Computer Network Operations Questions!

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Kevin
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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 224
| Attempts: 224
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  • 1/18 Questions

    Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?

    • Token.
    • Biometrics.
    • Multifactor.
    • Knowledge-based
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About This Quiz

Explore key aspects of cyber operations with the 'Computer Network Operations Questions!' quiz. It assesses understanding of law, authority, policy, operational centers, and electronic warfare, focusing on gaining information superiority and careful planning for cyber dominance.

Computer Network Operations Questions! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which operations center monitors and controls Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity to provide situational awareness, and report suspicious/malicious activity?

    • Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC).

    • Base Defense Operations Center.

    • 624th Operations Center.

    • Air Operations Center

    Correct Answer
    A. Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC).
    Explanation
    The Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC) is responsible for monitoring and controlling Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity. It provides situational awareness by keeping track of network activities and reports any suspicious or malicious activity. The I-NOSC plays a crucial role in ensuring the security of the Air Force network and protecting it from potential threats.

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  • 3. 

    Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?

    • Patches

    • Antivirus

    • Software removal.

    • Vulnerability scanner

    Correct Answer
    A. Patches
    Explanation
    A patch is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program. It is a preventive measure that helps to fix vulnerabilities and improve the security of the software. Patches are typically released by the software developers after they have identified and fixed a specific issue or vulnerability in their software. These patches can be downloaded and installed by users to update their software and protect it from potential threats.

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  • 4. 

    What title status must National Guard Guardsmen be in to execute cyber operations?

    • Title 10

    • Title 30

    • Title 59

    • Title 32

    Correct Answer
    A. Title 10
    Explanation
    National Guard Guardsmen must be in Title 10 status to execute cyber operations. Title 10 refers to the federal status of the National Guard, which means that they are under the control of the President and can be called upon for federal missions. This status allows them to engage in cyber operations, which often involve national security and defense. Title 30, Title 59, and Title 32 are not the correct statuses for executing cyber operations.

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  • 5. 

    Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?

    • Virus

    • Spam

    • Spyware

    • Phishing

    Correct Answer
    A. Spam
    Explanation
    Spam is considered more of an annoyance than an attack because it involves the sending of unsolicited and unwanted messages, typically through email. While spam can be a nuisance and disrupt productivity, it does not directly cause harm to a system or steal sensitive information like other threat vectors such as viruses, spyware, or phishing attacks. However, spam can still be a gateway for other types of attacks if users unknowingly click on malicious links or download harmful attachments contained within the spam messages.

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  • 6. 

    Within the information environment what term describes the advantage, or imbalance, in one's favor?

    • Information Management.

    •  Network-centric warfare.

    •  Information Superiority.

    • Information Operations

    Correct Answer
    A.  Information Superiority.
    Explanation
    Information Superiority refers to the advantage or imbalance in one's favor within the information environment. It implies having superior access to, understanding of, and control over relevant information, allowing for more effective decision-making and operations. This term highlights the importance of leveraging information and technology to gain a competitive edge in various domains, including military, business, and intelligence.

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  • 7. 

    Which Electronic Warfare capability uses jamming to reduce the adversary's use of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS)?

    • Electronic attack.

    • Electronic protection.

    • Network Exploitation.

    • Electronic warfare support

    Correct Answer
    A. Electronic attack.
    Explanation
    Electronic attack is the correct answer because it involves the use of jamming to disrupt or degrade the adversary's use of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS). By jamming the enemy's communication systems or radar, electronic attack aims to impede their ability to effectively use the EMS for communication or surveillance purposes. This capability is an essential component of electronic warfare, which encompasses a range of techniques and technologies used to exploit, protect, and attack in the electromagnetic domain.

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  • 8. 

    The technical solution for a communications and information system requirement summarizes

    • Only full costs.

    •  recommended course of action only.

    •  full cost and recommended course of action.

    • Full cost, recommended course of action, and security requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A.  full cost and recommended course of action.
    Explanation
    The technical solution for a communications and information system requirement includes both the full cost and the recommended course of action. This means that the solution not only considers the financial implications but also provides guidance on the best approach to take. By including both elements, the solution takes into account the practical and financial aspects, ensuring that the recommended course of action is both feasible and cost-effective.

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  • 9. 

    Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem gathers data on the process and sends commands to the processor?

    • Supervisory System.

    •  Remote Terminal Unit.

    • Human Machine Interface.

    • Programmable Logic Controller

    Correct Answer
    A. Supervisory System.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Supervisory System. This subsystem in SCADA is responsible for gathering data on the process and sending commands to the processor. It acts as the central control unit and interacts with other components of the SCADA system to monitor and control the process effectively. The supervisory system collects data from remote terminal units and human-machine interfaces and then processes and displays the information to the operator for decision-making. It also sends commands to the processor to control the process based on the received data and operator inputs.

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  • 10. 

    Who provides the formal declaration that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards and acceptable risk?

    • Wing commander.

    • Authorizing Official (AO).

    • Wing information security office (WIAO).

    •  Communications and information systems officer (CSO).

    Correct Answer
    A. Authorizing Official (AO).
    Explanation
    The Authorizing Official (AO) is responsible for providing the formal declaration that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards and acceptable risk. The AO has the authority to make decisions regarding the system's security posture and is accountable for ensuring that the system meets the necessary security requirements. The other options, such as Wing commander, Wing information security office (WIAO), and Communications and information systems officer (CSO), do not have the specific role or authority to make this formal declaration.

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  • 11. 

    What are the three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations?

    • Policy, Security, Authority.

    • Authority, Security, Law.

    • Law, Authority, Policy.

    • Security, Policy, Law.

    Correct Answer
    A. Law, Authority, Policy.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Law, Authority, Policy. In Cyberspace Operations, the first consideration is the legal framework that governs these operations, ensuring compliance with regulations and laws. Authority comes next, as it determines who has the power and responsibility to make decisions and take action in cyberspace. Finally, policy outlines the guidelines and procedures that govern the use of cyberspace, including security measures and best practices. This order of considerations ensures that operations are conducted within a legal framework, with clear lines of authority and well-defined policies.

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  • 12. 

    Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem connects to sensors in the process, converting sensor signals to digital data?

    •  Supervisory System.

    • Remote Terminal Unit.

    •  Human Machine Interface.

    •  Programmable Logic Controller

    Correct Answer
    A. Remote Terminal Unit.
    Explanation
    The Remote Terminal Unit (RTU) is a component of the Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) system that connects to sensors in the process. It is responsible for converting the analog sensor signals into digital data that can be transmitted to the supervisory system for monitoring and control. The RTU acts as an interface between the sensors and the SCADA system, allowing for real-time data acquisition and remote control of the process. The other options, such as the Supervisory System, Human Machine Interface, and Programmable Logic Controller, are not directly involved in converting sensor signals to digital data.

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  • 13. 

    What is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects, on either our behalf or the adversary's, and maximizing cyberspace superiority?

    • Careful planning.

    • Reactive operations.

    •  Immediate response.

    • Information Operations

    Correct Answer
    A. Careful planning.
    Explanation
    Careful planning is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects and maximizing cyberspace superiority because it allows for a proactive approach. By carefully planning and strategizing, potential risks and vulnerabilities can be identified and addressed before they become major issues. This helps to prevent unintended consequences and ensures that actions taken in cyberspace are effective and aligned with desired outcomes. Careful planning also allows for the consideration of various factors and potential scenarios, enabling a more comprehensive and well-thought-out approach to cyberspace operations.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is a true statement about Electronic Warfare (EW) and Computer Network Operations (CNO)?

    • EW concerns radiated energy.

    • CNO concerns radiated energy.

    •  EW is only used for offensive purposes.

    • CNO is only used for defensive purposes

    Correct Answer
    A. EW concerns radiated energy.
    Explanation
    Electronic Warfare (EW) is a field that deals with the use of electromagnetic energy to control or disrupt enemy communications and radar systems. It involves the use of various techniques such as jamming, deception, and electronic countermeasures. Therefore, the statement "EW concerns radiated energy" is true as it correctly identifies that EW focuses on the manipulation and utilization of radiated energy for military purposes.

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  • 15. 

    Which Cyberspace Defense Weapon System sub-discipline determines the extent of intrusions, develops courses of action required to mitigate threats, and determines and executes response actions?

    • Computer Forensics.

    • Incident Prevention.

    • Incident Detection.

    • Incident Response.

    Correct Answer
    A. Incident Response.
    Explanation
    The sub-discipline that determines the extent of intrusions, develops courses of action required to mitigate threats, and determines and executes response actions is Incident Response. This involves identifying and responding to cyber security incidents in a timely and effective manner to minimize damage and restore normal operations. Computer Forensics focuses on collecting and analyzing digital evidence, Incident Prevention focuses on implementing measures to prevent incidents from occurring, and Incident Detection focuses on identifying and alerting about potential incidents.

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  • 16. 

    Which Intranet Control Weapon System sub-discipline conducts continuous monitoring to ensure timely delivery of critical information?

    • Defense-in-Depth.

    •  Proactive Defense.

    • Situational Awareness.

    • Network Standardization

    Correct Answer
    A.  Proactive Defense.
    Explanation
    Proactive Defense is the correct answer because it refers to the sub-discipline within the Intranet Control Weapon System that conducts continuous monitoring to ensure timely delivery of critical information. This means that Proactive Defense focuses on actively monitoring and protecting the network to prevent any potential threats or disruptions, thus ensuring the timely delivery of critical information. This sub-discipline plays a crucial role in maintaining the security and efficiency of the Intranet Control Weapon System.

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  • 17. 

    Which identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user?  

    • Token

    • Biometrics.

    • Multifactor.

    • Knowledge-based.

    Correct Answer
    A. Knowledge-based.
    Explanation
    The identity management process that uses a password to authenticate a user is known as knowledge-based authentication. In this process, the user is required to provide a password that they have previously set up as a means of verifying their identity. This method is commonly used in various systems and platforms to ensure that only authorized users gain access to their accounts or sensitive information.

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  • 18. 

    What system monitoring concept uses long trend analysis of network devices and is performed in order to identify future constraints with results incorporated into future technical baselines?

    • Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems.

    • End-to-End Performance Monitoring.

    • Vulnerability scanners.

    • Capacity Planning.

    Correct Answer
    A. Capacity Planning.
    Explanation
    Capacity planning is the correct answer because it involves long trend analysis of network devices to identify future constraints. This process helps in determining the capacity requirements of a system and ensuring that it can handle the expected workload. The results of capacity planning are then incorporated into future technical baselines, allowing for proactive management and optimization of system performance. Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems, End-to-End Performance Monitoring, and Vulnerability scanners are not directly related to long trend analysis and future constraint identification.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 15, 2024 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 15, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 08, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Kevin
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