2g071 Edit Code 8

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2g071 Edit Code 8 - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) Combatant commanders (COCOM) report directly to

    • A.

      Major command (MAJCOM) commander.

    • B.

      Numbered air force (NAF) commander.

    • C.

      Secretary of Defense (SecDef).

    • D.

      Host nation (HN) leader.

    Correct Answer
    C. Secretary of Defense (SecDef).
    Explanation
    Combatant commanders (COCOM) are senior military commanders who are responsible for the military operations in a specific geographic or functional area. They report directly to the Secretary of Defense (SecDef), who is the head of the Department of Defense and the civilian leader of the military. The SecDef provides guidance and strategic direction to the combatant commanders, ensuring civilian control over the military and effective coordination of military operations. Therefore, it is the SecDef to whom the COCOMs report directly, making this the correct answer.

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  • 2. 

    (001) How should a combatant commander’s command authority be exercised?

    • A.

      By direction of the wing commander.

    • B.

      By direction of the Secretary of Defense (SecDef).

    • C.

      Through the installation deployment officer.

    • D.

      Through the commanders of subordinate organizations.

    Correct Answer
    D. Through the commanders of subordinate organizations.
    Explanation
    A combatant commander's command authority should be exercised through the commanders of subordinate organizations. This means that the combatant commander delegates their authority and responsibilities to the commanders of the units under their command. This allows for effective and efficient command and control, as the commanders of the subordinate organizations are responsible for executing the combatant commander's orders and directives. By relying on the commanders of subordinate organizations, the combatant commander can effectively manage and coordinate military operations.

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  • 3. 

    (001) Which major command (MAJCOM) logistics plans functional area facilitates logistics plans personnel actions, including validating manpower; recruiting personnel to fill vacancies; permanent change of station (PCS) assignments; temporary duty (TDY) staffing; and retraining approval for potential logistics planners?

    • A.

      Programs.

    • B.

      Functional management.

    • C.

      Deployment management.

    • D.

      Expeditionary site planning.

    Correct Answer
    B. Functional management.
    Explanation
    Functional management is the correct answer because it is the major command (MAJCOM) logistics plans functional area that facilitates logistics plans personnel actions. This includes validating manpower, recruiting personnel to fill vacancies, assigning personnel to permanent change of station (PCS), staffing temporary duty (TDY), and approving retraining for potential logistics planners. Functional management is responsible for managing and coordinating these personnel actions within the MAJCOM logistics plans functional area.

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  • 4. 

    (002) In order to respond to a requirement established by the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS), which must a commander of a unified or specified command prepare?

    • A.

      Time phased force deployment data (TPFDD).

    • B.

      Installation deployment plan (IDP).

    • C.

      Expeditionary support plan (ESP).

    • D.

      Operations plan (OPLAN).

    Correct Answer
    D. Operations plan (OPLAN).
    Explanation
    In order to respond to a requirement established by the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS), a commander of a unified or specified command must prepare an Operations plan (OPLAN). This plan outlines the objectives, tasks, and resources required to accomplish a specific military operation. It includes details such as the command structure, logistics support, and coordination with other units or organizations involved in the operation. By preparing an OPLAN, the commander ensures that all necessary elements are in place to effectively carry out the mission as directed by the JCS.

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  • 5. 

    (002) Which is ensured by combining the operations plan (OPLAN) criteria of feasibility and acceptability?

    • A.

      Cost cutting benefits and savings.

    • B.

      Timely deployability of cargo and personnel.

    • C.

      Mission accomplishment with available resources.

    • D.

      Accurate positioning of war readiness material (WRM).

    Correct Answer
    C. Mission accomplishment with available resources.
    Explanation
    The combination of feasibility and acceptability in the operations plan criteria ensures that the mission can be successfully accomplished using the resources that are available. This means that the plan takes into consideration both the practicality and the suitability of the resources in order to achieve the desired outcome. By considering these factors, the plan can effectively allocate resources and make informed decisions to ensure mission success.

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  • 6. 

    (002) Which operations plan (OPLAN) criterion is used when considering if the resources made available for planning are used effectively or are insufficient to satisfy plan requirements? 

    • A.

      Mobility.

    • B.

      Adequacy.

    • C.

      Feasibility.

    • D.

      Acceptability.

    Correct Answer
    C. Feasibility.
    Explanation
    Feasibility is the criterion used to determine if the resources allocated for planning are sufficient to meet the requirements of the operations plan (OPLAN). It assesses whether the available resources, such as personnel, equipment, and funding, are effectively utilized or if they fall short in meeting the plan's needs. Feasibility evaluates the practicality and viability of the plan, considering the available resources and their ability to support the desired objectives.

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  • 7. 

    (002) Which is supported when the combatant command (COCOM) and service-component staffs develop a detailed flow of resources into the theater?

    • A.

      Expeditionary exit strategy

    • B.

      Joint feasibility engagement.

    • C.

      Contingency mobility protocol.

    • D.

      Approved operations plan (OPLAN) concept.

    Correct Answer
    D. Approved operations plan (OPLAN) concept.
    Explanation
    When the combatant command (COCOM) and service-component staffs develop a detailed flow of resources into the theater, it is supported by the Approved operations plan (OPLAN) concept. This concept outlines the specific objectives, tasks, and resources required for a military operation. It provides a comprehensive plan that guides the coordination and execution of operations, including the allocation and movement of resources. By developing a detailed flow of resources into the theater, the OPLAN concept ensures that the necessary personnel, equipment, and supplies are available and properly deployed to support the mission.

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  • 8. 

    (002) Which term is used to describe the unclassified portion of a plan that denotes the supported commander, the type of plan, and the plan identification number (PID)?

    • A.

      Preface.

    • B.

      Short title.

    • C.

      Glossary.

    • D.

      Introduction.

    Correct Answer
    B. Short title.
    Explanation
    The term "Short title" is used to describe the unclassified portion of a plan that denotes the supported commander, the type of plan, and the plan identification number (PID). This term is commonly used to provide a concise and easily identifiable name for the plan, allowing for quick reference and recognition. It helps to distinguish the plan from others and provides essential information about the plan's purpose and identification.

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  • 9. 

    (003) Which contingency planning phase objective is to develop a broad outline of the combatant commander’s assumption or intent?

    • A.

      Concept development.

    • B.

      Plan development.

    • C.

      Plan review.

    • D.

      Initiation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Concept development.
    Explanation
    The objective of the concept development phase in contingency planning is to develop a broad outline of the combatant commander's assumption or intent. This phase involves brainstorming and exploring various concepts and ideas to determine the best course of action for the given situation. It helps in identifying the key goals and objectives of the plan and provides a foundation for further planning and development.

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  • 10. 

    (003) Which contingency planning phase makes sure that a plan properly incorporates the mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment of forces and resources?

    • A.

      Concept development.

    • B.

      Plan development.

    • C.

      Supporting plan.

    • D.

      Plan review.

    Correct Answer
    C. Supporting plan.
    Explanation
    The supporting plan phase of contingency planning ensures that a plan includes all necessary elements for the mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment of forces and resources. This phase focuses on the logistical aspects of the plan, ensuring that all necessary resources are accounted for and properly utilized during the execution of the plan. It involves coordinating and organizing the necessary support functions to ensure the success of the overall plan.

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  • 11. 

    (004) Joint operations planning and execution system (JOPES) procedures that task military operations for humanitarian assistance, disaster relief, peace-keeping and or counter-drug operations are used to write

    • A.

      An exercise plan.

    • B.

      A functional plan.

    • C.

      A supporting plan.

    • D.

      A contingency plan.

    Correct Answer
    B. A functional plan.
    Explanation
    JOPES procedures are specifically used for tasking military operations for various purposes such as humanitarian assistance, disaster relief, peace-keeping, and counter-drug operations. These procedures involve detailed planning and execution, which aligns with the concept of a functional plan. A functional plan outlines the specific actions and tasks required to achieve a particular objective or function, which perfectly fits the purpose of JOPES procedures in tasking military operations.

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  • 12. 

    (004) Which type of planning prioritizes delivery of sustainment forces in a combat environment?

    • A.

      Contingency plan.

    • B.

      Support plan.

    • C.

      Functional plan.

    • D.

      Mobility plan.

    Correct Answer
    B. Support plan.
    Explanation
    A support plan prioritizes the delivery of sustainment forces in a combat environment. This type of planning focuses on providing the necessary resources, logistics, and support to ensure that combat forces have the supplies, equipment, and personnel they need to sustain their operations. It involves coordinating the movement of personnel, equipment, and supplies to the combat area, establishing supply chains, and ensuring that sustainment forces are able to quickly and efficiently deliver support where it is needed most.

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  • 13. 

    (004) Who provides the services with planning information concerning origin and availability of non-service controlled materiel?

    • A.

      Secretary of State.

    • B.

      Secretary of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.

    • C.

      Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff.

    • D.

      General Services Administration (GSA).

    Correct Answer
    D. General Services Administration (GSA).
    Explanation
    The General Services Administration (GSA) provides services with planning information concerning the origin and availability of non-service controlled materiel. The GSA is responsible for managing and supporting the basic functioning of federal agencies, including procurement and property management. They assist in the acquisition of goods and services, including non-service controlled materiel, and provide information on their origin and availability to ensure efficient planning and resource allocation. The Secretary of State, Secretary of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff do not have direct involvement in this specific function.

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  • 14. 

    (004) According to the instructions of the component headquarters, which of the following supports plans with primary planning responsibility?

    • A.

      Supporting forces.

    • B.

      Supported commander.

    • C.

      Supporting commander.

    • D.

      ​Supporting major command (MAJCOM).

    Correct Answer
    D. ​Supporting major command (MAJCOM).
    Explanation
    According to the instructions of the component headquarters, the supporting major command (MAJCOM) supports plans with primary planning responsibility. This means that the MAJCOM is responsible for developing and executing plans, while other entities such as supporting forces, supported commander, and supporting commander may have supporting roles but not primary planning responsibility.

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  • 15. 

    (005) Which is the Air Force’s supporting document for the joint strategic capabilities plan (JSCP)?

    • A.

      Operations Order.

    • B.

      Joint Strategic Review.

    • C.

      Joint Planning Document.

    • D.

      War and Mobilization Plan.

    Correct Answer
    D. War and Mobilization Plan.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the War and Mobilization Plan. This document serves as the Air Force's supporting document for the joint strategic capabilities plan (JSCP). It outlines the Air Force's plans and strategies for war and mobilization, including the allocation of resources, deployment of forces, and coordination with other branches of the military. It provides a comprehensive framework for the Air Force's role in joint operations and ensures readiness for potential conflicts or emergencies.

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  • 16. 

    (005) Which war and mobilization plan (WMP) volume provides a single source for Air Force planning and support of combat forces in a time of war?

    • A.

      WMP–1, Basic Plan and Support Supplements.

    • B.

      WMP–2, Plans listing and Summary.

    • C.

      WMP–3, Combat and Support Forces.

    • D.

      WMP–4, Wartime Aircraft Activity.

    Correct Answer
    A. WMP–1, Basic Plan and Support Supplements.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is WMP-1, Basic Plan and Support Supplements. This volume provides a comprehensive plan and support supplements for the Air Force's planning and support of combat forces during a time of war. It serves as a single source of information for the Air Force's strategies and actions in wartime.

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  • 17. 

    (005) Which additional AFI governs the WMP–4, Wartime Aircraft Activity, Part 1 and Part 2, besides AFI 25–101?

    • A.

      AFI 10–403.

    • B.

      AFI 10–401.

    • C.

      AFI 10–304.

    • D.

      AFI 10–104.

    Correct Answer
    B. AFI 10–401.
  • 18. 

    (006) Who chairs the National Security Council (NSC)?

    • A.

      Secretary of State.

    • B.

      Secretary of Defense (SecDef).

    • C.

      Combatant commander (COCOM).

    • D.

      President of the United States (POTUS).

    Correct Answer
    D. President of the United States (POTUS).
    Explanation
    The President of the United States (POTUS) chairs the National Security Council (NSC) because the NSC is a key advisory body on matters of national security and foreign policy. As the Commander-in-Chief and the highest-ranking official in the United States government, the President is responsible for making decisions and setting policies related to national security. The NSC serves as a forum for the President to consult with top national security advisors, coordinate government agencies, and develop strategies to protect the country's interests. Therefore, it is logical that the President would chair the NSC.

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  • 19. 

    (006) Regarding National Security Strategy, how are presidential level decisions made?

    • A.

      Through the National Security Council System (NSCS).

    • B.

      Through the Executive Legislative Branch.

    • C.

      With the approval of 3 of 5 Joint Chiefs.

    • D.

      With Supreme Court approval.

    Correct Answer
    A. Through the National Security Council System (NSCS).
    Explanation
    Presidential level decisions regarding National Security Strategy are made through the National Security Council System (NSCS). The NSCS is a group of advisors and agencies that assist the President in formulating and implementing national security policies. It includes the President, Vice President, Secretary of State, Secretary of Defense, and other key officials. The NSCS provides a forum for discussing and coordinating national security issues, and it plays a crucial role in shaping the President's decisions on matters of national security.

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  • 20. 

    (006) A primary role of the Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) is to

    • A.

      Provide direct guidance to the Services.

    • B.

      Provide independent advice to the president.

    • C.

      Elect National Security Council members (NSC).

    • D.

      Draft annual budgets for the Department of Defense (DOD).

    Correct Answer
    B. Provide independent advice to the president.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "provide independent advice to the president." The Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS) serves as a mechanism for providing unbiased and objective advice to the president. It helps in the development of national security strategies, policies, and plans by evaluating various options and providing recommendations. This ensures that the president receives independent advice from experts in order to make informed decisions regarding national security.

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  • 21. 

    (006) Which implements and augments presidential and secretary of defense guidance that’s forwarded in the guidance for the employment of the forces (GEF)?

    • A.

      Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP).

    • B.

      National Security Council (NSC).

    • C.

      Unified Command Plan (UCP).

    • D.

      Operations plan (OPLAN).

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP).
    Explanation
    The Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP) implements and augments presidential and secretary of defense guidance that is forwarded in the guidance for the employment of the forces (GEF). This means that the JSCP is responsible for putting into action and enhancing the guidance provided by the president and secretary of defense for the use of military forces. The National Security Council (NSC) is a different entity that advises the president on national security matters, while the Unified Command Plan (UCP) outlines the command structure for military operations. An operations plan (OPLAN) is a specific plan for a military operation. Therefore, the correct answer is the Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP).

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  • 22. 

    (006) Military departments and defense agencies provide advice to the Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution System (PPBES)

    • A.

      So execution and accountability may be assessed properly.

    • B.

      To ensure the smallest possible deployment foot print.

    • C.

      To ensure assets are properly utilized.

    • D.

      So proper manning is allocated.

    Correct Answer
    A. So execution and accountability may be assessed properly.
    Explanation
    Military departments and defense agencies provide advice to the Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution System (PPBES) in order to ensure that the execution and accountability of resources and funds can be properly assessed. This advice helps in evaluating the effectiveness and efficiency of the system, allowing for adjustments and improvements to be made as necessary. By assessing execution and accountability, the military can ensure that resources are being used effectively and that the desired outcomes are being achieved.

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  • 23. 

    (007) The United States Joint Forces Command (USJFCOM) uses its component inputs to

    • A.

      Validate Time Phased Force Deployment Data (TPFDD) requirements.

    • B.

      Execute the implementation of the air and space expeditionary force.

    • C.

      Recommend global sourcing solutions for all forces.

    • D.

      Timely execute combatant commander forces.

    Correct Answer
    C. Recommend global sourcing solutions for all forces.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "recommend global sourcing solutions for all forces." This means that the United States Joint Forces Command (USJFCOM) uses its component inputs to provide suggestions and advice on finding global sourcing solutions for all forces. This implies that the USJFCOM plays a role in identifying and recommending the most efficient and effective ways to source resources and support for military operations from around the world.

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  • 24. 

    (008) The joint capabilities document (JCD) is a result of

    • A.

      The nation’s wartime mission.

    • B.

      The need to implement an air and space expeditionary force (AEF).

    • C.

      A Functional Solution Analysis (FSA) and the Functional Needs Analysis (FNA).

    • D.

      Timely allocation of forces for combatant command (COCOM) missions and allocations.

    Correct Answer
    C. A Functional Solution Analysis (FSA) and the Functional Needs Analysis (FNA).
    Explanation
    The joint capabilities document (JCD) is a result of a Functional Solution Analysis (FSA) and the Functional Needs Analysis (FNA). This means that the JCD is developed based on the analysis of the functional solutions and needs in order to fulfill the joint capabilities required for military operations. The FSA identifies potential solutions and the FNA assesses the functional needs of the military. By combining these analyses, the JCD is able to outline the necessary capabilities to support the nation's wartime mission and the implementation of an air and space expeditionary force (AEF).

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  • 25. 

    (008) Which endorses the request for forces/capability (RFF/RFC)?

    • A.

      Joint Forces Command (JFCOM).

    • B.

      Secretary of Defense (SecDef).

    • C.

      Combatant commander (COCOM).

    • D.

      President of the United States (POTUS).

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint Forces Command (JFCOM).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Joint Forces Command (JFCOM). JFCOM is responsible for endorsing the request for forces/capability (RFF/RFC). They evaluate the request and determine the appropriate forces or capabilities needed to support the mission. They work closely with the combatant commander (COCOM) to ensure that the requested forces align with the overall strategic objectives. The Secretary of Defense (SecDef) and the President of the United States (POTUS) may also be involved in the decision-making process, but the primary responsibility lies with JFCOM.

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  • 26. 

    (009) Which crisis action phase involves the combatant (supported) commander’s assessment of potential national security implications being submitted to the president, secretary of defense (SecDef), and the chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS)?

    • A.

      Course of action development.

    • B.

      Situation development.

    • C.

      Execution planning.

    • D.

      Crisis assessment.

    Correct Answer
    B. Situation development.
    Explanation
    Situation development is the correct answer because it involves the combatant commander's assessment of potential national security implications being submitted to the president, secretary of defense, and the chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff. This phase focuses on gathering and analyzing information to understand the crisis situation fully and determine the appropriate course of action. It is an essential step in the crisis action planning process.

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  • 27. 

    (009) Which crisis action phase is initiated by the president’s decision to exercise a military option in reaction to a crisis?

    • A.

      Execution.

    • B.

      Crisis assessment.

    • C.

      Situation development.

    • D.

      Course of action development.

    Correct Answer
    A. Execution.
    Explanation
    After the president decides to exercise a military option in response to a crisis, the crisis action phase that is initiated is known as execution. This phase involves the actual implementation of the chosen military option, where the necessary resources and forces are deployed and the plan is put into action. It is the stage where the military operation is executed, aiming to resolve the crisis effectively and efficiently.

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  • 28. 

    (010) Which order defines the objectives, anticipated mission or tasks, pertinent constraints, command relationships, and tentative combat forces available to a commander for planning?

    • A.

      WARNING ORDER (WARNORD).

    • B.

      PLANNING ORDER (PLANORD).

    • C.

      OPERATION ORDER (OPORD).

    • D.

      ALERT ORDER (ALERTORD).

    Correct Answer
    A. WARNING ORDER (WARNORD).
    Explanation
    A warning order (WARNORD) is the order that defines the objectives, anticipated mission or tasks, pertinent constraints, command relationships, and tentative combat forces available to a commander for planning. It serves as an initial communication to alert the unit of an upcoming operation and provides essential information for the planning process. The other options, planning order (PLANORD), operation order (OPORD), and alert order (ALERTORD), do not specifically address all the elements mentioned in the question.

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  • 29. 

    (010) Which order directs the initiation of a plan development before the directing authority approves a military course of action (COA)?

    • A.

      WARNING ORDER (WARNORD).

    • B.

      PLANNING ORDER (PLANORD).

    • C.

      ALERT ORDER (ALERTORD).

    • D.

      OPERATION ORDER (OPORD).

    Correct Answer
    B. PLANNING ORDER (PLANORD).
    Explanation
    A planning order (PLANORD) directs the initiation of a plan development before the directing authority approves a military course of action (COA). This means that the planning process can begin before the final approval of the COA, allowing for early preparation and coordination. A warning order (WARNORD) typically provides initial information and alerts units to begin planning, but it does not necessarily initiate the plan development process. An alert order (ALERTORD) notifies units to be prepared for imminent action, but it does not necessarily involve plan development. An operation order (OPORD) is issued after the COA has been approved and provides detailed instructions for executing the plan.

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  • 30. 

    (010) Which order is developed during crisis action planning when the secretary of defense (SecDef) approves and transmits the selected course of action (COA)?

    • A.

      WARNING ORDER (WARNORD).

    • B.

      PLANNING ORDER (PLANORD).

    • C.

      ALERT ORDER (ALERTORD).

    • D.

      OPERATION ORDER (OPORD).

    Correct Answer
    C. ALERT ORDER (ALERTORD).
    Explanation
    During crisis action planning, the order that is developed after the secretary of defense (SecDef) approves and transmits the selected course of action (COA) is the ALERT ORDER (ALERTORD). This order is issued to alert the relevant personnel and units about the approved COA and to provide them with initial instructions and information necessary for the execution of the plan. It serves as a preliminary step before the detailed planning order (PLANORD) and the subsequent operation order (OPORD) are issued.

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  • 31. 

    (010) In a time-sensitive crisis, which order can be issued in lieu of an ALERT ORDER (ALERTORD)?

    • A.

      EXECUTE ORDER (EXORD).

    • B.

      PLANNING ORDER (PLANORD).

    • C.

      DEPLOYMENT ORDER (DEPORD).

    • D.

      PREPARE TO DEPLOY ORDER (PTDO).

    Correct Answer
    A. EXECUTE ORDER (EXORD).
    Explanation
    In a time-sensitive crisis, an ALERT ORDER (ALERTORD) is typically issued to quickly notify personnel of the situation. However, if an ALERT ORDER cannot be issued for any reason, the next best option would be to issue an EXECUTE ORDER (EXORD). This order would provide specific instructions on how to respond and take action in the crisis, ensuring that personnel are aware of what needs to be done immediately. The other options, such as PLANNING ORDER (PLANORD), DEPLOYMENT ORDER (DEPORD), and PREPARE TO DEPLOY ORDER (PTDO), are not as appropriate in a time-sensitive crisis as they involve more planning or preparation rather than immediate action.

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  • 32. 

    (010) Which order is issued once the National Command Authority (NCA) decides to begin preparations for the conduct of a military operation?

    • A.

      DEPLOYMENT ORDER (DEPORD).

    • B.

      PLANNING ORDER (PLANORD).

    • C.

      ALERT ORDER (ALERTORD).

    • D.

      OPERATION ORDER (OPORD).

    Correct Answer
    A. DEPLOYMENT ORDER (DEPORD).
    Explanation
    Once the National Command Authority (NCA) decides to begin preparations for a military operation, a Deployment Order (DEPORD) is issued. This order is responsible for initiating the process of deploying troops, equipment, and resources to the designated location for the operation. It outlines the specific details and instructions regarding the movement and positioning of forces, logistics, and other necessary preparations. The DEPORD serves as a crucial step in the overall planning and execution of the military operation.

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  • 33. 

    (011) When is a new unit type code (UTC) requested?

    • A.

      When directed by the President of the United States (POTUS).

    • B.

      When a desired capability does not exist.

    • C.

      Upon the start of a contingency.

    • D.

      Upon the start of an exercise.

    Correct Answer
    B. When a desired capability does not exist.
    Explanation
    A new unit type code (UTC) is requested when a desired capability does not exist. This means that when there is a specific capability that is needed but is not currently available, a request is made for a new UTC to be created. This allows for the development and deployment of units that possess the required capability.

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  • 34. 

    (011) Which is the last step in the unit type code (UTC) development process?

    • A.

      Drafting.

    • B.

      Validation.

    • C.

      Registration.

    • D.

      Construction.

    Correct Answer
    C. Registration.
    Explanation
    The last step in the unit type code (UTC) development process is registration. This suggests that after the drafting and validation stages, where the UTC is created and checked for accuracy, the final step involves officially registering the code. This likely involves submitting the code to a governing body or organization that oversees UTCs, ensuring that it meets the necessary standards and requirements. Construction, on the other hand, does not align with the process of developing a UTC and is therefore not the correct answer.

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  • 35. 

    (011) If a unit type code (UTC) is not registered in the type unit characteristics file (TUCHA) then

    • A.

      It cannot be added to the Logistics Module (LOGMOD).

    • B.

      It cannot be tasked via time phased force deployment data (TPFDD).

    • C.

      Air Combat Command (ACC) cannot determine or validate accurate airlift requirements.

    • D.

      United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) cannot determine or validate accurate airlift requirements.

    Correct Answer
    D. United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) cannot determine or validate accurate airlift requirements.
    Explanation
    If a unit type code (UTC) is not registered in the type unit characteristics file (TUCHA), it means that the necessary information about the unit's characteristics and requirements is not available. This information is crucial for determining accurate airlift requirements. Without this information, United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM) cannot effectively determine or validate the airlift requirements for the unit. Therefore, the correct answer is that USTRANSCOM cannot determine or validate accurate airlift requirements.

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  • 36. 

    (012) Unit type codes (UTC) should be developed and be tasked from a single organization

    • A.

      As a cost saving measure.

    • B.

      So that only one expeditionary commander is required.

    • C.

      In order to reduce the airlift requirement when transporting.

    • D.

      To eliminate the need for fragmenting across multiple units.

    Correct Answer
    D. To eliminate the need for fragmenting across multiple units.
    Explanation
    Developing and tasking unit type codes (UTC) from a single organization helps to eliminate the need for fragmenting across multiple units. This means that instead of having different units with different codes, all UTCs are managed and assigned by one organization. This ensures cohesion and standardization across units, reducing the potential for confusion and inefficiency. By centralizing the development and tasking of UTCs, resources can be allocated more effectively, and coordination becomes easier. This ultimately leads to a more streamlined and cost-effective process, as there is no need to divide and distribute tasks among multiple units.

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  • 37. 

    (013) Who runs the logistics force packing module (LOGFOR) database verification (DB verify) report prior to reporting the logistics detail (LOGDET) to the major command (MAJCOM) logistics module (LOGMOD) manager?

    • A.

      Installation Deployment Officer (IDO).

    • B.

      Pilot unit LOGMOD administrator.

    • C.

      Unit deployment manager (UDM).

    • D.

      DB verify manager.

    Correct Answer
    B. Pilot unit LOGMOD administrator.
    Explanation
    The pilot unit LOGMOD administrator runs the logistics force packing module (LOGFOR) database verification (DB verify) report prior to reporting the logistics detail (LOGDET) to the major command (MAJCOM) logistics module (LOGMOD) manager. This implies that the LOGMOD administrator is responsible for ensuring the accuracy and integrity of the data in the LOGFOR database before it is reported to the higher-level command.

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  • 38. 

    (013) After a unit type code (UTC) is reviewed and updated, who is responsible for updating the mission capability (MISCAP) to indicate the date of the most recent review? 

    • A.

      Unit deployment manager (UDM).

    • B.

      Major command (MAJCOM) functional manager.

    • C.

      Pilot unit logistics module (LOGMOD) administrator.

    • D.

      Manpower and Equipment Force Packaging System (MEFPAK) responsible agency.

    Correct Answer
    D. Manpower and Equipment Force Packaging System (MEFPAK) responsible agency.
    Explanation
    The Manpower and Equipment Force Packaging System (MEFPAK) responsible agency is responsible for updating the mission capability (MISCAP) to indicate the date of the most recent review after a unit type code (UTC) is reviewed and updated.

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  • 39. 

    Postering unit type codes (UTC) is based on

    • A.

      The funded military authorizations on an organization’s unit manpower document (UMD).

    • B.

      A major command’s (MAJCOM) functional area code authorization document.

    • C.

      The Secretary of Defense’s (SecDef) developed deployment UTC plan.

    • D.

      MAJCOM’s UTC posturing manpower document.

    Correct Answer
    A. The funded military authorizations on an organization’s unit manpower document (UMD).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that postering unit type codes (UTC) is based on the funded military authorizations on an organization's unit manpower document (UMD). This means that the allocation of unit type codes is determined by the authorized number of personnel for a particular organization as outlined in the UMD. This ensures that the correct number of personnel are allocated to each unit type code, allowing for effective planning and resource allocation within the military organization.

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  • 40. 

    (014) Who will directly analyze all applicable planning documents to ensure the installation deployment plan (IDP) addresses the full range of military operations the installation is identified to support?

    • A.

      IDP manager.

    • B.

      Wing commander.

    • C.

      Unit deployment manager (UDM).

    • D.

      Installation deployment officer (IDO).

    Correct Answer
    D. Installation deployment officer (IDO).
    Explanation
    The installation deployment officer (IDO) is responsible for directly analyzing all applicable planning documents to ensure that the installation deployment plan (IDP) addresses the full range of military operations that the installation is identified to support. The IDO's role is to oversee and coordinate the deployment activities of the installation, ensuring that all necessary planning and preparations are in place to support military operations. The IDO works closely with other personnel, such as the UDM and wing commander, but ultimately holds the primary responsibility for analyzing and addressing the full range of military operations in the IDP.

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  • 41. 

    (015) Who is the principal adviser to the secretary of the air force (SECAF) on Air Force activities and provides assistance for organizing air and space forces to meet combat commander (CCDR) requirements?

    • A.

      Secretary of Defense (SecDef).

    • B.

      Chief of Staff, US Air Force (CSAF).

    • C.

      Chairman Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS).

    • D.

      Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force (CMSAF).

    Correct Answer
    B. Chief of Staff, US Air Force (CSAF).
    Explanation
    The Chief of Staff, US Air Force (CSAF) is the principal adviser to the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) on Air Force activities and provides assistance for organizing air and space forces to meet combat commander (CCDR) requirements. They are responsible for overseeing the operational readiness and effectiveness of the Air Force and play a crucial role in shaping Air Force policy and strategy. The Secretary of Defense (SecDef), Chairman Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS), and Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force (CMSAF) do not hold the same level of authority or responsibility in advising the SECAF on Air Force activities.

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  • 42. 

    (015) Which organization is the office of primary responsibility for Air Force deployment and redeployment operations?

    • A.

      Directorate of Logistics Readiness.

    • B.

      Directorate of Deployment and Redeployment.

    • C.

      Deputy Chief of Staff, Logistics, Installations and Mission Support.

    • D.

      Deputy Chief of Staff for Air, Space and Information Operations, Plans, and Requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. Directorate of Logistics Readiness.
    Explanation
    The Directorate of Logistics Readiness is the office of primary responsibility for Air Force deployment and redeployment operations. This means that they are responsible for coordinating and managing the logistics and readiness of the Air Force's deployment and redeployment operations. They ensure that all necessary resources and support are available for these operations to be carried out effectively and efficiently.

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  • 43. 

    (016) Which type of major command (MAJCOM) has a flying mission that directly supports its combat forces?

    • A.

      Support.

    • B.

      Exercise.

    • C.

      Operational.

    • D.

      Expeditionary.

    Correct Answer
    C. Operational.
    Explanation
    Operational major commands (MAJCOMs) have a flying mission that directly supports their combat forces. These MAJCOMs are responsible for organizing, training, and equipping forces for operational missions. They focus on maintaining combat readiness and conducting military operations, which often require air support. This makes the operational MAJCOM the correct answer as it directly supports combat forces through its flying mission.

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  • 44. 

    (016) Who is the primary force provider for the air and space expeditionary force (AEF), serves as the tasking authority for the AEF, and is responsible for execution of the AEF schedule?

    • A.

      Commander, Air Combat Command (COMACC).

    • B.

      Commander, Air Mobility Command (COMAMC).

    • C.

      Supporting commander.

    • D.

      Supported commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Commander, Air Combat Command (COMACC).
    Explanation
    The primary force provider for the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) refers to the entity that is responsible for organizing and deploying the necessary forces for AEF missions. The tasking authority for the AEF is the entity that determines which forces will be tasked for specific missions. The entity responsible for executing the AEF schedule is the one that ensures the timely deployment and execution of missions according to the schedule. Among the given options, the Commander, Air Combat Command (COMACC) is the most suitable choice as they fulfill all these roles as the primary force provider, tasking authority, and responsible for the execution of the AEF schedule.

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  • 45. 

    (017) For day-to-day routine issues most base-level activities communicate directly with

    • A.

      Wing commander

    • B.

      Numbered Air Force (NAF).

    • C.

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    • D.

      Headquarters Air Staff.

    Correct Answer
    C. Major command (MAJCOM).
    Explanation
    In the given question, the base-level activities are mentioned as communicating directly with a certain entity. Among the options provided, the Major command (MAJCOM) is the most appropriate choice as it is responsible for overseeing and managing specific units or bases within the Air Force. The other options, such as Wing commander, Numbered Air Force (NAF), and Headquarters Air Staff, do not have the same level of authority or responsibility in terms of day-to-day routine issues at the base level.

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  • 46. 

    (018) Which is the last step of determining the worst-case deployment scenario?

    • A.

      Identify total number of D unit type codes (UTC) affected after reviewing plans, unit type code availability model (UTA), and the War Aircraft Activity Report (WAAR).

    • B.

      Task units to assign personnel and equipment to worst case tasking in the logistics module (LOGMOD).

    • C.

      Create a report detailing all D coded UTCs.

    • D.

      Review the WAAR.

    Correct Answer
    B. Task units to assign personnel and equipment to worst case tasking in the logistics module (LOGMOD).
    Explanation
    The last step of determining the worst-case deployment scenario is to task units to assign personnel and equipment to worst case tasking in the logistics module (LOGMOD). This step involves identifying the specific units and resources that will be needed for the worst-case scenario based on the information gathered from reviewing plans, unit type code availability model (UTA), and the War Aircraft Activity Report (WAAR). It ensures that the necessary personnel and equipment are allocated and prepared for the worst-case deployment scenario.

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  • 47. 

    (018) Which may be needed once the worst-case deployment scenario has been determined?

    • A.

      Relocate forces.

    • B.

      Establish new unit type codes (UTC).

    • C.

      Review operation plans for each unit on the base.

    • D.

      Create a report detailing all D_ coded UTCs with the exception of DX that includes all rotations from the UTC availability for each unit.

    Correct Answer
    A. Relocate forces.
    Explanation
    Once the worst-case deployment scenario has been determined, it may be necessary to relocate forces. This could involve moving personnel, equipment, and resources to a different location in order to better respond to the situation at hand. Relocating forces allows for a more efficient and effective deployment strategy, ensuring that the necessary resources are in the right place at the right time to address the identified risks and challenges.

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  • 48. 

    (019) The reception, staging, on-ward movement, and integration (RSO&I) functions are applicable during the

    • A.

      Operations phase of military operations.

    • B.

      Deployment phase of military operations.

    • C.

      Redeployment phase of military operations.

    • D.

      Deployment and redeployment phases of military operations.

    Correct Answer
    D. Deployment and redeployment phases of military operations.
    Explanation
    The RSO&I functions are applicable during the deployment and redeployment phases of military operations. These functions involve the reception of personnel and equipment, the staging of resources, the movement of forces to the designated area of operations, and the integration of these forces into the existing military structure. These activities are crucial in ensuring a smooth and efficient deployment or redeployment of military forces, allowing them to be effectively utilized in the operational environment.

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  • 49. 

    (019) Who establishes strength accountability for everyone they are responsible for, regardless of location, and updates the information in the accountability system?

    • A.

      Supported commander.

    • B.

      Logistics plans function.

    • C.

      Reception control center (RCC).

    • D.

      Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO).

    Correct Answer
    D. Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO). PERSCO is responsible for establishing strength accountability for everyone they are responsible for, regardless of location, and updating the information in the accountability system. This role ensures that accurate and up-to-date information is maintained regarding personnel in a contingency operation.

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  • 50. 

    (019) A location in the United States or overseas that is designated as an area for unit type codes (UTC) to be grouped together during a deployment is called

    • A.

      Origin.

    • B.

      An egress point.

    • C.

      An aggregation point.

    • D.

      An aerial port of debarkation (APOD).

    Correct Answer
    C. An aggregation point.
    Explanation
    An aggregation point is a location where unit type codes (UTC) are grouped together during a deployment. It serves as a centralized hub for coordinating and managing the deployment of units. This allows for efficient organization and coordination of resources and personnel during the deployment process. An aggregation point is different from an origin, which refers to the starting point of a deployment, an egress point, which refers to a location for exiting a specific area, and an aerial port of debarkation (APOD), which is an airfield used for the arrival and departure of personnel and cargo.

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