2g071 Edit Code 8

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(028) Which does the expeditionary site survey planning process define?
- Capability.
- Strength.
- Merit.
- Cost.

About This Quiz

The 2G071 Edit Code 8 quiz assesses knowledge on command structures and operational planning in a military context. It covers topics such as the roles of combatant commanders, logistics planning in MAJCOM, and the development of operations plans (OPLANs) in response to Joint Chiefs of Staff requirements.

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2.

(006) Regarding National Security Strategy, how are presidential level decisions made?
- Through the National Security Council System (NSCS).
- Through the Executive Legislative Branch.
- With the approval of 3 of 5 Joint Chiefs.
- With Supreme Court approval.
Correct Answer

A. Through the National Security Council System (NSCS).

Explanation

Presidential level decisions regarding National Security Strategy are made through the National Security Council System (NSCS). The NSCS is a group of advisors and agencies that assist the President in formulating and implementing national security policies. It includes the President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and other key officials. The NSCS provides a forum for discussing and coordinating national security issues, and it plays a crucial role in shaping the President's decisions on matters of national security.

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3.

(011) When is a new unit type code (UTC) requested?
- When directed by the President of the United States (POTUS).
- When a desired capability does not exist.
- Upon the start of a contingency.
- Upon the start of an exercise.
Correct Answer

A. When a desired capability does not exist.

Explanation

A new unit type code (UTC) is requested when a desired capability does not exist. This means that when there is a specific capability that is needed but is not currently available, a request is made for a new UTC to be created. This allows for the development and deployment of units that possess the required capability.

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4.

(011) Which is the last step in the unit type code (UTC) development process?
- Drafting.
- Validation.
- Registration.
- Construction.
Correct Answer

A. Registration.

Explanation

The last step in the unit type code (UTC) development process is registration. This suggests that after the drafting and validation stages, where the UTC is created and checked for accuracy, the final step involves officially registering the code. This likely involves submitting the code to a governing body or organization that oversees UTCs, ensuring that it meets the necessary standards and requirements. Construction, on the other hand, does not align with the process of developing a UTC and is therefore not the correct answer.

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5.

(019) A location in the United States or overseas that is designated as an area for unit type codes (UTC) to be grouped together during a deployment is called
- Origin.
- An egress point.
- An aggregation point.
- An aerial port of debarkation (APOD).
Correct Answer

A. An aggregation point.

Explanation

An aggregation point is a location where unit type codes (UTC) are grouped together during a deployment. It serves as a centralized hub for coordinating and managing the deployment of units. This allows for efficient organization and coordination of resources and personnel during the deployment process. An aggregation point is different from an origin, which refers to the starting point of a deployment, an egress point, which refers to a location for exiting a specific area, and an aerial port of debarkation (APOD), which is an airfield used for the arrival and departure of personnel and cargo.

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6.

(020) Which redeployment phase responsibility is determined by the post-redeployment mission of the redeploying force?
- Joint Reception, Staging, Onward Movement, and Integration (JRSOI).
- Pre-redeployment activities.
- Redeployment planning.
- Movement.
Correct Answer

A. Joint Reception, Staging, Onward Movement, and Integration (JRSOI).

Explanation

The correct answer is Joint Reception, Staging, Onward Movement, and Integration (JRSOI). This phase is responsible for receiving the redeploying force and their equipment, providing necessary support and services, and ensuring their onward movement to their next destination. The post-redeployment mission of the redeploying force determines the specific requirements and needs during this phase, making it the responsibility of JRSOI. Pre-redeployment activities focus on preparing for the redeployment, redeployment planning involves developing the overall strategy, and movement refers to the physical transportation of personnel and equipment.

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7.

(023) Who determines how to move the requirements and load plans war reserve materiel (WRM) outload?
- Installation personnel readiness (IPR).
- Force support squadron (FSS).
- Transportation.
- Supply.
Correct Answer

A. Transportation.

Explanation

Transportation is responsible for determining how to move the requirements and load plans for war reserve materiel (WRM) outload. They are in charge of coordinating and organizing the logistics and transportation of these materials. This involves planning the most efficient and cost-effective methods of transportation, ensuring that the WRM is properly loaded and secured, and overseeing the movement of these materials to their designated locations. The transportation department has the expertise and resources to handle the complex task of moving WRM, making them the appropriate authority for this responsibility.

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8.

(024) The support agreement process starts when
- Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES) is updated.
- The support agreement manager (SAM) receives a request for support.
- The logistics readiness squadron (LRS) commander directs it.
- The combatant commander (COCOM) directs it.
Correct Answer

A. The support agreement manager (SAM) receives a request for support.

Explanation

The correct answer is "the support agreement manager (SAM) receives a request for support." This means that the support agreement process begins when the SAM receives a request for support. This suggests that the SAM plays a crucial role in initiating the process and coordinating the necessary support. The other options, such as updating DCAPES or receiving direction from the LRS commander or COCOM, do not indicate the starting point of the support agreement process.

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9.

(024) If an impasse cannot be resolved at a major command (MAJCOM) who must be notified?
- Unit deployment manager (UDM).
- Installation deployment officer (IDO).
- Headquarters, US Air Force (HQ USAF)/A4L.
- Functional area agreement coordinator (FAAC).
Correct Answer

A. Headquarters, US Air Force (HQ USAF)/A4L.

Explanation

If an impasse cannot be resolved at a major command (MAJCOM), the appropriate party that must be notified is Headquarters, US Air Force (HQ USAF)/A4L. This is because HQ USAF/A4L is responsible for overseeing and providing guidance on deployment and logistics operations within the US Air Force. They have the authority to intervene and help resolve the impasse when it cannot be resolved at the MAJCOM level. The Unit deployment manager (UDM), Installation deployment officer (IDO), and Functional area agreement coordinator (FAAC) may be involved in the resolution process, but ultimately, HQ USAF/A4L is the correct answer as they have the final decision-making authority.

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10.

(024) Who conducts a support agreement budget review?
- Financial management office (FMO).
- Support agreement manager (SAM).
- Installation agreement officer (IAO).
- Host budget and finance office.
Correct Answer

A. Financial management office (FMO).

Explanation

The correct answer is Financial management office (FMO). The FMO conducts a support agreement budget review. They are responsible for managing and overseeing the financial aspects of support agreements. This includes reviewing the budget to ensure it aligns with the agreement terms and monitoring the expenditure of funds. The FMO plays a crucial role in ensuring the financial integrity and compliance of support agreements.

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11.

(028) Which provides the focus, guidance, and integration, and prioritizes actions for a site survey team?
- Operations planning.
- Support agreements.
- Expeditionary site survey process (ESSP).
- The predeployment status of forces agreement.
Correct Answer

A. Expeditionary site survey process (ESSP).

Explanation

The correct answer is the Expeditionary site survey process (ESSP). This process provides the focus, guidance, and integration for a site survey team. It helps prioritize actions and ensures that all necessary factors are considered during the survey. Operations planning and support agreements may be important in the overall process, but they do not specifically provide the focus, guidance, and integration for the site survey team. The predeployment status of forces agreement is unrelated to the site survey process.

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12.

(012) Unit type codes (UTC) should be developed and be tasked from a single organization
- As a cost saving measure.
- So that only one expeditionary commander is required.
- In order to reduce the airlift requirement when transporting.
- To eliminate the need for fragmenting across multiple units.
Correct Answer

A. To eliminate the need for fragmenting across multiple units.

Explanation

Developing and tasking unit type codes (UTC) from a single organization helps to eliminate the need for fragmenting across multiple units. This means that instead of having different units with different codes, all UTCs are managed and assigned by one organization. This ensures cohesion and standardization across units, reducing the potential for confusion and inefficiency. By centralizing the development and tasking of UTCs, resources can be allocated more effectively, and coordination becomes easier. This ultimately leads to a more streamlined and cost-effective process, as there is no need to divide and distribute tasks among multiple units.

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13.

(014) Who will directly analyze all applicable planning documents to ensure the installation deployment plan (IDP) addresses the full range of military operations the installation is identified to support?
- IDP manager.
- Wing commander.
- Unit deployment manager (UDM).
- Installation deployment officer (IDO).
Correct Answer

A. Installation deployment officer (IDO).

Explanation

The installation deployment officer (IDO) is responsible for directly analyzing all applicable planning documents to ensure that the installation deployment plan (IDP) addresses the full range of military operations that the installation is identified to support. The IDO's role is to oversee and coordinate the deployment activities of the installation, ensuring that all necessary planning and preparations are in place to support military operations. The IDO works closely with other personnel, such as the UDM and wing commander, but ultimately holds the primary responsibility for analyzing and addressing the full range of military operations in the IDP.

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14.

(016) Which type of major command (MAJCOM) has a flying mission that directly supports its combat forces?
- Support.
- Exercise.
- Operational.
- Expeditionary.
Correct Answer

A. Operational.

Explanation

Operational major commands (MAJCOMs) have a flying mission that directly supports their combat forces. These MAJCOMs are responsible for organizing, training, and equipping forces for operational missions. They focus on maintaining combat readiness and conducting military operations, which often require air support. This makes the operational MAJCOM the correct answer as it directly supports combat forces through its flying mission.

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15.

(021) Which can be used with starter stock to provide additional support to the combatant commander (COCOM) until the air and sea lines of re-supply are capable of sustaining military operations?
- Peacetime equipment.
- Surplus equipment.
- Combination stock.
- Swing stock.
Correct Answer

A. Swing stock.

Explanation

Swing stock can be used with starter stock to provide additional support to the combatant commander (COCOM) until the air and sea lines of re-supply are capable of sustaining military operations. Swing stock refers to a reserve stock that can be quickly mobilized and deployed to meet the immediate needs of the combatant commander. It helps bridge the gap between the initial deployment and the establishment of sustainable resupply lines. In contrast, peacetime equipment, surplus equipment, and combination stock do not specifically address the need for additional support until sustainable resupply lines are established.

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16.

(022) The purpose of the war reserve materiel (WRM) review board is to
- Direct actions necessary to ensure that the WRM program can support the contingency and wartime mission.
- Ensure that the use of an installation’s WRM is the first option for peacetime use.
- Deploy WRM to the area of responsibility (AOR).
- Provide training to the WRM managers.
Correct Answer

A. Direct actions necessary to ensure that the WRM program can support the contingency and wartime mission.

Explanation

The purpose of the war reserve materiel (WRM) review board is to direct actions necessary to ensure that the WRM program can support the contingency and wartime mission. This means that the board is responsible for making sure that the WRM program is able to provide the necessary resources and materials needed during times of conflict or emergencies. They oversee and coordinate the actions needed to maintain and enhance the program's capability to support military operations.

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17.

(026) Which document highlights the installation’s missions, requirements, capabilities, and limitations, as well as resources?
- Wartime Aircraft Activity Report.
- Support agreement.
- Base support plan.
- Concept plan.
Correct Answer

A. Base support plan.

Explanation

The base support plan is a document that outlines the installation's missions, requirements, capabilities, and limitations, as well as the resources available to support those missions. It provides a comprehensive overview of the installation's operations and serves as a guide for decision-making and resource allocation. The other options, such as the wartime aircraft activity report, support agreement, and concept plan, may provide valuable information but do not specifically highlight all the aspects mentioned in the question.

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18.

(027) How is Part I of the base support plan or expeditionary site plan (BSP/ESP) normally classified and marked?
- Unclassified, but marked “For Official Use Only.”
- Classified, but marked “For Official Use Only.”
- Unclassified, but marked “Secret.”
- Classified, and marked “Secret.”
Correct Answer

A. Unclassified, but marked “For Official Use Only.”

Explanation

Part I of the base support plan or expeditionary site plan (BSP/ESP) is normally classified as unclassified, meaning it does not contain sensitive or classified information. However, it is still marked as "For Official Use Only" to indicate that access to the plan should be limited to authorized personnel only. This marking helps to ensure that the information is handled appropriately and not disclosed to unauthorized individuals.

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19.

(002) Which term is used to describe the unclassified portion of a plan that denotes the supported commander, the type of plan, and the plan identification number (PID)?
- Preface.
- Short title.
- Glossary.
- Introduction.
Correct Answer

A. Short title.

Explanation

The term "Short title" is used to describe the unclassified portion of a plan that denotes the supported commander, the type of plan, and the plan identification number (PID). This term is commonly used to provide a concise and easily identifiable name for the plan, allowing for quick reference and recognition. It helps to distinguish the plan from others and provides essential information about the plan's purpose and identification.

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20.

(004) Who provides the services with planning information concerning origin and availability of non-service controlled materiel?
- Secretary of State.
- Secretary of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.
- Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.
- General Services Administration (GSA).
Correct Answer

A. General Services Administration (GSA).

Explanation

The General Services Administration (GSA) provides services with planning information concerning the origin and availability of non-service controlled materiel. The GSA is responsible for managing and supporting the basic functioning of federal agencies, including procurement and property management. They assist in the acquisition of goods and services, including non-service controlled materiel, and provide information on their origin and availability to ensure efficient planning and resource allocation. The Secretary of State, Secretary of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff do not have direct involvement in this specific function.

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21.

(019) The reception, staging, on-ward movement, and integration (RSO&I) functions are applicable during the
- Operations phase of military operations.
- Deployment phase of military operations.
- Redeployment phase of military operations.
- Deployment and redeployment phases of military operations.
Correct Answer

A. Deployment and redeployment phases of military operations.

Explanation

The RSO&I functions are applicable during the deployment and redeployment phases of military operations. These functions involve the reception of personnel and equipment, the staging of resources, the movement of forces to the designated area of operations, and the integration of these forces into the existing military structure. These activities are crucial in ensuring a smooth and efficient deployment or redeployment of military forces, allowing them to be effectively utilized in the operational environment.

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22.

(020) The transfer of a unit, an individual, or supplies deployed in one area to another area, to another location within the area, or to home station is
- Redeployment.
- Deployment.
- Staging.
- Storing.
Correct Answer

A. Redeployment.

Explanation

The correct answer is redeployment. Redeployment refers to the transfer of a unit, an individual, or supplies deployed in one area to another area, to another location within the area, or to home station. It involves moving resources from one place to another in order to meet changing operational needs or to return them to their original location. This term is commonly used in military contexts to describe the movement of personnel and equipment.

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23.

(020) Deployed logistics planners, or designated alternates, collect as many deployment documents as possible because the
- Home station may require the information.
- Information is needed to redeploy the units.
- Forward location may require the information.
- Information is needed to close a deployed installation.
Correct Answer

A. Information is needed to redeploy the units.

Explanation

Logistics planners or their designated alternates collect deployment documents to gather necessary information for redeploying the units. This suggests that the collected information is crucial in facilitating the process of returning the units to their original location or any other designated destination. It implies that the documents contain essential details and instructions that are necessary for the successful redeployment of the units.

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24.

(021) War reserve materiel (WRM) is positioned
- To assist the warfighter.
- To assist the host nation.
- For staging ease.
- For storing ease.
Correct Answer

A. To assist the warfighter.

Explanation

War reserve materiel (WRM) is positioned to assist the warfighter. This means that the purpose of positioning WRM is to provide necessary equipment and supplies to support military operations during times of war or conflict. WRM is strategically placed in locations that are easily accessible and can be quickly deployed to support the needs of the warfighter in the field. This ensures that the military has the necessary resources readily available to carry out their missions effectively and efficiently.

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25.

(022) The purpose of a war reserve materiel (WRM) surveillance visit is to ensure compliance with appropriate
- Policy.
- Instructions.
- Host nation policy.
- Instructions and policy.
Correct Answer

A. Instructions and policy.

Explanation

A war reserve materiel (WRM) surveillance visit is conducted to ensure that there is compliance with both the instructions and policy related to WRM. This means that the visit aims to verify that not only are the specific instructions regarding the handling and storage of WRM being followed, but also that the overall policy governing the management of WRM is being adhered to. By assessing both the instructions and policy, the visit ensures that all aspects of WRM management are being properly implemented and maintained.

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26.

(024) As a minimum, how many days notice must be given when a supplier or receiver needs to reduce, modify, or terminate a support agreement?
- 30.
- 90.
- 120.
- 180.
Correct Answer

A. 180.

Explanation

A supplier or receiver needs to give a minimum of 180 days notice when they want to reduce, modify, or terminate a support agreement. This allows both parties to have sufficient time to make necessary adjustments and find alternative solutions if needed.

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27.

(027) Which is the key to successful expeditionary site planning and must have senior leadership involvement?
- Base support planning committee (BSPC).
- Air expeditionary force (AEF) workshop.
- War reserve review (WRM) board.
- Local site plans.
Correct Answer

A. Base support planning committee (BSPC).

Explanation

The key to successful expeditionary site planning that must have senior leadership involvement is the Base Support Planning Committee (BSPC). This committee is responsible for coordinating and planning the support needed for expeditionary operations. By involving senior leadership, the committee ensures that important decisions are made and resources are allocated effectively. This involvement helps to ensure that the site planning process is comprehensive and considers all necessary factors for a successful expeditionary mission.

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28.

(022) Who accompanies the war reserve materiel (WRM) noncommissioned officer (WRMNCO) during a WRM surveillance visit?
- War reserve materiel program manager (WRMPM).
- Installation deployment officer (IDO).
- WRM manager (WRMM).
- Responsible commander.
Correct Answer

A. WRM manager (WRMM).

Explanation

During a WRM surveillance visit, the WRMNCO is accompanied by the WRM manager (WRMM). The WRMM is responsible for overseeing the management and maintenance of war reserve materiel. They have the knowledge and expertise to ensure that the WRM is properly stored, accounted for, and ready for use when needed. The WRMM's presence during the surveillance visit ensures that all necessary protocols and procedures are being followed, and any issues or discrepancies can be addressed and resolved promptly.

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29.

During the annual review a new support agreement funding annex is developed if
- There is more than a 5 percent change to the requested support.
- There is more than a 10 percent change to the requested support.
- The exchange rate is increased by more than 5 percent.
- The exchange rate is increased by more than 10 percent.
Correct Answer

A. There is more than a 10 percent change to the requested support.

Explanation

During the annual review, a new support agreement funding annex is developed if there is more than a 10 percent change to the requested support. This means that if the requested support changes by more than 10 percent, a new funding annex is required to accommodate the updated support needs. The other options, such as a 5 percent change to the requested support or changes in the exchange rate, do not trigger the development of a new funding annex.

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30.

(001) Combatant commanders (COCOM) report directly to
- Major command (MAJCOM) commander.
- Numbered air force (NAF) commander.
- Secretary of Defense (SecDef).
- Host nation (HN) leader.
Correct Answer

A. Secretary of Defense (SecDef).

Explanation

Combatant commanders (COCOM) are senior military commanders who are responsible for the military operations in a specific geographic or functional area. They report directly to the Secretary of Defense (SecDef), who is the head of the Department of Defense and the civilian leader of the military. The SecDef provides guidance and strategic direction to the combatant commanders, ensuring civilian control over the military and effective coordination of military operations. Therefore, it is the SecDef to whom the COCOMs report directly, making this the correct answer.

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31.

(018) Which is the last step of determining the worst-case deployment scenario?
- Identify total number of D unit type codes (UTC) affected after reviewing plans, unit type code availability model (UTA), and the War Aircraft Activity Report (WAAR).
- Task units to assign personnel and equipment to worst case tasking in the logistics module (LOGMOD).
- Create a report detailing all D coded UTCs.
- Review the WAAR.
Correct Answer

A. Task units to assign personnel and equipment to worst case tasking in the logistics module (LOGMOD).

Explanation

The last step of determining the worst-case deployment scenario is to task units to assign personnel and equipment to worst case tasking in the logistics module (LOGMOD). This step involves identifying the specific units and resources that will be needed for the worst-case scenario based on the information gathered from reviewing plans, unit type code availability model (UTA), and the War Aircraft Activity Report (WAAR). It ensures that the necessary personnel and equipment are allocated and prepared for the worst-case deployment scenario.

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32.

(019) Who establishes strength accountability for everyone they are responsible for, regardless of location, and updates the information in the accountability system?
- Supported commander.
- Logistics plans function.
- Reception control center (RCC).
- Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO).
Correct Answer

A. Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO).

Explanation

The correct answer is Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO). PERSCO is responsible for establishing strength accountability for everyone they are responsible for, regardless of location, and updating the information in the accountability system. This role ensures that accurate and up-to-date information is maintained regarding personnel in a contingency operation.

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33.

(022) Which command is the Force Provider for United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)?
- Air Combat Command (ACC).
- Air Mobility Command (AMC).
- Air Force Global Strike Command (AFGSC).
- Air Education and Training Command (AETC).
Correct Answer

A. Air Mobility Command (AMC).

Explanation

Air Mobility Command (AMC) is the Force Provider for United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM). USTRANSCOM is responsible for the transportation of personnel and equipment for the US military. AMC is specifically tasked with providing global air mobility, including airlift and aerial refueling capabilities, to support USTRANSCOM's mission. This command plays a crucial role in ensuring the rapid and efficient movement of military forces and supplies around the world.

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34.

(022) Who notifies the war reserve materiel (WRM) global management office (GMO) of out-of-cycle WRM requirement adjustments?
- Combatant commander (COCOM).
- Installation deployment officer (IDO).
- Command war reserve materiel manager (CWRMM).
- Command war reserve material officer/noncommissioned officer (CWRMO/NCO).
Correct Answer

A. Command war reserve material officer/noncommissioned officer (CWRMO/NCO).

Explanation

The Command War Reserve Material Officer/Noncommissioned Officer (CWRMO/NCO) is responsible for notifying the War Reserve Materiel (WRM) Global Management Office (GMO) of out-of-cycle WRM requirement adjustments. This individual is specifically designated to manage and oversee the war reserve material for the command, and they are responsible for coordinating any changes or adjustments to the requirements. The COCOM, IDO, and CWRMM do not have the specific role of notifying the GMO of out-of-cycle adjustments, making the CWRMO/NCO the correct answer.

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35.

(024) Who evaluates the requested support capability in a support agreement for the supplier?
- Unit deployment manager (UDM).
- Installation deployment officer (IDO).
- The initial requester of the support agreement.
- Functional area agreement coordinator (FAAC).
Correct Answer

A. Functional area agreement coordinator (FAAC).

Explanation

The Functional Area Agreement Coordinator (FAAC) evaluates the requested support capability in a support agreement for the supplier. This role is responsible for coordinating and managing support agreements between different functional areas within an organization. They assess the requested support capability to ensure that it aligns with the needs and requirements of the supplier, and determine if the agreement can be successfully implemented. The FAAC plays a crucial role in ensuring effective communication and coordination between the supplier and the organization's functional areas.

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36.

(024) Who is the impasse letter forwarded to if there is an impasse concerning the overall agreement?
- Unit deployment manager (UDM).
- Installation deployment officer (IDO).
- Major command (MAJCOM) counterparts.
- Functional area agreement coordinator (FAAC).
Correct Answer

A. Major command (MAJCOM) counterparts.

Explanation

In the event of an impasse concerning the overall agreement, the impasse letter is forwarded to the Major command (MAJCOM) counterparts. These counterparts are responsible for overseeing and managing the specific commands within the military organization. They have the authority to review and address any issues or disputes that arise during the negotiation process. By involving the MAJCOM counterparts, a higher level of authority and expertise can be brought in to help resolve the impasse and reach a mutually agreeable solution.

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37.

(025) There no political or financial risks associated with an acquisition cross service agreement (ACSA) because it’s
- Binding in nature.
- Non-binding in nature.
- Protected by local Status of Forces Agreements (SOFA).
- Protected by the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ).
Correct Answer

A. Non-binding in nature.

Explanation

An acquisition cross service agreement (ACSA) is non-binding in nature, meaning that there are no political or financial risks associated with it. This implies that the agreement does not impose legal obligations or enforceable commitments on the parties involved. Therefore, if any issues arise, the parties are not legally bound to fulfill their obligations under the agreement, reducing the potential risks and liabilities.

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38.

(005) Which additional AFI governs the WMP–4, Wartime Aircraft Activity, Part 1 and Part 2, besides AFI 25–101?
- AFI 10–403.
- AFI 10–401.
- AFI 10–304.
- AFI 10–104.
Correct Answer

A. AFI 10–401.
39.

(008) The joint capabilities document (JCD) is a result of
- The nation’s wartime mission.
- The need to implement an air and space expeditionary force (AEF).
- A Functional Solution Analysis (FSA) and the Functional Needs Analysis (FNA).
- Timely allocation of forces for combatant command (COCOM) missions and allocations.
Correct Answer

A. A Functional Solution Analysis (FSA) and the Functional Needs Analysis (FNA).

Explanation

The joint capabilities document (JCD) is a result of a Functional Solution Analysis (FSA) and the Functional Needs Analysis (FNA). This means that the JCD is developed based on the analysis of the functional solutions and needs in order to fulfill the joint capabilities required for military operations. The FSA identifies potential solutions and the FNA assesses the functional needs of the military. By combining these analyses, the JCD is able to outline the necessary capabilities to support the nation's wartime mission and the implementation of an air and space expeditionary force (AEF).

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40.

(011) If a unit type code (UTC) is not registered in the type unit characteristics file (TUCHA) then
- It cannot be added to the Logistics Module (LOGMOD).
- It cannot be tasked via time phased force deployment data (TPFDD).
- Air Combat Command (ACC) cannot determine or validate accurate airlift requirements.
- United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) cannot determine or validate accurate airlift requirements.
Correct Answer

A. United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) cannot determine or validate accurate airlift requirements.

Explanation

If a unit type code (UTC) is not registered in the type unit characteristics file (TUCHA), it means that the necessary information about the unit's characteristics and requirements is not available. This information is crucial for determining accurate airlift requirements. Without this information, United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) cannot effectively determine or validate the airlift requirements for the unit. Therefore, the correct answer is that USTRANSCOM cannot determine or validate accurate airlift requirements.

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41.

Postering unit type codes (UTC) is based on
- The funded military authorizations on an organization’s unit manpower document (UMD).
- A major command’s (MAJCOM) functional area code authorization document.
- The Secretary of Defense’s (SecDef) developed deployment UTC plan.
- MAJCOM’s UTC posturing manpower document.
Correct Answer

A. The funded military authorizations on an organization’s unit manpower document (UMD).

Explanation

The correct answer is that postering unit type codes (UTC) is based on the funded military authorizations on an organization's unit manpower document (UMD). This means that the allocation of unit type codes is determined by the authorized number of personnel for a particular organization as outlined in the UMD. This ensures that the correct number of personnel are allocated to each unit type code, allowing for effective planning and resource allocation within the military organization.

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42.

(015) Which organization is the office of primary responsibility for Air Force deployment and redeployment operations?
- Directorate of Logistics Readiness.
- Directorate of Deployment and Redeployment.
- Deputy Chief of Staff, Logistics, Installations and Mission Support.
- Deputy Chief of Staff for Air, Space and Information Operations, Plans, and Requirements.
Correct Answer

A. Directorate of Logistics Readiness.

Explanation

The Directorate of Logistics Readiness is the office of primary responsibility for Air Force deployment and redeployment operations. This means that they are responsible for coordinating and managing the logistics and readiness of the Air Force's deployment and redeployment operations. They ensure that all necessary resources and support are available for these operations to be carried out effectively and efficiently.

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43.

(024) The supplier support agreement manager (SAM) reviews support agreements every
- Six months.
- Year.
- Two years
- Three years.
Correct Answer

A. Three years.

Explanation

The supplier support agreement manager (SAM) reviews support agreements every three years. This suggests that the SAM takes the time to thoroughly assess and evaluate the support agreements with suppliers, ensuring that they are up to date and meeting the necessary requirements. By reviewing the agreements every three years, the SAM can identify any changes or updates needed, negotiate new terms if necessary, and ensure that the agreements continue to benefit both parties involved. This periodic review helps maintain a strong and effective relationship between the supplier and the organization.

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44.

(024) In order for the support agreement process to be effective a functional area agreement coordinator (FAAC) must have
- Proper training.
- At least 2 years on station.
- A signed appointment letter.
- A background in contract management.
Correct Answer

A. Proper training.

Explanation

The effectiveness of the support agreement process depends on the competency and knowledge of the functional area agreement coordinator (FAAC). Having proper training ensures that the FAAC is equipped with the necessary skills and understanding of the process. This enables them to effectively coordinate and manage the support agreements. The other options, such as having at least 2 years on station, a signed appointment letter, or a background in contract management, may be beneficial but are not as essential as proper training for the FAAC to carry out their responsibilities effectively.

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45.

(025) Which acquisition cross service agreement (ACSA) support category allows for the transfer of rations?
- Commercial food supply.
- Meals-ready-to-eat.
- Services’ dining.
- Food.
Correct Answer

A. Food.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Food" because the question is asking about the acquisition cross service agreement (ACSA) support category that allows for the transfer of rations. Rations are a type of food that is provided to military personnel, so the category that would support this transfer would be "Food."

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46.

(027) All are planning documents that trigger the start of a Part II development of a base support plan or expeditionary site plan (BSP/ESP) except
- Global strategy document.
- Support agreement request.
- War consumables distribution objective (WCDO).
- All forces time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD).
Correct Answer

A. Support agreement request.

Explanation

The correct answer is "support agreement request." The other options mentioned, such as the global strategy document, war consumables distribution objective (WCDO), and all forces time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD), are all planning documents that trigger the start of a Part II development of a base support plan or expeditionary site plan (BSP/ESP). A support agreement request, however, is not a planning document that initiates the development of a BSP/ESP.

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47.

(027) All are members of the base support plan committee except
- Functional data managers.
- Civilian personnel office.
- Group commanders.
- Plans technician.
Correct Answer

A. Plans technician.

Explanation

The question asks for the member who is not part of the base support plan committee. The options provided include functional data managers, civilian personnel office, group commanders, and plans technician. The correct answer is "Plans technician" because all the other options - functional data managers, civilian personnel office, and group commanders - are mentioned as members of the base support plan committee.

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48.

(006) Who chairs the National Security Council (NSC)?
- Secretary of State.
- Secretary of Defense (SecDef).
- Combatant commander (COCOM).
- President of the United States (POTUS).
Correct Answer

A. President of the United States (POTUS).

Explanation

The President of the United States (POTUS) chairs the National Security Council (NSC) because the NSC is a key advisory body on matters of national security and foreign policy. As the Commander-in-Chief and the highest-ranking official in the United States government, the President is responsible for making decisions and setting policies related to national security. The NSC serves as a forum for the President to consult with top national security advisors, coordinate government agencies, and develop strategies to protect the country's interests. Therefore, it is logical that the President would chair the NSC.

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49.

(006) Which implements and augments presidential and secretary of defense guidance that’s forwarded in the guidance for the employment of the forces (GEF)?
- Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP).
- National Security Council (NSC).
- Unified Command Plan (UCP).
- Operations plan (OPLAN).
Correct Answer

A. Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP).

Explanation

The Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP) implements and augments presidential and secretary of defense guidance that is forwarded in the guidance for the employment of the forces (GEF). This means that the JSCP is responsible for putting into action and enhancing the guidance provided by the president and secretary of defense for the use of military forces. The National Security Council (NSC) is a different entity that advises the president on national security matters, while the Unified Command Plan (UCP) outlines the command structure for military operations. An operations plan (OPLAN) is a specific plan for a military operation. Therefore, the correct answer is the Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP).

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2g071 Edit Code 8

(028) Which does the expeditionary site survey planning process define?

Quiz Preview

(006) Regarding National Security Strategy, how are presidential level decisions made?

(011) When is a new unit type code (UTC) requested?

(011) Which is the last step in the unit type code (UTC) development process?

(019) A location in the United States or overseas that is designated as an area for unit type codes (UTC) to be grouped together during a deployment is called

(020) Which redeployment phase responsibility is determined by the post-redeployment mission of the redeploying force?

(023) Who determines how to move the requirements and load plans war reserve materiel (WRM) outload?

(024) The support agreement process starts when

(024) If an impasse cannot be resolved at a major command (MAJCOM) who must be notified?

(024) Who conducts a support agreement budget review?

(028) Which provides the focus, guidance, and integration, and prioritizes actions for a site survey team?

(012) Unit type codes (UTC) should be developed and be tasked from a single organization

(014) Who will directly analyze all applicable planning documents to ensure the installation deployment plan (IDP) addresses the full range of military operations the installation is identified to support?

(016) Which type of major command (MAJCOM) has a flying mission that directly supports its combat forces?

(021) Which can be used with starter stock to provide additional support to the combatant commander (COCOM) until the air and sea lines of re-supply are capable of sustaining military operations?

(022) The purpose of the war reserve materiel (WRM) review board is to

(026) Which document highlights the installation’s missions, requirements, capabilities, and limitations, as well as resources?

(027) How is Part I of the base support plan or expeditionary site plan (BSP/ESP) normally classified and marked?

(002) Which term is used to describe the unclassified portion of a plan that denotes the supported commander, the type of plan, and the plan identification number (PID)?

(004) Who provides the services with planning information concerning origin and availability of non-service controlled materiel?

(019) The reception, staging, on-ward movement, and integration (RSO&I) functions are applicable during the

(020) The transfer of a unit, an individual, or supplies deployed in one area to another area, to another location within the area, or to home station is

(020) Deployed logistics planners, or designated alternates, collect as many deployment documents as possible because the

(021) War reserve materiel (WRM) is positioned

(022) The purpose of a war reserve materiel (WRM) surveillance visit is to ensure compliance with appropriate

(024) As a minimum, how many days notice must be given when a supplier or receiver needs to reduce, modify, or terminate a support agreement?

(027) Which is the key to successful expeditionary site planning and must have senior leadership involvement?

(022) Who accompanies the war reserve materiel (WRM) noncommissioned officer (WRMNCO) during a WRM surveillance visit?

During the annual review a new support agreement funding annex is developed if

(001) Combatant commanders (COCOM) report directly to

(018) Which is the last step of determining the worst-case deployment scenario?

(019) Who establishes strength accountability for everyone they are responsible for, regardless of location, and updates the information in the accountability system?

(022) Which command is the Force Provider for United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)?

(022) Who notifies the war reserve materiel (WRM) global management office (GMO) of out-of-cycle WRM requirement adjustments?

(024) Who evaluates the requested support capability in a support agreement for the supplier?

(024) Who is the impasse letter forwarded to if there is an impasse concerning the overall agreement?

(025) There no political or financial risks associated with an acquisition cross service agreement (ACSA) because it’s

(005) Which additional AFI governs the WMP–4, Wartime Aircraft Activity, Part 1 and Part 2, besides AFI 25–101?

(008) The joint capabilities document (JCD) is a result of

(011) If a unit type code (UTC) is not registered in the type unit characteristics file (TUCHA) then

Postering unit type codes (UTC) is based on

(015) Which organization is the office of primary responsibility for Air Force deployment and redeployment operations?

(024) The supplier support agreement manager (SAM) reviews support agreements every

(024) In order for the support agreement process to be effective a functional area agreement coordinator (FAAC) must have

(025) Which acquisition cross service agreement (ACSA) support category allows for the transfer of rations?

(027) All are planning documents that trigger the start of a Part II development of a base support plan or expeditionary site plan (BSP/ESP) except

(027) All are members of the base support plan committee except

(006) Who chairs the National Security Council (NSC)?

(006) Which implements and augments presidential and secretary of defense guidance that’s forwarded in the guidance for the employment of the forces (GEF)?