CDC Z3dx7x Vol. 1 Cyberspace Management And Operations

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  • 1/100 Questions

    A modem is a device that

    • A. transmits on every link attached to it.
    • B. modulates and demodulates data signals.
    • C. uses algorithms to determine optimal path to end destination.
    • D. operates on the Network layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model.
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About This Quiz

This CDC Z3DX7X VOL. 1 quiz focuses on Cyberspace Management and Operations within the Air Force. It assesses knowledge on AFSC requirements, skill level advancements, and key operational functions. Essential for personnel aiming to enhance their expertise in Air Force cyberspace operations.

CDC Z3dx7x Vol. 1 Cyberspace Management And Operations - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which operations center monitors and controls Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity to provide situational awareness, and report suspicious/malicious activity?

    • A. Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC).

    • B. Base Defense Operations Center.

    • C. 624th Operations Center.

    • D. Air Operations Center.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC).
    Explanation
    The Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC) is responsible for monitoring and controlling Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity. It provides situational awareness by keeping a close eye on network activity and reports any suspicious or malicious activity. This center plays a crucial role in maintaining the security of the Air Force network and ensuring that any potential threats are quickly identified and addressed.

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  • 3. 

    Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user?

    • A. Token.

    • B. Biometrics.

    • C. Multifactor.

    • D. Knowledge-based.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Biometrics.
    Explanation
    Biometrics is the correct answer because it refers to the identity management process that uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user. Biometrics involves the measurement and analysis of unique physical or behavioral characteristics, such as fingerprints, to verify a person's identity. By scanning and comparing fingerprints, biometric systems can accurately authenticate individuals and provide secure access to systems or facilities. Tokens, multifactor, and knowledge-based processes do not specifically rely on fingerprints for authentication.

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  • 4. 

    Which air force specialty code (afsc) requires members to pass the air force electronic data processing test?

    • Computer Systems Programming

    • Cyber systems operations

    • Cyber transport systems

    • Cyber surety

    Correct Answer
    A. Computer Systems Programming
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Computer Systems Programming. This specialty code requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test because it involves working with computer systems and programming. This test ensures that individuals have the necessary knowledge and skills to effectively perform their duties in this field.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?

    • Communications Focal Point.

    • Unit Deployment Monitor.

    • Enterprise Service Desk.

    • Quality Assurance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Communications Focal Point.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Communications Focal Point. This function is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel, but the specific Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) may vary depending on the unit's mission. This suggests that while the primary responsibility lies with Client Systems personnel, other AFSCs may also be involved in the Communications Focal Point function, depending on the specific needs and requirements of the unit.

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  • 6. 

    Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

    • A. Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare.

    • . Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integral to the activity and mission.

    • C. Create an Air Force in which every leader, Airman and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their on- and off-duty activities.

    • D. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.
  • 7. 

    Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on

    • A. AF Form 55.

    • B. AF Form 971.

    • C. AF Form 623A.

    • D. AF Form 623 A and AF Form 55.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. AF Form 55.
    Explanation
    Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on AF Form 55. This form is specifically designed for documenting individual training records, including safety training. It serves as a comprehensive record of an individual's completed training, allowing supervisors to track and verify that their subordinates have completed the required safety training. By using AF Form 55, supervisors can ensure that all necessary safety training is completed and properly documented, promoting a safe and compliant work environment.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis?

    • A. Job Safety Training (JST).

    • B. Job Hazard Analysis (JHA).

    • C. Task Hazard Analysis (THA).

    • D. Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA).

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Job Safety Training (JST).
    Explanation
    The term "Job Safety Training (JST)" is not a term for Job Safety Analysis. Job Safety Analysis (JSA) is a systematic process that identifies potential hazards in a job or task, determines the best way to perform the job safely, and provides training to workers to ensure their safety. On the other hand, Job Safety Training (JST) refers specifically to the training aspect of job safety, rather than the analysis and identification of hazards. Therefore, JST is not a term that is synonymous with Job Safety Analysis.

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  • 9. 

    When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called

    • A. misuse of position.

    • B. a covered relationships.

    • C. non-public information.

    • D. personal conflict of interest.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. misuse of position.
    Explanation
    When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain, it is considered as a misuse of position. This means that the individual is taking advantage of their authority or influence for their own personal benefit, rather than acting in the best interest of the organization or the people they serve. This behavior is unethical and can lead to various consequences, including loss of trust, legal issues, and damage to one's reputation.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders?

    • A. Making authorized transactions.

    • B. Reconciling transactions.

    • C. Logging transactions.

    • D. Funds accountability.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Funds accountability.
    Explanation
    The responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders includes making authorized transactions, reconciling transactions, and logging transactions. However, funds accountability is not a responsibility of GPC cardholders. This responsibility falls on the government agency or organization that issues and manages the GPC program. GPC cardholders are responsible for ensuring that their transactions are authorized, accurately reconciling and logging them, but they are not directly accountable for the funds used in these transactions.

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  • 11. 

    What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards?

    • A. 1 October - 30 September.

    • B. 1 January - 31 December.

    • C. 1 April - 31 March.

    • D. 1 July - 30 June.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 1 October - 30 September.
    Explanation
    The inclusive dates for the Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards are from 1 October to 30 September. This means that the awards cover a one-year period starting on 1 October and ending on 30 September of the following year. This time frame allows for the recognition and evaluation of achievements and contributions made by individuals or organizations within the specified year.

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  • 12. 

    What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?

    • A. Monitor.

    • B. Scanner.

    • C. Keyboard.

    • D. Graphics card.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Keyboard.
    Explanation
    A keyboard is a device that consists of a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board. These switches, known as key switches, are responsible for registering the input when a key is pressed. Therefore, the correct answer is c. Keyboard.

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  • 13. 

    Who must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service?

    • A. The customer.

    • B. Security Manager.

    • C. National Security Agency.

    • D. Communications Squadron.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. The customer.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. The customer. In order to connect to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service, it is the responsibility of the customer to provide the encryption devices. This means that the customer is responsible for ensuring the security and encryption of their own data when using the service. The Security Manager, National Security Agency, and Communications Squadron may have roles in overseeing and managing the service, but the actual provision of encryption devices falls on the customer.

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  • 14. 

    In a connection-oriented protocol, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), what must happen before data is transmitted between clients?

    • A. Authorization.

    • B. Connection establishment.

    • C. Establishment of a clear channel.

    • C. Establishment of a clear channel.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Connection establishment.
    Explanation
    Before data is transmitted between clients in a connection-oriented protocol like TCP, the first step that must occur is the establishment of a connection. This involves a handshake process between the client and the server, where they exchange control messages to establish a reliable connection. Once the connection is established, data can be transmitted between the clients. Authorization refers to the process of verifying the identity and permissions of the clients, which may happen after the connection is established. The establishment of a clear channel is not a term commonly used in the context of TCP.

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  • 15. 

    What regulates how much information passes over a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement?

    • A. Data receive message.

    • B. Sliding Window.

    • C. Buffer.

    • D. Socket.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Sliding Window.
    Explanation
    The sliding window is a mechanism that regulates the amount of data that can be sent over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement. It allows the sender to transmit a certain number of packets without waiting for an acknowledgement, improving efficiency and reducing overhead. The size of the sliding window can be adjusted dynamically based on network conditions, ensuring optimal data transfer.

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  • 16. 

    Which common port contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) servers and proxies?

    • A. Port 80.

    • B. Port 110.

    • C. Port 443.

    • D. Port 8080.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Port 8080.
    Explanation
    Port 8080 is commonly used for HTTP servers and proxies. While Port 80 is the standard port for HTTP, Port 8080 is often used as an alternative to allow multiple HTTP servers or proxies to run on the same machine. Port 110 is used for the POP3 mail protocol, and Port 443 is used for HTTPS secure web browsing. Thus, the correct answer is d. Port 8080.

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  • 17. 

    What kind of network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area?

    • A. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).

    • B. Virtual Private Network (VPN).

    • C. Local Area Network (LAN).

    • D. Wide Area Network (WAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Local Area Network (LAN).
    Explanation
    A Local Area Network (LAN) is a network that connects computers and devices within a small geographic area, such as a home, office, or school. LANs typically use Ethernet cables or Wi-Fi to connect the devices to a central hub or router, allowing them to share resources and communicate with each other. In this case, since the group of computers and associated devices share a common communications line within a small geographic area, it is most likely a LAN.

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  • 18. 

    What kind of network interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic area or region like a city?

    • A. Local Area Network (LAN).

    • B. Wide Area Network (WAN).

    • C. Virtual Private Network (VPN).

    • D. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).
    Explanation
    A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is a type of network that interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic area or region like a city. It covers a larger area than a Local Area Network (LAN) but is smaller than a Wide Area Network (WAN). MANs are typically used by organizations or institutions to connect multiple LANs within a city or metropolitan area, allowing for efficient communication and sharing of resources.

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  • 19. 

    What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?

    • A. Bus.

    • B. Star.

    • C. Ring.

    • D. Hybrid.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Star.
    Explanation
    A star topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component, which is usually a switch or a hub. In this topology, all communication between computers goes through the central component, making it easier to manage and troubleshoot the network. Each computer has its own dedicated connection to the central component, providing high-speed and reliable communication.

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  • 20. 

    Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?

    • A. 2.

    • B. 3.

    • C. 4.

    • D. 5.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 2.
    Explanation
    Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between two nodes. It determines the optimal route based on various factors such as network congestion, link quality, and shortest distance. This allows for efficient and flexible routing in networks, as the routing decisions can be dynamically adjusted based on real-time conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is a. 2.

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  • 21. 

    What is the most common wireless networking standard?

    • A. 802.3.

    • B. 802.9.

    • C. 802.11.

    • D. 802.14

    Correct Answer
    A. C. 802.11.
    Explanation
    The most common wireless networking standard is 802.11. This standard is commonly known as Wi-Fi and is used for wireless local area networks (WLANs). It provides high-speed wireless connectivity and is widely used in homes, offices, and public spaces. The other options, 802.3, 802.9, and 802.14, are not wireless networking standards but rather standards for wired Ethernet networks, broadband services, and cable modems respectively.

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  • 22. 

    Within the information environment what term describes the advantage, or imbalance, in one’s favor?

    • A. Information Management.

    • B. Network-centric warfare.

    • C. Information Superiority.

    • D. Information Operations.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Information Superiority.
    Explanation
    Information superiority refers to the advantage or imbalance in one's favor within the information environment. It means having access to and control over superior information, enabling better decision-making and the ability to exploit vulnerabilities in an adversary's information systems. This term emphasizes the importance of acquiring, processing, and disseminating accurate and timely information to gain a competitive edge in various domains, including military operations, business, and politics.

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  • 23. 

    Which Cyberspace Defense Weapon System sub-discipline determines the extent of intrusions, develops courses of action required to mitigate threats, and determines and executes response actions?

    • A. Computer Forensics.

    • B. Incident Prevention.

    • C. Incident Detection.

    • D. Incident Response.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Incident Response.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. Incident Response. Incident response is a sub-discipline of Cyberspace Defense Weapon System that involves determining the extent of intrusions, developing courses of action to mitigate threats, and executing response actions. This involves identifying and containing the incident, investigating the cause, and implementing measures to prevent future incidents. Computer forensics focuses on collecting and analyzing digital evidence, incident prevention involves implementing measures to prevent incidents, and incident detection involves identifying and alerting about potential incidents.

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  • 24. 

    Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack?

    • A. Virus.

    • B. Spam.

    • C. Spyware.

    • D. Phishing.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Spam.
    Explanation
    Spam is considered more of an annoyance than an attack because it involves the sending of unsolicited and unwanted emails or messages, usually for advertising purposes. While spam can be disruptive and time-consuming, it typically does not pose a direct threat to the security or integrity of a system or network. In contrast, virus, spyware, and phishing are all forms of malicious attacks that can cause significant harm by infecting systems, stealing sensitive information, or tricking users into revealing confidential data.

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  • 25. 

    Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program?

    • A. Patches.

    • B. Antivirus.

    • C. Software removal.

    • D. Vulnerability scanner.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Patches.
    Explanation
    Patches are small pieces of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program. They are used to fix vulnerabilities and improve the security and functionality of the software. Patches are typically released by the software vendor and can be applied to the existing software installation to update it with the necessary fixes. They help to prevent potential exploits or attacks that could be launched through the vulnerabilities in the original code.

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  • 26. 

    Which identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user?

    • A. Token.

    • B. Biometrics.

    • C. Multifactor.

    • D. Knowledge-based.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Knowledge-based.
    Explanation
    The knowledge-based identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user. This involves the user providing a unique password that only they know, which is then verified by the system to grant access. This method is commonly used in various systems and platforms to ensure the security and privacy of user accounts.

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  • 27. 

    Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized 

    • At major command functional managers.

    • At Headquarters Air Force (HAF).

    • At the Air Force Personnel Center.

    • With career field managers.

    Correct Answer
    A. At Headquarters Air Force (HAF).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is at Headquarters Air Force (HAF). This means that the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming is centralized at the HAF. This suggests that the HAF is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the manpower planning and programming efforts of the Air Force.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function?

    • Program Element Code (PEC).

    • Special Experience Identifier (SEI).

    • Authorization Change Request (ACR).

    • Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).

    Correct Answer
    A. Program Element Code (PEC).
    Explanation
    Program Element Code (PEC) is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function. A PEC is a unique code assigned to each program element within the Department of Defense (DoD) budgeting system. It helps in identifying and tracking the costs associated with specific elements of a program. By using PECs, the DoD can effectively allocate resources, monitor expenditures, and evaluate the performance of weapon systems or support functions. Therefore, PEC is the correct answer in this context.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)?

    • Construct career paths.

    • Manage skill-level training requirements.

    • C. Establish requirements for entry into the career field.

    • D. Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).
    Explanation
    The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is responsible for several tasks, including constructing career paths, managing skill-level training requirements, and establishing requirements for entry into the career field. However, distributing personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM) is not a responsibility of the AFCFM. This task is typically handled by the personnel or assignment offices within the MAJCOM itself.

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  • 30. 

    How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?

    • A. 2.

    • B. 4.

    • C. 6.

    • D. 8.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. 6.
    Explanation
    Operational Risk Management (ORM) involves a systematic approach to identify, assess, and mitigate risks in an organization's operations. The correct answer is c. 6, which implies that there are six steps in ORM. These steps typically include risk identification, risk assessment, risk mitigation, risk monitoring, risk reporting, and risk review. Each step plays a crucial role in managing operational risks effectively and ensuring the organization's smooth functioning.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following is information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00–5–1?

    • A. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.

    • B. Resources required to manage and use TOs.

    • C. Infrastructure to manage and use TOs.

    • D. Training to manage and use TOs.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.
    Explanation
    The information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1 is the Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.

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  • 32. 

    What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems?

    • A. Air Force Network Operating Instructions (AFNOI).

    • B. Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).

    • C. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).

    • D. Military only.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).
    Explanation
    Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) systems refer to software or hardware products that are readily available in the commercial market and can be easily integrated into various systems. These systems are commonly understood because they are widely used and familiar to users. They are also maintainable because updates and support are provided by the vendors. Additionally, COTS systems are defendable because they have been thoroughly tested and validated by the commercial market. Therefore, COTS systems provide a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain across all federal and non-federal systems.

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  • 33. 

    Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites?

    • A. Wing Commander.

    • B. Numbered Air Force Commander.

    • C. Communications Squadron Commander.

    • D. Cyber Readiness Squadron Commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Wing Commander.
    Explanation
    The Wing Commander is responsible for appointing Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites. This individual holds the authority to select and assign personnel to these roles, ensuring that the content on the websites is managed and published effectively. The Wing Commander's decision plays a crucial role in determining the individuals who will be responsible for maintaining and updating the content on these platforms.

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  • 34. 

    Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?

    • A. Military Personnel (MILPERS).

    • B. Military Construction (MILCON).

    • C. Operation and Maintenance (O&M).

    • D. Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E).

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Military Construction (MILCON).
    Explanation
    Military Construction (MILCON) funds cover the cost of relocating facilities. MILCON funds are allocated for the construction, renovation, and improvement of military facilities, including the relocation of existing facilities to new locations. This type of fund is specifically designated for infrastructure projects related to military construction and is not intended for other purposes such as personnel costs or operational maintenance.

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  • 35. 

    What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions?

    • A. $100,000.

    • B. $250,000.

    • C. $750,000.

    • D. $1,000,000.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. $750,000.
    Explanation
    Under normal conditions, Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover a maximum amount of $750,000 for minor construction projects.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented?

    • A. Wing.

    • B. Group.

    • C. Squadron.

    • D. major command.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Wing.
    Explanation
    The highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented is the Wing. Quarterly awards are typically given at the wing level, which is a higher level than the group, squadron, and major command.

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  • 37. 

    The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to

    • A. 53.

    • B. 63.

    • C. 73.

    • D. 83.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. 63.
    Explanation
    FireWire is a high-speed data transfer technology that allows multiple devices to be connected to a single bus. The maximum number of devices that a FireWire bus can support is determined by the number of unique addresses available on the bus. In the case of FireWire, there are 64 unique addresses available, with one address reserved for the bus itself. Therefore, the maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to 63.

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  • 38. 

    Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure?

    • A. Norton Utilities.

    • B. Acrobat Reader.

    • C. Virus Scan.

    • D. WinZip.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Norton Utilities.
    Explanation
    Norton Utilities is the correct answer because it is a software application that provides tools specifically designed to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure. It offers features such as file recovery, disk optimization, and system diagnostics, which can help users retrieve lost data and prevent computer crashes or failures. Acrobat Reader, Virus Scan, and WinZip do not offer these specific tools for file recovery and computer protection.

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  • 39. 

    The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?

    • A. High Level Data Link Control (HDLC) and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC).

    • B. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).

    • C. Distance Vector and Link State.

    • D. RS–232 and RS–530.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). The OSI Data Link Layer is divided into these two sublayers to handle different functions. The Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer provides error control, flow control, and framing for data transmission. The Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer is responsible for controlling access to the physical media and managing the transmission of data packets. These sublayers work together to ensure reliable and efficient data communication within a network.

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  • 40. 

    What is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the DoD called?

    • A. Defense Intelligence Agency.

    • B. Defense Information Systems Agency.

    • C. Defense Information Systems Network.

    • D. Department of Defense Information Networks.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Defense Information Systems Agency.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Defense Information Systems Agency. The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the Department of Defense (DoD). DISA provides secure and reliable communications and IT services to support military operations and decision-making. They manage and operate the DoD's global information infrastructure, including computer networks and telecommunications systems.

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  • 41. 

    What class uses a range of 1–126 in the first octet of an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)?

    • A. Class A.

    • B. Class B.

    • C. Class C.

    • D. Class D.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Class A.
    Explanation
    Class A uses a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address. This means that the first octet of a Class A address can have any value from 1 to 126, allowing for a large number of unique network addresses. Class A addresses are typically used by large organizations or internet service providers as they provide a large number of host addresses.

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  • 42. 

    The range of well-known port numbers is

    • A.1024 to 49151.

    • B. 49152 to 65535.

    • C. 0 to 1023.

    • D. 0 to 1024.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. 0 to 1023.
    Explanation
    The well-known port numbers range from 0 to 1023. Well-known ports are assigned to specific services or protocols by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA). These ports are commonly used for popular services such as HTTP (port 80), FTP (port 21), and SSH (port 22). Ports in this range are reserved for these widely recognized services, and many operating systems and network applications have default configurations that utilize these ports.

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  • 43. 

    What are the three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations?

    • A. Policy, Security, Authority.

    • B. Authority, Security, Law.

    • C. Law, Authority, Policy.

    • D. Security, Policy, Law.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. Law, Authority, Policy.
    Explanation
    The three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations are law, authority, and policy. Law refers to the legal framework and regulations that govern cyberspace operations, ensuring that activities are conducted within the boundaries of the law. Authority relates to the allocation of responsibilities and decision-making power within cyberspace operations, ensuring that there is proper oversight and accountability. Policy refers to the guidelines and principles that guide the actions and behaviors within cyberspace operations, ensuring that operations are conducted in a consistent and coherent manner.

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  • 44. 

    What is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects, on either our behalf or the adversary’s, and maximizing cyberspace superiority?

    • A. Careful planning.

    • B. Reactive operations.

    • C. Immediate response.

    • D. Information Operations.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Careful planning.
    Explanation
    Careful planning is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects and maximizing cyberspace superiority because it allows for thoughtful consideration of potential risks and outcomes. By carefully planning, one can anticipate and address potential vulnerabilities, threats, and consequences before they occur. This proactive approach helps to minimize the likelihood of unintended or undesirable effects and ensures that actions taken are strategic and well-informed. Careful planning also allows for the allocation of resources, coordination of efforts, and identification of opportunities to gain an advantage over adversaries in the cyberspace domain.

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  • 45. 

    Which Electronic Warfare capability uses jamming to reduce the adversary’s use of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS)?

    • A. Electronic attack.

    • B. Electronic protection.

    • C. Network Exploitation.

    • D. Electronic warfare support.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Electronic attack.
    Explanation
    Electronic attack is the correct answer because it involves the use of jamming techniques to disrupt or degrade the adversary's ability to use the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS). By emitting powerful signals or noise, electronic attack can interfere with enemy communications, radar systems, or other electronic devices, thereby reducing their effectiveness and limiting their ability to operate within the EMS. This capability is an essential component of electronic warfare, which aims to gain a tactical advantage by exploiting, deceiving, or denying the enemy's use of the electromagnetic spectrum.

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  • 46. 

    What system monitoring concept uses long trend analysis of network devices and is performed in order to identify future constraints with results incorporated into future technical baselines?

    • A. Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems.

    • B. End-to-End Performance Monitoring.

    • C. Vulnerability scanners.

    • D. Capacity Planning.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Capacity Planning.
    Explanation
    Capacity planning is a system monitoring concept that involves analyzing long-term trends of network devices. This analysis helps identify potential future constraints and allows the incorporation of these results into future technical baselines. It helps organizations anticipate and prepare for future capacity needs, ensuring that the network can handle the expected workload without any performance issues. Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems, End-to-End Performance Monitoring, and Vulnerability scanners are not directly related to long trend analysis and future constraint identification.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7 skill level?

    • Minimum rank of SSgt

    • 6 months OJT

    • Completion of AFSC specific requirements

    • Completion of air education and training command (AETC) supplemental training courses

    Correct Answer
    A. Completion of air education and training command (AETC) supplemental training courses
    Explanation
    The completion of air education and training command (AETC) supplemental training courses is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7 skill level. The other options listed, such as minimum rank of SSgt, 6 months OJT, and completion of AFSC specific requirements, are all mandatory requirements for advancement.

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  • 48. 

    Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?

    • A. Communications Focal Point.

    • B. Flight Commander/Chief.

    • C. Production Controller.

    • D. Commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Flight Commander/Chief.
    Explanation
    The Flight Commander/Chief is responsible for establishing the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished. They oversee the operations and maintenance of the flight, including scheduling and conducting inspections. They have the authority to enforce compliance with inspection procedures and ensure that all necessary inspections are completed on time. The Flight Commander/Chief plays a crucial role in maintaining the safety and readiness of the flight operations.

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  • 49. 

    Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within how many days of new equipment/system acceptance?

    • A. 30.

    • B. 60.

    • C. 90.

    • D. 120.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. 120.
    Explanation
    Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within 120 days of new equipment/system acceptance. This means that within 120 days of accepting new equipment or a new system, a certain number of ARC personnel must undergo evaluations to ensure they are properly trained and competent in using the new equipment or system.

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  • Jul 24, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Oct 31, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Fr3sh_24
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