Cyberspace Support Journeyman - CDC Z3DX5X Volume 1

1. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

Spectrum Operations

Ground Radar Systems

Cable and Antenna Systems

Radio Frequency Transmission

Section 001, Pg 1-4

Explanation

Section 001, Pg 1-4

2. What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force

Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force

Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force

Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force

Section 012, Pg 2-12

Explanation

Section 012, Pg 2-12

3. What unit installs, reconstitute and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?

644th Combat Communication Squadron

85th Engineering Installation Squadron

83rd Network Operations Squadron

4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing

Section 014, Pg 2-24

Explanation

Section 014, Pg 2-24

4. What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?

Manpower

Efficiency

Reduce Cost

Department of Defense 8570 mandate

The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By consolidating these centers, organizations can streamline their operations, reduce redundancies, and improve communication and collaboration. This leads to faster response times, better coordination of resources, and ultimately, more efficient service delivery.

Explanation

The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By consolidating these centers, organizations can streamline their operations, reduce redundancies, and improve communication and collaboration. This leads to faster response times, better coordination of resources, and ultimately, more efficient service delivery.

5. What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force and Marine Corps?

Title 10

Title 18

Title 32

Title 50

Section 009, Pg 2-1

Explanation

Section 009, Pg 2-1

6. What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?

A rewriting of the main point

A well-written summary

A postscript message

None of the above

Section 019, Pg 3-8

Explanation

Section 019, Pg 3-8

7. Records that are considered to be in draft format...

Can be altered and are not officially released.

Can't be altered, but are officially released.

Can't be altered and are officially signed.

Officially signed and officially released.

Section 021, Pg 3-11

Explanation

Section 021, Pg 3-11

8. What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?

Enhanced Technical Information Management System (ETIMS)

Office Automation System (OAS)

Decision Support System (DSS)

Training Business Area (TBA)

Section 025, Pg 4-15

Explanation

Section 025, Pg 4-15

9. Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

Unit Training Manager (UTM)

Base Functional Manager (BFM)

Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)

Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)

Section 003, Pg 1-10

Explanation

Section 003, Pg 1-10

10. What Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance that you can modify to fit the circumstances?

Directive

Non-Directive

Air Force Pamphlet (AFPAM)

Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)

Section 024, Pg 4-6

Explanation

Section 024, Pg 4-6

11. Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAM) AFI 36-2201, Air Force Training Program?

Core task

Duty Competency

Core Competency

Duty position task

Section 002, Pg 1-4

Explanation

Section 002, Pg 1-4

12. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?

Title 3

Title 8

Title 10

Title 18

Section 009, Pg 2-2

Explanation

Section 009, Pg 2-2

13. Which document is NOT considered an official government record?

Published doctrines

Geographical base maps

Photographs of a retreat ceremony

Library reference or museum exhibitions

Section 021, Pg 3-11

Explanation

Section 021, Pg 3-11

14. Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices?

Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO)

Operation and Maintenance TO

Methods and Procedures TO

General TO

Section 025, Pg 4-16

Explanation

Section 025, Pg 4-16

15. When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?

Title 10

Title 30

Title 50

Title 52

Section 010, Pg 2-5

Explanation

Section 010, Pg 2-5

16. What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

Cyberspace Vunerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System

Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System

Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System

Section 011, Pg 2-10

Explanation

Section 011, Pg 2-10

17. Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense?

The President

The Chief of Staff

The Vice President

The Deputy Secretary

Section 023, Pg 4-1

Explanation

Section 023, Pg 4-1

18. What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?

National Security Policy

National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace

Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative

National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations

Section 010, Pg 2-4

Explanation

Section 010, Pg 2-4

19. What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?

Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF)

Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF)

Unit Type Codes (UTC)

Stratum Levels (SL)

Section 017, Pg 2-30

Explanation

Section 017, Pg 2-30

20. What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?

Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS)

On-the-Job Training (OJT) Program

Occupational Analysis Program

Section 005, Pg 1-12

Explanation

Section 005, Pg 1-12

21. What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

Coding

Positioning

Tempo Bands

Unit Type Code

Section 017, Pg 2-30

Explanation

Section 017, Pg 2-30

22. Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?

Unit Training Manager (UTM)

Base Functional Manager (BFM)

Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)

Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)

Section 003, Pg 1-10

Explanation

Section 003, Pg 1-10

23. The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a...

Combined Force Air and Space Component Commander (CFAAC)

Joint Force Air and Space Component Commander (JFACC)

Component Numbered Air Force (CNAF)

Joint Force Commander (JFC)

Section 017, Pg 2-30

Explanation

Section 017, Pg 2-30

24. Who may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data?

Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA)

Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO)

Library Custodian

Any User

Section 025, Pg 4-16

Explanation

Section 025, Pg 4-16

25. Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?

Defense Industrial Base (DIB)

Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)

National Reconnaissance Office (NRO)

Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)

Section 013, Pg 2-17

Explanation

Section 013, Pg 2-17

26. Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

Unit Training Manager (UTM)

Base Functional Manager (BFM)

Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)

Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)

Section 003, Pg 1-10

Explanation

Section 003, Pg 1-10

27. What automated information system manages the entire life-cycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?

Remedy

Training Business Area

Telephone Management System

Integrated Maintenance Data System

Section 008, Pg 1-17

Explanation

Section 008, Pg 1-17

28. What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?

Subordinate unified command and geographical command

Unified command and subordinate unified command

Functional command and geographical command

Unified command and functional command

Section 016, Pg 2-30

Explanation

Section 016, Pg 2-30

29. What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?

2009

2010

2011

2012

Section 015, Pg 2-26

Explanation

Section 015, Pg 2-26

30. Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?

Trend Analysis

Quality System

Quality Assessments

Managerial Assessments

Section 006, Pg 1-13

Explanation

Section 006, Pg 1-13

31. Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

Technical Evaluation

Personnel Evaluation

Managerial Evaluation

Standard Evaluation

Section 006, Pg 1-13

Explanation

Section 006, Pg 1-13

32. What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion?

Active and Reactive

Evasive and Decisive

Subversive and Divisive

Offensive and Defensive

Section 012, Pg 2-13

Explanation

Section 012, Pg 2-13

33. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) career field is 3D1X2?

Spectrum Operations

Ground Radar Systems

Cable and Antenna Systems

Cyber Transport

Section 001, Pg 1-3

Explanation

Section 001, Pg 1-3

34. Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

Quality Assessments

Quality Assurance

Quality System

Trend Analysis

Section 006, Pg 1-13

Explanation

Section 006, Pg 1-13

35. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-site, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

Spectrum Operations

Ground Radar Systems

Cable and Antenna Systems

Radio Frequency Transmission

Section 001, Pg 1-4

Explanation

Section 001, Pg 1-4

36. Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00-5-1?

Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures

Resources required to manage and use TOs

Infrastructure to manage and use TOs

Training to manage and use TOs

Section 025, Pg 4-15

Explanation

Section 025, Pg 4-15

37. What directive publications provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws?

Air Force Instructions (AFI)

Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD)

Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD)

Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM)

Section 24, Pg 4-9

Explanation

Section 24, Pg 4-9

38. What cyberspace weapons system is the top-level boundary and entry point in the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?

Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System

Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System

Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

Section 011, Pg 2-8

Explanation

Section 011, Pg 2-8

39. Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?

Misuse of Position

Covered Relationship

Personal Conflict of Interest

None, this is not an example of an unethical situation

Section 10, Pg 2-6

Explanation

Section 10, Pg 2-6

40. Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?

Service Transition

Service Strategy

Service Contact

Service Design

Section 018, Pg 3-1

Explanation

Section 018, Pg 3-1

41. What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?

Continual Service Improvement

Service Transition

Service Strategy

Service Design

Section 019, Pg 3-3

Explanation

Section 019, Pg 3-3

42. Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) defines an "official government record?"

AFI 33-321

AFI 33-322

AFI 33-329

AFI 33-332

Section 021, Pg 3-11

Explanation

Section 021, Pg 3-11

43. What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)?

Air Force Instructions (AFI)

Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)

Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD)

Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM)

Section 024, Pg 4-8

Explanation

Section 024, Pg 4-8

44. What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution within an organization?

Library Custodian

Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO)

Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA)

Non-Commissioned Office in Charge (NCOIC)

Section 025, Pg 4-15

Explanation

Section 025, Pg 4-15

45. Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM)

Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) in conjunction with the SME

MFM in conjunction with the Subject Matter Expert (SME)

AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM

Section 004, Pg 1-11

Explanation

Section 004, Pg 1-11

46. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) career field is 3D1X7?

Spectrum Operations

Ground Radar Systems

Cable and Antenna Systems

Radio Frequency Transmission

Section 001, Pg 1-4

Explanation

Section 001, Pg 1-4

47. How many rules are there for effective communications via e-mail?

Two

Four

Six

Eight

Section 019, Pg 3-7

Explanation

Section 019, Pg 3-7

48. What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?

Management Inspection (MI)

Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI)

Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI)

Commander's Inspection Program (CCIP)

Section 007, Pg 1-15

Explanation

Section 007, Pg 1-15

49. Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?

Modify local training

Allocate manpower

Develop a Career Development Course (CDC)

Assist the unit training manager in course development

Section 004, Pg 1-11

Explanation

Section 004, Pg 1-11

50. Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?

Article 32

Article 40

Article 92

Article 100

Section 019, Pg 3-4

Explanation

Section 019, Pg 3-4

51. What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?

National Military Cyberspace Strategy

National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace

National Military Strategy for Cyberspace

National Military Strategy to Secure Cyberspace

Section 10, Pg 2-4

Explanation

Section 10, Pg 2-4

52. What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication is not subject to frequent change?

AF Doctrine

AF Handbook (AFH)

AF Pamphlet (AFPAM)

AF Visual Aid (AFVA)

Section 024, Pg 4-8

Explanation

Section 024, Pg 4-8

53. What joint publications (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications?

JP 6-0, Joint Communications System

JP 5-0, Joint Communications System

JP 5-0, Joint Operation Planning

JP 6-0, Joint Operations Series

Section 023, Pg 4-5

Explanation

Section 023, Pg 4-5

54. What directive publication prescribes the mission, area of responsibility, organization and relationships of MAJCOMs, FOAs and DRUs with their respective units?

Air Force Instructions (AFI)

Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD)

Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD)

Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM)

Section 24, Pg 4-9

Explanation

Section 24, Pg 4-9

55. Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

Counterintelligence (CI)

Operation Security (OPSEC)

Military Deception (MILDEC)

Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR)

Section 012, Pg 2-14

Explanation

Section 012, Pg 2-14

56. What type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships and authority?

Direct Oversight Directives

Secretary Policy memo

Directive-Type memo

Chartering Directives

Section 023, Pg 4-2

Explanation

Section 023, Pg 4-2

57. How many different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI) are there?

One

Two

Three

Four

Section 023, Pg 4-3

Explanation

Section 023, Pg 4-3

58. Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)

Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)

Unit Training Manager (UTM)

Base Functional Manager (BFM)

Section 003, Pg 1-10

Explanation

Section 003, Pg 1-10

59. What entity assigns numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub-subject groups?

Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

Deputy Secretary of Defense and authorized signers

Chief, Manuals Division (MD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services (WHS)

Chief, Directives Division (DD), under the Director, Washington Headquarters Services

Section 023, Pg 4-4

Explanation

Section 023, Pg 4-4

60. The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to...

Safeguard information in an enterprise-wide environment.

Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.

Improve the effectiveness of the mission.

Improve the efficiency of the mission.

Section 019, Pg 3-3

Explanation

Section 019, Pg 3-3

61. Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?

National Security Policy

National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace

Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative

National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations

Section 010, Pg 2-4

Explanation

Section 010, Pg 2-4

62. What cyberspace weapons system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)?

Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System

Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System

Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

Section 011, Pg 2-8

Explanation

Section 011, Pg 2-8

63. What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, web access and storage?

Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)

Area Processing Center (APC)

Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)

Network Operations Security Center (NOSC)

Section 015, Pg 2-26

Explanation

Section 015, Pg 2-26

64. How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a Sharepoint Server?

One

Two

Three

Four

Section 020, Pg 3-8

Explanation

Section 020, Pg 3-8

65. What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)

Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)

Unit Training Manager (UTM)

Base Functional Manager (BFM)

Section 003, Pg 1-10

Explanation

Section 003, Pg 1-10

66. What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?

Strategic Considerations

Military Strategic Framework

Implementation and Assessment

Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance

Section 013, Pg 2-16

Explanation

Section 013, Pg 2-16

67. Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?

Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)

Area Processing Center (APC)

Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)

Network Operations Security Center (NOSC)

Section 015, Pg 2-26

Explanation

Section 015, Pg 2-26

68. What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

Conduct climate training surveys

Develop Career Development Courses

Review the occupational analysis report

Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

Section 004, Pg 1-11

Explanation

Section 004, Pg 1-11

69. Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

Defense Standardization Program (DSP)

Telecommunication Industry Association (TIA)

Information and Communications Technology (ICT)

Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA)

Section 026, Pg 4-18

Explanation

Section 026, Pg 4-18

70. An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as

Misuse of position.

Covered relationships.

Non-public information.

Personal conflict of interest.

Section 10, Pg 2-6

Explanation

Section 10, Pg 2-6

71. What Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems shall receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher awareness?

DODD 8140.01

DODD 5515.01

DODD 8220.01

DODD 8570.01

Section 023, Pg 4-2

Explanation

Section 023, Pg 4-2

72. Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?

Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System

Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System

Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

Section 011, Pg 2-8

Explanation

Section 011, Pg 2-8

73. What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?

Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System

Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System

Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

Section 011, Pg 2-8

Explanation

Section 011, Pg 2-8

74. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) career field is 3D1X3?

Spectrum Operations

Ground Radar Systems

Cable and Antenna Systems

Radio Frequency Transmission

Section 001, Pg 1-4

Explanation

Section 001, Pg 1-4

75. Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?

Base Records Manager

Chief of Office of Records

Command Records Manager

Functional Area Records Manager

Section 022, Pg 3-14

Explanation

Section 022, Pg 3-14

76. What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?

Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System

Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System

Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

Section 011, Pg 2-9

Explanation

Section 011, Pg 2-9

77. What publications are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) that contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern, and/or regulate actions within specified areas of responsibility by Air Force activities?

Air Force Instructions (AFI)

Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)

Air Force Mission Directive (AFMD)

Air Force Policy Memorandum (AFPM)

Section 024, Pg 4-8

Explanation

Section 024, Pg 4-8

78. Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?

Base Records Manager

Chief of Office of Records

Command Records Manager

Functional Area Records Manager

Section 022, Pg 3-13

Explanation

Section 022, Pg 3-13

79. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) career field is 3D1X4?

Spectrum Operations

Ground Radar Systems

Cable and Antenna Systems

Radio Frequency Transmission

Section 001, Pg 1-4

Explanation

Section 001, Pg 1-4

80. Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas and records training?

Base Records Manager

Chief of Office of Records

Command Records Manager

Functional Area Records Manager

Section 022, Pg 3-13

Explanation

Section 022, Pg 3-13

81. Who is appointed at each base-level unit principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?

Base Records Manager

Chief of Office of Records

Command Records Manager

Functional Area Records Manager

Section 022, Pg 3-14

Explanation

Section 022, Pg 3-14

Cyberspace Support Journeyman - CDC Z3dx5x Volume 1

1. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

3. What unit installs, reconstitute and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?

4. What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?

5. What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force and Marine Corps?

6. What tests your understanding of the original message and your ability to re-state its main purpose?

7. Records that are considered to be in draft format...

8. What system manages the distribution and printing of paper technical orders?

9. Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

10. What Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance that you can modify to fit the circumstances?

11. Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAM) AFI 36-2201, Air Force Training Program?

12. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?

13. Which document is NOT considered an official government record?

14. Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator beginning with "31" and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices?

15. When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?

16. What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

17. Who is the second-highest ranking official in the Department of Defense?

18. What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?

19. What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?

20. What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?

21. What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

22. Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?

23. The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a...

24. Who may post an update to a technical order assuming they are trained and authorized access to the data?

25. Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?

26. Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

27. What automated information system manages the entire life-cycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?

28. What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?

29. What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?

30. Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?

31. Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

32. What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion?

33. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) career field is 3D1X2?

34. Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

35. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-site, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

36. Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00-5-1?

37. What directive publications provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Department of Defense, Air Force, or higher departmental policies and/or laws?

38. What cyberspace weapons system is the top-level boundary and entry point in the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?

39. Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?

40. Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?

41. What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?

42. Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) defines an "official government record?"

43. What directive publications expire one year after their effective date or when superseded by an Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)?

44. What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution within an organization?

45. Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

46. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) career field is 3D1X7?

47. How many rules are there for effective communications via e-mail?

48. What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?

49. Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?

50. Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?

51. What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?

52. What type of non-directive Air Force (AF) publication is not subject to frequent change?

53. What joint publications (JP) is the keystone document for the communications-system series of publications?

54. What directive publication prescribes the mission, area of responsibility, organization and relationships of MAJCOMs, FOAs and DRUs with their respective units?

55. Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

56. What type of Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes Office of the Secretary of Defense (OSD) component heads and other agencies official mission, responsibilities, function, relationships and authority?

57. How many different types of Department of Defense Instructions (DODI) are there?

58. Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

59. What entity assigns numbers to Department of Defense (DOD) issuances based on the established subject groups and sub-subject groups?

60. The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to...

61. Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?

62. What cyberspace weapons system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)?

63. What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, web access and storage?

64. How many workflow capabilities are available to you on a Sharepoint Server?

65. What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

66. What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?

67. Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?

68. What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

69. Who develops standards for interconnect, passive and electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?

70. An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as

71. What Department of Defense Directive (DODD) establishes that all authorized users of Department of Defense (DOD) information systems shall receive initial information assurance (IA) awareness orientation as a condition of access and thereafter must complete annual IA refresher awareness?

72. Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?

73. What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?

74. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) career field is 3D1X3?

75. Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?

76. What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?

77. What publications are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) that contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern, and/or regulate actions within specified areas of responsibility by Air Force activities?