2a673 (Edit Code 03) Volume 1, Aircrew Egress Systems Craftsman
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After you have completed a time change within the IMDS, what transaction should you perform on the old part?
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Load the part.
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Query the part.
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Reject the part.
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Delete the part.
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This quiz assesses knowledge in Aircrew Egress Systems, focusing on system lifecycle, logistics support, and parts ordering within military frameworks.
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- 2.
Which of the following is not an approved communication method for issuing changes to TOs?
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Telephone.
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Signed letter.
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Organizational e-mail.
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Command TO distribution office.
Correct Answer
A. Telephone.Explanation
Telephone is not an approved communication method for issuing changes to TOs because it lacks a proper documentation trail. Unlike the other options, a telephone conversation does not provide a written record of the changes made, making it difficult to track and verify the information. Signed letters, organizational emails, and command TO distribution office all provide a paper trail that can be used as evidence of the changes made, ensuring proper communication and accountability.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Who conducts weapons safety training?
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The base or unit training office.
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The major command safety officer or NCO.
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The base or unit weapons safety officer or NCO.
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The munitions accountable systems officer (MASO).
Correct Answer
A. The base or unit weapons safety officer or NCO.Explanation
The correct answer is the base or unit weapons safety officer or NCO. This individual is responsible for conducting weapons safety training within their respective base or unit. They have the knowledge and expertise to ensure that all personnel are properly trained on the safe handling and use of weapons. This training is crucial in preventing accidents and promoting a culture of safety within the military. The major command safety officer or NCO may also play a role in overall safety training, but specifically for weapons safety, it is the base or unit weapons safety officer or NCO who conducts the training.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Training records must be maintained for all personnel except
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SrA.
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SSgt.
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TSgt.
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MSgt.
Correct Answer
A. MSgt.Explanation
Training records must be maintained for all personnel except for MSgt. This is because MSgt (Master Sergeant) is a higher rank in the military hierarchy, indicating that individuals at this rank have already completed their required training and have demonstrated sufficient proficiency in their field. Therefore, there is no need to maintain training records for MSgts as they are already considered highly trained and experienced.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The actions TBA allows you to perform are based on
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Whether or not you have attended the Air Force Trainer Course.
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Roles you have been assigned.
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Network capabilities.
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Your rank.
Correct Answer
A. Roles you have been assigned.Explanation
The correct answer is "roles you have been assigned." The actions TBA allows you to perform are determined by the specific roles that you have been assigned. This means that the tasks and responsibilities you can undertake within the system are dependent on the specific role or roles that have been assigned to you. The system will grant you access and permissions based on these assigned roles, allowing you to perform certain actions within the TBA system.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a CDC?
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Operations officer.
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Group commander.
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Unit training manager.
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Maintenance training flight commander or chief.
Correct Answer
A. Unit training manager.Explanation
The unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a CDC. This is because the unit training manager is in charge of overseeing the training and development of personnel within the unit. They need to gather information from both the trainee and their supervisor to ensure that the trainee is ready and prepared to start the CDC. This interview helps assess the trainee's readiness, address any concerns or questions, and ensure that the training is aligned with the needs and goals of the unit.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What due-in from maintenance (DIFM) status code would you use to code a part as "in work"?
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Awaiting part (AWP).
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In-work (INW).
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Time change (TCG).
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Turn-in (TIN).
Correct Answer
A. In-work (INW).Explanation
The correct answer is "In-work (INW)". This status code is used to indicate that a part is currently being worked on or repaired by the maintenance team. It signifies that the part is not yet completed but is actively being processed. The other options, "Awaiting part (AWP)", "Time change (TCG)", and "Turn-in (TIN)" do not accurately represent the "in work" status of the part.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Within the IMDS, what job flow package is customized to fit each of the tasks most common to an egress shop?
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Job Standard (JST).
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TIme change item (TCI).
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Job data documentation (JDD).
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Plans, scheduling and documentation (PS&D).
Correct Answer
A. Job Standard (JST).Explanation
The correct answer is Job Standard (JST). Within the IMDS, the job flow package that is customized to fit each of the tasks most common to an egress shop is the Job Standard (JST). This package includes standardized procedures and instructions specific to the tasks performed in the egress shop, ensuring consistency and efficiency in the workflow. The JST helps in streamlining the processes and ensuring that the tasks are carried out according to the established standards.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Training detachments (TD) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?
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Air Combat Command (ACC).
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Air Training Command (ATC).
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Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC).
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Air Education and Training Command (AETC).
Correct Answer
A. Air Education and Training Command (AETC).Explanation
Training detachments (TD) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). This command is responsible for the training and education of Air Force personnel, including both officer and enlisted members. As such, it makes sense that training detachments would fall under the purview of AETC, as they are directly involved in the training process. Air Combat Command (ACC) is primarily responsible for combat operations, Air Training Command (ATC) no longer exists as a separate command, and Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC) is responsible for the training and readiness of the Air Force Reserve component.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The block training method is normally used to teach which maintenance training flight (MTF) course?
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General Technical Order System.
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Maintenance Orientation.
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Weight and Balance.
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Any 7-Level course.
Correct Answer
A. Maintenance Orientation.Explanation
The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Orientation course. This method involves grouping related topics together and teaching them in a concentrated block of time. The Maintenance Orientation course is designed to provide new maintenance personnel with a basic understanding of the maintenance organization, policies, procedures, and responsibilities. It covers topics such as safety, documentation, and general maintenance principles. Therefore, the block training method is an effective way to deliver this course and ensure that trainees receive comprehensive and focused instruction.Rate this question:
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- 11.
If a unit received an 85 on their monthly MSEP score, that would be considered
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Excellent.
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Satisfactory.
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Marginal.
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Unsatisfactory.
Correct Answer
A. Satisfactory.Explanation
If a unit received an 85 on their monthly MSEP score, that would be considered satisfactory. This indicates that the unit performed well and met the expected standards for the monthly evaluation. It shows that they have achieved a good level of performance and are meeting the requirements set for them.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What must exist before a part can be ordered from Integrated Logistics System-Supply (ILS-S)?
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Authorization control number.
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Supply document control number.
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Production supply control number.
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Job control number (JCN) and work center event (WCE).
Correct Answer
A. Job control number (JCN) and work center event (WCE).Explanation
Before a part can be ordered from Integrated Logistics System-Supply (ILS-S), the job control number (JCN) and work center event (WCE) must exist. These two elements are necessary for tracking and coordinating the ordering process. The JCN identifies the specific job or task that requires the part, while the WCE indicates the location or work center where the part is needed. Together, these numbers ensure that the part is ordered and delivered to the correct place at the right time.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What is your next step if you order a part but your IMDS inquiry shows a KILL action?
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Backorder the parts in the amount required.
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Wait for the parts to come in as they are on their way.
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The parts have already been delivered to your shop so go find them.
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You do not have to do anything; the parts will automatically be backordered.
Correct Answer
A. Backorder the parts in the amount required.Explanation
If your IMDS inquiry shows a KILL action for a part that you ordered, it means that the part has been discontinued or no longer available. In this case, the next step would be to backorder the parts in the amount required. This means that you would place an order for the required quantity of parts, even though they are not currently available, in order to ensure that you will receive them once they become available again.Rate this question:
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- 14.
After it is completely filled out, where is the bottom portion of the AFTO Form 350, Reparable Item Processing Tag, sent?
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Repair cycle support section.
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Mission capable assets section.
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Equipment management element.
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Squadron maintenance operations.
Correct Answer
A. Repair cycle support section.Explanation
The bottom portion of the AFTO Form 350, Reparable Item Processing Tag, is sent to the Repair cycle support section. This section is responsible for managing and coordinating the repair process for reparable items. They ensure that the items are properly repaired and returned to service in a timely manner. By sending the bottom portion of the form to this section, it allows them to track and monitor the progress of the repair and provide necessary updates to the relevant parties.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What happens when your shop fails to process maintenance turnaround (TRN) transactions?
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Supply orders the part.
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The part is impounded.
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Stock levels are affected.
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Pickup points accumulate.
Correct Answer
A. Stock levels are affected.Explanation
When a shop fails to process maintenance turnaround (TRN) transactions, it means that the necessary maintenance and repairs are not being carried out on the equipment or machinery. As a result, the stock levels in the shop are affected. This could mean that certain items or products may not be available for sale or that the overall inventory is not being properly managed. This can have a negative impact on the shop's ability to meet customer demands and could potentially result in lost sales or dissatisfied customers.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Who is responsible for ensuring that explosives safety training is provided to personnel?
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Flight Chief.
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Training NCO.
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Operating personnel.
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Explosives safety NCO.
Correct Answer
A. Explosives safety NCO.Explanation
The correct answer is Explosives safety NCO. The explosives safety NCO is responsible for ensuring that explosives safety training is provided to personnel. This individual is specifically trained and knowledgeable in handling and storing explosives, and their role is to ensure that all personnel are trained and educated on the proper safety procedures and protocols when dealing with explosives. They are responsible for implementing and enforcing safety regulations and guidelines to minimize the risk of accidents or incidents involving explosives.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What B-1B hatch jettison initiator will jettison all four hatches when pulled?
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Pilot internal hatch jettison initiator.
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Left external hatch jettison initiator.
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Right external hatch jettison initiator.
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Master external hatch jettison initiator.
Correct Answer
A. Master external hatch jettison initiator.Explanation
The Master external hatch jettison initiator is the correct answer because it is responsible for jettisoning all four hatches when pulled. The pilot internal hatch jettison initiator, left external hatch jettison initiator, and right external hatch jettison initiator are not capable of jettisoning all four hatches simultaneously. Therefore, the Master external hatch jettison initiator is the only option that fits the description given in the question.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What supply report is posted online to aid in managing and controlling repair cycle assets?
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D04, Daily Document Register.
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D06, Daily Transaction Register.
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D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.
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D14, Daily Base Supply Management Report.
Correct Answer
A. D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.Explanation
The correct answer is D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List. This report is posted online to assist in managing and controlling repair cycle assets. It provides a comprehensive list of all the assets in the repair cycle, allowing for effective tracking and monitoring of these assets. The report helps in identifying any issues or delays in the repair cycle and enables proper management and control of these assets to ensure their timely repair and return to service.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Air Education and Training Command (AETC) training detachments (TD) normally do not provide
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Cross utilization training.
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Continuation training.
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Ancillary training.
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Formal training.
Correct Answer
A. Ancillary training.Explanation
AETC training detachments typically do not offer ancillary training. Ancillary training refers to additional or supplementary training that is not directly related to the main training objective. AETC focuses on providing formal training, which is structured and standardized, to ensure a high level of proficiency in specific skills. Cross utilization training involves training individuals in multiple job roles, while continuation training is ongoing training to maintain skills. Therefore, ancillary training is the correct answer as it does not align with the primary training purpose of AETC detachments.Rate this question:
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- 20.
How may cross utilization training (CUT) be accomplished?
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A formal training course only.
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On-the-job training (OJT) only.
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Either OJT or a formal training course.
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Only a computer based training program is required.
Correct Answer
A. Either OJT or a formal training course.Explanation
Cross utilization training (CUT) can be accomplished through either on-the-job training (OJT) or a formal training course. This means that individuals can gain the necessary skills and knowledge for cross-utilization by either receiving hands-on experience in the workplace or by attending a structured training program. This flexibility allows organizations to choose the most suitable method based on their specific needs and resources.Rate this question:
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- 21.
TBA provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time
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Access to distance learning courseware.
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Access to special certification roster criteria listings.
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Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide.
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Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel.
Correct Answer
A. Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel.Explanation
The correct answer is "visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel." This is because TBA provides Air Force personnel with the ability to see and track their own technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. It allows them to have a clear understanding of their own training progress and the qualifications they have achieved. This visibility helps them in managing their career development and ensuring they meet the necessary requirements for their roles in the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What B-52 hatch component reduces the unlocking and opening shock produced by the thruster?
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Load arrestor.
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Lifter mechanism.
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Hydraulic damper.
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Hatch pressure seal.
Correct Answer
A. Hydraulic damper.Explanation
A hydraulic damper is a component that reduces the unlocking and opening shock produced by the thruster in a B-52 hatch. It works by using hydraulic fluid to absorb and dissipate the energy created during the unlocking and opening process, thus preventing any sudden or jarring movements. This helps to protect the hatch and its surrounding components from damage and ensures a smoother and controlled operation. The other options, such as load arrestor, lifter mechanism, and hatch pressure seal, do not specifically address the reduction of shock produced by the thruster.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What B-1B ejection system component inhibits operation of the yaw divergence rocket when monitored aircraft speed exceeds 360 to 380 knots at sea level (KEAS)?
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Velocity sensor.
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Divergence sensor.
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Recovery sequencer.
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Environmental sensor.
Correct Answer
A. Velocity sensor.Explanation
The correct answer is Velocity sensor. The velocity sensor in the B-1B ejection system inhibits the operation of the yaw divergence rocket when the monitored aircraft speed exceeds 360 to 380 knots at sea level. This component is responsible for sensing the speed of the aircraft and ensuring that the ejection system functions properly within the specified speed limits.Rate this question:
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- 24.
When the pilot initiates a B-1B ejection, what occurs if the offensive system operator (OSO) eject mode selector is set to manual (MAN)?
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The seat occupant will not eject automatically and must initiate his or her own ejection.
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The eject mode selector is overridden by the pilot's decision and the seat occupant will eject.
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Neither aft seat will eject and the seat occupants will have to initiate the bottom bailout system.
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The seat occupant will not eject automatically and will have to initiate the bottom bailout system.
Correct Answer
A. The seat occupant will not eject automatically and must initiate his or her own ejection.Explanation
When the offensive system operator (OSO) eject mode selector is set to manual (MAN), the seat occupant will not eject automatically and must initiate their own ejection. This means that the pilot's decision overrides the eject mode selector, and the seat occupant is responsible for initiating the ejection process.Rate this question:
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- 25.
What priority supply system is used to secure materiel needed to repair mission essential equipment of the highest priority needed to maintain mission capability?
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Mission Impaired Capability Awaiting Parts (MICAP) System.
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Standard Delivery Date (SDD) System.
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Repair Cycle Support System (RCSS).
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Standard Base Supply System (SBSS).
Correct Answer
A. Mission Impaired Capability Awaiting Parts (MICAP) System.Explanation
The correct answer is the Mission Impaired Capability Awaiting Parts (MICAP) System. This system is used to secure materiel needed to repair mission essential equipment of the highest priority needed to maintain mission capability. The MICAP system is designed to expedite the delivery of critical parts and ensure that mission-critical equipment can be repaired as quickly as possible. It allows for prioritization of parts and ensures that they are procured and delivered in a timely manner to minimize mission downtime.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Within how many workdays do you have to submit a Category II Production Quality Deficiency Report after discovery of the deficiency?
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1.
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3.
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5.
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14.
Correct Answer
A. 3.Explanation
You have to submit a Category II Production Quality Deficiency Report within 3 workdays after discovering the deficiency.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Within the IMDS, to enter egress configuration data while you are documenting job data, you would use screen
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907, Job Data Documentation Menu.
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225, Egress Inquiries/Reports Menu.
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854, Egress Configuration Menu.
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693, Inspections/Time Changes.
Correct Answer
A. 854, Egress Configuration Menu.Explanation
To enter egress configuration data while documenting job data in the IMDS, you would use screen 854, Egress Configuration Menu. This screen is specifically designed for entering and managing egress configuration information. Screens 907, 225, and 693 are not related to egress configuration and do not provide the necessary options and fields to input this type of data.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What IMDS screen is used to find out what egress system items are installed on a canopy?
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257, Egress Configuration List.
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225, Egress Inquiry/Reports Menu.
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259, Canopy Transparency Coefficient List.
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842, Egress Time Change Forecast Inquiry.
Correct Answer
A. 257, Egress Configuration List.Explanation
The correct answer is 257, Egress Configuration List. This screen is used to find out what egress system items are installed on a canopy.Rate this question:
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- 29.
On the B-1B escape system, AND gates
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Must receive two inputs before one output can take place.
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Must receive one input before two outputs can take place.
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Contain an arrow to indicate the device's function direction.
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Block explosive transfer through a sliding interrupter element.
Correct Answer
A. Must receive two inputs before one output can take place.Explanation
AND gates are logic gates that require two inputs in order to produce a single output. In the context of the B-1B escape system, AND gates are likely used to control certain functions or actions. For example, they may be used to ensure that two specific conditions are met before a particular action or output can occur. Therefore, the statement "must receive two inputs before one output can take place" accurately describes the behavior of AND gates.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What B-1B escape component renders the seats safe and prevents them from ejecting after a hatch jettison?
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Hatch pin puller.
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Input cartridges.
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Interrupters.
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AND gates.
Correct Answer
A. Interrupters.Explanation
Interrupters are the B-1B escape component that renders the seats safe and prevents them from ejecting after a hatch jettison. Interrupters are devices that interrupt or stop the ejection sequence once the hatch is jettisoned. This ensures that the seats remain in place and do not eject prematurely, providing a safer environment for the crew during emergency situations.Rate this question:
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- 31.
When the B-1B's cabin air dump initiator is pulled, what lines transfer energy to the central equipment bay (CEB) hatch pin puller?
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DTA and wire harnesses.
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SMDC and shock propagation cord (SPC).
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SPC and FLSC.
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SMDC and DTA.
Correct Answer
A. SMDC and shock propagation cord (SPC).Explanation
When the B-1B's cabin air dump initiator is pulled, the SMDC (Smart Munitions Data Cable) and shock propagation cord (SPC) transfer energy to the central equipment bay (CEB) hatch pin puller. The SMDC is responsible for transmitting data between the aircraft and smart munitions, while the SPC is designed to propagate shockwaves and transfer energy.Rate this question:
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- 32.
When filling out an AFTO Form 350, Reparable Item Processing Tag, for a maintenance turnaround (TRN) transaction, what do you annotate on the AFTO Form 350 when you turn the part in to the repair activity?
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"TRN".
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"TIN".
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"ISU".
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"T/I".
Correct Answer
A. "TRN".Explanation
When filling out an AFTO Form 350 for a maintenance turnaround transaction, you annotate "TRN" on the form when turning the part into the repair activity. This is because "TRN" stands for maintenance turnaround, which indicates that the item is being turned in for repair or maintenance.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Once you gain access to the Joint Deficiency Reporting System database, where will you find the option to initiate a new deficiency report (DR)?
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Toolkit page.
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Home screen.
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New DR screen.
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Services screen.
Correct Answer
A. Toolkit page.Explanation
The option to initiate a new deficiency report (DR) can be found on the Toolkit page once you gain access to the Joint Deficiency Reporting System database.Rate this question:
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- 34.
When building a master task list, which of the following should serve as the core document?
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AF IMT 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command.
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AF IMT 1098, Special Task Certification and Recurring Training.
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MAJCOM specific job qualification standard.
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Career Field Education and Training Plan.
Correct Answer
A. Career Field Education and Training Plan.Explanation
The Career Field Education and Training Plan should serve as the core document when building a master task list because it provides a comprehensive overview of the required education and training for a specific career field. It outlines the necessary qualifications, certifications, and recurring training that individuals need to complete in order to perform their job effectively. By using the Career Field Education and Training Plan as the core document, organizations can ensure that their master task list aligns with the overall training and development goals of the career field.Rate this question:
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- 35.
When building a master training plan, core tasks that are not required for certification in order for the member to be upgraded to a 5 or 7-level are tasks that
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Very rarely occur.
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Are too tedious to properly evaluate.
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Would cause unnecessary delays to the flying schedule.
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Are not applicable to the equipment assigned to the base.
Correct Answer
A. Are not applicable to the equipment assigned to the base.Explanation
The core tasks that are not required for certification in order for the member to be upgraded to a 5 or 7-level are tasks that are not applicable to the equipment assigned to the base. This means that these tasks are not relevant or necessary for the specific equipment being used at the base. Including them in the training plan would be unnecessary and could potentially cause delays in the flying schedule.Rate this question:
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- 36.
In an emergency situation, who is given broad discretionary powers to waive compliance with TO procedures?
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AF Safety Center Commander.
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Quality Assurance Chief.
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MAJCOM Commander.
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On-scene Commander.
Correct Answer
A. On-scene Commander.Explanation
In an emergency situation, the on-scene commander is given broad discretionary powers to waive compliance with TO (Technical Order) procedures. This means that the person in charge at the scene of the emergency has the authority to make decisions and take actions that may deviate from standard procedures in order to address the situation effectively and efficiently. The on-scene commander is trusted with this responsibility as they are in the best position to assess the immediate needs and risks of the emergency and make decisions accordingly.Rate this question:
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- 37.
What two types of energy transfer cords does the B-1B escape system use?
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SMDC and shock propagation.
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DTA and wire harnesses.
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Shock propagation and FLSC.
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SMDC and DTA.
Correct Answer
A. SMDC and shock propagation.Explanation
The B-1B escape system uses SMDC (Solid Motor Driven Cord) and shock propagation for energy transfer cords. SMDC is a type of cord that is driven by a solid motor to rapidly transfer energy, while shock propagation refers to the transmission of energy through shock waves. These two types of cords are utilized in the B-1B escape system to ensure efficient and effective energy transfer during emergency situations.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The B-1B ACES II recovery sequencer selects Mode 2 operation if the environmental sensor detects
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670 knots equivalent air speed (KEAS) at 15,649 feet.
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360 KEAS at 13,469 feet.
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249 KEAS at 15,649 feet.
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249 KEAS at 13,469 feet.
Correct Answer
A. 360 KEAS at 13,469 feet.Explanation
The B-1B ACES II recovery sequencer selects Mode 2 operation if the environmental sensor detects 360 KEAS at 13,469 feet. This means that when the aircraft is flying at an equivalent airspeed of 360 knots and at an altitude of 13,469 feet, the recovery sequencer will switch to Mode 2 operation. This information is important for understanding the functioning of the recovery sequencer in the B-1B aircraft.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What Integrated Logistics System-Supply (ILS-S) screen is used to transfer a supply document number to the correct work center event?
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516, Transfer of Asset Accountability.
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352, SBSS Parts Turn-around Transaction.
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42, Part/Serial Number Load/Change/Inquiry/Delete.
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347, SBSS Inquiry by Stock Number, Document Number or Part Number.
Correct Answer
A. 516, Transfer of Asset Accountability.Explanation
The correct answer, 516, Transfer of Asset Accountability, is used to transfer a supply document number to the correct work center event in the Integrated Logistics System-Supply (ILS-S). This screen allows for the accountability of assets to be transferred from one work center to another, ensuring accurate tracking and management of supplies.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Who will base management and systems flight personnel notify if they see adverse trends concerning the use of the Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS)?
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Inspector General.
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Judge Advocate General.
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Organization Commander.
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Office of Special Investigations.
Correct Answer
A. Organization Commander.Explanation
The organization commander is the appropriate person to notify if flight personnel observe adverse trends regarding the use of UMMIPS. As the commander is responsible for overseeing the operations and functioning of the organization, they have the authority to address any issues related to the system. The inspector general, judge advocate general, and office of special investigations may have their own specific roles and responsibilities, but they are not directly responsible for managing and addressing issues related to UMMIPS.Rate this question:
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- 41.
An individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander and hold the minimum of what grade to downgrade a "Red X"?
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TSgt.
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MSgt.
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SMSgt.
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CMSgt.
Correct Answer
A. MSgt.Explanation
To downgrade a "Red X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander and hold at least the rank of MSgt. This suggests that the responsibility and authority to downgrade a "Red X" is given to individuals who have achieved the rank of Master Sergeant.Rate this question:
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- 42.
How does a B-52 navigator separate from the seat during a downward ejection?
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Gas expansion from the man-seat separation booster initiator fires, throwing the navigator from the seat.
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Firing of the man-seat separation actuator tightens the separation harness, throwing the navigator from the seat.
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The personnel parachute is mechanically launched from the seat so that when it opens fully, the navigator is pulled from the seat.
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The personnel parachute is ballistically launched from the seat so that when it opens fully, the navigator is pulled from the seat.
Correct Answer
A. Firing of the man-seat separation actuator tightens the separation harness, throwing the navigator from the seat.Explanation
The correct answer is that the firing of the man-seat separation actuator tightens the separation harness, throwing the navigator from the seat. This means that when the actuator is fired, it activates the separation harness, causing it to tighten and forcefully eject the navigator from the seat. This mechanism ensures a quick and efficient separation of the navigator from the seat during a downward ejection.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What is the calendar date of materiel delivery to a consignee that must be accomplished in order to satisfy a specific mission requirement?
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Earliest delivery date.
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Contract delivery date.
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Standard delivery date.
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Required delivery date.
Correct Answer
A. Required delivery date.Explanation
The required delivery date refers to the specific date on which the delivery of the materiel must be completed in order to meet a particular mission requirement. This date is determined based on the needs and deadlines of the consignee. The earliest delivery date, contract delivery date, and standard delivery date may not align with the specific mission requirement and therefore are not the correct choices.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Where must a copy of an approved Time Change Item (TCI) waiver be kept until no longer valid?
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In the Egress section time change management folder.
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At wing, plans and scheduling (PS&D), in a share drive or SharePoint site.
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With the Munitions Operations section.
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In the aircraft forms folder.
Correct Answer
A. In the aircraft forms folder.Explanation
An approved Time Change Item (TCI) waiver is a document that outlines the deviation from the standard time change schedule for a specific aircraft. Since this waiver is directly related to the aircraft, it should be kept in the aircraft forms folder. This ensures that the waiver is easily accessible to the crew and maintenance personnel who need to refer to it while working on the aircraft. Keeping it in the aircraft forms folder also helps in maintaining organization and ensuring that the waiver is readily available when needed.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What kinds of tasks require third-party certification?
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Core tasks.
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Critical tasks.
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Non-core tasks.
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Workcenter tasks.
Correct Answer
A. Critical tasks.Explanation
Third-party certification is typically required for critical tasks. This means that certain tasks, especially those that involve safety, security, or compliance regulations, need to be certified by an independent third party to ensure that they are performed correctly and meet the necessary standards. Certification provides an objective evaluation of the task, giving confidence to stakeholders that it has been executed properly. Core tasks may not necessarily require third-party certification as they are considered essential to the organization's operations. Non-core tasks and workcenter tasks may not have the same level of importance or risk associated with them, hence not requiring third-party certification.Rate this question:
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- 46.
The Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) is designed to provide units with a method of evaluating technical compliance and measure how well each unit within the maintenance group
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Produces training/combat sorties.
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Complies with established standards.
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Complies with the maintenance schedule.
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Executes maintenance actions in a timely manner.
Correct Answer
A. Complies with established standards.Explanation
The correct answer is "complies with established standards." The Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) is a program designed to evaluate the technical compliance of units within the maintenance group. This means that it assesses how well each unit follows the established standards in terms of maintenance procedures and practices. The program ensures that units are meeting the required standards and helps identify any areas where improvements may be needed. It is not specifically focused on training/combat sorties, compliance with the maintenance schedule, or the timeliness of maintenance actions.Rate this question:
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- 47.
During a B-52 pilot seat ejection, the drogue parachute pack is turned inside out by
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Gravity.
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The catapult.
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Spring force.
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A drogue gun.
Correct Answer
A. Spring force.Explanation
During a B-52 pilot seat ejection, the drogue parachute pack is turned inside out by spring force. When the pilot ejects, the seat is propelled upwards by a catapult, and the drogue parachute is deployed to stabilize the seat. The drogue parachute pack is designed in such a way that it turns inside out due to the force exerted by a spring, ensuring that the parachute is properly deployed and functions as intended.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What B-52 downward seat system consists of a reel-type ballistic actuator, jackshaft, and a nylon strap harness?
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Integrated harness release system.
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Man-seat separation system.
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Drogue parachute system.
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Rotary actuator system.
Correct Answer
A. Man-seat separation system.Explanation
The B-52 downward seat system is made up of a reel-type ballistic actuator, jackshaft, and a nylon strap harness. This system is designed to allow for the separation of the pilot or crew member from the seat in case of an emergency. The reel-type ballistic actuator is responsible for initiating the separation process, while the jackshaft and nylon strap harness work together to safely separate the individual from the seat. Therefore, the correct answer is the Man-seat separation system.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What B-52 hatch components are interconnected by a push-pull rod and rotate in opposite directions to lock and unlock the hatches?
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Jack arms.
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Hinge arms.
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Torque tubes.
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Manual handles.
Correct Answer
A. Torque tubes.Explanation
Torque tubes are interconnected by a push-pull rod and rotate in opposite directions to lock and unlock the hatches. The torque tubes transmit the torque applied to one side of the hatch to the other side, allowing for synchronized movement and secure locking of the hatches.Rate this question:
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Nov 11, 2024Quiz Edited by
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Jun 08, 2020Quiz Created by
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