CDC Z3dx7x Vol. 1 Cyberspace Management And Operations
- 1.
Which air force specialty code (afsc) requires members to pass the air force electronic data processing test?
- A.
Computer Systems Programming
- B.
Cyber systems operations
- C.
Cyber transport systems
- D.
Cyber surety
Correct Answer
A. Computer Systems ProgrammingExplanation
The correct answer is Computer Systems Programming. This specialty code requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test because it involves working with computer systems and programming. This test ensures that individuals have the necessary knowledge and skills to effectively perform their duties in this field.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7 skill level?
- A.
Minimum rank of SSgt
- B.
6 months OJT
- C.
Completion of AFSC specific requirements
- D.
Completion of air education and training command (AETC) supplemental training courses
Correct Answer
D. Completion of air education and training command (AETC) supplemental training coursesExplanation
The completion of air education and training command (AETC) supplemental training courses is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7 skill level. The other options listed, such as minimum rank of SSgt, 6 months OJT, and completion of AFSC specific requirements, are all mandatory requirements for advancement.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission?
- A.
Communications Focal Point.
- B.
Unit Deployment Monitor.
- C.
Enterprise Service Desk.
- D.
Quality Assurance.
Correct Answer
A. Communications Focal Point.Explanation
The correct answer is Communications Focal Point. This function is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel, but the specific Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) may vary depending on the unit's mission. This suggests that while the primary responsibility lies with Client Systems personnel, other AFSCs may also be involved in the Communications Focal Point function, depending on the specific needs and requirements of the unit.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What document directs the Communications Focal point key processes?
- A.
TO 00–5–15.
- B.
MPTO 00–33A–1001–WA.
- C.
Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory.
- D.
Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) Part II.
Correct Answer
B. MPTO 00–33A–1001–WA.Explanation
The correct answer is MPTO 00–33A–1001–WA. This document is the one that directs the Communications Focal point key processes.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized
- A.
At major command functional managers.
- B.
At Headquarters Air Force (HAF).
- C.
At the Air Force Personnel Center.
- D.
With career field managers.
Correct Answer
B. At Headquarters Air Force (HAF).Explanation
The correct answer is at Headquarters Air Force (HAF). This means that the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming is centralized at the HAF. This suggests that the HAF is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the manpower planning and programming efforts of the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of the following is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions?
- A.
Program Element Code (PEC).
- B.
Unit Manpower Document (UMD).
- C.
Authorization Change Request (ACR).
- D.
Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).
Correct Answer
B. Unit Manpower Document (UMD).Explanation
The Unit Manpower Document (UMD) is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions. It provides detailed information about the authorized positions within the organization, including the number of personnel required for each position, the skill requirements, and other relevant details. The UMD is an essential tool for managing manpower resources and ensuring that the organization has the necessary personnel to fulfill its mission. The other options listed (Program Element Code, Authorization Change Request, and Unit Personnel Management Roster) are not specifically related to providing manpower information or managing positions within an organization.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function?
- A.
Program Element Code (PEC).
- B.
Special Experience Identifier (SEI).
- C.
Authorization Change Request (ACR).
- D.
Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).
Correct Answer
A. Program Element Code (PEC).Explanation
Program Element Code (PEC) is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function. A PEC is a unique code assigned to each program element within the Department of Defense (DoD) budgeting system. It helps in identifying and tracking the costs associated with specific elements of a program. By using PECs, the DoD can effectively allocate resources, monitor expenditures, and evaluate the performance of weapon systems or support functions. Therefore, PEC is the correct answer in this context.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)?
- A.
Construct career paths.
- B.
Manage skill-level training requirements.
- C.
C. Establish requirements for entry into the career field.
- D.
D. Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).
Correct Answer
D. D. Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).Explanation
The Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) is responsible for several tasks, including constructing career paths, managing skill-level training requirements, and establishing requirements for entry into the career field. However, distributing personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM) is not a responsibility of the AFCFM. This task is typically handled by the personnel or assignment offices within the MAJCOM itself.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
A. MAJCOM director of Communications (A6).
- B.
B. MAJCOM Functional Manager.
- C.
C. Career Field Manager (CFM).
- D.
D. SAF/CIO A6.
Correct Answer
B. B. MAJCOM Functional Manager.Explanation
The MAJCOM Functional Manager serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This individual is responsible for representing the MAJCOM's interests and ensuring that the career field's training requirements and utilization needs are met. They work closely with the Career Field Manager (CFM) and other stakeholders to develop and implement effective training programs and strategies. The MAJCOM Functional Manager plays a critical role in shaping the career field's training and development initiatives.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which segment of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/ Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training resourcing?
- A.
A. Segment 1.
- B.
B. Segment 2.
- C.
C. Segment 3.
- D.
D. Segment 4.
Correct Answer
B. B. Segment 2.Explanation
Segment 2 of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/ Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process focuses on training proficiency levels and training resourcing. This segment is where the team analyzes the proficiency levels required for each specialty and identifies any gaps in training resources. It is during this stage that the team determines the training needs and resources necessary to meet those needs.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which of the following is not an action of the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?
- A.
A. Draft and sign minutes.
- B.
B. Finalize part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP).
- C.
C. Finalize Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description.
- D.
D. Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.
Correct Answer
D. D. Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.Explanation
The Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) is responsible for various actions related to training requirements. Option d, finalizing Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses, is not an action performed by the STRT. This means that the STRT does not have the responsibility of finalizing the training standards for all courses.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which of the following is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
A. Air Education and Training Command (AETC)/Training Pipeline Manager (TPM).
- B.
B. AETC Career Development Course (CD)C writer.
- C.
C. Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM).
- D.
D. MAJCOM Functional Manager.
Correct Answer
B. B. AETC Career Development Course (CD)C writer.Explanation
The AETC Career Development Course (CDC) writer is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). This implies that their attendance is not mandatory but they have the option to attend the workshop if they choose to do so. The other options listed, such as the Air Education and Training Command (AETC)/Training Pipeline Manager (TPM), Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM), and MAJCOM Functional Manager, do not have the same designation of being optional attendees.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
A. Occupational Analysis Report (OAR).
- B.
B. Quality Training Package (QTP).
- C.
C. Subject Matter Experts (SME).
- D.
D. Job Quality Standards (JQS).
Correct Answer
A. A. Occupational Analysis Report (OAR).Explanation
The Occupational Analysis Report (OAR) is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW). The OAR provides a comprehensive analysis of the occupational requirements and tasks, which serves as the foundation for developing the CFETP and STS. It outlines the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed for a specific career field, and helps in identifying the training needs and requirements for that field.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)?
- A.
A. Remedy.
- B.
B. Situational Report (SITREP).
- C.
C. Telephone Management System (TMS).
- D.
D. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).
Correct Answer
D. D. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).Explanation
The Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is an Automated Information System (AIS) that is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD). It is a system that allows for the tracking and recording of maintenance activities and data related to equipment and assets. IMDS is specifically designed to manage maintenance operations and provide a centralized database for storing and retrieving information on the status and history of items with SRDs. It is an essential tool for maintaining accurate records and facilitating efficient maintenance processes.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which of the following is not a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor?
- A.
A. Review Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) reports to ensure job status is reflected properly.
- B.
B. Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR).
- C.
C. Match reports with Open Incident Listing (OIL).
- D.
D. Schedule and distribute daily maintenance actions.
Correct Answer
B. B. Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR).Explanation
The correct answer is b. Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR). The other options (a, c, and d) all involve reviewing and monitoring different aspects of maintenance data collection. Option a involves reviewing IMDS reports to ensure job status is reflected properly, option c involves matching reports with Open Incident Listing (OIL), and option d involves scheduling and distributing daily maintenance actions. However, option b is not a common duty of the MDC monitor as it is the responsibility of the personnel entering the equipment status into ESR.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished?
- A.
A. Communications Focal Point.
- B.
B. Flight Commander/Chief.
- C.
C. Production Controller.
- D.
D. Commander.
Correct Answer
B. B. Flight Commander/Chief.Explanation
The Flight Commander/Chief is responsible for establishing the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished. They oversee the operations and maintenance of the flight, including scheduling and conducting inspections. They have the authority to enforce compliance with inspection procedures and ensure that all necessary inspections are completed on time. The Flight Commander/Chief plays a crucial role in maintaining the safety and readiness of the flight operations.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which of the following is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the work center?
- A.
A. Master Task List.
- B.
B. Job Qualification Standard.
- C.
C. Current Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
- D.
D. Milestones for tasks and Career Development Course (CDC) completion.
Correct Answer
B. B. Job Qualification Standard.Explanation
The correct answer is b. Job Qualification Standard. The Job Qualification Standard is included in the Master Training Plan only if it is applicable to the work center. This means that if the work center requires specific job qualifications, the Job Qualification Standard will be included in the Master Training Plan. However, if the work center does not have any specific job qualifications, the Job Qualification Standard will not be included in the plan.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within how many days of new equipment/system acceptance?
- A.
A. 30.
- B.
B. 60.
- C.
C. 90.
- D.
D. 120.
Correct Answer
D. D. 120.Explanation
Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within 120 days of new equipment/system acceptance. This means that within 120 days of accepting new equipment or a new system, a certain number of ARC personnel must undergo evaluations to ensure they are properly trained and competent in using the new equipment or system.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)?
- A.
A. Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare.
- B.
. Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integral to the activity and mission.
- C.
C. Create an Air Force in which every leader, Airman and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their on- and off-duty activities.
- D.
D. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.
Correct Answer
D. D. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost. -
- 20.
How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)?
- A.
A. 2.
- B.
B. 4.
- C.
C. 6.
- D.
D. 8.
Correct Answer
C. C. 6.Explanation
Operational Risk Management (ORM) involves a systematic approach to identify, assess, and mitigate risks in an organization's operations. The correct answer is c. 6, which implies that there are six steps in ORM. These steps typically include risk identification, risk assessment, risk mitigation, risk monitoring, risk reporting, and risk review. Each step plays a crucial role in managing operational risks effectively and ensuring the organization's smooth functioning.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on
- A.
A. AF Form 55.
- B.
B. AF Form 971.
- C.
C. AF Form 623A.
- D.
D. AF Form 623 A and AF Form 55.
Correct Answer
A. A. AF Form 55.Explanation
Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on AF Form 55. This form is specifically designed for documenting individual training records, including safety training. It serves as a comprehensive record of an individual's completed training, allowing supervisors to track and verify that their subordinates have completed the required safety training. By using AF Form 55, supervisors can ensure that all necessary safety training is completed and properly documented, promoting a safe and compliant work environment.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis?
- A.
A. Job Safety Training (JST).
- B.
B. Job Hazard Analysis (JHA).
- C.
C. Task Hazard Analysis (THA).
- D.
D. Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA).
Correct Answer
A. A. Job Safety Training (JST).Explanation
The term "Job Safety Training (JST)" is not a term for Job Safety Analysis. Job Safety Analysis (JSA) is a systematic process that identifies potential hazards in a job or task, determines the best way to perform the job safely, and provides training to workers to ensure their safety. On the other hand, Job Safety Training (JST) refers specifically to the training aspect of job safety, rather than the analysis and identification of hazards. Therefore, JST is not a term that is synonymous with Job Safety Analysis.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of the following is information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00–5–1?
- A.
A. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.
- B.
B. Resources required to manage and use TOs.
- C.
C. Infrastructure to manage and use TOs.
- D.
D. Training to manage and use TOs.
Correct Answer
A. A. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.Explanation
The information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1 is the Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Recommended technical order (TO) changes are required to be submitted on
- A.
A. AFTO Form 673.
- B.
B. AFTO Form 22.
- C.
C. AF Form 673.
- D.
D. AF Form 22.
Correct Answer
B. B. AFTO Form 22. -
- 25.
Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment?
- A.
A. Library Custodian.
- B.
B. Flight commander/chief.
- C.
C. Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO).
- D.
D. Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA).
Correct Answer
B. B. Flight commander/chief.Explanation
The flight commander/chief is responsible for determining if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment. They have the authority and knowledge to assess the needs of their flight and ensure that the necessary documentation is in place for the safe and efficient operation of the equipment. The flight commander/chief is in a position of leadership and is accountable for making these decisions based on the specific requirements and regulations of their organization.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Who provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)?
- A.
A. Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA).
- B.
B. American National Standard Institute (ANSI).
- C.
C. Information and Communications Technology (ICT).
- D.
D. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).
Correct Answer
B. B. American National Standard Institute (ANSI).Explanation
The American National Standard Institute (ANSI) provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA). ANSI is a non-profit organization that oversees the development of voluntary consensus standards for various industries, including telecommunications. TIA is a trade association that represents the telecommunications industry, and its standards are accredited by ANSI to ensure they meet certain quality and reliability criteria.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Who develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards?
- A.
A. Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA).
- B.
B. American National Standard Institute (ANSI).
- C.
C. Information and Communications Technology (ICT).
- D.
D. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).
Correct Answer
D. D. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).Explanation
The correct answer is d. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA). The ECIA develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the ANSI designation of EIA standards. The ECIA is a trade association that represents the electronic component industry and works to establish industry standards and best practices. They collaborate with manufacturers, distributors, and suppliers to develop and maintain these standards, ensuring compatibility and quality across the industry.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official?
- A.
A. The authoring Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR).
- B.
B. Commander/director responsible for the guidance.
- C.
C. The authoring OPR’s supervisor.
- D.
D. Publications Manager.
Correct Answer
C. C. The authoring OPR’s supervisor.Explanation
The Certifying Official for the AF Form 673 should be the authoring OPR's supervisor. This is because the supervisor is responsible for overseeing the work of the authoring OPR and can therefore verify the accuracy and completeness of the form. The supervisor is in a position of authority and has the knowledge and understanding of the authoring OPR's responsibilities, making them the appropriate person to endorse the form.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems?
- A.
A. Air Force Network Operating Instructions (AFNOI).
- B.
B. Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA).
- C.
C. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).
- D.
D. Military only.
Correct Answer
C. C. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).Explanation
Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) systems refer to software or hardware products that are readily available in the commercial market and can be easily integrated into various systems. These systems are commonly understood because they are widely used and familiar to users. They are also maintainable because updates and support are provided by the vendors. Additionally, COTS systems are defendable because they have been thoroughly tested and validated by the commercial market. Therefore, COTS systems provide a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain across all federal and non-federal systems.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government Is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title
- A.
A. 10
- B.
B. 15.
- C.
C. 37.
- D.
D. 50.
Correct Answer
A. A. 10Explanation
The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title 10.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title
- A.
A. 15.
- B.
B. 18.
- C.
C. 32.
- D.
D. 37.
Correct Answer
C. C. 32.Explanation
The correct answer is c. 32. The procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title 32. This title specifically outlines the roles and responsibilities of the National Guard and provides guidelines for their activation and deployment. It also covers the process for federalizing the National Guard and the conditions under which they can be called into active duty by Congress.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites?
- A.
A. Wing Commander.
- B.
B. Numbered Air Force Commander.
- C.
C. Communications Squadron Commander.
- D.
D. Cyber Readiness Squadron Commander.
Correct Answer
A. A. Wing Commander.Explanation
The Wing Commander is responsible for appointing Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites. This individual holds the authority to select and assign personnel to these roles, ensuring that the content on the websites is managed and published effectively. The Wing Commander's decision plays a crucial role in determining the individuals who will be responsible for maintaining and updating the content on these platforms.Rate this question:
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- 33.
When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called
- A.
A. misuse of position.
- B.
B. a covered relationships.
- C.
C. non-public information.
- D.
D. personal conflict of interest.
Correct Answer
A. A. misuse of position.Explanation
When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain, it is considered as a misuse of position. This means that the individual is taking advantage of their authority or influence for their own personal benefit, rather than acting in the best interest of the organization or the people they serve. This behavior is unethical and can lead to various consequences, including loss of trust, legal issues, and damage to one's reputation.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities?
- A.
A. Military Personnel (MILPERS).
- B.
B. Military Construction (MILCON).
- C.
C. Operation and Maintenance (O&M).
- D.
D. Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E).
Correct Answer
B. B. Military Construction (MILCON).Explanation
Military Construction (MILCON) funds cover the cost of relocating facilities. MILCON funds are allocated for the construction, renovation, and improvement of military facilities, including the relocation of existing facilities to new locations. This type of fund is specifically designated for infrastructure projects related to military construction and is not intended for other purposes such as personnel costs or operational maintenance.Rate this question:
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- 35.
What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions?
- A.
A. $100,000.
- B.
B. $250,000.
- C.
C. $750,000.
- D.
D. $1,000,000.
Correct Answer
C. C. $750,000.Explanation
Under normal conditions, Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover a maximum amount of $750,000 for minor construction projects.Rate this question:
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- 36.
In-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels is found in Air Force Instruction (AFI)
- A.
A. 10–401.
- B.
B. 33–360.
- C.
C. 38–101.
- D.
D. 64–117.
Correct Answer
D. D. 64–117. -
- 37.
At the installation level which office is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program?
- A.
A. Approval Official (AO).
- B.
B. Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC).
- C.
C. DoD Purchase Card Program Management Office (PCPMO).
- D.
D. Office of the Deputy Secretary of the Air Force for Acquisition Contracting (SAF/AQC).
Correct Answer
B. B. Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC).Explanation
The Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC) is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program at the installation level. They ensure that the program is properly implemented and followed, provide training to cardholders and approving officials, and monitor the program's compliance and effectiveness. The A/OPC acts as a liaison between the installation and the higher-level program management offices, ensuring that all program requirements are met and that the program operates smoothly at the installation level.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders?
- A.
A. Making authorized transactions.
- B.
B. Reconciling transactions.
- C.
C. Logging transactions.
- D.
D. Funds accountability.
Correct Answer
D. D. Funds accountability.Explanation
The responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders includes making authorized transactions, reconciling transactions, and logging transactions. However, funds accountability is not a responsibility of GPC cardholders. This responsibility falls on the government agency or organization that issues and manages the GPC program. GPC cardholders are responsible for ensuring that their transactions are authorized, accurately reconciling and logging them, but they are not directly accountable for the funds used in these transactions.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in
- A.
A. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10–201.
- B.
B. Joint Publication 1–02.
- C.
C. Joint Publication 1–03.
- D.
D. AFI 10–401.
Correct Answer
D. D. AFI 10–401. -
- 40.
Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year?
- A.
A. Air Force Chief of Staff.
- B.
B. Secretary of the Air Force.
- C.
C. Selected major command Command Chiefs.
- D.
D. Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force.
Correct Answer
A. A. Air Force Chief of Staff.Explanation
After the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year, the selections are reviewed by the Air Force Chief of Staff. This individual holds the highest-ranking position in the United States Air Force and is responsible for overseeing and making decisions regarding the organization's operations and policies. Reviewing the selections ensures that they align with the goals and standards of the Air Force, and allows the Chief of Staff to provide final approval and recognition for the outstanding airmen.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented?
- A.
A. Wing.
- B.
B. Group.
- C.
C. Squadron.
- D.
D. major command.
Correct Answer
A. A. Wing.Explanation
The highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented is the Wing. Quarterly awards are typically given at the wing level, which is a higher level than the group, squadron, and major command.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community are found in Air Force instruction
- A.
A. 36–2604.
- B.
B. 36–2803.
- C.
C. 36–2805.
- D.
D. 36–2845.
Correct Answer
D. D. 36–2845. -
- 43.
What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards?
- A.
A. 1 October - 30 September.
- B.
B. 1 January - 31 December.
- C.
C. 1 April - 31 March.
- D.
D. 1 July - 30 June.
Correct Answer
A. A. 1 October - 30 September.Explanation
The inclusive dates for the Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards are from 1 October to 30 September. This means that the awards cover a one-year period starting on 1 October and ending on 30 September of the following year. This time frame allows for the recognition and evaluation of achievements and contributions made by individuals or organizations within the specified year.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to
- A.
A. 53.
- B.
B. 63.
- C.
C. 73.
- D.
D. 83.
Correct Answer
B. B. 63.Explanation
FireWire is a high-speed data transfer technology that allows multiple devices to be connected to a single bus. The maximum number of devices that a FireWire bus can support is determined by the number of unique addresses available on the bus. In the case of FireWire, there are 64 unique addresses available, with one address reserved for the bus itself. Therefore, the maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to 63.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board?
- A.
A. Monitor.
- B.
B. Scanner.
- C.
C. Keyboard.
- D.
D. Graphics card.
Correct Answer
C. C. Keyboard.Explanation
A keyboard is a device that consists of a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board. These switches, known as key switches, are responsible for registering the input when a key is pressed. Therefore, the correct answer is c. Keyboard.Rate this question:
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- 46.
A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers?
- A.
A. At least 5.
- B.
B. No more than 10.
- C.
C. No more than 20.
- D.
D. 20 or more.
Correct Answer
C. C. No more than 20.Explanation
A workgroup is a simple grouping of computers, and the question is asking how many computers can be included in a workgroup. The correct answer is c. No more than 20, which means that a workgroup can have a maximum of 20 computers.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which is not a type of UNIX pathname?
- A.
A. Simple.
- B.
B. Relative.
- C.
C. Positive.
- D.
D. Absolute.
Correct Answer
C. C. Positive.Explanation
The correct answer is c. Positive. In UNIX, there are four types of pathnames: simple, relative, absolute, and null. A simple pathname is a single name without any slashes, a relative pathname specifies the location of a file relative to the current working directory, an absolute pathname specifies the exact location of a file from the root directory, and a null pathname represents an empty path. However, there is no such thing as a positive pathname in UNIX.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure?
- A.
A. Norton Utilities.
- B.
B. Acrobat Reader.
- C.
C. Virus Scan.
- D.
D. WinZip.
Correct Answer
A. A. Norton Utilities.Explanation
Norton Utilities is the correct answer because it is a software application that provides tools specifically designed to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure. It offers features such as file recovery, disk optimization, and system diagnostics, which can help users retrieve lost data and prevent computer crashes or failures. Acrobat Reader, Virus Scan, and WinZip do not offer these specific tools for file recovery and computer protection.Rate this question:
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- 49.
The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?
- A.
A. High Level Data Link Control (HDLC) and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC).
- B.
B. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).
- C.
C. Distance Vector and Link State.
- D.
D. RS–232 and RS–530.
Correct Answer
B. B. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).Explanation
The correct answer is b. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). The OSI Data Link Layer is divided into these two sublayers to handle different functions. The Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer provides error control, flow control, and framing for data transmission. The Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer is responsible for controlling access to the physical media and managing the transmission of data packets. These sublayers work together to ensure reliable and efficient data communication within a network.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Network switches and bridges operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer?
- A.
A. Network.
- B.
B. Physical.
- C.
C. Data Link.
- D.
D. Transport.
Correct Answer
C. C. Data Link.Explanation
Network switches and bridges operate at the Data Link layer of the OSI model. This layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between adjacent network nodes, such as switches, by providing error detection and correction, as well as flow control. The Data Link layer also handles the addressing of devices on the network and manages access to the physical medium. Therefore, network switches and bridges, which are responsible for forwarding data packets based on MAC addresses, operate at this layer.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Oct 31, 2016Quiz Created by
Fr3sh_24
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