2a673 (Edit Code 03) Volume 1, Aircrew Egress Systems Craftsman
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
What term describes the seamless governance, transparency, and integration of all aspects of infrastructure, resource management and business systems necessary for successful development, acquisition, fielding and sustainment of systems, subsystems, end-items, and services to satisfy validated warfighter capability needs?
- A.
Quality Assurance.
- B.
Mission Generation Network.
- C.
Integrated Life Cycle Management.
- D.
Logistics Compliance Assessment Program.
Correct Answer
C. Integrated Life Cycle Management.Explanation
Integrated Life Cycle Management is the correct answer because it encompasses the seamless governance, transparency, and integration of all aspects of infrastructure, resource management, and business systems necessary for successful development, acquisition, fielding, and sustainment of systems. It ensures that all stages of the life cycle, from initial concept to disposal, are effectively managed to meet validated warfighter capability needs. This approach considers the entire life cycle of systems, subsystems, end-items, and services, and ensures that they are integrated and managed efficiently to achieve the desired outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What term describes the conceptualization, initiation, design, development, test, contracting, production, deployment and disposal of a directed and funded effort that provides a new, improved or continued materiel, weapon, information system, logistics support, or service capability in response to an approved need?
- A.
Logistics.
- B.
Acquisition.
- C.
Compliance.
- D.
Sustainment.
Correct Answer
B. Acquisition.Explanation
Acquisition is the correct answer because it encompasses all the stages mentioned in the question. It refers to the entire process of acquiring or obtaining a new capability or system, starting from the conceptualization and design phase, through development, testing, production, deployment, and ultimately disposal. This process is typically directed and funded, and it aims to provide a new, improved, or continued capability in response to an approved need. Logistics, compliance, and sustainment are all important aspects within the acquisition process, but they do not encompass the entire process as acquisition does.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What term describes the continuing materiel support which consists of the planning, programming, and execution of a logistics support strategy for a system, subsystem, or major end-item to maintain operational capabilities from system fielding through disposal?
- A.
Logistics.
- B.
Acquisition.
- C.
Compliance.
- D.
Sustainment.
Correct Answer
D. Sustainment.Explanation
Sustainment is the correct answer because it refers to the continuing materiel support for a system, subsystem, or major end-item throughout its lifecycle. This support includes planning, programming, and executing a logistics support strategy to maintain operational capabilities from system fielding through disposal. Sustainment ensures that the necessary resources and logistics are provided to keep the system operational and effective.Rate this question:
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- 4.
You would start on which IMDS screen to generate a TCTO kit availability report?
- A.
258.
- B.
380.
- C.
469.
- D.
497.
Correct Answer
D. 497.Explanation
To generate a TCTO (Time Compliance Technical Order) kit availability report, you would start on IMDS (Integrated Maintenance Data System) screen 497. This screen is specifically designed for generating TCTO kit availability reports, providing the necessary information and options to generate the report efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which Integrated Logistics System-Supply (ILS-S) Utilities screen option is used to order parts?
- A.
Order Asset (722).
- B.
Order On/Off equipment components (42).
- C.
Order Unscheduled Maintenance Asset (72).
- D.
Request Maintenance/Non-Maintenance Assets (497).
Correct Answer
C. Order Unscheduled Maintenance Asset (72).Explanation
The correct answer is "Order Unscheduled Maintenance Asset (72)". This option is used to order parts in the Integrated Logistics System-Supply (ILS-S) Utilities screen. It allows users to request and order the necessary assets for unscheduled maintenance tasks.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What must exist before a part can be ordered from Integrated Logistics System-Supply (ILS-S)?
- A.
Authorization control number.
- B.
Supply document control number.
- C.
Production supply control number.
- D.
Job control number (JCN) and work center event (WCE).
Correct Answer
D. Job control number (JCN) and work center event (WCE).Explanation
Before a part can be ordered from Integrated Logistics System-Supply (ILS-S), the job control number (JCN) and work center event (WCE) must exist. These two elements are necessary for tracking and coordinating the ordering process. The JCN identifies the specific job or task that requires the part, while the WCE indicates the location or work center where the part is needed. Together, these numbers ensure that the part is ordered and delivered to the correct place at the right time.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What Integrated Logistics System-Supply (ILS-S) screen is used to transfer a supply document number to the correct work center event?
- A.
516, Transfer of Asset Accountability.
- B.
352, SBSS Parts Turn-around Transaction.
- C.
42, Part/Serial Number Load/Change/Inquiry/Delete.
- D.
347, SBSS Inquiry by Stock Number, Document Number or Part Number.
Correct Answer
A. 516, Transfer of Asset Accountability.Explanation
The correct answer, 516, Transfer of Asset Accountability, is used to transfer a supply document number to the correct work center event in the Integrated Logistics System-Supply (ILS-S). This screen allows for the accountability of assets to be transferred from one work center to another, ensuring accurate tracking and management of supplies.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What is your next step if you order a part but your IMDS inquiry shows a KILL action?
- A.
Backorder the parts in the amount required.
- B.
Wait for the parts to come in as they are on their way.
- C.
The parts have already been delivered to your shop so go find them.
- D.
You do not have to do anything; the parts will automatically be backordered.
Correct Answer
A. Backorder the parts in the amount required.Explanation
If your IMDS inquiry shows a KILL action for a part that you ordered, it means that the part has been discontinued or no longer available. In this case, the next step would be to backorder the parts in the amount required. This means that you would place an order for the required quantity of parts, even though they are not currently available, in order to ensure that you will receive them once they become available again.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What system provides a standard method of ranking competing needs according to their importance and to ensure the most effective management of resources in reacting to each need?
- A.
Force Activator Designator System.
- B.
Urgency of Need Designator System.
- C.
Mission Capable Asset Sourcing System.
- D.
Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System.
Correct Answer
D. Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System.Explanation
The Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System provides a standard method of ranking competing needs according to their importance and ensures the most effective management of resources in reacting to each need. This system helps prioritize and allocate resources based on the urgency and criticality of each need, allowing for efficient movement and distribution of materials to meet those needs.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What force activity designator (FAD) is assigned to continental United States (CONUS) forces being maintained in a state of combat readiness for immediate (within 24 hours) deployment?
- A.
FAD I.
- B.
FAD II.
- C.
FAD IV.
- D.
FAD V.
Correct Answer
B. FAD II.Explanation
FAD II is assigned to continental United States (CONUS) forces being maintained in a state of combat readiness for immediate (within 24 hours) deployment. This indicates that these forces are prepared and equipped to be deployed quickly in response to any potential threats or conflicts.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What urgency of need designator (UND) is used only for materiel when the lack of the requested item impairs your ability to perform the assigned mission?
- A.
UND A.
- B.
UND B.
- C.
UND C.
- D.
UND D.
Correct Answer
B. UND B.Explanation
UND B is the correct answer because it is the only urgency of need designator that is used specifically for materiel when the lack of the requested item impairs the ability to perform the assigned mission. The other options, UND A, UND C, and UND D, do not have this specific requirement.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Who will base management and systems flight personnel notify if they see adverse trends concerning the use of the Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS)?
- A.
Inspector General.
- B.
Judge Advocate General.
- C.
Organization Commander.
- D.
Office of Special Investigations.
Correct Answer
C. Organization Commander.Explanation
The organization commander is the appropriate person to notify if flight personnel observe adverse trends regarding the use of UMMIPS. As the commander is responsible for overseeing the operations and functioning of the organization, they have the authority to address any issues related to the system. The inspector general, judge advocate general, and office of special investigations may have their own specific roles and responsibilities, but they are not directly responsible for managing and addressing issues related to UMMIPS.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What priority supply system is used to secure materiel needed to repair mission essential equipment of the highest priority needed to maintain mission capability?
- A.
Mission Impaired Capability Awaiting Parts (MICAP) System.
- B.
Standard Delivery Date (SDD) System.
- C.
Repair Cycle Support System (RCSS).
- D.
Standard Base Supply System (SBSS).
Correct Answer
A. Mission Impaired Capability Awaiting Parts (MICAP) System.Explanation
The correct answer is the Mission Impaired Capability Awaiting Parts (MICAP) System. This system is used to secure materiel needed to repair mission essential equipment of the highest priority needed to maintain mission capability. The MICAP system is designed to expedite the delivery of critical parts and ensure that mission-critical equipment can be repaired as quickly as possible. It allows for prioritization of parts and ensures that they are procured and delivered in a timely manner to minimize mission downtime.Rate this question:
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- 14.
How are Mission Impaired Capability Awaiting Parts Asset Sourcing System (MASS) input transactions processed when the Integrated Logistics System-Supply (ILS-S) is down?
- A.
You will have to fill out a paper AFTO Form 2005, Issue/Turn-in Request, to process the transactions.
- B.
They are stored in the MASS database and are processed when ILS-S becomes available.
- C.
Input transactions are lost, so do not input transactions into MASS when ILS-S is down.
- D.
MASS uses normal procedures to process input transactions.
Correct Answer
B. They are stored in the MASS database and are processed when ILS-S becomes available.Explanation
When the Integrated Logistics System-Supply (ILS-S) is down, the Mission Impaired Capability Awaiting Parts Asset Sourcing System (MASS) stores the input transactions in its database. These transactions are then processed once ILS-S becomes available again. This ensures that the data is not lost and can be processed in a timely manner when the system is back online.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What is the maximum standard terminal date for ordering and shipping normally required for the logistics system to effectively deliver requisitioned materiel to a consignee?
- A.
Earliest delivery date.
- B.
Contract delivery date.
- C.
Required delivery date.
- D.
Standard delivery date.
Correct Answer
D. Standard delivery date.Explanation
The maximum standard terminal date for ordering and shipping is referred to as the "Standard delivery date." This is the date that the logistics system considers as the latest possible date for requisitioned material to be delivered to the consignee. It is the standard timeframe within which the logistics system operates to ensure effective delivery.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What is the calendar date of materiel delivery to a consignee that must be accomplished in order to satisfy a specific mission requirement?
- A.
Earliest delivery date.
- B.
Contract delivery date.
- C.
Standard delivery date.
- D.
Required delivery date.
Correct Answer
D. Required delivery date.Explanation
The required delivery date refers to the specific date on which the delivery of the materiel must be completed in order to meet a particular mission requirement. This date is determined based on the needs and deadlines of the consignee. The earliest delivery date, contract delivery date, and standard delivery date may not align with the specific mission requirement and therefore are not the correct choices.Rate this question:
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- 17.
After it is completely filled out, where is the bottom portion of the AFTO Form 350, Reparable Item Processing Tag, sent?
- A.
Repair cycle support section.
- B.
Mission capable assets section.
- C.
Equipment management element.
- D.
Squadron maintenance operations.
Correct Answer
A. Repair cycle support section.Explanation
The bottom portion of the AFTO Form 350, Reparable Item Processing Tag, is sent to the Repair cycle support section. This section is responsible for managing and coordinating the repair process for reparable items. They ensure that the items are properly repaired and returned to service in a timely manner. By sending the bottom portion of the form to this section, it allows them to track and monitor the progress of the repair and provide necessary updates to the relevant parties.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What due-in from maintenance (DIFM) status code would you use to code a part as "in work"?
- A.
Awaiting part (AWP).
- B.
In-work (INW).
- C.
Time change (TCG).
- D.
Turn-in (TIN).
Correct Answer
B. In-work (INW).Explanation
The correct answer is "In-work (INW)". This status code is used to indicate that a part is currently being worked on or repaired by the maintenance team. It signifies that the part is not yet completed but is actively being processed. The other options, "Awaiting part (AWP)", "Time change (TCG)", and "Turn-in (TIN)" do not accurately represent the "in work" status of the part.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What supply report is posted online to aid in managing and controlling repair cycle assets?
- A.
D04, Daily Document Register.
- B.
D06, Daily Transaction Register.
- C.
D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.
- D.
D14, Daily Base Supply Management Report.
Correct Answer
C. D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.Explanation
The correct answer is D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List. This report is posted online to assist in managing and controlling repair cycle assets. It provides a comprehensive list of all the assets in the repair cycle, allowing for effective tracking and monitoring of these assets. The report helps in identifying any issues or delays in the repair cycle and enables proper management and control of these assets to ensure their timely repair and return to service.Rate this question:
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- 20.
How often does plans, scheduling & documentation meet with munitions operations personnel to ensure time change items (TCI) are accuate in the IMDS and available for requisition?
- A.
Weekly.
- B.
Monthly.
- C.
Quarterly.
- D.
The first workday of the month.
Correct Answer
C. Quarterly.Explanation
The correct answer is quarterly. Plans, scheduling, and documentation meet with munitions operations personnel every three months to ensure that time change items (TCIs) are accurate in the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) and available for requisition. This regular meeting schedule allows for effective coordination and updates to the system, ensuring that accurate and up-to-date information is available for requisitioning purposes.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What color is a DD Form 1574, Serviceable Tag-Materiel, attached to serviceable items?
- A.
Red.
- B.
Brown.
- C.
Green.
- D.
Yellow.
Correct Answer
D. Yellow.Explanation
A DD Form 1574, Serviceable Tag-Materiel, is attached to serviceable items and is typically yellow in color. This tag is used to indicate that the item is in good working condition and can be used without any issues. It helps in keeping track of the serviceability status of the item and ensures that it is properly identified and managed.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What color is a DD Form 1575, Suspended Tag-Materiel, attached to suspended items?
- A.
Red.
- B.
Brown.
- C.
Green.
- D.
Yellow.
Correct Answer
B. Brown.Explanation
The correct answer is Brown. A DD Form 1575, Suspended Tag-Materiel, is typically attached to suspended items in a brown color. This color coding helps to easily identify and track suspended items in a military or organizational setting.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What condition code is always preprinted on the DD Form 1577, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag-Materiel?
- A.
A.
- B.
F.
- C.
H.
- D.
K.
Correct Answer
C. H.Explanation
The condition code that is always preprinted on the DD Form 1577, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag-Materiel is H.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which reason would require you to process a maintenance turnaround (TRN) transaction?
- A.
The component is unable to be repaired, in which case you should place a demand on supply.
- B.
The defective component may require a major repair which requires elaborate bench checking.
- C.
It may be more difficult to repair the defect on the equipment, in which case you should place a demand on supply.
- D.
The component may be integrated with another component where replacement would require replacement of the other component.
Correct Answer
D. The component may be integrated with another component where replacement would require replacement of the other component.Explanation
If the component is integrated with another component and replacing it would also require replacing the other component, then a maintenance turnaround (TRN) transaction would be necessary. This is because the repair or replacement of the defective component would involve additional work and resources to ensure the proper functioning of the integrated system.Rate this question:
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- 25.
When filling out an AFTO Form 350, Reparable Item Processing Tag, for a maintenance turnaround (TRN) transaction, what do you annotate on the AFTO Form 350 when you turn the part in to the repair activity?
- A.
"TRN".
- B.
"TIN".
- C.
"ISU".
- D.
"T/I".
Correct Answer
A. "TRN".Explanation
When filling out an AFTO Form 350 for a maintenance turnaround transaction, you annotate "TRN" on the form when turning the part into the repair activity. This is because "TRN" stands for maintenance turnaround, which indicates that the item is being turned in for repair or maintenance.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What happens when your shop fails to process maintenance turnaround (TRN) transactions?
- A.
Supply orders the part.
- B.
The part is impounded.
- C.
Stock levels are affected.
- D.
Pickup points accumulate.
Correct Answer
C. Stock levels are affected.Explanation
When a shop fails to process maintenance turnaround (TRN) transactions, it means that the necessary maintenance and repairs are not being carried out on the equipment or machinery. As a result, the stock levels in the shop are affected. This could mean that certain items or products may not be available for sale or that the overall inventory is not being properly managed. This can have a negative impact on the shop's ability to meet customer demands and could potentially result in lost sales or dissatisfied customers.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What product quality deficiency report category includes deficiencies which if not corrected, would directly restrict combat or operational readiness?
- A.
Category I.
- B.
Category II.
- C.
Category III.
- D.
Category IV.
Correct Answer
A. Category I.Explanation
Category I includes deficiencies that, if not corrected, would directly restrict combat or operational readiness. This means that these deficiencies have a significant impact on the ability of a product to be used effectively in combat or operational situations. It is important to address and correct these deficiencies promptly to ensure that the product can perform its intended function without any restrictions or limitations.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Within how many workdays do you have to submit a Category II Production Quality Deficiency Report after discovery of the deficiency?
- A.
1.
- B.
3.
- C.
5.
- D.
14.
Correct Answer
B. 3.Explanation
You have to submit a Category II Production Quality Deficiency Report within 3 workdays after discovering the deficiency.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Once you gain access to the Joint Deficiency Reporting System database, where will you find the option to initiate a new deficiency report (DR)?
- A.
Toolkit page.
- B.
Home screen.
- C.
New DR screen.
- D.
Services screen.
Correct Answer
A. Toolkit page.Explanation
The option to initiate a new deficiency report (DR) can be found on the Toolkit page once you gain access to the Joint Deficiency Reporting System database.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Within the IMDS, to enter egress configuration data while you are documenting job data, you would use screen
- A.
907, Job Data Documentation Menu.
- B.
225, Egress Inquiries/Reports Menu.
- C.
854, Egress Configuration Menu.
- D.
693, Inspections/Time Changes.
Correct Answer
C. 854, Egress Configuration Menu.Explanation
To enter egress configuration data while documenting job data in the IMDS, you would use screen 854, Egress Configuration Menu. This screen is specifically designed for entering and managing egress configuration information. Screens 907, 225, and 693 are not related to egress configuration and do not provide the necessary options and fields to input this type of data.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Within the IMDS, what job flow package is customized to fit each of the tasks most common to an egress shop?
- A.
Job Standard (JST).
- B.
TIme change item (TCI).
- C.
Job data documentation (JDD).
- D.
Plans, scheduling and documentation (PS&D).
Correct Answer
A. Job Standard (JST).Explanation
The correct answer is Job Standard (JST). Within the IMDS, the job flow package that is customized to fit each of the tasks most common to an egress shop is the Job Standard (JST). This package includes standardized procedures and instructions specific to the tasks performed in the egress shop, ensuring consistency and efficiency in the workflow. The JST helps in streamlining the processes and ensuring that the tasks are carried out according to the established standards.Rate this question:
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- 32.
After you have completed a time change within the IMDS, what transaction should you perform on the old part?
- A.
Load the part.
- B.
Query the part.
- C.
Reject the part.
- D.
Delete the part.
Correct Answer
D. Delete the part.Explanation
After completing a time change within the IMDS, it is necessary to perform the "Delete the part" transaction on the old part. This is because the time change indicates a modification or update in the part, and the old version is no longer valid or needed. Deleting the old part ensures that only the updated version remains in the system, preventing any confusion or duplication.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What IMDS screen is used to find out what egress system items are installed on a canopy?
- A.
257, Egress Configuration List.
- B.
225, Egress Inquiry/Reports Menu.
- C.
259, Canopy Transparency Coefficient List.
- D.
842, Egress Time Change Forecast Inquiry.
Correct Answer
A. 257, Egress Configuration List.Explanation
The correct answer is 257, Egress Configuration List. This screen is used to find out what egress system items are installed on a canopy.Rate this question:
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- 34.
In an emergency situation, who is given broad discretionary powers to waive compliance with TO procedures?
- A.
AF Safety Center Commander.
- B.
Quality Assurance Chief.
- C.
MAJCOM Commander.
- D.
On-scene Commander.
Correct Answer
D. On-scene Commander.Explanation
In an emergency situation, the on-scene commander is given broad discretionary powers to waive compliance with TO (Technical Order) procedures. This means that the person in charge at the scene of the emergency has the authority to make decisions and take actions that may deviate from standard procedures in order to address the situation effectively and efficiently. The on-scene commander is trusted with this responsibility as they are in the best position to assess the immediate needs and risks of the emergency and make decisions accordingly.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which of the following is not an approved communication method for issuing changes to TOs?
- A.
Telephone.
- B.
Signed letter.
- C.
Organizational e-mail.
- D.
Command TO distribution office.
Correct Answer
A. Telephone.Explanation
Telephone is not an approved communication method for issuing changes to TOs because it lacks a proper documentation trail. Unlike the other options, a telephone conversation does not provide a written record of the changes made, making it difficult to track and verify the information. Signed letters, organizational emails, and command TO distribution office all provide a paper trail that can be used as evidence of the changes made, ensuring proper communication and accountability.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Where must a copy of an approved Time Change Item (TCI) waiver be kept until no longer valid?
- A.
In the Egress section time change management folder.
- B.
At wing, plans and scheduling (PS&D), in a share drive or SharePoint site.
- C.
With the Munitions Operations section.
- D.
In the aircraft forms folder.
Correct Answer
D. In the aircraft forms folder.Explanation
An approved Time Change Item (TCI) waiver is a document that outlines the deviation from the standard time change schedule for a specific aircraft. Since this waiver is directly related to the aircraft, it should be kept in the aircraft forms folder. This ensures that the waiver is easily accessible to the crew and maintenance personnel who need to refer to it while working on the aircraft. Keeping it in the aircraft forms folder also helps in maintaining organization and ensuring that the waiver is readily available when needed.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Training detachments (TD) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?
- A.
Air Combat Command (ACC).
- B.
Air Training Command (ATC).
- C.
Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC).
- D.
Air Education and Training Command (AETC).
Correct Answer
D. Air Education and Training Command (AETC).Explanation
Training detachments (TD) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). This command is responsible for the training and education of Air Force personnel, including both officer and enlisted members. As such, it makes sense that training detachments would fall under the purview of AETC, as they are directly involved in the training process. Air Combat Command (ACC) is primarily responsible for combat operations, Air Training Command (ATC) no longer exists as a separate command, and Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC) is responsible for the training and readiness of the Air Force Reserve component.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Air Education and Training Command (AETC) training detachments (TD) normally do not provide
- A.
Cross utilization training.
- B.
Continuation training.
- C.
Ancillary training.
- D.
Formal training.
Correct Answer
C. Ancillary training.Explanation
AETC training detachments typically do not offer ancillary training. Ancillary training refers to additional or supplementary training that is not directly related to the main training objective. AETC focuses on providing formal training, which is structured and standardized, to ensure a high level of proficiency in specific skills. Cross utilization training involves training individuals in multiple job roles, while continuation training is ongoing training to maintain skills. Therefore, ancillary training is the correct answer as it does not align with the primary training purpose of AETC detachments.Rate this question:
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- 39.
The block training method is normally used to teach which maintenance training flight (MTF) course?
- A.
General Technical Order System.
- B.
Maintenance Orientation.
- C.
Weight and Balance.
- D.
Any 7-Level course.
Correct Answer
B. Maintenance Orientation.Explanation
The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Orientation course. This method involves grouping related topics together and teaching them in a concentrated block of time. The Maintenance Orientation course is designed to provide new maintenance personnel with a basic understanding of the maintenance organization, policies, procedures, and responsibilities. It covers topics such as safety, documentation, and general maintenance principles. Therefore, the block training method is an effective way to deliver this course and ensure that trainees receive comprehensive and focused instruction.Rate this question:
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- 40.
How may cross utilization training (CUT) be accomplished?
- A.
A formal training course only.
- B.
On-the-job training (OJT) only.
- C.
Either OJT or a formal training course.
- D.
Only a computer based training program is required.
Correct Answer
C. Either OJT or a formal training course.Explanation
Cross utilization training (CUT) can be accomplished through either on-the-job training (OJT) or a formal training course. This means that individuals can gain the necessary skills and knowledge for cross-utilization by either receiving hands-on experience in the workplace or by attending a structured training program. This flexibility allows organizations to choose the most suitable method based on their specific needs and resources.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Who conducts weapons safety training?
- A.
The base or unit training office.
- B.
The major command safety officer or NCO.
- C.
The base or unit weapons safety officer or NCO.
- D.
The munitions accountable systems officer (MASO).
Correct Answer
C. The base or unit weapons safety officer or NCO.Explanation
The correct answer is the base or unit weapons safety officer or NCO. This individual is responsible for conducting weapons safety training within their respective base or unit. They have the knowledge and expertise to ensure that all personnel are properly trained on the safe handling and use of weapons. This training is crucial in preventing accidents and promoting a culture of safety within the military. The major command safety officer or NCO may also play a role in overall safety training, but specifically for weapons safety, it is the base or unit weapons safety officer or NCO who conducts the training.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Local written explosive operation safety standards must contain explosive and personnel limits,
- A.
Operating locations, technical orders, safety requirements, and step-by-step procedures.
- B.
Operating locations, safety requirements, actions to be taken during emergencies, and storage requirements.
- C.
Operating locations, safety requirements, actions to be taken during emergencies, and step-by-step procedures.
- D.
Safety requirements, actions to be taken during emergencies, step-by-step procedures, and number of assigned personnel.
Correct Answer
C. Operating locations, safety requirements, actions to be taken during emergencies, and step-by-step procedures.Explanation
The correct answer is operating locations, safety requirements, actions to be taken during emergencies, and step-by-step procedures. This answer encompasses all the necessary components that should be included in local written explosive operation safety standards. It covers the specific locations where the operations will take place, the safety requirements that must be followed, the actions that need to be taken in case of emergencies, and the step-by-step procedures that should be followed during the operations.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Who is responsible for ensuring that explosives safety training is provided to personnel?
- A.
Flight Chief.
- B.
Training NCO.
- C.
Operating personnel.
- D.
Explosives safety NCO.
Correct Answer
D. Explosives safety NCO.Explanation
The correct answer is Explosives safety NCO. The explosives safety NCO is responsible for ensuring that explosives safety training is provided to personnel. This individual is specifically trained and knowledgeable in handling and storing explosives, and their role is to ensure that all personnel are trained and educated on the proper safety procedures and protocols when dealing with explosives. They are responsible for implementing and enforcing safety regulations and guidelines to minimize the risk of accidents or incidents involving explosives.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Who is responsible for instructing workers on safety standards for the explosive operations they will be performing?
- A.
Supervisor.
- B.
Flight Chief.
- C.
Explosives safety NCO.
- D.
Munitions accountable systems officer (MASO).
Correct Answer
A. Supervisor.Explanation
The supervisor is responsible for instructing workers on safety standards for the explosive operations they will be performing. As the person in charge of overseeing the workers, the supervisor is in the best position to ensure that all safety protocols are followed and that the workers are aware of the potential dangers involved in their tasks. The supervisor is responsible for providing proper training and guidance to ensure the safety of the workers and prevent any accidents or mishaps during explosive operations.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Training records must be maintained for all personnel except
- A.
SrA.
- B.
SSgt.
- C.
TSgt.
- D.
MSgt.
Correct Answer
D. MSgt.Explanation
Training records must be maintained for all personnel except for MSgt. This is because MSgt (Master Sergeant) is a higher rank in the military hierarchy, indicating that individuals at this rank have already completed their required training and have demonstrated sufficient proficiency in their field. Therefore, there is no need to maintain training records for MSgts as they are already considered highly trained and experienced.Rate this question:
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- 46.
If paper training records are used because Training Business Area (TBA) is down or unavailable, when should the records be transcribed once TBA becomes available?
- A.
3 days.
- B.
7 days.
- C.
15 days.
- D.
30 days.
Correct Answer
C. 15 days.Explanation
The paper training records should be transcribed once TBA becomes available within 15 days. This time frame allows for a reasonable amount of time to ensure that all the necessary information from the paper records is accurately transferred into the system. Waiting for 30 days may result in a significant delay in updating the training records, while transcribing within 3 or 7 days may be too short of a window to complete the task efficiently. Therefore, 15 days strikes a balance between timely transcription and thoroughness.Rate this question:
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- 47.
How often must the maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent review and sign the special certification roster (SCR)?
- A.
Annually.
- B.
Semi-Annually.
- C.
Quarterly.
- D.
Monthly.
Correct Answer
B. Semi-Annually.Explanation
The maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent must review and sign the special certification roster (SCR) every six months. This ensures that they are regularly updated on the certifications of the maintenance personnel and can make any necessary adjustments or changes as needed. Reviewing the SCR semi-annually helps to maintain the accuracy and validity of the certifications within the maintenance department.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Who must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the SCR for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade?
- A.
Squadron operations officer.
- B.
MAJCOM functional manager.
- C.
Squadron commander.
- D.
Maintenance group commander.
Correct Answer
D. Maintenance group commander.Explanation
The maintenance group commander must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the SCR for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade. This indicates that the maintenance group commander has the authority and responsibility to review and authorize exceptions to the usual grade requirements for specific tasks within the squadron. The squadron operations officer, MAJCOM functional manager, and squadron commander may have different roles and responsibilities within the organization, but the maintenance group commander holds the final decision-making power in this particular scenario.Rate this question:
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- 49.
An individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander and hold the minimum of what grade to downgrade a "Red X"?
- A.
TSgt.
- B.
MSgt.
- C.
SMSgt.
- D.
CMSgt.
Correct Answer
B. MSgt.Explanation
To downgrade a "Red X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander and hold at least the rank of MSgt. This suggests that the responsibility and authority to downgrade a "Red X" is given to individuals who have achieved the rank of Master Sergeant.Rate this question:
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- 50.
TBA provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time
- A.
Access to distance learning courseware.
- B.
Access to special certification roster criteria listings.
- C.
Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide.
- D.
Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel.
Correct Answer
D. Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel.Explanation
The correct answer is "visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel." This is because TBA provides Air Force personnel with the ability to see and track their own technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. It allows them to have a clear understanding of their own training progress and the qualifications they have achieved. This visibility helps them in managing their career development and ensuring they meet the necessary requirements for their roles in the Air Force.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jun 08, 2020Quiz Created by
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