2a673 (Edit Code 03) Volume 1, Aircrew Egress Systems Craftsman

The unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a CDC. This is because the unit training manager is in charge of overseeing the training and development of personnel within the unit. They need to gather information from both the trainee and their supervisor to ensure that the trainee is ready and prepared to start the CDC. This interview helps assess the trainee's readiness, address any concerns or questions, and ensure that the training is aligned with the needs and goals of the unit.

The correct answer is the base or unit weapons safety officer or NCO. This individual is responsible for conducting weapons safety training within their respective base or unit. They have the knowledge and expertise to ensure that all personnel are properly trained on the safe handling and use of weapons. This training is crucial in preventing accidents and promoting a culture of safety within the military. The major command safety officer or NCO may also play a role in overall safety training, but specifically for weapons safety, it is the base or unit weapons safety officer or NCO who conducts the training.

After completing a time change within the IMDS, it is necessary to perform the "Delete the part" transaction on the old part. This is because the time change indicates a modification or update in the part, and the old version is no longer valid or needed. Deleting the old part ensures that only the updated version remains in the system, preventing any confusion or duplication.

The correct answer is "roles you have been assigned." The actions TBA allows you to perform are determined by the specific roles that you have been assigned. This means that the tasks and responsibilities you can undertake within the system are dependent on the specific role or roles that have been assigned to you. The system will grant you access and permissions based on these assigned roles, allowing you to perform certain actions within the TBA system.

Training records must be maintained for all personnel except for MSgt. This is because MSgt (Master Sergeant) is a higher rank in the military hierarchy, indicating that individuals at this rank have already completed their required training and have demonstrated sufficient proficiency in their field. Therefore, there is no need to maintain training records for MSgts as they are already considered highly trained and experienced.

Telephone is not an approved communication method for issuing changes to TOs because it lacks a proper documentation trail. Unlike the other options, a telephone conversation does not provide a written record of the changes made, making it difficult to track and verify the information. Signed letters, organizational emails, and command TO distribution office all provide a paper trail that can be used as evidence of the changes made, ensuring proper communication and accountability.

The correct answer is "In-work (INW)". This status code is used to indicate that a part is currently being worked on or repaired by the maintenance team. It signifies that the part is not yet completed but is actively being processed. The other options, "Awaiting part (AWP)", "Time change (TCG)", and "Turn-in (TIN)" do not accurately represent the "in work" status of the part.

The correct answer is Job Standard (JST). Within the IMDS, the job flow package that is customized to fit each of the tasks most common to an egress shop is the Job Standard (JST). This package includes standardized procedures and instructions specific to the tasks performed in the egress shop, ensuring consistency and efficiency in the workflow. The JST helps in streamlining the processes and ensuring that the tasks are carried out according to the established standards.

If a unit received an 85 on their monthly MSEP score, that would be considered satisfactory. This indicates that the unit performed well and met the expected standards for the monthly evaluation. It shows that they have achieved a good level of performance and are meeting the requirements set for them.

Training detachments (TD) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). This command is responsible for the training and education of Air Force personnel, including both officer and enlisted members. As such, it makes sense that training detachments would fall under the purview of AETC, as they are directly involved in the training process. Air Combat Command (ACC) is primarily responsible for combat operations, Air Training Command (ATC) no longer exists as a separate command, and Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC) is responsible for the training and readiness of the Air Force Reserve component.

When a shop fails to process maintenance turnaround (TRN) transactions, it means that the necessary maintenance and repairs are not being carried out on the equipment or machinery. As a result, the stock levels in the shop are affected. This could mean that certain items or products may not be available for sale or that the overall inventory is not being properly managed. This can have a negative impact on the shop's ability to meet customer demands and could potentially result in lost sales or dissatisfied customers.

Before a part can be ordered from Integrated Logistics System-Supply (ILS-S), the job control number (JCN) and work center event (WCE) must exist. These two elements are necessary for tracking and coordinating the ordering process. The JCN identifies the specific job or task that requires the part, while the WCE indicates the location or work center where the part is needed. Together, these numbers ensure that the part is ordered and delivered to the correct place at the right time.

The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Orientation course. This method involves grouping related topics together and teaching them in a concentrated block of time. The Maintenance Orientation course is designed to provide new maintenance personnel with a basic understanding of the maintenance organization, policies, procedures, and responsibilities. It covers topics such as safety, documentation, and general maintenance principles. Therefore, the block training method is an effective way to deliver this course and ensure that trainees receive comprehensive and focused instruction.

If your IMDS inquiry shows a KILL action for a part that you ordered, it means that the part has been discontinued or no longer available. In this case, the next step would be to backorder the parts in the amount required. This means that you would place an order for the required quantity of parts, even though they are not currently available, in order to ensure that you will receive them once they become available again.

The bottom portion of the AFTO Form 350, Reparable Item Processing Tag, is sent to the Repair cycle support section. This section is responsible for managing and coordinating the repair process for reparable items. They ensure that the items are properly repaired and returned to service in a timely manner. By sending the bottom portion of the form to this section, it allows them to track and monitor the progress of the repair and provide necessary updates to the relevant parties.

The Master external hatch jettison initiator is the correct answer because it is responsible for jettisoning all four hatches when pulled. The pilot internal hatch jettison initiator, left external hatch jettison initiator, and right external hatch jettison initiator are not capable of jettisoning all four hatches simultaneously. Therefore, the Master external hatch jettison initiator is the only option that fits the description given in the question.

The correct answer is Explosives safety NCO. The explosives safety NCO is responsible for ensuring that explosives safety training is provided to personnel. This individual is specifically trained and knowledgeable in handling and storing explosives, and their role is to ensure that all personnel are trained and educated on the proper safety procedures and protocols when dealing with explosives. They are responsible for implementing and enforcing safety regulations and guidelines to minimize the risk of accidents or incidents involving explosives.

The correct answer is D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List. This report is posted online to assist in managing and controlling repair cycle assets. It provides a comprehensive list of all the assets in the repair cycle, allowing for effective tracking and monitoring of these assets. The report helps in identifying any issues or delays in the repair cycle and enables proper management and control of these assets to ensure their timely repair and return to service.

When the offensive system operator (OSO) eject mode selector is set to manual (MAN), the seat occupant will not eject automatically and must initiate their own ejection. This means that the pilot's decision overrides the eject mode selector, and the seat occupant is responsible for initiating the ejection process.

A hydraulic damper is a component that reduces the unlocking and opening shock produced by the thruster in a B-52 hatch. It works by using hydraulic fluid to absorb and dissipate the energy created during the unlocking and opening process, thus preventing any sudden or jarring movements. This helps to protect the hatch and its surrounding components from damage and ensures a smoother and controlled operation. The other options, such as load arrestor, lifter mechanism, and hatch pressure seal, do not specifically address the reduction of shock produced by the thruster.

The correct answer is "visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel." This is because TBA provides Air Force personnel with the ability to see and track their own technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. It allows them to have a clear understanding of their own training progress and the qualifications they have achieved. This visibility helps them in managing their career development and ensuring they meet the necessary requirements for their roles in the Air Force.

AETC training detachments typically do not offer ancillary training. Ancillary training refers to additional or supplementary training that is not directly related to the main training objective. AETC focuses on providing formal training, which is structured and standardized, to ensure a high level of proficiency in specific skills. Cross utilization training involves training individuals in multiple job roles, while continuation training is ongoing training to maintain skills. Therefore, ancillary training is the correct answer as it does not align with the primary training purpose of AETC detachments.

You have to submit a Category II Production Quality Deficiency Report within 3 workdays after discovering the deficiency.

Cross utilization training (CUT) can be accomplished through either on-the-job training (OJT) or a formal training course. This means that individuals can gain the necessary skills and knowledge for cross-utilization by either receiving hands-on experience in the workplace or by attending a structured training program. This flexibility allows organizations to choose the most suitable method based on their specific needs and resources.

The correct answer is Velocity sensor. The velocity sensor in the B-1B ejection system inhibits the operation of the yaw divergence rocket when the monitored aircraft speed exceeds 360 to 380 knots at sea level. This component is responsible for sensing the speed of the aircraft and ensuring that the ejection system functions properly within the specified speed limits.

Interrupters are the B-1B escape component that renders the seats safe and prevents them from ejecting after a hatch jettison. Interrupters are devices that interrupt or stop the ejection sequence once the hatch is jettisoned. This ensures that the seats remain in place and do not eject prematurely, providing a safer environment for the crew during emergency situations.

The option to initiate a new deficiency report (DR) can be found on the Toolkit page once you gain access to the Joint Deficiency Reporting System database.

To enter egress configuration data while documenting job data in the IMDS, you would use screen 854, Egress Configuration Menu. This screen is specifically designed for entering and managing egress configuration information. Screens 907, 225, and 693 are not related to egress configuration and do not provide the necessary options and fields to input this type of data.

The correct answer is 257, Egress Configuration List. This screen is used to find out what egress system items are installed on a canopy.

When the B-1B's cabin air dump initiator is pulled, the SMDC (Smart Munitions Data Cable) and shock propagation cord (SPC) transfer energy to the central equipment bay (CEB) hatch pin puller. The SMDC is responsible for transmitting data between the aircraft and smart munitions, while the SPC is designed to propagate shockwaves and transfer energy.

The core tasks that are not required for certification in order for the member to be upgraded to a 5 or 7-level are tasks that are not applicable to the equipment assigned to the base. This means that these tasks are not relevant or necessary for the specific equipment being used at the base. Including them in the training plan would be unnecessary and could potentially cause delays in the flying schedule.

The correct answer is the Mission Impaired Capability Awaiting Parts (MICAP) System. This system is used to secure materiel needed to repair mission essential equipment of the highest priority needed to maintain mission capability. The MICAP system is designed to expedite the delivery of critical parts and ensure that mission-critical equipment can be repaired as quickly as possible. It allows for prioritization of parts and ensures that they are procured and delivered in a timely manner to minimize mission downtime.

AND gates are logic gates that require two inputs in order to produce a single output. In the context of the B-1B escape system, AND gates are likely used to control certain functions or actions. For example, they may be used to ensure that two specific conditions are met before a particular action or output can occur. Therefore, the statement "must receive two inputs before one output can take place" accurately describes the behavior of AND gates.

When filling out an AFTO Form 350 for a maintenance turnaround transaction, you annotate "TRN" on the form when turning the part into the repair activity. This is because "TRN" stands for maintenance turnaround, which indicates that the item is being turned in for repair or maintenance.

The Career Field Education and Training Plan should serve as the core document when building a master task list because it provides a comprehensive overview of the required education and training for a specific career field. It outlines the necessary qualifications, certifications, and recurring training that individuals need to complete in order to perform their job effectively. By using the Career Field Education and Training Plan as the core document, organizations can ensure that their master task list aligns with the overall training and development goals of the career field.

In an emergency situation, the on-scene commander is given broad discretionary powers to waive compliance with TO (Technical Order) procedures. This means that the person in charge at the scene of the emergency has the authority to make decisions and take actions that may deviate from standard procedures in order to address the situation effectively and efficiently. The on-scene commander is trusted with this responsibility as they are in the best position to assess the immediate needs and risks of the emergency and make decisions accordingly.

The correct answer is that the firing of the man-seat separation actuator tightens the separation harness, throwing the navigator from the seat. This means that when the actuator is fired, it activates the separation harness, causing it to tighten and forcefully eject the navigator from the seat. This mechanism ensures a quick and efficient separation of the navigator from the seat during a downward ejection.

The correct answer, 516, Transfer of Asset Accountability, is used to transfer a supply document number to the correct work center event in the Integrated Logistics System-Supply (ILS-S). This screen allows for the accountability of assets to be transferred from one work center to another, ensuring accurate tracking and management of supplies.

The B-1B ACES II recovery sequencer selects Mode 2 operation if the environmental sensor detects 360 KEAS at 13,469 feet. This means that when the aircraft is flying at an equivalent airspeed of 360 knots and at an altitude of 13,469 feet, the recovery sequencer will switch to Mode 2 operation. This information is important for understanding the functioning of the recovery sequencer in the B-1B aircraft.

The organization commander is the appropriate person to notify if flight personnel observe adverse trends regarding the use of UMMIPS. As the commander is responsible for overseeing the operations and functioning of the organization, they have the authority to address any issues related to the system. The inspector general, judge advocate general, and office of special investigations may have their own specific roles and responsibilities, but they are not directly responsible for managing and addressing issues related to UMMIPS.

The B-1B escape system uses SMDC (Solid Motor Driven Cord) and shock propagation for energy transfer cords. SMDC is a type of cord that is driven by a solid motor to rapidly transfer energy, while shock propagation refers to the transmission of energy through shock waves. These two types of cords are utilized in the B-1B escape system to ensure efficient and effective energy transfer during emergency situations.

To downgrade a "Red X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander and hold at least the rank of MSgt. This suggests that the responsibility and authority to downgrade a "Red X" is given to individuals who have achieved the rank of Master Sergeant.

Third-party certification is typically required for critical tasks. This means that certain tasks, especially those that involve safety, security, or compliance regulations, need to be certified by an independent third party to ensure that they are performed correctly and meet the necessary standards. Certification provides an objective evaluation of the task, giving confidence to stakeholders that it has been executed properly. Core tasks may not necessarily require third-party certification as they are considered essential to the organization's operations. Non-core tasks and workcenter tasks may not have the same level of importance or risk associated with them, hence not requiring third-party certification.

An approved Time Change Item (TCI) waiver is a document that outlines the deviation from the standard time change schedule for a specific aircraft. Since this waiver is directly related to the aircraft, it should be kept in the aircraft forms folder. This ensures that the waiver is easily accessible to the crew and maintenance personnel who need to refer to it while working on the aircraft. Keeping it in the aircraft forms folder also helps in maintaining organization and ensuring that the waiver is readily available when needed.

Torque tubes are interconnected by a push-pull rod and rotate in opposite directions to lock and unlock the hatches. The torque tubes transmit the torque applied to one side of the hatch to the other side, allowing for synchronized movement and secure locking of the hatches.

The correct answer is "complies with established standards." The Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) is a program designed to evaluate the technical compliance of units within the maintenance group. This means that it assesses how well each unit follows the established standards in terms of maintenance procedures and practices. The program ensures that units are meeting the required standards and helps identify any areas where improvements may be needed. It is not specifically focused on training/combat sorties, compliance with the maintenance schedule, or the timeliness of maintenance actions.

During a B-52 pilot seat ejection, the drogue parachute pack is turned inside out by spring force. When the pilot ejects, the seat is propelled upwards by a catapult, and the drogue parachute is deployed to stabilize the seat. The drogue parachute pack is designed in such a way that it turns inside out due to the force exerted by a spring, ensuring that the parachute is properly deployed and functions as intended.

The required delivery date refers to the specific date on which the delivery of the materiel must be completed in order to meet a particular mission requirement. This date is determined based on the needs and deadlines of the consignee. The earliest delivery date, contract delivery date, and standard delivery date may not align with the specific mission requirement and therefore are not the correct choices.

The supervisor is responsible for instructing workers on safety standards for the explosive operations they will be performing. As the person in charge of overseeing the workers, the supervisor is in the best position to ensure that all safety protocols are followed and that the workers are aware of the potential dangers involved in their tasks. The supervisor is responsible for providing proper training and guidance to ensure the safety of the workers and prevent any accidents or mishaps during explosive operations.

The correct answer is that the crew member's legs touch the ankle restraint triggers prior to pulling the ejection control handle. This means that the ankle restraints are activated when the crew member's legs make contact with the triggers, indicating that they are in the correct position for ejection. This ensures that the crew member is securely restrained during the ejection process for their safety.