Mini Mid 3rd Week CNS
-
All of the following arise from more than one arch except:
-
Hyoide bone
-
Thyroid cartilage
-
Epiglotis
-
Non of them
-
The 'Mini mid 3rd week CNS' quiz assesses knowledge on cranial nerve development, head and neck anatomy, and related neurological functions. It includes questions on anatomical origins, nerve innervations, and clinical implications of developmental anomalies.
Quiz Preview
- 2.
The innervation of the forehead indicates that it develop from :
-
Frontonasal process
-
Maxillary process
-
Mandibular process
-
None of the above
Correct Answer
A. Frontonasal processExplanation
The innervation of the forehead suggests that it develops from the frontonasal process. The frontonasal process is one of the three embryonic processes that contribute to the formation of the face. It gives rise to the forehead, nose, and upper jaw. The innervation of a specific area is often indicative of its embryonic origin, and in this case, the innervation of the forehead points towards its development from the frontonasal process.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
Area that it's responsible for the sensations from the somatic parts
-
Postcentral gyrus
-
Superior parietal gyrus
-
Both a,c are true
-
Non of the above
Correct Answer
A. Both a,c are trueExplanation
Both the postcentral gyrus and the superior parietal gyrus are responsible for processing sensations from the somatic parts of the body. The postcentral gyrus is located in the parietal lobe and is the primary somatosensory cortex, receiving and processing sensory information from the body. The superior parietal gyrus, also located in the parietal lobe, is involved in integrating and interpreting sensory information. Therefore, both options a and c are true, as both the postcentral gyrus and the superior parietal gyrus play a role in processing somatic sensations.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
Hyoid bone arises from:
-
1st arch
-
2nd arch
-
3rd arch
-
B,c are correct
Correct Answer
A. B,c are correctExplanation
The hyoid bone arises from the second and third arches. The hyoid bone is a U-shaped bone located in the neck, and it does not articulate with any other bone. It serves as an attachment point for various muscles involved in swallowing and speech production. The second arch gives rise to the lesser horn and upper body of the hyoid bone, while the third arch gives rise to the greater horn and lower body of the hyoid bone. Therefore, the correct answer is that the hyoid bone arises from the second and third arches.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
A bifid tongue would result from :
-
Duplication of lingual swellings
-
Elongation of tuberculumimpar
-
Failure of fusion between lingual swellings
-
Failure of development of one of the lingual swellings
Correct Answer
A. Failure of fusion between lingual swellingsExplanation
A bifid tongue is characterized by a split or divided appearance, which occurs when the lingual swellings fail to fuse during embryonic development. The lingual swellings are structures that form the tongue, and if they do not fuse properly, it can result in a bifid tongue. This condition is a congenital abnormality and can be present at birth.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
If a patient came with a disability to speak although he could understand words he may have a lesion in ........
-
Area 6
-
Broca's area
-
Superior temporal gyrus
Correct Answer
A. Broca's areaExplanation
If a patient is unable to speak but can still understand words, it suggests that there may be a lesion in Broca's area. Broca's area is located in the frontal lobe of the brain and is responsible for the production of speech. Damage to this area can result in a condition known as Broca's aphasia, where the individual has difficulty forming words and sentences, but their comprehension remains intact. Therefore, the patient's inability to speak despite understanding words points towards a lesion in Broca's area.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
Cleft upper lip is due to :
-
Failure of fusion of maxillary and mandibular processes
-
Non development of the maxillary process
-
Failure of fusion of maxillary and medial nasal process
-
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. Failure of fusion of maxillary and medial nasal processExplanation
Cleft upper lip occurs when there is a failure of fusion between the maxillary and medial nasal processes during embryonic development. This failure to properly join these processes results in a separation or gap in the upper lip. Therefore, the correct answer is "failure of fusion of maxillary and medial nasal process."Rate this question:
-
- 8.
The area that its destruction leads to word blindness is
-
Broc's area
-
Area 4 of brodmann
-
Wernike area
-
Prefrontal area
Correct Answer
A. Wernike areaExplanation
Wernike area, also known as Wernicke's area, is located in the posterior part of the left superior temporal gyrus in the brain. It is responsible for language comprehension and understanding spoken and written language. Damage to this area can result in a condition called Wernicke's aphasia, where individuals have difficulty understanding and producing coherent speech. This condition can lead to word blindness, where individuals are unable to recognize written words or understand their meaning. Therefore, the destruction of Wernike area can cause word blindness.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
One of the following is a proprioceptor :
-
Merkel's disc
-
Muscle spindle
-
Nerve Free ending
-
Meissner's corpuscle
Correct Answer
A. Muscle spindleExplanation
A proprioceptor is a sensory receptor that provides information about body position and movement. The muscle spindle is a type of proprioceptor that is located within the muscles and is responsible for detecting changes in muscle length and tension. It helps in maintaining muscle tone and coordinating muscle contraction. The other options listed, such as Merkel's disc, nerve free ending, and Meissner's corpuscle, are not proprioceptors but rather other types of sensory receptors involved in touch or pain sensation.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
Pacinian curpscles lie in of all of the following except:
-
Breast
-
Skeletal muscles
-
Ct of pancreas
-
Dermal pupillae in the skin
Correct Answer
A. Dermal pupillae in the skinExplanation
Pacinian corpuscles are sensory receptors that detect deep pressure and vibrations. They are found in various locations throughout the body, including the breast, skeletal muscles, and connective tissue of the pancreas. However, they are not found in dermal papillae in the skin. Dermal papillae are responsible for forming fingerprints and do not contain Pacinian corpuscles.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
Concerning the muscle spindle which of the following statements is true:
-
Nuclear bag is longer but narrower than nuclear chain.
-
Nuclear bag is longer & wider than nuclear chain
-
-Nuclear bag is more multiple in spindle than nuclear chain.
-
-Nuclear bag contain a secondary efferant fibers (flower spray endings).
Correct Answer
A. Nuclear bag is longer & wider than nuclear chainExplanation
The correct answer is that the nuclear bag is longer and wider than the nuclear chain. This means that the nuclear bag has a larger size and shape compared to the nuclear chain within the muscle spindle.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
Asteregnosis occur as a result of a lesion in ...... Tract
-
Lateral spinothalamic
-
Anterior spinothalamic
-
Cuneate
-
Dorsal spinocerebellar
Correct Answer
A. CuneateExplanation
Asteregnosis occurs as a result of a lesion in the cuneate tract. The cuneate tract is responsible for transmitting sensory information related to fine touch, vibration, and proprioception from the upper body and limbs to the brain. When this tract is damaged, it can lead to asteregnosis, which is the inability to recognize or identify objects by touch alone.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
Thermoreceptor monitor body temperature this statement is
-
True
-
False
Correct Answer
A. FalseExplanation
Thermoreceptors are sensory receptors that detect changes in temperature. They are responsible for monitoring and regulating body temperature. Therefore, the statement "thermoreceptors monitor body temperature" is true.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
Chemoreceptor include all of the following except
-
Taste receptors
-
Olfactory receptors
-
Osmoreceptor
-
Rodes and cones in retina
Correct Answer
A. Rodes and cones in retinaExplanation
Chemoreceptors are sensory receptors that are responsible for detecting chemical stimuli in the environment. They include taste receptors, which are located on the tongue and are responsible for detecting different tastes. Olfactory receptors are located in the nose and are responsible for detecting different odors. Osmoreceptors are located in the hypothalamus and are responsible for detecting changes in osmotic pressure. However, rods and cones in the retina are not chemoreceptors. They are photoreceptors that are responsible for detecting light and are involved in vision.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
Gracile & cuneate tracts transmit all the following (except)
-
Tactile discrimination
-
Vibration
-
Conscios proprioceptive
-
Tickle
Correct Answer
A. TickleExplanation
The gracile and cuneate tracts are responsible for transmitting sensory information related to tactile discrimination, vibration, and conscious proprioception. However, tickle sensation is not transmitted through these tracts.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
All of the following are correct about the hypothalamus except
-
It contains chemoreceptores
-
It contains both sympathatic and parasynpathatic centers
-
It is a temperature regulatory center
-
None of them
Correct Answer
A. None of themExplanation
The hypothalamus is a region in the brain that performs various functions, including regulating body temperature, controlling the autonomic nervous system (which includes both sympathetic and parasympathetic centers), and containing chemoreceptors. Therefore, the correct answer is "none of them" because all of the statements are correct about the hypothalamus.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
All of the following are not correct about receptor potential except
-
It is a graded potential
-
It allow all or non rule
-
Can not be summated
-
Has a refractory period
Correct Answer
A. It is a graded potentialExplanation
The receptor potential is a graded potential, meaning its magnitude can vary depending on the strength of the stimulus. It follows the all-or-none rule, meaning that once the threshold is reached, an action potential is generated. It can be summated, meaning that multiple receptor potentials can add up to reach the threshold for an action potential. However, the receptor potential does not have a refractory period, unlike the action potential.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
Modality discrimination depends on
-
The specialized area of the brain that is activated
-
Specificity of the receptor
-
Frequency of discharge of action potential
-
A,b are correct
Correct Answer
A. A,b are correctExplanation
Modality discrimination refers to the ability to distinguish between different sensory modalities, such as touch, vision, or hearing. This discrimination depends on the activation of a specialized area of the brain that is dedicated to processing each specific modality. Additionally, the specificity of the receptor plays a role in modality discrimination, as different receptors are specialized to detect specific types of sensory information. Therefore, both the activation of specialized brain areas and the specificity of receptors are important factors in modality discrimination.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
Paradoxical cold sensation may be produced between/at
-
0° to 10°
-
9°
-
Above 45°
-
45°
Correct Answer
A. 45°Explanation
The given options suggest different temperature ranges at which a paradoxical cold sensation may be produced. The correct answer is 45°, indicating that a paradoxical cold sensation may occur at temperatures above 45°. This means that when the temperature exceeds 45°, some individuals may experience a sensation of coldness instead of warmth, which is paradoxical.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
Alpha1 agonists produce all the following except:
-
Increase blood pressure
-
Tachycardia
-
Smooth muscle contraction
-
Non of the above
Correct Answer
A. TachycardiaExplanation
Alpha1 agonists are medications that stimulate alpha1 adrenergic receptors. These receptors are found in various tissues, including blood vessels and smooth muscle. When activated, alpha1 receptors cause vasoconstriction, leading to an increase in blood pressure. They also promote smooth muscle contraction in various organs. However, alpha1 agonists do not directly cause tachycardia, which is an increased heart rate. Therefore, the correct answer is "Tachycardia."Rate this question:
-
- 21.
The drug of choice for the treatment of hypertension during pregnancy
-
Tizanidine
-
Brimonidine
-
Alpha-methyldopa
-
Clonidine
Correct Answer
A. Alpha-methyldopaExplanation
Alpha-methyldopa is the drug of choice for the treatment of hypertension during pregnancy. This medication is considered safe and effective for pregnant women because it has been extensively studied and found to have minimal risk to both the mother and the fetus. It works by decreasing the peripheral resistance and reducing the sympathetic outflow from the central nervous system, thereby lowering blood pressure. Other medications like tizanidine, brimonidine, and clonidine may have potential risks and are not recommended as the first-line treatment for hypertension during pregnancy.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
______ can be used to prevent premature labor
-
Ritodrine
-
Salmeterol
-
Ergotamine
-
Alpha-methyldopa
Correct Answer
A. RitodrineExplanation
Ritodrine is a medication that can be used to prevent premature labor. It works by relaxing the muscles of the uterus, which helps to delay or stop contractions. This can be beneficial in cases where a woman is at risk of giving birth too early. Salmeterol is a medication used to treat asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), not to prevent premature labor. Ergotamine is a medication used to treat migraines, and alpha-methyldopa is used to treat hypertension, neither of which are used to prevent premature labor.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
The drug of choice in treating anaphylactic shock is .....
-
Norepinephrine
-
Amphetamines
-
Ephedrine
-
Epinephrine
Correct Answer
A. EpinephrineExplanation
Epinephrine is the drug of choice in treating anaphylactic shock because it acts quickly to reverse the severe symptoms of an allergic reaction. Anaphylactic shock is a life-threatening condition that can cause difficulty breathing, low blood pressure, and loss of consciousness. Epinephrine works by constricting blood vessels, opening up airways, and increasing heart rate, which helps to alleviate these symptoms and stabilize the patient. Norepinephrine, amphetamines, and ephedrine are not typically used in the treatment of anaphylactic shock and may have different mechanisms of action or potential side effects.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
Ergotamine used in :
-
Prevention post partum hemorrhage
-
Acute attack of migraine
-
Parkinsonism
-
Hyper prolactinemia
Correct Answer
A. Acute attack of migraineExplanation
Ergotamine is a medication that is commonly used in the treatment of acute attacks of migraine. It works by constricting blood vessels in the brain, which helps to alleviate the pain and other symptoms associated with migraines. Ergotamine is not used for prevention of postpartum hemorrhage, treatment of Parkinsonism, or management of hyperprolactinemia. Therefore, the correct answer is acute attack of migraine.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
The true statement is :
-
Beta adrenergic receptors blockers block vasoconstrictor action
-
Alpha adrenergic receptors blockers block vasodilating action
-
Clonidine cause decrease sympathetic out flow by block the action of alpha2 receptors
-
Non of the above
Correct Answer
A. Non of the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is "None of the above." The given statements about beta adrenergic and alpha adrenergic receptor blockers, as well as clonidine, are incorrect. Beta adrenergic receptor blockers actually block the action of beta adrenergic receptors, which results in decreased heart rate and blood pressure. Alpha adrenergic receptor blockers, on the other hand, block the action of alpha adrenergic receptors, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure. Clonidine works by stimulating alpha2 receptors, which leads to decreased sympathetic outflow and subsequently lowers blood pressure. Therefore, none of the given statements are true.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
Which of the following beta blockers is more favorable for asthmatic patient
-
Atenolol
-
Propranolol
-
Timolol
-
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. AtenololExplanation
Atenolol is more favorable for asthmatic patients because it is a cardioselective beta blocker, meaning it primarily targets the beta-1 receptors in the heart and has minimal effect on the beta-2 receptors in the lungs. This selectivity reduces the risk of bronchoconstriction and breathing difficulties in asthmatic patients. Propranolol and timolol, on the other hand, are non-selective beta blockers and can potentially cause bronchoconstriction, making them less suitable for asthmatic patients.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Nov 11, 2016Quiz Created by
InnovationAlexme
Back to top