2g071 Edit Code 8

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1. (028) Which does the expeditionary site survey planning process define?

Explanation

The expeditionary site survey planning process defines the capability of a site. This means that it determines the suitability and capacity of a location for a particular purpose or mission. It involves assessing various factors such as infrastructure, resources, accessibility, and security to determine if the site has the necessary capabilities to support the objectives of the expedition or operation.

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2g071 Edit Code 8 - Quiz

The 2G071 Edit Code 8 quiz assesses knowledge on command structures and operational planning in a military context. It covers topics such as the roles of combatant commanders, logistics planning in MAJCOM, and the development of operations plans (OPLANs) in response to Joint Chiefs of Staff requirements.

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2. (011) Which is the last step in the unit type code (UTC) development process?

Explanation

The last step in the unit type code (UTC) development process is registration. This suggests that after the drafting and validation stages, where the UTC is created and checked for accuracy, the final step involves officially registering the code. This likely involves submitting the code to a governing body or organization that oversees UTCs, ensuring that it meets the necessary standards and requirements. Construction, on the other hand, does not align with the process of developing a UTC and is therefore not the correct answer.

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3. (023) Who determines how to move the requirements and load plans war reserve materiel (WRM) outload?

Explanation

Transportation is responsible for determining how to move the requirements and load plans for war reserve materiel (WRM) outload. They are in charge of coordinating and organizing the logistics and transportation of these materials. This involves planning the most efficient and cost-effective methods of transportation, ensuring that the WRM is properly loaded and secured, and overseeing the movement of these materials to their designated locations. The transportation department has the expertise and resources to handle the complex task of moving WRM, making them the appropriate authority for this responsibility.

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4. (024) The support agreement process starts when

Explanation

The correct answer is "the support agreement manager (SAM) receives a request for support." This means that the support agreement process begins when the SAM receives a request for support. This suggests that the SAM plays a crucial role in initiating the process and coordinating the necessary support. The other options, such as updating DCAPES or receiving direction from the LRS commander or COCOM, do not indicate the starting point of the support agreement process.

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5. (024) If an impasse cannot be resolved at a major command (MAJCOM) who must be notified?

Explanation

If an impasse cannot be resolved at a major command (MAJCOM), the appropriate party that must be notified is Headquarters, US Air Force (HQ USAF)/A4L. This is because HQ USAF/A4L is responsible for overseeing and providing guidance on deployment and logistics operations within the US Air Force. They have the authority to intervene and help resolve the impasse when it cannot be resolved at the MAJCOM level. The Unit deployment manager (UDM), Installation deployment officer (IDO), and Functional area agreement coordinator (FAAC) may be involved in the resolution process, but ultimately, HQ USAF/A4L is the correct answer as they have the final decision-making authority.

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6. (024) Who conducts a support agreement budget review?

Explanation

The correct answer is Financial management office (FMO). The FMO conducts a support agreement budget review. They are responsible for managing and overseeing the financial aspects of support agreements. This includes reviewing the budget to ensure it aligns with the agreement terms and monitoring the expenditure of funds. The FMO plays a crucial role in ensuring the financial integrity and compliance of support agreements.

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7. (019) A location in the United States or overseas that is designated as an area for unit type codes (UTC) to be grouped together during a deployment is called

Explanation

An aggregation point is a location where unit type codes (UTC) are grouped together during a deployment. It serves as a centralized hub for coordinating and managing the deployment of units. This allows for efficient organization and coordination of resources and personnel during the deployment process. An aggregation point is different from an origin, which refers to the starting point of a deployment, an egress point, which refers to a location for exiting a specific area, and an aerial port of debarkation (APOD), which is an airfield used for the arrival and departure of personnel and cargo.

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8. (020) Which redeployment phase responsibility is determined by the post-redeployment mission of the redeploying force?

Explanation

The correct answer is Joint Reception, Staging, Onward Movement, and Integration (JRSOI). This phase is responsible for receiving the redeploying force and their equipment, providing necessary support and services, and ensuring their onward movement to their next destination. The post-redeployment mission of the redeploying force determines the specific requirements and needs during this phase, making it the responsibility of JRSOI. Pre-redeployment activities focus on preparing for the redeployment, redeployment planning involves developing the overall strategy, and movement refers to the physical transportation of personnel and equipment.

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9. (028) Which provides the focus, guidance, and integration, and prioritizes actions for a site survey team?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Expeditionary site survey process (ESSP). This process provides the focus, guidance, and integration for a site survey team. It helps prioritize actions and ensures that all necessary factors are considered during the survey. Operations planning and support agreements may be important in the overall process, but they do not specifically provide the focus, guidance, and integration for the site survey team. The predeployment status of forces agreement is unrelated to the site survey process.

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10. (006) Regarding National Security Strategy, how are presidential level decisions made?

Explanation

Presidential level decisions regarding National Security Strategy are made through the National Security Council System (NSCS). The NSCS is a group of advisors and agencies that assist the President in formulating and implementing national security policies. It includes the President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and other key officials. The NSCS provides a forum for discussing and coordinating national security issues, and it plays a crucial role in shaping the President's decisions on matters of national security.

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11. (011) When is a new unit type code (UTC) requested?

Explanation

A new unit type code (UTC) is requested when a desired capability does not exist. This means that when there is a specific capability that is needed but is not currently available, a request is made for a new UTC to be created. This allows for the development and deployment of units that possess the required capability.

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12. (012) Unit type codes (UTC) should be developed and be tasked from a single organization

Explanation

Developing and tasking unit type codes (UTC) from a single organization helps to eliminate the need for fragmenting across multiple units. This means that instead of having different units with different codes, all UTCs are managed and assigned by one organization. This ensures cohesion and standardization across units, reducing the potential for confusion and inefficiency. By centralizing the development and tasking of UTCs, resources can be allocated more effectively, and coordination becomes easier. This ultimately leads to a more streamlined and cost-effective process, as there is no need to divide and distribute tasks among multiple units.

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13. (014) Who will directly analyze all applicable planning documents to ensure the installation deployment plan (IDP) addresses the full range of military operations the installation is identified to support?

Explanation

The installation deployment officer (IDO) is responsible for directly analyzing all applicable planning documents to ensure that the installation deployment plan (IDP) addresses the full range of military operations that the installation is identified to support. The IDO's role is to oversee and coordinate the deployment activities of the installation, ensuring that all necessary planning and preparations are in place to support military operations. The IDO works closely with other personnel, such as the UDM and wing commander, but ultimately holds the primary responsibility for analyzing and addressing the full range of military operations in the IDP.

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14. (016) Which type of major command (MAJCOM) has a flying mission that directly supports its combat forces?

Explanation

Operational major commands (MAJCOMs) have a flying mission that directly supports their combat forces. These MAJCOMs are responsible for organizing, training, and equipping forces for operational missions. They focus on maintaining combat readiness and conducting military operations, which often require air support. This makes the operational MAJCOM the correct answer as it directly supports combat forces through its flying mission.

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15. (026) Which document highlights the installation's missions, requirements, capabilities, and limitations, as well as resources?

Explanation

The base support plan is a document that outlines the installation's missions, requirements, capabilities, and limitations, as well as the resources available to support those missions. It provides a comprehensive overview of the installation's operations and serves as a guide for decision-making and resource allocation. The other options, such as the wartime aircraft activity report, support agreement, and concept plan, may provide valuable information but do not specifically highlight all the aspects mentioned in the question.

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16. (027) How is Part I of the base support plan or expeditionary site plan (BSP/ESP) normally classified and marked?

Explanation

Part I of the base support plan or expeditionary site plan (BSP/ESP) is normally classified as unclassified, meaning it does not contain sensitive or classified information. However, it is still marked as "For Official Use Only" to indicate that access to the plan should be limited to authorized personnel only. This marking helps to ensure that the information is handled appropriately and not disclosed to unauthorized individuals.

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17. (021) Which can be used with starter stock to provide additional support to the combatant commander (COCOM) until the air and sea lines of re-supply are capable of sustaining military operations?

Explanation

Swing stock can be used with starter stock to provide additional support to the combatant commander (COCOM) until the air and sea lines of re-supply are capable of sustaining military operations. Swing stock refers to a reserve stock that can be quickly mobilized and deployed to meet the immediate needs of the combatant commander. It helps bridge the gap between the initial deployment and the establishment of sustainable resupply lines. In contrast, peacetime equipment, surplus equipment, and combination stock do not specifically address the need for additional support until sustainable resupply lines are established.

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18. (022) The purpose of the war reserve materiel (WRM) review board is to

Explanation

The purpose of the war reserve materiel (WRM) review board is to direct actions necessary to ensure that the WRM program can support the contingency and wartime mission. This means that the board is responsible for making sure that the WRM program is able to provide the necessary resources and materials needed during times of conflict or emergencies. They oversee and coordinate the actions needed to maintain and enhance the program's capability to support military operations.

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19. (019) The reception, staging, on-ward movement, and integration (RSO&I) functions are applicable during the

Explanation

The RSO&I functions are applicable during the deployment and redeployment phases of military operations. These functions involve the reception of personnel and equipment, the staging of resources, the movement of forces to the designated area of operations, and the integration of these forces into the existing military structure. These activities are crucial in ensuring a smooth and efficient deployment or redeployment of military forces, allowing them to be effectively utilized in the operational environment.

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20. (024) As a minimum, how many days notice must be given when a supplier or receiver needs to reduce, modify, or terminate a support agreement?

Explanation

A supplier or receiver needs to give a minimum of 180 days notice when they want to reduce, modify, or terminate a support agreement. This allows both parties to have sufficient time to make necessary adjustments and find alternative solutions if needed.

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21. (002) Which term is used to describe the unclassified portion of a plan that denotes the supported commander, the type of plan, and the plan identification number (PID)?

Explanation

The term "Short title" is used to describe the unclassified portion of a plan that denotes the supported commander, the type of plan, and the plan identification number (PID). This term is commonly used to provide a concise and easily identifiable name for the plan, allowing for quick reference and recognition. It helps to distinguish the plan from others and provides essential information about the plan's purpose and identification.

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22. (020) The transfer of a unit, an individual, or supplies deployed in one area to another area, to another location within the area, or to home station is

Explanation

The correct answer is redeployment. Redeployment refers to the transfer of a unit, an individual, or supplies deployed in one area to another area, to another location within the area, or to home station. It involves moving resources from one place to another in order to meet changing operational needs or to return them to their original location. This term is commonly used in military contexts to describe the movement of personnel and equipment.

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23. (020) Deployed logistics planners, or designated alternates, collect as many deployment documents as possible because the

Explanation

Logistics planners or their designated alternates collect deployment documents to gather necessary information for redeploying the units. This suggests that the collected information is crucial in facilitating the process of returning the units to their original location or any other designated destination. It implies that the documents contain essential details and instructions that are necessary for the successful redeployment of the units.

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24. (027) Which is the key to successful expeditionary site planning and must have senior leadership involvement?

Explanation

The key to successful expeditionary site planning that must have senior leadership involvement is the Base Support Planning Committee (BSPC). This committee is responsible for coordinating and planning the support needed for expeditionary operations. By involving senior leadership, the committee ensures that important decisions are made and resources are allocated effectively. This involvement helps to ensure that the site planning process is comprehensive and considers all necessary factors for a successful expeditionary mission.

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25. (021) War reserve materiel (WRM) is positioned

Explanation

War reserve materiel (WRM) is positioned to assist the warfighter. This means that the purpose of positioning WRM is to provide necessary equipment and supplies to support military operations during times of war or conflict. WRM is strategically placed in locations that are easily accessible and can be quickly deployed to support the needs of the warfighter in the field. This ensures that the military has the necessary resources readily available to carry out their missions effectively and efficiently.

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26. (022) The purpose of a war reserve materiel (WRM) surveillance visit is to ensure compliance with appropriate

Explanation

A war reserve materiel (WRM) surveillance visit is conducted to ensure that there is compliance with both the instructions and policy related to WRM. This means that the visit aims to verify that not only are the specific instructions regarding the handling and storage of WRM being followed, but also that the overall policy governing the management of WRM is being adhered to. By assessing both the instructions and policy, the visit ensures that all aspects of WRM management are being properly implemented and maintained.

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27. (004) Who provides the services with planning information concerning origin and availability of non-service controlled materiel?

Explanation

The General Services Administration (GSA) provides services with planning information concerning the origin and availability of non-service controlled materiel. The GSA is responsible for managing and supporting the basic functioning of federal agencies, including procurement and property management. They assist in the acquisition of goods and services, including non-service controlled materiel, and provide information on their origin and availability to ensure efficient planning and resource allocation. The Secretary of State, Secretary of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff do not have direct involvement in this specific function.

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28. During the annual review a new support agreement funding annex is developed if

Explanation

During the annual review, a new support agreement funding annex is developed if there is more than a 10 percent change to the requested support. This means that if the requested support changes by more than 10 percent, a new funding annex is required to accommodate the updated support needs. The other options, such as a 5 percent change to the requested support or changes in the exchange rate, do not trigger the development of a new funding annex.

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29. (022) Who accompanies the war reserve materiel (WRM) noncommissioned officer (WRMNCO) during a WRM surveillance visit?

Explanation

During a WRM surveillance visit, the WRMNCO is accompanied by the WRM manager (WRMM). The WRMM is responsible for overseeing the management and maintenance of war reserve materiel. They have the knowledge and expertise to ensure that the WRM is properly stored, accounted for, and ready for use when needed. The WRMM's presence during the surveillance visit ensures that all necessary protocols and procedures are being followed, and any issues or discrepancies can be addressed and resolved promptly.

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30. (024) Who evaluates the requested support capability in a support agreement for the supplier?

Explanation

The Functional Area Agreement Coordinator (FAAC) evaluates the requested support capability in a support agreement for the supplier. This role is responsible for coordinating and managing support agreements between different functional areas within an organization. They assess the requested support capability to ensure that it aligns with the needs and requirements of the supplier, and determine if the agreement can be successfully implemented. The FAAC plays a crucial role in ensuring effective communication and coordination between the supplier and the organization's functional areas.

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31. (024) Who is the impasse letter forwarded to if there is an impasse concerning the overall agreement?

Explanation

In the event of an impasse concerning the overall agreement, the impasse letter is forwarded to the Major command (MAJCOM) counterparts. These counterparts are responsible for overseeing and managing the specific commands within the military organization. They have the authority to review and address any issues or disputes that arise during the negotiation process. By involving the MAJCOM counterparts, a higher level of authority and expertise can be brought in to help resolve the impasse and reach a mutually agreeable solution.

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32. (018) Which is the last step of determining the worst-case deployment scenario?

Explanation

The last step of determining the worst-case deployment scenario is to task units to assign personnel and equipment to worst case tasking in the logistics module (LOGMOD). This step involves identifying the specific units and resources that will be needed for the worst-case scenario based on the information gathered from reviewing plans, unit type code availability model (UTA), and the War Aircraft Activity Report (WAAR). It ensures that the necessary personnel and equipment are allocated and prepared for the worst-case deployment scenario.

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33. (001) Combatant commanders (COCOM) report directly to

Explanation

Combatant commanders (COCOM) are senior military commanders who are responsible for the military operations in a specific geographic or functional area. They report directly to the Secretary of Defense (SecDef), who is the head of the Department of Defense and the civilian leader of the military. The SecDef provides guidance and strategic direction to the combatant commanders, ensuring civilian control over the military and effective coordination of military operations. Therefore, it is the SecDef to whom the COCOMs report directly, making this the correct answer.

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34. (019) Who establishes strength accountability for everyone they are responsible for, regardless of location, and updates the information in the accountability system?

Explanation

The correct answer is Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO). PERSCO is responsible for establishing strength accountability for everyone they are responsible for, regardless of location, and updating the information in the accountability system. This role ensures that accurate and up-to-date information is maintained regarding personnel in a contingency operation.

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35. (022) Which command is the Force Provider for United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)?

Explanation

Air Mobility Command (AMC) is the Force Provider for United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM). USTRANSCOM is responsible for the transportation of personnel and equipment for the US military. AMC is specifically tasked with providing global air mobility, including airlift and aerial refueling capabilities, to support USTRANSCOM's mission. This command plays a crucial role in ensuring the rapid and efficient movement of military forces and supplies around the world.

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36. (022) Who notifies the war reserve materiel (WRM) global management office (GMO) of out-of-cycle WRM requirement adjustments?

Explanation

The Command War Reserve Material Officer/Noncommissioned Officer (CWRMO/NCO) is responsible for notifying the War Reserve Materiel (WRM) Global Management Office (GMO) of out-of-cycle WRM requirement adjustments. This individual is specifically designated to manage and oversee the war reserve material for the command, and they are responsible for coordinating any changes or adjustments to the requirements. The COCOM, IDO, and CWRMM do not have the specific role of notifying the GMO of out-of-cycle adjustments, making the CWRMO/NCO the correct answer.

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37. (025) There no political or financial risks associated with an acquisition cross service agreement (ACSA) because it's

Explanation

An acquisition cross service agreement (ACSA) is non-binding in nature, meaning that there are no political or financial risks associated with it. This implies that the agreement does not impose legal obligations or enforceable commitments on the parties involved. Therefore, if any issues arise, the parties are not legally bound to fulfill their obligations under the agreement, reducing the potential risks and liabilities.

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38. (011) If a unit type code (UTC) is not registered in the type unit characteristics file (TUCHA) then

Explanation

If a unit type code (UTC) is not registered in the type unit characteristics file (TUCHA), it means that the necessary information about the unit's characteristics and requirements is not available. This information is crucial for determining accurate airlift requirements. Without this information, United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) cannot effectively determine or validate the airlift requirements for the unit. Therefore, the correct answer is that USTRANSCOM cannot determine or validate accurate airlift requirements.

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39. Postering unit type codes (UTC) is based on

Explanation

The correct answer is that postering unit type codes (UTC) is based on the funded military authorizations on an organization's unit manpower document (UMD). This means that the allocation of unit type codes is determined by the authorized number of personnel for a particular organization as outlined in the UMD. This ensures that the correct number of personnel are allocated to each unit type code, allowing for effective planning and resource allocation within the military organization.

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40. (024) The supplier support agreement manager (SAM) reviews support agreements every

Explanation

The supplier support agreement manager (SAM) reviews support agreements every three years. This suggests that the SAM takes the time to thoroughly assess and evaluate the support agreements with suppliers, ensuring that they are up to date and meeting the necessary requirements. By reviewing the agreements every three years, the SAM can identify any changes or updates needed, negotiate new terms if necessary, and ensure that the agreements continue to benefit both parties involved. This periodic review helps maintain a strong and effective relationship between the supplier and the organization.

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41. (015) Which organization is the office of primary responsibility for Air Force deployment and redeployment operations?

Explanation

The Directorate of Logistics Readiness is the office of primary responsibility for Air Force deployment and redeployment operations. This means that they are responsible for coordinating and managing the logistics and readiness of the Air Force's deployment and redeployment operations. They ensure that all necessary resources and support are available for these operations to be carried out effectively and efficiently.

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42. (024) In order for the support agreement process to be effective a functional area agreement coordinator (FAAC) must have

Explanation

The effectiveness of the support agreement process depends on the competency and knowledge of the functional area agreement coordinator (FAAC). Having proper training ensures that the FAAC is equipped with the necessary skills and understanding of the process. This enables them to effectively coordinate and manage the support agreements. The other options, such as having at least 2 years on station, a signed appointment letter, or a background in contract management, may be beneficial but are not as essential as proper training for the FAAC to carry out their responsibilities effectively.

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43. (025) Which acquisition cross service agreement (ACSA) support category allows for the transfer of rations?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Food" because the question is asking about the acquisition cross service agreement (ACSA) support category that allows for the transfer of rations. Rations are a type of food that is provided to military personnel, so the category that would support this transfer would be "Food."

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44. (027) All are planning documents that trigger the start of a Part II development of a base support plan or expeditionary site plan (BSP/ESP) except

Explanation

The correct answer is "support agreement request." The other options mentioned, such as the global strategy document, war consumables distribution objective (WCDO), and all forces time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD), are all planning documents that trigger the start of a Part II development of a base support plan or expeditionary site plan (BSP/ESP). A support agreement request, however, is not a planning document that initiates the development of a BSP/ESP.

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45. (027) All are members of the base support plan committee except

Explanation

The question asks for the member who is not part of the base support plan committee. The options provided include functional data managers, civilian personnel office, group commanders, and plans technician. The correct answer is "Plans technician" because all the other options - functional data managers, civilian personnel office, and group commanders - are mentioned as members of the base support plan committee.

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46. (005) Which additional AFI governs the WMP–4, Wartime Aircraft Activity, Part 1 and Part 2, besides AFI 25–101?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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47. (008) The joint capabilities document (JCD) is a result of

Explanation

The joint capabilities document (JCD) is a result of a Functional Solution Analysis (FSA) and the Functional Needs Analysis (FNA). This means that the JCD is developed based on the analysis of the functional solutions and needs in order to fulfill the joint capabilities required for military operations. The FSA identifies potential solutions and the FNA assesses the functional needs of the military. By combining these analyses, the JCD is able to outline the necessary capabilities to support the nation's wartime mission and the implementation of an air and space expeditionary force (AEF).

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48. (013) Who runs the logistics force packing module (LOGFOR) database verification (DB verify) report prior to reporting the logistics detail (LOGDET) to the major command (MAJCOM) logistics module (LOGMOD) manager?

Explanation

The pilot unit LOGMOD administrator runs the logistics force packing module (LOGFOR) database verification (DB verify) report prior to reporting the logistics detail (LOGDET) to the major command (MAJCOM) logistics module (LOGMOD) manager. This implies that the LOGMOD administrator is responsible for ensuring the accuracy and integrity of the data in the LOGFOR database before it is reported to the higher-level command.

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49. (025) The execution of transfer authority under an acquisition cross service agreement (ACSA) reduces the United States "logistics tail" by

Explanation

The execution of transfer authority under an acquisition cross service agreement (ACSA) allows the United States to procure needed items from a host nation (HN). This means that instead of relying solely on its own resources and logistics, the US can leverage the capabilities and resources of the host nation to meet its procurement needs. This reduces the US "logistics tail" by reducing the burden of transporting and supplying all necessary items from the US itself.

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50. (022) Which is directly related to the quality and amount of training that individuals receive from the war reserve material officer/noncommissioned officer (WRMO/NCO)?

Explanation

The quality and amount of training that individuals receive from the war reserve material officer/noncommissioned officer (WRMO/NCO) directly affects how well a WRM manager (WRMM) performs. The WRMM is responsible for managing the war reserve materiel (WRM) and ensuring its effective utilization during war. Therefore, the training received by individuals in this role plays a crucial role in determining their performance as a WRMM.

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51. (006) Who chairs the National Security Council (NSC)?

Explanation

The President of the United States (POTUS) chairs the National Security Council (NSC) because the NSC is a key advisory body on matters of national security and foreign policy. As the Commander-in-Chief and the highest-ranking official in the United States government, the President is responsible for making decisions and setting policies related to national security. The NSC serves as a forum for the President to consult with top national security advisors, coordinate government agencies, and develop strategies to protect the country's interests. Therefore, it is logical that the President would chair the NSC.

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52. (006) Which implements and augments presidential and secretary of defense guidance that's forwarded in the guidance for the employment of the forces (GEF)?

Explanation

The Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP) implements and augments presidential and secretary of defense guidance that is forwarded in the guidance for the employment of the forces (GEF). This means that the JSCP is responsible for putting into action and enhancing the guidance provided by the president and secretary of defense for the use of military forces. The National Security Council (NSC) is a different entity that advises the president on national security matters, while the Unified Command Plan (UCP) outlines the command structure for military operations. An operations plan (OPLAN) is a specific plan for a military operation. Therefore, the correct answer is the Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP).

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53. (009) Which crisis action phase is initiated by the president's decision to exercise a military option in reaction to a crisis?

Explanation

After the president decides to exercise a military option in response to a crisis, the crisis action phase that is initiated is known as execution. This phase involves the actual implementation of the chosen military option, where the necessary resources and forces are deployed and the plan is put into action. It is the stage where the military operation is executed, aiming to resolve the crisis effectively and efficiently.

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54. (017) For day-to-day routine issues most base-level activities communicate directly with

Explanation

In the given question, the base-level activities are mentioned as communicating directly with a certain entity. Among the options provided, the Major command (MAJCOM) is the most appropriate choice as it is responsible for overseeing and managing specific units or bases within the Air Force. The other options, such as Wing commander, Numbered Air Force (NAF), and Headquarters Air Staff, do not have the same level of authority or responsibility in terms of day-to-day routine issues at the base level.

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55. (020) Which cell is the center of all redeployment activity?

Explanation

The Contingency C2 Planning Cell is the center of all redeployment activity because it is responsible for coordinating and planning the movement of personnel and equipment during contingency operations. This cell is responsible for developing and implementing redeployment plans, ensuring the efficient and timely movement of resources, and coordinating with other units and organizations involved in the redeployment process.

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56. (021) War reserve materiel (WRM) is designated as

Explanation

War reserve materiel (WRM) can be designated as either starter stock, swing stock, or a combination of both. Starter stock refers to the inventory of essential items that are immediately available for use in the event of a conflict or emergency. Swing stock, on the other hand, is additional inventory that can be quickly mobilized and deployed to support ongoing operations. By designating WRM as either starter or swing stock, or a combination of both, it allows for flexibility in meeting the needs of military operations and ensuring readiness.

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57. (004) Joint operations planning and execution system (JOPES) procedures that task military operations for humanitarian assistance, disaster relief, peace-keeping and or counter-drug operations are used to write

Explanation

JOPES procedures are specifically used for tasking military operations for various purposes such as humanitarian assistance, disaster relief, peace-keeping, and counter-drug operations. These procedures involve detailed planning and execution, which aligns with the concept of a functional plan. A functional plan outlines the specific actions and tasks required to achieve a particular objective or function, which perfectly fits the purpose of JOPES procedures in tasking military operations.

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58. (005) Which war and mobilization plan (WMP) volume provides a single source for Air Force planning and support of combat forces in a time of war?

Explanation

The correct answer is WMP-1, Basic Plan and Support Supplements. This volume provides a comprehensive plan and support supplements for the Air Force's planning and support of combat forces during a time of war. It serves as a single source of information for the Air Force's strategies and actions in wartime.

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59. (022) Who is responsible for the reconstitution of war reserve materiel (WRM) equipment when it is used as direct mission support?

Explanation

The storing command is responsible for the reconstitution of war reserve materiel (WRM) equipment when it is used as direct mission support. This means that the command that is responsible for storing the WRM equipment is also responsible for ensuring that it is restored or replenished after it has been used in a mission. The storing command is in charge of maintaining and managing the inventory of WRM equipment, including the reconstitution process to ensure that it is ready for future use.

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60. (015) Who is the principal adviser to the secretary of the air force (SECAF) on Air Force activities and provides assistance for organizing air and space forces to meet combat commander (CCDR) requirements?

Explanation

The Chief of Staff, US Air Force (CSAF) is the principal adviser to the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) on Air Force activities and provides assistance for organizing air and space forces to meet combat commander (CCDR) requirements. They are responsible for overseeing the operational readiness and effectiveness of the Air Force and play a crucial role in shaping Air Force policy and strategy. The Secretary of Defense (SecDef), Chairman Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS), and Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force (CMSAF) do not hold the same level of authority or responsibility in advising the SECAF on Air Force activities.

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61. (016) Who is the primary force provider for the air and space expeditionary force (AEF), serves as the tasking authority for the AEF, and is responsible for execution of the AEF schedule?

Explanation

The primary force provider for the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) refers to the entity that is responsible for organizing and deploying the necessary forces for AEF missions. The tasking authority for the AEF is the entity that determines which forces will be tasked for specific missions. The entity responsible for executing the AEF schedule is the one that ensures the timely deployment and execution of missions according to the schedule. Among the given options, the Commander, Air Combat Command (COMACC) is the most suitable choice as they fulfill all these roles as the primary force provider, tasking authority, and responsible for the execution of the AEF schedule.

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62. (002) Which is supported when the combatant command (COCOM) and service-component staffs develop a detailed flow of resources into the theater?

Explanation

When the combatant command (COCOM) and service-component staffs develop a detailed flow of resources into the theater, it is supported by the Approved operations plan (OPLAN) concept. This concept outlines the specific objectives, tasks, and resources required for a military operation. It provides a comprehensive plan that guides the coordination and execution of operations, including the allocation and movement of resources. By developing a detailed flow of resources into the theater, the OPLAN concept ensures that the necessary personnel, equipment, and supplies are available and properly deployed to support the mission.

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63. (027) Who is responsible for guaranteeing that the complete base support plan (BSP) is accessible and available to Air Force and sister service functionals?

Explanation

Major commands (MAJCOM) are responsible for guaranteeing that the complete base support plan (BSP) is accessible and available to Air Force and sister service functionals. This means that it is the responsibility of the higher-level command structure to ensure that the BSP is fully accessible and readily available to all relevant parties. Squadron commanders, installation commanders, and installation deployment officers may have roles in implementing and executing the BSP, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the MAJCOM.

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64. (001) How should a combatant commander's command authority be exercised?

Explanation

A combatant commander's command authority should be exercised through the commanders of subordinate organizations. This means that the combatant commander delegates their authority and responsibilities to the commanders of the units under their command. This allows for effective and efficient command and control, as the commanders of the subordinate organizations are responsible for executing the combatant commander's orders and directives. By relying on the commanders of subordinate organizations, the combatant commander can effectively manage and coordinate military operations.

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65. (013) After a unit type code (UTC) is reviewed and updated, who is responsible for updating the mission capability (MISCAP) to indicate the date of the most recent review? 

Explanation

The Manpower and Equipment Force Packaging System (MEFPAK) responsible agency is responsible for updating the mission capability (MISCAP) to indicate the date of the most recent review after a unit type code (UTC) is reviewed and updated.

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66. (004) According to the instructions of the component headquarters, which of the following supports plans with primary planning responsibility?

Explanation

According to the instructions of the component headquarters, the supporting major command (MAJCOM) supports plans with primary planning responsibility. This means that the MAJCOM is responsible for developing and executing plans, while other entities such as supporting forces, supported commander, and supporting commander may have supporting roles but not primary planning responsibility.

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67. (007) The United States Joint Forces Command (USJFCOM) uses its component inputs to

Explanation

The correct answer is "recommend global sourcing solutions for all forces." This means that the United States Joint Forces Command (USJFCOM) uses its component inputs to provide suggestions and advice on finding global sourcing solutions for all forces. This implies that the USJFCOM plays a role in identifying and recommending the most efficient and effective ways to source resources and support for military operations from around the world.

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68. (002) In order to respond to a requirement established by the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS), which must a commander of a unified or specified command prepare?

Explanation

In order to respond to a requirement established by the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS), a commander of a unified or specified command must prepare an Operations plan (OPLAN). This plan outlines the objectives, tasks, and resources required to accomplish a specific military operation. It includes details such as the command structure, logistics support, and coordination with other units or organizations involved in the operation. By preparing an OPLAN, the commander ensures that all necessary elements are in place to effectively carry out the mission as directed by the JCS.

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69. (023) How often does the war reserve materiel officer/noncommissioned officer (WRMO/NCO) review Supply Management System reports?

Explanation

The war reserve materiel officer/noncommissioned officer (WRMO/NCO) reviews Supply Management System reports on a quarterly basis. This means that they review these reports every three months. This regular review allows the WRMO/NCO to stay updated on the status of the war reserve materiel and make any necessary adjustments or replenishments to ensure readiness. Reviewing the reports quarterly ensures that any potential issues or discrepancies are identified and addressed in a timely manner.

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70. (002) Which is ensured by combining the operations plan (OPLAN) criteria of feasibility and acceptability?

Explanation

The combination of feasibility and acceptability in the operations plan criteria ensures that the mission can be successfully accomplished using the resources that are available. This means that the plan takes into consideration both the practicality and the suitability of the resources in order to achieve the desired outcome. By considering these factors, the plan can effectively allocate resources and make informed decisions to ensure mission success.

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71. (002) Which operations plan (OPLAN) criterion is used when considering if the resources made available for planning are used effectively or are insufficient to satisfy plan requirements? 

Explanation

Feasibility is the criterion used to determine if the resources allocated for planning are sufficient to meet the requirements of the operations plan (OPLAN). It assesses whether the available resources, such as personnel, equipment, and funding, are effectively utilized or if they fall short in meeting the plan's needs. Feasibility evaluates the practicality and viability of the plan, considering the available resources and their ability to support the desired objectives.

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72. (018) Which may be needed once the worst-case deployment scenario has been determined?

Explanation

Once the worst-case deployment scenario has been determined, it may be necessary to relocate forces. This could involve moving personnel, equipment, and resources to a different location in order to better respond to the situation at hand. Relocating forces allows for a more efficient and effective deployment strategy, ensuring that the necessary resources are in the right place at the right time to address the identified risks and challenges.

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73. (019) Which is the name of the location that airlifts will take the cargo and personnel, once multiple unit type codes (UTC) are grouped together at a location in the United States or overseas?

Explanation

Once multiple unit type codes (UTC) are grouped together at a location in the United States or overseas, the cargo and personnel will be airlifted to an aerial port of debarkation (APOD). This is the location where they will be unloaded and disembarked from the aircraft. The term "aerial port of debarkation" refers to the specific location where the cargo and personnel are received after being transported by air.

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74. (022) Which type of war reserve materiel (WRM) training is an overview designed for newly assigned WRM program managers and WRM review board members?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Orientation". Orientation training is designed for newly assigned WRM program managers and WRM review board members to provide them with an overview of the war reserve materiel (WRM) program. This training helps them understand the basics of managing WRM and their roles and responsibilities within the program. It is the initial training that familiarizes them with the program before they can delve into more specific and detailed training sessions.

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75. (006) Military departments and defense agencies provide advice to the Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution System (PPBES)

Explanation

Military departments and defense agencies provide advice to the Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution System (PPBES) in order to ensure that the execution and accountability of resources and funds can be properly assessed. This advice helps in evaluating the effectiveness and efficiency of the system, allowing for adjustments and improvements to be made as necessary. By assessing execution and accountability, the military can ensure that resources are being used effectively and that the desired outcomes are being achieved.

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76. (001) Which major command (MAJCOM) logistics plans functional area facilitates logistics plans personnel actions, including validating manpower; recruiting personnel to fill vacancies; permanent change of station (PCS) assignments; temporary duty (TDY) staffing; and retraining approval for potential logistics planners?

Explanation

Functional management is the correct answer because it is the major command (MAJCOM) logistics plans functional area that facilitates logistics plans personnel actions. This includes validating manpower, recruiting personnel to fill vacancies, assigning personnel to permanent change of station (PCS), staffing temporary duty (TDY), and approving retraining for potential logistics planners. Functional management is responsible for managing and coordinating these personnel actions within the MAJCOM logistics plans functional area.

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77. (004) Which type of planning prioritizes delivery of sustainment forces in a combat environment?

Explanation

A support plan prioritizes the delivery of sustainment forces in a combat environment. This type of planning focuses on providing the necessary resources, logistics, and support to ensure that combat forces have the supplies, equipment, and personnel they need to sustain their operations. It involves coordinating the movement of personnel, equipment, and supplies to the combat area, establishing supply chains, and ensuring that sustainment forces are able to quickly and efficiently deliver support where it is needed most.

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78. (008) Which endorses the request for forces/capability (RFF/RFC)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Joint Forces Command (JFCOM). JFCOM is responsible for endorsing the request for forces/capability (RFF/RFC). They evaluate the request and determine the appropriate forces or capabilities needed to support the mission. They work closely with the combatant commander (COCOM) to ensure that the requested forces align with the overall strategic objectives. The Secretary of Defense (SecDef) and the President of the United States (POTUS) may also be involved in the decision-making process, but the primary responsibility lies with JFCOM.

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79. (025) How often are acquisition cross service agreement (ACSA) funds and transactions required to be tracked and accounted for?

Explanation

ACSA funds and transactions are required to be tracked and accounted for on an annual basis. This means that the tracking and accounting process for these funds and transactions occurs once every year.

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80. (010) Which order directs the initiation of a plan development before the directing authority approves a military course of action (COA)?

Explanation

A planning order (PLANORD) directs the initiation of a plan development before the directing authority approves a military course of action (COA). This means that the planning process can begin before the final approval of the COA, allowing for early preparation and coordination. A warning order (WARNORD) typically provides initial information and alerts units to begin planning, but it does not necessarily initiate the plan development process. An alert order (ALERTORD) notifies units to be prepared for imminent action, but it does not necessarily involve plan development. An operation order (OPORD) is issued after the COA has been approved and provides detailed instructions for executing the plan.

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81. (003) Which contingency planning phase objective is to develop a broad outline of the combatant commander's assumption or intent?

Explanation

The objective of the concept development phase in contingency planning is to develop a broad outline of the combatant commander's assumption or intent. This phase involves brainstorming and exploring various concepts and ideas to determine the best course of action for the given situation. It helps in identifying the key goals and objectives of the plan and provides a foundation for further planning and development.

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82. (003) Which contingency planning phase makes sure that a plan properly incorporates the mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment of forces and resources?

Explanation

The supporting plan phase of contingency planning ensures that a plan includes all necessary elements for the mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment of forces and resources. This phase focuses on the logistical aspects of the plan, ensuring that all necessary resources are accounted for and properly utilized during the execution of the plan. It involves coordinating and organizing the necessary support functions to ensure the success of the overall plan.

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83. (006) A primary role of the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) is to

Explanation

The correct answer is "provide independent advice to the president." The Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) serves as a mechanism for providing unbiased and objective advice to the president. It helps in the development of national security strategies, policies, and plans by evaluating various options and providing recommendations. This ensures that the president receives independent advice from experts in order to make informed decisions regarding national security.

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84. (005) Which is the Air Force's supporting document for the joint strategic capabilities plan (JSCP)?

Explanation

The correct answer is the War and Mobilization Plan. This document serves as the Air Force's supporting document for the joint strategic capabilities plan (JSCP). It outlines the Air Force's plans and strategies for war and mobilization, including the allocation of resources, deployment of forces, and coordination with other branches of the military. It provides a comprehensive framework for the Air Force's role in joint operations and ensures readiness for potential conflicts or emergencies.

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85. (010) Which order is developed during crisis action planning when the secretary of defense (SecDef) approves and transmits the selected course of action (COA)?

Explanation

During crisis action planning, the order that is developed after the secretary of defense (SecDef) approves and transmits the selected course of action (COA) is the ALERT ORDER (ALERTORD). This order is issued to alert the relevant personnel and units about the approved COA and to provide them with initial instructions and information necessary for the execution of the plan. It serves as a preliminary step before the detailed planning order (PLANORD) and the subsequent operation order (OPORD) are issued.

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86. (010) Which order is issued once the National Command Authority (NCA) decides to begin preparations for the conduct of a military operation?

Explanation

Once the National Command Authority (NCA) decides to begin preparations for a military operation, a Deployment Order (DEPORD) is issued. This order is responsible for initiating the process of deploying troops, equipment, and resources to the designated location for the operation. It outlines the specific details and instructions regarding the movement and positioning of forces, logistics, and other necessary preparations. The DEPORD serves as a crucial step in the overall planning and execution of the military operation.

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87. (010) Which order defines the objectives, anticipated mission or tasks, pertinent constraints, command relationships, and tentative combat forces available to a commander for planning?

Explanation

A warning order (WARNORD) is the order that defines the objectives, anticipated mission or tasks, pertinent constraints, command relationships, and tentative combat forces available to a commander for planning. It serves as an initial communication to alert the unit of an upcoming operation and provides essential information for the planning process. The other options, planning order (PLANORD), operation order (OPORD), and alert order (ALERTORD), do not specifically address all the elements mentioned in the question.

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88. (027) Who develops and maintains the base support plan or expeditionary site plan (BSP/ESP) using data collection instructions provided by the respective Headquarters, United States Air Force (HQ USAF)?

Explanation

Functional data managers (FDM) develop and maintain the base support plan or expeditionary site plan (BSP/ESP) using data collection instructions provided by HQ USAF. They are responsible for gathering and analyzing data to create comprehensive plans that support the needs of the installation or expeditionary site. FDMs work closely with other stakeholders, such as the installation site survey office and wing support agreements manager, to ensure that the plans are accurate and up to date. Their role is crucial in ensuring effective support and operations at Air Force bases and expeditionary sites.

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89. (026) At the MAJCOM/NAF, the base support plan represents

Explanation

The base support plan at the MAJCOM/NAF represents quantifying theater support capabilities. This means that the plan is used to assess and determine the level of support that can be provided to the theater of operations. It involves evaluating the resources, capabilities, and capacities of the base to determine how much support can be provided in terms of personnel, equipment, and other resources. This helps in planning and allocating resources effectively to meet the needs of the theater.

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90. (010) In a time-sensitive crisis, which order can be issued in lieu of an ALERT ORDER (ALERTORD)?

Explanation

In a time-sensitive crisis, an ALERT ORDER (ALERTORD) is typically issued to quickly notify personnel of the situation. However, if an ALERT ORDER cannot be issued for any reason, the next best option would be to issue an EXECUTE ORDER (EXORD). This order would provide specific instructions on how to respond and take action in the crisis, ensuring that personnel are aware of what needs to be done immediately. The other options, such as PLANNING ORDER (PLANORD), DEPLOYMENT ORDER (DEPORD), and PREPARE TO DEPLOY ORDER (PTDO), are not as appropriate in a time-sensitive crisis as they involve more planning or preparation rather than immediate action.

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91. (009) Which crisis action phase involves the combatant (supported) commander's assessment of potential national security implications being submitted to the president, secretary of defense (SecDef), and the chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS)?

Explanation

Situation development is the correct answer because it involves the combatant commander's assessment of potential national security implications being submitted to the president, secretary of defense, and the chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff. This phase focuses on gathering and analyzing information to understand the crisis situation fully and determine the appropriate course of action. It is an essential step in the crisis action planning process.

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(028) Which does the expeditionary site survey planning process...
(011) Which is the last step in the unit type code (UTC) development...
(023) Who determines how to move the requirements and load plans war...
(024) The support agreement process starts when
(024) If an impasse cannot be resolved at a major command (MAJCOM) who...
(024) Who conducts a support agreement budget review?
(019) A location in the United States or overseas that is designated...
(020) Which redeployment phase responsibility is determined by the...
(028) Which provides the focus, guidance, and integration, and...
(006) Regarding National Security Strategy, how are presidential level...
(011) When is a new unit type code (UTC) requested?
(012) Unit type codes (UTC) should be developed and be tasked from a...
(014) Who will directly analyze all applicable planning documents to...
(016) Which type of major command (MAJCOM) has a flying mission that...
(026) Which document highlights the installation's missions,...
(027) How is Part I of the base support plan or expeditionary site...
(021) Which can be used with starter stock to provide additional...
(022) The purpose of the war reserve materiel (WRM) review board is to
(019) The reception, staging, on-ward movement, and integration...
(024) As a minimum, how many days notice must be given when a supplier...
(002) Which term is used to describe the unclassified portion of a...
(020) The transfer of a unit, an individual, or supplies deployed in...
(020) Deployed logistics planners, or designated alternates, collect...
(027) Which is the key to successful expeditionary site planning and...
(021) War reserve materiel (WRM) is positioned
(022) The purpose of a war reserve materiel (WRM) surveillance visit...
(004) Who provides the services with planning information concerning...
During the annual review a new support agreement funding annex is...
(022) Who accompanies the war reserve materiel (WRM) noncommissioned...
(024) Who evaluates the requested support capability in a support...
(024) Who is the impasse letter forwarded to if there is an impasse...
(018) Which is the last step of determining the worst-case deployment...
(001) Combatant commanders (COCOM) report directly to
(019) Who establishes strength accountability for everyone they are...
(022) Which command is the Force Provider for United States...
(022) Who notifies the war reserve materiel (WRM) global management...
(025) There no political or financial risks associated with an...
(011) If a unit type code (UTC) is not registered in the type unit...
Postering unit type codes (UTC) is based on
(024) The supplier support agreement manager (SAM) reviews support...
(015) Which organization is the office of primary responsibility for...
(024) In order for the support agreement process to be effective a...
(025) Which acquisition cross service agreement (ACSA) support...
(027) All are planning documents that trigger the start of a Part II...
(027) All are members of the base support plan committee except
(005) Which additional AFI governs the WMP–4, Wartime Aircraft...
(008) The joint capabilities document (JCD) is a result of
(013) Who runs the logistics force packing module (LOGFOR) database...
(025) The execution of transfer authority under an acquisition cross...
(022) Which is directly related to the quality and amount of training...
(006) Who chairs the National Security Council (NSC)?
(006) Which implements and augments presidential and secretary of...
(009) Which crisis action phase is initiated by the president's...
(017) For day-to-day routine issues most base-level activities...
(020) Which cell is the center of all redeployment activity?
(021) War reserve materiel (WRM) is designated as
(004) Joint operations planning and execution system (JOPES)...
(005) Which war and mobilization plan (WMP) volume provides a single...
(022) Who is responsible for the reconstitution of war reserve...
(015) Who is the principal adviser to the secretary of the air force...
(016) Who is the primary force provider for the air and space...
(002) Which is supported when the combatant command (COCOM) and...
(027) Who is responsible for guaranteeing that the complete base...
(001) How should a combatant commander's command authority be...
(013) After a unit type code (UTC) is reviewed and updated, who is...
(004) According to the instructions of the component headquarters,...
(007) The United States Joint Forces Command (USJFCOM) uses its...
(002) In order to respond to a requirement established by the Joint...
(023) How often does the war reserve materiel officer/noncommissioned...
(002) Which is ensured by combining the operations plan (OPLAN)...
(002) Which operations plan (OPLAN) criterion is used when considering...
(018) Which may be needed once the worst-case deployment scenario has...
(019) Which is the name of the location that airlifts will take the...
(022) Which type of war reserve materiel (WRM) training is an overview...
(006) Military departments and defense agencies provide advice to the...
(001) Which major command (MAJCOM) logistics plans functional area...
(004) Which type of planning prioritizes delivery of sustainment...
(008) Which endorses the request for forces/capability (RFF/RFC)?
(025) How often are acquisition cross service agreement (ACSA) funds...
(010) Which order directs the initiation of a plan development before...
(003) Which contingency planning phase objective is to develop a broad...
(003) Which contingency planning phase makes sure that a plan properly...
(006) A primary role of the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) is...
(005) Which is the Air Force's supporting document for the joint...
(010) Which order is developed during crisis action planning when the...
(010) Which order is issued once the National Command Authority (NCA)...
(010) Which order defines the objectives, anticipated mission or...
(027) Who develops and maintains the base support plan or...
(026) At the MAJCOM/NAF, the base support plan represents
(010) In a time-sensitive crisis, which order can be issued in lieu of...
(009) Which crisis action phase involves the combatant (supported)...
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