaries. This term emphasizes the importance of leveraging information and technology to achieve strategic goals and objectives.

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  • 7. 

    What is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects, on either our behalf or the adversary's, and maximizing cyberspace superiority?

    • Careful planning

    • Reactive operations

    • Immediate response

    • Information Operations

    Correct Answer
    A. Careful planning
    Explanation
    Careful planning is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects and maximizing cyberspace superiority because it allows for the identification and anticipation of potential risks and threats. By carefully planning and considering various scenarios, organizations can develop strategies and measures to prevent or minimize the impact of cyber attacks. It enables the establishment of proactive defense mechanisms, such as robust cybersecurity systems and protocols, and the allocation of appropriate resources to address vulnerabilities. Careful planning also facilitates effective coordination and communication among stakeholders, ensuring a timely and coordinated response to cyber incidents.

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  • 8. 

    What title status must National Guard Guardsmen be in to execute cyber operations?

    • Title 10

    • Title 30

    • Title 50

    • Title 52

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10
    Explanation
    National Guard Guardsmen must be in Title 10 status to execute cyber operations. Title 10 refers to the federal status of the National Guard, which allows them to be deployed for federal missions, including cyber operations. This status grants them the authority and resources necessary to carry out such operations. Title 30 is related to state missions, Title 50 pertains to intelligence activities, and Title 52 is not a recognized status for National Guard Guardsmen.

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  • 9. 

    Which Electronic Warfare capability uses jamming to reduce the adversary's use of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS)?

    • Electronic attack

    • Electronic protection

    • Network Exploitation

    • Electronic warfare support

    Correct Answer
    A. Electronic attack
    Explanation
    Electronic attack is the correct answer because it involves the use of jamming techniques to disrupt or disable the adversary's electronic systems and communication networks. By jamming the electromagnetic spectrum, electronic attack aims to limit the enemy's ability to effectively use their electronic warfare capabilities, thereby gaining a tactical advantage.

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  • 10. 

    Which supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem connects to sensors in the process, converting sensor signals to digital data?

    • Supervisory System

    • Remote Terminal Unit

    • Human Machine Interface

    • Programmable Logic Controller

    Correct Answer
    A. Remote Terminal Unit
    Explanation
    A Remote Terminal Unit (RTU) is a SCADA subsystem that connects to sensors in the process and converts sensor signals to digital data. It acts as an interface between the sensors and the SCADA system, collecting data from the sensors and transmitting it to the supervisory system for analysis and control. The RTU plays a crucial role in monitoring and controlling the process by providing real-time data and enabling remote operation and control.

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  • 11. 

    The technical solution for a communications and information system requirement summarizes

    • Only full costs

    • Recommended course of action only

    • Full cost and recommended course of action

    • Full cost, recommended course of action, and security requirements

    Correct Answer
    A. Full cost and recommended course of action
    Explanation
    The technical solution for a communications and information system requirement includes both the full cost and the recommended course of action. This means that the solution not only provides an estimate of the total expenses associated with implementing the system but also suggests the most suitable approach or plan to achieve the desired outcome. The inclusion of both aspects ensures that decision-makers have a comprehensive understanding of the financial implications and the proposed steps to take. However, the answer does not mention security requirements, so it can be assumed that the technical solution does not specifically address this aspect.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is a true statement about Electronic Warfare (EW) and Computer Network Operations (CNO)?

    • EW concerns radiated energy

    • CNO concerns radiated energy

    • EW is only used for offensive purposes

    • CNO is only used for defensive purposes

    Correct Answer
    A. EW concerns radiated energy
    Explanation
    Electronic Warfare (EW) involves the use of electromagnetic energy to control the electromagnetic spectrum and disrupt enemy communications and radar systems. It focuses on the manipulation of radiated energy, such as jamming enemy signals and intercepting communications. On the other hand, Computer Network Operations (CNO) involves offensive and defensive actions in the cyberspace domain. It encompasses activities like hacking, network exploitation, and defending against cyber threats. Therefore, the statement that EW concerns radiated energy is true as it accurately describes the nature of EW operations.

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  • 13. 

    Which Cyberspace Defense Weapon System sub-discipline determines the extent of intrusions, develops course of action required to mitigate threats, and determines and executes response actions?

    • Computer Forensics

    • Incident Prevention

    • Incident Detection

    • Incident Response

    Correct Answer
    A. Incident Response
    Explanation
    Incident Response is the correct answer because it involves determining the extent of intrusions, developing a course of action to mitigate threats, and executing response actions. This sub-discipline focuses on handling and responding to security incidents in cyberspace, including identifying and containing threats, investigating and analyzing the impact of intrusions, and implementing measures to prevent future incidents. It plays a crucial role in minimizing the damage caused by cyber attacks and ensuring the security and integrity of computer systems and networks.

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  • 14. 

    What are the three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations?

    • Policy, Security, Authority

    • Authority, Security, Law

    • Law, Authority, Policy

    • Security, Policy, Law

    Correct Answer
    A. Law, Authority, Policy
    Explanation
    The three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations are Law, Authority, and Policy. This means that when conducting operations in cyberspace, it is important to adhere to legal regulations and frameworks, have the necessary authority and permissions to carry out the operations, and follow established policies and guidelines. These considerations help ensure that cyberspace operations are conducted in a lawful, controlled, and effective manner.

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  • 15. 

    Who provides the formal declaration that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of a safeguards and acceptable risk?

    • Wing Commander

    • Authorizing Official

    • Wing information security office (WIAO)

    • Communications and Information systems officer (CSO)

    Correct Answer
    A. Authorizing Official
    Explanation
    The Authorizing Official is responsible for providing the formal declaration that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards and acceptable risk. This individual has the authority to make decisions regarding the system's operation and is accountable for ensuring that the system meets the necessary security requirements. The Wing Commander, Wing Information Security Office (WIAO), and Communications and Information Systems Officer (CSO) may have roles related to information security, but they do not have the specific responsibility of providing the formal declaration of approval.

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  • 16. 

    Which Intranet Control Weapon System sub-discipline conducts continuous monitoring to ensure timely delivery of critical information?

    • Defense-in-Depth

    • Proactive Defense

    • Situational Awareness

    • Network Standardization

    Correct Answer
    A. Proactive Defense
    Explanation
    Proactive Defense is the correct answer because this sub-discipline focuses on actively identifying and mitigating potential threats before they can cause harm. By conducting continuous monitoring, Proactive Defense ensures that critical information is delivered in a timely manner, allowing for quick response and preventive measures to be taken. This approach is essential in maintaining the security and integrity of an Intranet Control Weapon System.

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  • 17. 

    What system monitoring concept uses long trend analysis of network devices and is performed in order to identify future constraints with results incorporated into future technical baselines?

    • Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems

    • End-to-End Performance Monitoring

    • Vulnerability scanners

    • Capacity Planning

    Correct Answer
    A. Capacity Planning
    Explanation
    Capacity planning is a system monitoring concept that involves long trend analysis of network devices. It is performed to identify future constraints and ensure that the system can meet future demands. The results of capacity planning are then incorporated into future technical baselines, allowing for proactive management of resources and optimization of system performance. This process helps organizations anticipate and address potential bottlenecks or limitations before they occur, ensuring smooth operations and minimizing disruptions.

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  • 18. 

    Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem gathers data on the process and sends commands to the processor?

    • Supervisory System

    • Remote Terminal Unit

    • Human Machine Interface

    • Programmable Logic Controller

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisory System
    Explanation
    The supervisory system is the subsystem of SCADA that gathers data on the process and sends commands to the processor. It acts as the central control unit, monitoring the process and collecting data from various remote terminal units. It also sends commands and instructions to the processor or other devices to control the process. The supervisory system plays a crucial role in the overall operation and control of SCADA systems.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 13, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    Denise Buffoni
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