2015 CDC Test 3d052 Vol 1 & 2
(234).webp "2015 CDC Test 3d052 Vol 1 & 2 - Quiz")
- 1.
What is a network?
- A.
A group of systems that cannot talk to each other
- B.
A group of computers that are not connected
- C.
A group of computers that are connected with each other
- D.
A single system connected to the internet
Correct Answer
C. A group of computers that are connected with each otherExplanation
A network refers to a group of computers that are connected with each other. This means that the computers within the network can communicate and share resources such as files and printers. The connection can be established through various means such as wired or wireless connections. The correct answer accurately describes the concept of a network, highlighting the essential characteristic of interconnected computers.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What is the difference between a Heterogeneous network and a Homogeneous network?
- A.
A Heterogeneous network consists of computers from multiple vendors and operating systems while a Homogeneous network consists of computers from the same vendor running the same operating system
- B.
A Heterogeneous network consists of computers from the same vendor and operating system while a Homogeneous network consists of computers from different vendors running different operating systems
- C.
A Heterogeneous network can utilize the internet while a Homogeneous network is isolated
- D.
A Heterogeneous network is isolated while a Homogeneous network can utilize the interent
Correct Answer
A. A Heterogeneous network consists of computers from multiple vendors and operating systems while a Homogeneous network consists of computers from the same vendor running the same operating systemExplanation
A Heterogeneous network is made up of computers from different vendors and operating systems, allowing for a diverse range of hardware and software. On the other hand, a Homogeneous network consists of computers from the same vendor running the same operating system, creating a uniform environment.Rate this question:
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- 3.
How many users are required to define an "Enterprise Network"?
- A.
250-1000
- B.
1000+
- C.
50-250
- D.
1-50
Correct Answer
B. 1000+Explanation
An "Enterprise Network" is typically defined as a large-scale network that spans across multiple locations and supports a large number of users. Therefore, it would require a significant number of users to be considered an "Enterprise Network." The option "1000+" suggests that a minimum of 1000 users is required to define an "Enterprise Network."Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which AFI covers Air Force Messaging (e-mail)?
- A.
AFI 33-115
- B.
AFI 33-200
- C.
AFI 33-202
- D.
AFI 33-119
Correct Answer
D. AFI 33-119Explanation
AFI 33-119 is the correct answer because it specifically covers Air Force Messaging (e-mail). AFI 33-115 is about the Air Force Information Technology (IT) Investment Management, AFI 33-200 is about Command and Control (C2) Systems Operations and Maintenance, and AFI 33-202 is about Communications and Information Management (CIM) Planning and Implementation.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What protocol is utilized by network management servers?
- A.
POP3
- B.
DHCP
- C.
SNMP
- D.
SMTP
Correct Answer
C. SNMPExplanation
SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is the correct answer for this question. SNMP is a protocol used by network management servers to monitor and manage network devices such as routers, switches, and servers. It allows network administrators to collect information, set configuration parameters, and receive notifications about the status and performance of network devices. SNMP operates on the application layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite and uses a manager-agent model, where the management server acts as the manager and the network devices act as agents.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What are the three distinct aspects of information that must be protected?
- A.
Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
- B.
Integrity, Service, Excellence
- C.
Applications, Operating System, Hardware
- D.
Confidentiality, Intergrity
Correct Answer
A. Confidentiality, Integrity, AvailabilityExplanation
The three distinct aspects of information that must be protected are confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Confidentiality ensures that only authorized individuals have access to sensitive information. Integrity ensures that the information is accurate, complete, and trustworthy. Availability ensures that the information is accessible and usable when needed. These three aspects are crucial for ensuring the security and reliability of information systems.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Ping is a network management tool that is part of the ___ protocol
- A.
ICMP
- B.
SNMP
- C.
SMTP
- D.
FTP
Correct Answer
A. ICMPExplanation
Ping is a network management tool used to test the reachability of a host on an Internet Protocol (IP) network. It works by sending ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) Echo Request messages to the target host and waiting for ICMP Echo Reply messages in response. ICMP is a protocol that is specifically designed for network troubleshooting and diagnostic purposes, making it the correct answer in this case. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used for managing and monitoring network devices, SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for sending email, and FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is used for transferring files over a network.Rate this question:
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- 8.
SMARTS (System Management Automated Report Tracking System) performs root-cause analysis of which OSI model layers?
- A.
1 an 2
- B.
2 and 3
- C.
1 and 3
- D.
2 and 4
Correct Answer
B. 2 and 3Explanation
SMARTS (System Management Automated Report Tracking System) performs root-cause analysis of the second and third layers of the OSI model. The second layer is the Data Link layer, which is responsible for the reliable transmission of data over a physical link. The third layer is the Network layer, which is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets across different networks. By analyzing these layers, SMARTS can identify and resolve issues related to network connectivity, data transmission, and routing problems.Rate this question:
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- 9.
SMARTS uses a combination of what protocols for polling?
- A.
SMTP and POP3
- B.
SNMP and FTP
- C.
SNMP and ICMP
- D.
ICMP and SMTP
Correct Answer
C. SNMP and ICMPExplanation
SMARTS uses a combination of SNMP and ICMP protocols for polling. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used for monitoring and managing network devices, while ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is used for diagnostic and error reporting purposes. By utilizing both protocols, SMARTS can gather information about network devices and their status, as well as detect and report any network connectivity issues or errors.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Protocol analyzers monitor the traffic on a segment or domain one ___ at a time
- A.
Packet
- B.
Connection
- C.
Frame
- D.
Collision
Correct Answer
D. CollisionExplanation
Protocol analyzers monitor the traffic on a segment or domain one collision at a time. This means that they analyze and capture data related to collisions that occur on the network. By monitoring collisions, protocol analyzers can provide insights into network performance, identify potential issues or bottlenecks, and help troubleshoot network problems.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Tracert us a tool used to:
- A.
Send a series of messages to a target and time the response
- B.
See the path packets are traveling and the time it takes to complete the trip
- C.
Send frames to a specific node
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. See the path packets are traveling and the time it takes to complete the tripExplanation
Tracert is a tool used to see the path packets are traveling and the time it takes to complete the trip. It allows users to identify the route that packets take from the source to the destination, showing each hop along the way and the time it takes for the packets to reach each hop. This can be helpful in troubleshooting network connectivity issues and identifying any bottlenecks or delays in the network.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What is the definition of Identification and Authentication?
- A.
The process of proving that a subject is what the subject claims to be
- B.
The process of selecting a target and verifying authorization to attack
- C.
The process of identifying an attacker and the authentication method used
- D.
The process of selecting an airman for assignment and verifying they have the appropriate clearance
Correct Answer
A. The process of proving that a subject is what the subject claims to beExplanation
Identification and authentication refer to the process of verifying that a subject is indeed who they claim to be. It involves providing evidence or credentials to support the claimed identity. This process is crucial in ensuring the security and integrity of systems and data, as it helps prevent unauthorized access and impersonation. By confirming the identity of a subject, organizations can establish trust and grant appropriate access privileges based on the level of authentication achieved.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is DIACAP?
- A.
The process for denying access to a government system
- B.
The DOD process for allowing access to a government system
- C.
The DOD approval process for joining the AF-GIG
- D.
The DOD process for identifying, implementing, validating, certifying and managing IA capabilities and services
Correct Answer
D. The DOD process for identifying, implementing, validating, certifying and managing IA capabilities and servicesExplanation
DIACAP stands for the Department of Defense (DOD) Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process. It is a process used by the DOD for identifying, implementing, validating, certifying, and managing information assurance (IA) capabilities and services. It is not related to denying or allowing access to a government system or the approval process for joining the AF-GIG.Rate this question:
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- 14.
SIPRNET is classified up to what levels?
- A.
Unclassified
- B.
Secret
- C.
Top Secret
- D.
FOUO
Correct Answer
B. SecretExplanation
SIPRNET is a secure network used by the United States Department of Defense and other federal agencies to transmit classified information. It is classified up to the Secret level, meaning that only individuals with the appropriate security clearance can access and share information on the network. The Secret level classification indicates that the information is sensitive and its unauthorized disclosure could cause serious damage to national security.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What is the Defense In Depth concept?
- A.
Varying layers of security to provide access
- B.
Physical security layers to prevent unauthorized physical access
- C.
Varying defense measures to prevent unauthorized access
- D.
Using more strict encryption as you go from an external to internal network
Correct Answer
C. Varying defense measures to prevent unauthorized accessExplanation
The Defense In Depth concept refers to the implementation of multiple layers of security measures to prevent unauthorized access. This approach involves using a combination of different defense measures, such as firewalls, encryption, access controls, and intrusion detection systems, at various levels within a system or network. By employing varying defense measures, organizations can create multiple barriers and obstacles that an attacker would need to overcome in order to gain unauthorized access. This concept aims to provide a comprehensive and layered defense strategy that increases the overall security posture and reduces the likelihood of successful attacks.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What severs usually reside in the DMZ?
- A.
Web Servers
- B.
Email Servers
- C.
Proxy Servers
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is "All of the above." In a DMZ (Demilitarized Zone), servers that are accessible from both the internal network and the external network are usually placed. This includes web servers, email servers, and proxy servers. Placing these servers in the DMZ helps to enhance security by isolating them from the internal network and providing an additional layer of protection against potential threats from the internet.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Firewalls cannot protect against what?
- A.
Viruses
- B.
Disclosure of information by authorized users
- C.
Unauthorized access by someone already "inside" the network
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
Firewalls are a security measure that helps protect a network from unauthorized access and external threats. However, they are not capable of protecting against viruses, which are malicious software that can infect a system. Additionally, firewalls cannot prevent the disclosure of information by authorized users who have legitimate access to the network. Furthermore, firewalls are unable to stop unauthorized access by someone who is already inside the network, such as an employee with malicious intent. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above" because firewalls cannot protect against viruses, disclosure of information by authorized users, or unauthorized access by someone already inside the network.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Define Virus
- A.
A program that creates a tunnel to a remote machine for unauthorized access
- B.
A program that lies dormant waiting for information from the owner
- C.
A program that replicates itself by attaching to a program
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. A program that replicates itself by attaching to a programExplanation
The correct answer is "A program that replicates itself by attaching to a program." This answer accurately defines a virus as a type of malicious software that can self-replicate by attaching itself to other programs. Viruses are designed to spread and infect other files on a computer, often causing damage or stealing information. Unlike the other options provided, this definition specifically highlights the replicating nature of viruses, distinguishing them from other types of malware.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What does PKI provide?
- A.
Users of unsecured networks to securely and privately exchange data through the use of public and private cryptographic key pairs
- B.
Users of secure networks to un-encrypt data using public cryptographic keys
- C.
Users of unsecure networks to enter a secure network such as SIPRNET using public and private cryptographic key pairs
- D.
Users of secure networks to enter unsecure public networks using public and private cryptographic key pairs
Correct Answer
A. Users of unsecured networks to securely and privately exchange data through the use of public and private cryptographic key pairsExplanation
PKI, or Public Key Infrastructure, provides a means for users of unsecured networks to securely and privately exchange data. This is achieved through the use of public and private cryptographic key pairs. The public key is used to encrypt the data, ensuring its confidentiality, while the private key is used to decrypt the data, allowing only the intended recipient to access it. This system of encryption and decryption enables secure communication over unsecured networks, protecting the data from unauthorized access or interception.Rate this question:
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- 20.
True or False" A digital signature fundamentally relies on the concept of a key pair
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
A digital signature is a cryptographic technique used to verify the authenticity and integrity of digital documents or messages. It relies on the concept of a key pair, consisting of a private key and a corresponding public key. The private key is used to generate the signature, while the public key is used to verify it. This ensures that the signature can only be generated by the owner of the private key and can be verified by anyone with access to the public key. Therefore, a digital signature fundamentally relies on the concept of a key pair.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What is the first job of the BIOS when turning on a computer?
- A.
Perform the Power of Self-Test (POST)
- B.
Load the Operating System (OS)
- C.
Detect Hard Disk Drives
- D.
Detect the Operating System
Correct Answer
A. Perform the Power of Self-Test (POST)Explanation
The first job of the BIOS when turning on a computer is to perform the Power-On Self-Test (POST). This is a diagnostic process that checks the hardware components of the computer to ensure they are functioning properly. The POST checks the CPU, memory, and other essential components, and if any issues are detected, it will display error messages or beep codes to indicate the problem. Once the POST is completed successfully, the BIOS will then proceed to load the operating system.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What information does the CMOS store?
- A.
Network information for later use
- B.
Configuration information about the computer used by the BIOS
- C.
Date and Time information
- D.
B & C
Correct Answer
D. B & CExplanation
The CMOS (Complementary Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor) stores configuration information about the computer used by the BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) as well as date and time information. This includes settings such as the boot order, hardware settings, and system clock. The network information is not stored in the CMOS.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What is the most common type of RAM?
- A.
Static
- B.
Dynamic
- C.
Duplicate
- D.
Sufficient
Correct Answer
B. DynamicExplanation
Dynamic RAM (DRAM) is the most common type of RAM. It is a type of volatile memory that stores each bit of data in a separate capacitor within an integrated circuit. DRAM requires constant refreshing of the data to maintain its integrity, which makes it dynamic. This type of RAM is widely used in computers and other electronic devices due to its high storage capacity and relatively low cost compared to other types of RAM, such as static RAM (SRAM).Rate this question:
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- 24.
True or False: Data integrity requires data to be identically maintained during any operation
- A.
False
- B.
True
Correct Answer
B. TrueExplanation
Data integrity refers to the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data throughout its lifecycle. It ensures that data remains unchanged and consistent during any operation or process. Therefore, the statement that data integrity requires data to be identically maintained during any operation is true. It emphasizes the importance of preserving the integrity of data and preventing any unauthorized or accidental modifications that could compromise its accuracy and reliability.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Drivers are small, low-level programs used by the OS to interact with ___?
- A.
Networks
- B.
Data flow
- C.
Hardware
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. HardwareExplanation
Drivers are small, low-level programs used by the OS to interact with hardware. They act as a bridge between the operating system and the hardware components of a computer system, allowing the OS to send commands and receive data from the hardware. Without drivers, the OS would not be able to effectively communicate with the hardware, resulting in malfunctioning or non-functional devices. Therefore, the correct answer is hardware.Rate this question:
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- 26.
True or False: A Storage area network is a way of utilizing a group of storage devices as routers?
- A.
False
- B.
True
Correct Answer
A. FalseExplanation
A Storage Area Network (SAN) is not a way of utilizing a group of storage devices as routers. Instead, it is a specialized high-speed network that connects storage devices to servers, allowing multiple servers to access and share storage resources. SANs are designed to improve storage efficiency, performance, and availability, but they do not function as routers.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What is RAID 5?
- A.
Redundancy that stripes information and the parity but amongst the drives as opposed to the parity bit being on a single drive
- B.
Redundancy that stripes data at the block level where data in the form of a block is written to a single hard drive
- C.
Redundancy that mirrors information on one hard drive to another
- D.
Redundancy that mirrors and stripes information across a set of hard drives
Correct Answer
A. Redundancy that stripes information and the parity but amongst the drives as opposed to the parity bit being on a single driveExplanation
RAID 5 is a redundancy technique that distributes both data and parity across multiple drives in the array. Unlike RAID 1, where data is mirrored on multiple drives, RAID 5 uses striping to distribute data and parity information across all drives. This ensures that if one drive fails, the data can be rebuilt using the parity information stored on the remaining drives. Therefore, the correct answer is "Redundancy that stripes information and the parity but amongst the drives as opposed to the parity bit being on a single drive."Rate this question:
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- 28.
What are High-order languages (HOL)?
- A.
Programming languages that are written at the binary level for faster computing
- B.
Programming languages designed to help both the programmer and the user. Utilizing English-like statements
- C.
Vernacular and technical jargon used by AF Comm personnel
- D.
Programming languages that use encoded messages to develop applications so that our enemies cannot understand any intercepted code
Correct Answer
B. Programming languages designed to help both the programmer and the user. Utilizing English-like statementsExplanation
High-order languages (HOL) are programming languages that are designed to make programming easier and more accessible for both programmers and users. These languages use English-like statements, which makes them easier to read and understand. Unlike low-level languages that are written at the binary level, HOL allows programmers to write code in a more human-readable form, which improves productivity and reduces the chances of errors. HOL also provides higher-level abstractions and built-in functions that simplify complex tasks, making it easier for both programmers and users to develop applications.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What does HTTP stand for?
- A.
Hyper Talk Transfer Protocol
- B.
Hyper Translation Transfer Protocol
- C.
Hypertext Transfer Protocol
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. Hypertext Transfer ProtocolExplanation
HTTP stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol. It is the protocol used for transmitting hypertext over the internet. Hypertext refers to text that contains links to other texts or multimedia content. The HTTP protocol allows for the retrieval and display of hypertext documents, such as web pages, on the World Wide Web. It is the foundation of data communication on the internet and enables the exchange of information between web servers and clients.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The secure socket layer (SSL) is a commonly used protocol for managing the ___ of a message transmission on the internet
- A.
Delivery
- B.
Parsing
- C.
Tunneling
- D.
Security
Correct Answer
D. SecurityExplanation
SSL (Secure Socket Layer) is a widely used protocol for managing the security of message transmission on the internet. It ensures that the data being transmitted between a web server and a user's browser is encrypted and secure from unauthorized access. SSL provides authentication, encryption, and integrity to the communication, protecting sensitive information such as passwords, credit card details, and personal data. By implementing SSL, websites can establish a secure connection with their users, preventing eavesdropping, data tampering, and other security threats.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What are the three main classifications of threats to an IT system?
- A.
Natural, Electrical, Human
- B.
Natural, Human, Environmental
- C.
Electrical, Water, Dust
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. Natural, Human, EnvironmentalExplanation
The three main classifications of threats to an IT system are natural, human, and environmental. Natural threats refer to disasters such as earthquakes, floods, or hurricanes that can cause damage to the IT system. Human threats involve intentional or unintentional actions by individuals that can compromise the security of the system, such as hacking or accidental data breaches. Environmental threats include factors like temperature, humidity, or power failures that can affect the functioning of the IT system.Rate this question:
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- 32.
The domain name service (DNS) is responsible for:
- A.
Converting friendly names to IP addresses
- B.
Converting IP addresses to MAC addresses
- C.
Converting MAC addresses to IP addresses
- D.
Creating a user account on the domain
Correct Answer
A. Converting friendly names to IP addressesExplanation
The correct answer is converting friendly names to IP addresses. DNS is responsible for translating domain names, which are user-friendly and easy to remember, into IP addresses, which are the actual numerical addresses used by computers to communicate with each other on a network. This translation is necessary because computers communicate with each other using IP addresses, but humans find it easier to remember and use domain names.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What is dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) used for?
- A.
Managing computer Operating Systems
- B.
Managing the devices plugged into a computer system
- C.
Configuring the operating system of a computer
- D.
Issuing and configuring the IP address of a computer
Correct Answer
D. Issuing and configuring the IP address of a computerExplanation
DHCP is used for issuing and configuring the IP address of a computer. It is a network protocol that enables automatic assignment of IP addresses to devices on a network. DHCP eliminates the need for manual IP address configuration, making it easier to connect devices to a network. It ensures that each device on the network has a unique IP address and helps in efficient utilization of IP addresses by dynamically allocating them as needed. DHCP also provides additional configuration information such as subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server addresses to the devices.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What protocol does Outlook use to connect with Exchange 2003?
- A.
SMTP
- B.
MAPI
- C.
POP3
- D.
IMAP4
Correct Answer
B. MAPIExplanation
Outlook uses MAPI (Messaging Application Programming Interface) protocol to connect with Exchange 2003. MAPI is a Microsoft proprietary protocol that allows Outlook to communicate with Exchange servers and access email, contacts, calendar, and other data stored on the server. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for sending emails, POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3) is used for receiving emails, and IMAP4 (Internet Message Access Protocol version 4) is used for both sending and receiving emails, but in this case, MAPI is specifically mentioned as the protocol used by Outlook to connect with Exchange 2003.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What is a database table?
- A.
Set of data elements in a three dimensional model
- B.
Relational data calculated in response to a query
- C.
Set of data elements using a model of horizontal rows and vertical columns
- D.
A set of instructions for the database server to process
Correct Answer
C. Set of data elements using a model of horizontal rows and vertical columnsExplanation
A database table is a set of data elements organized using a model of horizontal rows and vertical columns. In this model, each row represents a record or instance of data, while each column represents a specific attribute or field. This structure allows for efficient storage, retrieval, and manipulation of data in a tabular format.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What are the three UNIX shells?
- A.
Korn, Bourne, Shorn
- B.
Bourne, Torn, K
- C.
Korn, CMD, Bourne
- D.
Korn, Bourne, C
Correct Answer
D. Korn, Bourne, CExplanation
The correct answer is Korn, Bourne, C. These are three different UNIX shells. The Korn shell (ksh) is a Unix shell developed by David Korn at Bell Labs in the early 1980s. The Bourne shell (sh) is the original Unix shell written by Stephen Bourne. The C shell (csh) is a Unix shell created by Bill Joy as an enhanced version of the Bourne shell. These shells provide different features and functionalities for interacting with the Unix operating system.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What UNIX command is used to change permissions?
- A.
Chown
- B.
Chgrp
- C.
Touch
- D.
Chmod
Correct Answer
D. ChmodExplanation
The UNIX command "chmod" is used to change permissions. This command allows users to modify the permissions (read, write, execute) of files and directories. By using the "chmod" command, users can specify different permissions for the owner, group, and other users. This command is essential for managing access rights and ensuring the security of files and directories in a UNIX system.Rate this question:
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- 38.
True or False: UNIX commands are case sensitive
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
UNIX commands are case sensitive, meaning that the commands must be entered in the correct case for them to be recognized and executed by the system. For example, "ls" and "LS" would be treated as two different commands in UNIX. The case sensitivity allows for greater precision and differentiation in command execution, ensuring that the system accurately interprets and carries out the desired actions.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What is the UNIX /lib directory for
- A.
Contains library files used for programming
- B.
Contains executable files most commonly used
- C.
Is the master directory and is the highest level folder
- D.
Contains common files used by all users
Correct Answer
A. Contains library files used for programmingExplanation
The /lib directory in UNIX is used to store library files that are essential for programming. These library files are shared resources that contain pre-compiled code and functions, which can be used by various programs and applications. By storing these files in the /lib directory, developers can easily access and link them to their programs, enhancing code reusability and reducing the need for redundant coding.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What command displays the contents of a file
- A.
Cat
- B.
Print
- C.
Ln
- D.
Echo
Correct Answer
A. CatExplanation
The cat command is used to display the contents of a file in the terminal. It reads the file and outputs its contents onto the screen. This command is commonly used to quickly view the contents of text files or to concatenate multiple files together and display the combined output.Rate this question:
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