CDC 2a653 Egress Systems Journeyman

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  • 1/100 Questions

    Life support personnel may remove and install parachutes and survival kits when they are an integral part of the seat, providing the personnel have completed the necessary training and have been certified by

    • Egress quality assurance personnel
    • An egress element supervisor
    • An egress journeyman
    • Their shop supervisor
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CDC Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

Answer the following questions to the best of your ability. When finished, take your answer sheet to your supervisor to be graded. You must answer at least 80% of the questions correctly to pass. Good luck.

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  • 2. 

    The normal recission date for an Urgent action Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) is

    • 6 months

    • 18 months

    • 3 months

    • 12 months

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 months
    Explanation
    The normal recission date for an Urgent action Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) is 12 months. This means that after the TCTO is issued, it will remain in effect for a period of 12 months before it is rescinded or no longer applicable. This timeframe allows for sufficient time to address the urgent action required by the TCTO and ensure compliance within a reasonable period.

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  • 3. 

    Who does the Air Force hold responsible and accountable for mission results?

    • Wing commanders

    • Squadron commanders

    • Base commanders

    • Group commanders

    Correct Answer
    A. Wing commanders
    Explanation
    The Air Force holds wing commanders responsible and accountable for mission results. Wing commanders are in charge of an entire wing, which is a major organizational unit within the Air Force. They have the authority and responsibility to ensure the successful completion of missions and the overall effectiveness of their wing. They are accountable for the performance of their units and personnel, and are held responsible for the outcomes and results achieved.

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  • 4. 

    The F-16 canopy inspection is performed every 36 monts and

    • During every phased inspection

    • Whenever the canopy is in the shop

    • As directed by local operating instructions

    • Every time it is disconnected from the aircraft

    Correct Answer
    A. As directed by local operating instructions
    Explanation
    The F-16 canopy inspection is performed as directed by local operating instructions. This means that the inspection is carried out according to specific guidelines or instructions provided by the local operating authority. These instructions could outline the frequency of the inspection, such as every 36 months or during every phased inspection. Additionally, the inspection may also be required whenever the canopy is in the shop or whenever it is disconnected from the aircraft. The local operating instructions serve as the governing document for conducting the canopy inspection.

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  • 5. 

    What color tag will be attached to an item that is unserviceable (condemned)?

    • Green

    • Yellow

    • Brown

    • Red

    Correct Answer
    A. Red
    Explanation
    An item that is unserviceable or condemned is typically marked with a red tag. This helps to easily identify and differentiate it from other items. Red tags are commonly used in industries such as manufacturing, construction, or maintenance to indicate that an item is no longer usable or safe for use. This allows for proper disposal or repair procedures to be followed.

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  • 6. 

    How often does supply check bench stock levels?

    • Weekly

    • Twice monthly

    • Either 30 or 60 days

    • Every month

    Correct Answer
    A. Weekly
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Weekly" because checking bench stock levels on a weekly basis ensures that there is an adequate supply of inventory available at all times. This frequent monitoring helps in preventing stockouts and ensures that the supply is replenished regularly to meet the demand. It allows for better inventory management and reduces the risk of running out of essential items.

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  • 7. 

    What are the components included in a basic electrical circuit?

    • Power source, ground, component or unit of resistance, conductor

    • Power source, protective devices, controlling device, component or unit of resistance, conductor

    • Ground, protective devices, power source, controlling device

    • Ground, battery, controlling device, component or unit of resistance

    Correct Answer
    A. Power source, protective devices, controlling device, component or unit of resistance, conductor
    Explanation
    The components included in a basic electrical circuit are a power source, protective devices, a controlling device, a component or unit of resistance, and a conductor. The power source provides the electrical energy to the circuit, while the protective devices ensure safety by preventing overloads or short circuits. The controlling device regulates the flow of electricity, and the component or unit of resistance controls the amount of current flowing through the circuit. Finally, the conductor allows the flow of electricity between the different components.

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  • 8. 

    Most hacksaws have adjustable frames and hold blades ranging in length from

    • 10 to 20 inches

    • 6 to 14 inches

    • 8 to 16 inches

    • 10 to 16 inches

    Correct Answer
    A. 8 to 16 inches
    Explanation
    Most hacksaws have adjustable frames that can accommodate different blade lengths. The given answer, "8 to 16 inches," falls within the range of blade lengths commonly used in hacksaws. This means that the adjustable frame of a hacksaw can hold blades that are between 8 and 16 inches long.

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  • 9. 

    What is the primary cause of foreign object damage (FOD)?

    • Normal wear and tear

    • High windes or heavy rain blowing or washing trash onto runways

    • Personnel with poor housekeeping habits in the work area

    • Loose gravel

    Correct Answer
    A. Personnel with poor housekeeping habits in the work area
    Explanation
    Personnel with poor housekeeping habits in the work area is the primary cause of foreign object damage (FOD). This is because when employees do not properly clean and maintain the work area, it increases the chances of foreign objects such as debris, tools, or loose items being left behind. These objects can pose a threat to aircraft and cause damage if they are ingested into engines or become lodged in critical areas. Therefore, it is important for personnel to maintain good housekeeping habits to prevent FOD incidents.

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  • 10. 

    What are the three methods used to place initiators into groups?

    • Method of actuation, size, and type of cartridge

    • Color of housing, ballistic capability, and size

    • Explosive class, method of actuation, and type of cartridge

    • Explosive class, method of actuation, and size

    Correct Answer
    A. Method of actuation, size, and type of cartridge
    Explanation
    The three methods used to place initiators into groups are the method of actuation, size, and type of cartridge. These factors are important in categorizing initiators as they determine how the initiators are activated, their physical dimensions, and the type of cartridge they use. By considering these three factors, initiators can be organized and classified effectively, making it easier to select and use the appropriate initiator for a specific application.

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  • 11. 

    The environmental sensor transducers used on ACES II seats, receive their airspeed input through

    • Signals from the recovery sequencer

    • Static ports only

    • Pitot tubes and static ports

    • Pitot tubes only

    Correct Answer
    A. Pitot tubes only
    Explanation
    The environmental sensor transducers used on ACES II seats receive their airspeed input through pitot tubes only. Pitot tubes are devices that measure the dynamic pressure of the air, which is used to determine the airspeed of an aircraft. In this case, the environmental sensor transducers rely solely on the pitot tubes to gather accurate airspeed information. The other options, such as signals from the recovery sequencer or static ports only, are not mentioned as sources of airspeed input for these transducers.

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  • 12. 

    Which condition tells you the canopy explosive system has been fired and the seat can be ejected from an F-15 aircraft?

    • Fired warning indicator

    • The position of the top latch mechanism

    • A visible red strip on the trip rod

    • Recovery sequencer expended dot

    Correct Answer
    A. Fired warning indicator
    Explanation
    The fired warning indicator is the condition that tells you the canopy explosive system has been fired and the seat can be ejected from an F-15 aircraft. This indicator is a visual signal that confirms the firing of the explosive system, indicating that it is safe to eject the seat. The other options mentioned, such as the position of the top latch mechanism, a visible red strip on the trip rod, or the recovery sequencer expended dot, do not specifically indicate the firing of the canopy explosive system.

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  • 13. 

    How many recovery sequence modes does the F-16 ejection seat have and what does selection of a particular mode depend on?

    • Three; altitude and airspeed at the time of ejection

    • Five; position of the ejection mode selector valve

    • Four; altitude and airspeed during post ejection

    • Two; position of the ejection mode selector valve

    Correct Answer
    A. Three; altitude and airspeed at the time of ejection
    Explanation
    The F-16 ejection seat has three recovery sequence modes. The selection of a particular mode depends on the altitude and airspeed at the time of ejection.

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  • 14. 

    A U-2 pilot ejects from the aircraft. The pilot remains in the seat and falls to an altitude of 15,000 (+/- 1000) feet. At this point, what components will fire and force gas pressure to the lap belt unlatching mechanism, torque tube thruster, and an initiator?

    • 10.0-second delay initiator

    • 3.0-second delay initiator

    • 1.0-second delay initiator

    • Aneroid initiators

    Correct Answer
    A. Aneroid initiators
  • 15. 

    What component is used to retract the seat to the full aft and locked position during an ejection from a B-1B aircraft?

    • Carriage load arrestors

    • Carriage seat retract thruster

    • Vertical seat positioning actuator

    • Horizontal seat positioning actuator

    Correct Answer
    A. Carriage seat retract thruster
    Explanation
    The carriage seat retract thruster is used to retract the seat to the full aft and locked position during an ejection from a B-1B aircraft. This component is responsible for moving the seat backward and securing it in place during the ejection process. It is likely a powerful mechanism that ensures the seat is properly positioned for a safe ejection.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following statements best describes the B-2 ejection mode selector?

    • A five-position two-port valve that requires a 25-pound lifting force and a 10-pound rotational force

    • A two-position five-port valve that requires a 25-pound lifting force and a 10-pound rotational force

    • A two-posistion five port valve that requires a 10-pound lifting force and a 25-pound rotational force

    • A five-position two-port valve that requires a 10-pound lifting force and a 25-pound rotational force

    Correct Answer
    A. A two-posistion five port valve that requires a 10-pound lifting force and a 25-pound rotational force
    Explanation
    The B-2 ejection mode selector is described as a two-position five-port valve, meaning it has two possible positions or settings and five ports for fluid flow. It requires a 10-pound lifting force to move it into position and a 25-pound rotational force to adjust its setting.

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  • 17. 

    Which item serves as the sequencing initiator for the hatch and seat systems on the B-52 upward ejection system?

    • CSPPI

    • Arming

    • M5A2

    • M3A2

    Correct Answer
    A. CSPPI
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CSPPI. CSPPI stands for Crew Station Programmer and Power Interface. It serves as the sequencing initiator for the hatch and seat systems on the B-52 upward ejection system. It is responsible for controlling and coordinating the activation of these systems in the event of an ejection.

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  • 18. 

    Why is it important that you ensure the hoist is positioned along the centerline of the F-16's canopy during removal or installation?

    • To prevent binding or misalignment

    • To prevent damage to the Canopy Actuator Release Bolt

    • To prevent gouging or scratching the bubble

    • So the adapters can be removed more easily

    Correct Answer
    A. To prevent binding or misalignment
    Explanation
    Ensuring that the hoist is positioned along the centerline of the F-16's canopy during removal or installation is important to prevent binding or misalignment. If the hoist is not properly aligned, it can cause the canopy to become stuck or misaligned, making it difficult to remove or install. This can potentially lead to damage or malfunction of the canopy system. By positioning the hoist along the centerline, the removal or installation process can be carried out smoothly and without any issues.

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  • 19. 

    Where is the M53 booster initiator located on the A-10 aircraft?

    • Left console

    • Behind the seat rails?

    • Aft cockpit bulkhead

    • Right console

    Correct Answer
    A. Aft cockpit bulkhead
    Explanation
    The M53 booster initiator is located on the aft cockpit bulkhead of the A-10 aircraft.

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  • 20. 

    Machinist peen hammers are classified by

    • Overall weight

    • Size

    • The length of the handle

    • The weight of material used to construct the hammer head

    Correct Answer
    A. The weight of material used to construct the hammer head
    Explanation
    Machinist peen hammers are classified by the weight of material used to construct the hammer head. This means that the classification of these hammers is determined by the amount of material used to make the head, which directly affects the weight of the hammer. This classification is important because different weights of hammers are suitable for different tasks and provide varying levels of impact force. Therefore, knowing the weight of material used in the construction of the hammer head helps in selecting the appropriate hammer for specific machining needs.

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  • 21. 

    The power that may be obtained from the A/M32A-60 gas turbine generator set is

    • AC and DC electrical, and high-pressure low-volume pneumatic

    • AC and DC electrical, and high-volume low-pressure pneumatic

    • DC electrical and low-volume high-pressure pneumatic

    • AC electrical and high-volume low-pressure pneumatic only

    Correct Answer
    A. AC and DC electrical, and high-volume low-pressure pneumatic
    Explanation
    The A/M32A-60 gas turbine generator set is capable of providing both AC and DC electrical power, as well as high-volume low-pressure pneumatic power. This means that it can generate electricity in both alternating current (AC) and direct current (DC) forms, and it can also produce pneumatic power at a high volume but low pressure.

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  • 22. 

    When using the ball peen hammer, grip the handle of the hammer

    • Wherever you feel comfortable

    • Near the end

    • Near the head

    • In the middle

    Correct Answer
    A. Near the end
    Explanation
    When using a ball peen hammer, it is recommended to grip the handle near the end. This allows for better control and precision when striking the target. Gripping near the end also provides more leverage, making it easier to generate the desired force. Additionally, gripping near the end helps to balance the weight of the hammer, reducing the strain on the hand and arm during use.

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  • 23. 

    To determine the policies and procedures for ordering and establishing the TO requirements for your shop, you would consult TO

    • 00-5-2

    • 1-1A-14

    • 00-5-1

    • 1-1A-8

    Correct Answer
    A. 00-5-2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 00-5-2 because this technical order provides guidance on the policies and procedures for ordering and establishing the TO (Technical Order) requirements for a shop. It outlines the steps and processes that need to be followed in order to ensure that the correct TOs are obtained and implemented. This TO is specifically focused on the ordering and establishment of TO requirements, making it the most relevant resource for this particular task.

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  • 24. 

    The greatest safety hazard in an aircraft cockpit comes from the

    • Flight controls

    • Instrument panel

    • Canopy actuator

    • Canopy and seat ejection systems

    Correct Answer
    A. Canopy and seat ejection systems
    Explanation
    The greatest safety hazard in an aircraft cockpit comes from the canopy and seat ejection systems. These systems are designed to provide a means of escape for the pilot in case of emergencies, but they can also pose a significant risk if not handled properly. Improper use or accidental activation of the ejection systems can result in serious injury or death. Therefore, it is crucial for pilots to receive thorough training on the proper operation and handling of these systems to ensure their safety during flight.

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  • 25. 

    What squadron performs all staff-related functions required for the efficient completion of the Operations Group mission?

    • Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS)

    • Operations Support Squadron (OSS)

    • Logistics Support Squadron (LSS)

    • Maintenance Operations Squadron (MOS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Operations Support Squadron (OSS)
    Explanation
    The Operations Support Squadron (OSS) is responsible for performing all staff-related functions required for the efficient completion of the Operations Group mission. This includes providing support in areas such as intelligence, planning, training, and airfield operations. The OSS ensures that all necessary resources and personnel are available to support the mission and coordinates with other squadrons to ensure smooth operations. The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) focuses on logistics and supply chain management, the Logistics Support Squadron (LSS) handles transportation and cargo support, and the Maintenance Operations Squadron (MOS) is responsible for maintenance activities.

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  • 26. 

    Which nuclear mishap could create a risk of war?

    • Broken Arrow

    • Bent Spear

    • Empty Quiver

    • Nucflash

    Correct Answer
    A. Nucflash
    Explanation
    Nucflash refers to the accidental or unauthorized detonation of a nuclear weapon, which could potentially lead to a risk of war. This mishap involves the actual use of a nuclear weapon, either intentionally or unintentionally, and could have severe consequences, including escalating tensions between nations and potentially triggering a military response. Therefore, Nucflash is the correct answer as it represents a nuclear mishap that could create a risk of war.

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  • 27. 

    Which flight performs off-equipment maintenance of electronic warfare systems?

    • Test, measurement, and diagnostic equipment (TMDE)

    • Avionics

    • Accessories

    • Munitions

    Correct Answer
    A. Avionics
    Explanation
    Avionics refers to the electronic systems used in aircraft, including communication, navigation, and electronic warfare systems. Off-equipment maintenance involves repairing or maintaining these systems outside of the aircraft. Therefore, avionics is the correct answer as it is responsible for performing off-equipment maintenance of electronic warfare systems.

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  • 28. 

    The grounding point for the F-16 ejection seat is the

    • Interdictor striker or the restraint release bellcrank

    • Interdictor striker only

    • Restraint release bellcrank only

    • Seat side cap or the ejection control handle

    Correct Answer
    A. Interdictor striker or the restraint release bellcrank
    Explanation
    The grounding point for the F-16 ejection seat is either the interdictor striker or the restraint release bellcrank. This means that either of these components can be used as a point of connection for grounding the ejection seat. The seat side cap or the ejection control handle are not mentioned as grounding points in this context.

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  • 29. 

    One-time inspections (OTIs) are issued with a data code consisting a unique alpha prefix and a

    • Nine-character sequence number

    • Five-character sequence number

    • Seven-character sequence number

    • Six-character sequence number

    Correct Answer
    A. Six-character sequence number
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a six-character sequence number. This means that the data code for a one-time inspection (OTI) consists of a unique alpha prefix followed by a six-character sequence number. This sequence number is used to differentiate and identify each OTI.

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  • 30. 

    What document authorizes the use of the six inspection concepts?

    • TO 00-20-2

    • TO 00-20-1

    • The -6 TO, or the -6 TO worksheet

    • The -6 TO only

    Correct Answer
    A. The -6 TO, or the -6 TO worksheet
    Explanation
    The -6 TO, or the -6 TO worksheet, authorizes the use of the six inspection concepts. This document provides guidance and instructions on how to conduct inspections, including the six inspection concepts. It outlines the procedures, requirements, and responsibilities for inspectors to follow when performing inspections. The -6 TO worksheet is a tool that helps inspectors organize and document their inspection activities.

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  • 31. 

    To which supply element would you send requests for supplies

    • Demand processing

    • Repair cycle support

    • Equipment management

    • Bench stock support

    Correct Answer
    A. Demand processing
    Explanation
    Demand processing is the correct answer because it refers to the process of receiving and managing requests for supplies. This involves analyzing the demand, determining the quantity and type of supplies needed, and initiating the procurement process. By sending requests for supplies to demand processing, the organization can ensure that the correct supplies are obtained in a timely manner to meet operational needs.

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  • 32. 

    The ejection mode selector valve is in the normal mode when an ejection is initiated from the forward cockpit of a dual seat F-16. When this happens, which initiator will provide gas to fire the inertial reel gas generator?

    • The right hand JAU8/A25 initiator

    • M99 initiator

    • The left hand cockpie mounted DTA initiator

    • M53 initiator

    Correct Answer
    A. The right hand JAU8/A25 initiator
    Explanation
    The right hand JAU8/A25 initiator will provide gas to fire the inertial reel gas generator when an ejection is initiated from the forward cockpit of a dual seat F-16.

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  • 33. 

    What are removers designed to do?

    • Eject crewmembers from high-speed aircraft

    • Jettison the canopy from high-speed aircraft

    • Reposition mechanical devices

    • Fire other explosive devices

    Correct Answer
    A. Jettison the canopy from high-speed aircraft
    Explanation
    Removers are designed to jettison the canopy from high-speed aircraft. Canopies are transparent or translucent covers that protect the crewmembers inside the aircraft. In emergency situations or during ejection, it is crucial for the canopy to be quickly and safely removed to allow the crewmembers to escape. Removers are specifically designed mechanisms or systems that facilitate the rapid and controlled jettisoning of the canopy, ensuring the safety of the crewmembers.

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  • 34. 

    What must be done before a ball-lock type safety pin can be removed from an explosive recepticle?

    • The recepticle must be enlarged

    • The balls must be extended

    • The shaft must be depressed

    • The plunger must be depressed

    Correct Answer
    A. The plunger must be depressed
    Explanation
    Before a ball-lock type safety pin can be removed from an explosive receptacle, the plunger must be depressed. This is because the plunger is responsible for holding the balls in place and preventing the pin from being removed. By depressing the plunger, the balls are released, allowing the pin to be removed safely.

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  • 35. 

    Which inspection is required after a ballistic component is removed to facilitate maintenance?

    • Special

    • Receiving

    • Periodic

    • Preparation for use

    Correct Answer
    A. Preparation for use
    Explanation
    After a ballistic component is removed for maintenance, the inspection required is "Preparation for use." This inspection ensures that the component is properly prepared and ready to be used again after maintenance. It involves checking for any damage or defects, ensuring all necessary repairs have been made, and confirming that the component meets all safety and operational requirements before it can be put back into service.

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  • 36. 

    The gyroscope in the ACES II seat changes the angle of the thrust of the vernier rocket through a

    • Rack piston and a secondary piston

    • Pulley system

    • Push-pull link

    • Secondary piston only

    Correct Answer
    A. Pulley system
    Explanation
    The gyroscope in the ACES II seat changes the angle of the thrust of the vernier rocket through a pulley system. The pulley system is responsible for transferring the angular motion of the gyroscope to the vernier rocket, allowing for precise control and adjustment of the thrust angle. This mechanism ensures that the seat can be safely ejected from the aircraft in various flight conditions.

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  • 37. 

    Which Air Force Occupational, and Environmental Safety, Fire Protection, and Health standard (AFOSHSTD) covers general industrial operations?

    • 91-22

    • 91-43

    • 91-66

    • 161-33

    Correct Answer
    A. 91-66
    Explanation
    AFOSHSTD 91-66 covers general industrial operations. This standard provides guidelines and regulations for ensuring occupational safety, fire protection, and health in industrial settings within the Air Force. It addresses various aspects such as hazard communication, personal protective equipment, machinery and equipment safety, and emergency response procedures. By following the guidelines outlined in AFOSHSTD 91-66, the Air Force can maintain a safe and healthy working environment for its personnel involved in general industrial operations.

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  • 38. 

    Which type of safety pin is usually used to safety mechanically fired units?

    • Ball-lock

    • Flight status

    • Clip

    • Ground maintenance

    Correct Answer
    A. Clip
    Explanation
    The type of safety pin that is usually used to safety mechanically fired units is a clip. A clip safety pin is commonly used to secure the firing mechanism of a mechanically operated unit, ensuring that it does not accidentally discharge. This type of safety pin is designed to be easily inserted and removed, providing a reliable and convenient way to prevent accidental firing.

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  • 39. 

    The 3.2-second time delay initiator is fired on the B-1B aircraft by

    • An electrical signal from the recovery sequencer

    • SMDC detonation

    • Gas pressure

    • Mechanical linkage

    Correct Answer
    A. SMDC detonation
    Explanation
    The 3.2-second time delay initiator on the B-1B aircraft is fired by SMDC detonation. This means that the initiator is activated by the detonation of a small missile defense system (SMDC). The detonation of the SMDC generates enough force or energy to trigger the initiator after a delay of 3.2 seconds. The other options, such as an electrical signal from the recovery sequencer, gas pressure, or mechanical linkage, are not involved in firing the initiator in this context.

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  • 40. 

    How many external hatch jettison initatiors are installed on the B-1B aircraft?

    • Four

    • Three

    • Two

    • One

    Correct Answer
    A. Three
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Three. This suggests that there are three external hatch jettison initiators installed on the B-1B aircraft. These initiators are responsible for initiating the jettisoning process of the external hatches on the aircraft.

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  • 41. 

    During the hatch operational check, which B-52 component disengages to extend the lifter?

    • Push rods

    • Torque tubes

    • Pull rods

    • Jack arms

    Correct Answer
    A. Push rods
    Explanation
    During the hatch operational check, the push rods disengage to extend the lifter.

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  • 42. 

    How long is the cable on the B-2 internal hatch jettison handle?

    • 6 inches

    • 18 inches

    • 12 inches

    • 10 inches

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 inches
    Explanation
    The cable on the B-2 internal hatch jettison handle is 12 inches long.

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  • 43. 

    The canopy can be jettisoned from the A-10 aircraft, without seat ejection by

    • Firing one of the three M99 initiators

    • Pulling the emergency manual parachute handle

    • Firing one of the three M53 initiators

    • Pulling either of the firing control handles

    Correct Answer
    A. Firing one of the three M99 initiators
    Explanation
    The correct answer is firing one of the three M99 initiators. The M99 initiators are specifically designed to jettison the canopy from the A-10 aircraft. This action can be taken without the need for seat ejection or pulling any emergency handles. The M99 initiators are the appropriate mechanism to use in order to safely and efficiently remove the canopy from the aircraft.

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  • 44. 

    What prevents the F-16's seats from inadvertently ejecting when a canopy jettison handle is pulled and only a canopy jettison is required?

    • The SMDC-gas initiator's arming pin is repositioned blocking gas flow

    • The M53s are never fired thereby blocking gas flow to the sequence valves

    • The M99s shuttle the spools in the sequence valves blocking gas flow

    • The M99s are never fired because the SMDC sequencer prevents it

    Correct Answer
    A. The M99s shuttle the spools in the sequence valves blocking gas flow
    Explanation
    The M99s are responsible for blocking the gas flow by shuttling the spools in the sequence valves. This prevents the seats from inadvertently ejecting when only a canopy jettison is required.

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  • 45. 

    Workcenter and shift supervisors are responsible for reviewing the data entered into CAMS at what interval?

    • Annually

    • Daily

    • Monthly

    • Weekly

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily
    Explanation
    Workcenter and shift supervisors are responsible for reviewing the data entered into CAMS on a daily basis. This is important to ensure that the data is accurate and up-to-date. By reviewing the data daily, supervisors can identify any errors or discrepancies and take appropriate actions to correct them. Regular review also helps in monitoring the progress and performance of the workcenter or shift, allowing supervisors to make timely decisions and adjustments if needed.

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  • 46. 

    What AFTO Form is used as a dispatch work monitoring record?

    • 351

    • 350

    • 349

    • 348

    Correct Answer
    A. 349
    Explanation
    AFTO Form 349 is used as a dispatch work monitoring record. This form is specifically designed to document and track the maintenance actions performed on an aircraft. It provides a detailed record of the work done, including the date, time, and description of the maintenance action. By using this form, maintenance personnel can effectively monitor and track the dispatch status of an aircraft, ensuring that all necessary maintenance tasks have been completed before the aircraft is cleared for flight.

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  • 47. 

    The maximum speed limit on the flightline is

    • 10 mph

    • 15 mph

    • 20 mph

    • 5 mph

    Correct Answer
    A. 15 mph
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 15 mph. This speed limit is likely set to ensure the safety of all personnel and equipment on the flightline. By limiting the speed to 15 mph, it reduces the risk of accidents and allows for better control and maneuverability of vehicles. Additionally, it allows for a quick response in case of emergencies.

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  • 48. 

    How many people are required when using the demand-response method?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Two
    Explanation
    The demand-response method requires two people. This method involves one person making a demand or request, and another person responding to that demand. It requires both parties to be present and actively involved in the process. Therefore, two people are required for the demand-response method to work effectively.

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  • 49. 

    When the 1.0-second delay initiator on the T-38 fires, it

    • Fires the drogue gun

    • Disconnects the lapbelt buckle and actuates the SMS

    • Fires the booster and the canopy thruster

    • Jettisons the canopy

    Correct Answer
    A. Disconnects the lapbelt buckle and actuates the SMS
    Explanation
    When the 1.0-second delay initiator on the T-38 fires, it disconnects the lapbelt buckle and actuates the SMS. This means that the initiator is responsible for both disconnecting the lapbelt buckle and activating the SMS (Seat-Man Separation) system. The lapbelt buckle is disconnected to ensure a quick and efficient ejection process, while the activation of the SMS system initiates the ejection sequence by firing the ejection seat.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 06, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    AceofSpades604

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