Egress Journeyman 5 Level

150 Questions | Total Attempts: 71

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Journeyman Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz is designed to assist you in making a satisfactory score for your Egress Journeyman 2A653, 5 level CDC's. Good Luck.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The final responsibility for your personal safety rests with
    • A. 

      You

    • B. 

      Your supervisor

    • C. 

      Wing safety office

    • D. 

      Squadron commander

  • 2. 
    Personnel in the applicable office must respond to your appeal of an unsatisfactory response to a hazard report within
    • A. 

      5 days

    • B. 

      10 days

    • C. 

      20 days

    • D. 

      30 days

  • 3. 
    Egress augmentees are required to receive refresher training and recertification on the particular egress system they maintain every
    • A. 

      3 years

    • B. 

      2 years

    • C. 

      18 months

    • D. 

      12 months

  • 4. 
    Each time you are assigned to a new egress system, you are required to learn the new system by attending
    • A. 

      A proficiency course

    • B. 

      A special training course

    • C. 

      An on-the-job (OJT) course

    • D. 

      An Air Education and Training Command (AETC) approved Egress Journeyman Course

  • 5. 
    As an egress journeyman, you're required to have weapons safety training
    • A. 

      Annually

    • B. 

      Prior to performing explosive-related tasks

    • C. 

      Prior to performing explosive-related tasks and then annually

    • D. 

      Prior to performing explosive-related tasks and then semiannually

  • 6. 
    The maximum speed limit on the flight line is
    • A. 

      5 mph

    • B. 

      10 mph

    • C. 

      15 mph

    • D. 

      20 mph

  • 7. 
    When you are driving within 25 feet of an aircraft, you should
    • A. 

      Maintain your speed

    • B. 

      Reduce your speed to 5 mph

    • C. 

      Reduce your speed to 10 mph

    • D. 

      Increase your speed to 20 mph

  • 8. 
    What is the minimum permissible distance you can drive a vehicle toward an aircraft that has its engines running?
    • A. 

      25 feet front, 200 feet rear

    • B. 

      50 feet front, 200 feet rear

    • C. 

      100 feet front, 100 feet rear

    • D. 

      200 feet front, 100 feet rear

  • 9. 
    If there are no major command (MAJCOM) weapons safety training plans available, who is responsible for developing a local one?
    • A. 

      You or the personnel in your section

    • B. 

      Personnel in the Maintainance Training Division

    • C. 

      The base or unit Ground Safety Officer or NCO

    • D. 

      The base or unit Weapons Safety Officer or NCO

  • 10. 
    Responsibility for ensuring that explosive safety training is provided to applicable personnel rests with the
    • A. 

      Supervisors

    • B. 

      Unit commander

    • C. 

      Unit Explosive Safety NCO

    • D. 

      Personnel in the Maintenance Training Division

  • 11. 
    You are performing a periodic inspection of an explosive operation.  To do this properly, you would
    • A. 

      Not limit your inspection to one area

    • B. 

      Use checklists that focus strictly on explosive operations

    • C. 

      Time the inspection to coincide with the wing safety inspection

    • D. 

      Request assistance from someone outside of your area for a more honest evaluation

  • 12. 
    Egress explosives must  be carried in
    • A. 

      Protective containers

    • B. 

      Shipping containers

    • C. 

      A properly marked box

    • D. 

      Explosive-proof containers

  • 13. 
    To be acceptable for storage, explosives must be
    • A. 

      Clean

    • B. 

      Segregated

    • C. 

      Undamaged

    • D. 

      Assigned a hazard classification

  • 14. 
    Serviceable and unserviceable explosive items must be
    • A. 

      Integrated

    • B. 

      Segregated

    • C. 

      Stored in an approved shipping container

    • D. 

      Turned in to the munitions storage area as soon as possible

  • 15. 
    To be acceptable for the storage of explosives, a proposed facility must
    • A. 

      Have at least two exits

    • B. 

      Be protected from dry, cool temperatures

    • C. 

      Contain a minimum of three fire extinguishers

    • D. 

      Be protected from moisture and high temperatures

  • 16. 
    Supervisors make sure fire extinguishers are inspected how often?
    • A. 

      Weekly

    • B. 

      Monthly

    • C. 

      Quarterly

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 17. 
    One of the main advantages of using abbreviated technical orders is that they
    • A. 

      Paraphrase and eliminate the need for basic technical orders

    • B. 

      Serve as supplemental material

    • C. 

      Cover safety in more detail

    • D. 

      Simplify work

  • 18. 
    The first part of a TO number identifies the
    • A. 

      Sectionalization scheme of the TO

    • B. 

      Type of instructions found in the TO

    • C. 

      Technical system or equipment category

    • D. 

      Model and series of the equipment covered by the TO

  • 19. 
    The second part of a TO number identifies the
    • A. 

      Model and series of the equipment covered by the TO

    • B. 

      Types of instructions in the TO

    • C. 

      Category number of the TO

    • D. 

      Sectionalization of the TO

  • 20. 
    What part of the TO number determines the type of equipment found in the TO?
    • A. 

      First

    • B. 

      Second

    • C. 

      Third

    • D. 

      Fourth

  • 21. 
    What are the three priorities for technical order deficiency reports?
    • A. 

      Emergency, urgent, and routine

    • B. 

      Immediate, urgent, and routine

    • C. 

      Emergency, urgent, and record

    • D. 

      Immediate, urgent, and record

  • 22. 
    Who performs the basic mission of the Air Force?
    • A. 

      Operations group

    • B. 

      Maintenance group

    • C. 

      Numbered Air Force

    • D. 

      Headquarters USAF

  • 23. 
    Who is the technical authority and advisor of maintenance production?
    • A. 

      Maintenance supervisor

    • B. 

      Squadron commander

    • C. 

      Section Chief

    • D. 

      Flight Chief

  • 24. 
    Which flight performs off-equipment maintenance of electronic warfare systems?
    • A. 

      Avionics

    • B. 

      Munitions

    • C. 

      Accessories

    • D. 

      TMDE

  • 25. 
    The individuals responsible to ensure maintenance is only performed by personnel who are trained, qualified, and certified, unless under direct supervision of a trainer or certifier  is the
    • A. 

      Wing commander

    • B. 

      Squadron commander

    • C. 

      All maintenance personnel

    • D. 

      Maintenance group commander

  • 26. 
    The OSO
    • A. 

      Provides intelligence support during all phases of conflict

    • B. 

      Provides airfield management and air traffic operations services to the base flying wing

    • C. 

      Develops procedures and unit tactics for planning and employing operational mission and wing assets

    • D. 

      Manages the flying hour program, wing AFE, and flight simulator systems

  • 27. 
    Who is responsible for maintaining an up-to-date master technical order file?
    • A. 

      QA

    • B. 

      MTF

    • C. 

      PS&D

    • D. 

      MOCC

  • 28. 
    Which statement best describes a preflight inspection?
    • A. 

      A security alert check

    • B. 

      A routine visual check

    • C. 

      A flight preparedness check

    • D. 

      An optional inspection check

  • 29. 
    What type of inspection is required if an aircraft has an unusual condition such as a ground egress?
    • A. 

      Special

    • B. 

      Calendar

    • C. 

      Acceptance

    • D. 

      Time Replacement

  • 30. 
    When an egress item's service life is due to expire, it must be
    • A. 

      Added to the nearest inspection interval

    • B. 

      Added to the next time replacement schedule

    • C. 

      Changed at the occurrence of a specific condition

    • D. 

      Changed and is never left until the next scheduled inspection

  • 31. 
    What inspection is designed to detect descrepancies which may have developed due to wear and tear, or other damage, since the last inspection?
    • A. 

      Final

    • B. 

      Visual

    • C. 

      Special

    • D. 

      Scheduled

  • 32. 
    The grounding point for the F-16 ejection seat is the
    • A. 

      Interdictor striker or the restraint release bellcrank

    • B. 

      Seat side cap or the ejection control handle

    • C. 

      Restraint release bellcrank or the seat side cap

    • D. 

      Interdictor striker or the ejection control handle

  • 33. 
    The aircraft inspection process is broken down into how many phases?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 34. 
    Category I PQDRs must be submitted to the screening point within how many workdays  after the discovery of a deficiency?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      7

    • D. 

      10

  • 35. 
    Category II PQDRs are classified as
    • A. 

      Deficiency and improvement reports

    • B. 

      Deficiency and enhancement reports

    • C. 

      Enhancement and improvement reports

    • D. 

      Enhancement, deficiency, or improvement reports

  • 36. 
    Category II PQDRs must be submitted within how many working days after the discovery of a deficiency?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      13

  • 37. 
    Messages to report PQDRs are used when
    • A. 

      The report is a CAT I

    • B. 

      The report is a CAT II

    • C. 

      Automated means are not feasible

    • D. 

      A DD Form 1575, Suspended Tag-Material, is not feasible

  • 38. 
    Within the PQDR system, repairs to exhibits will not be performed unless authorized by the
    • A. 

      Originating point

    • B. 

      Screening point

    • C. 

      Support point

    • D. 

      Action point

  • 39. 
    What activity is responsible for resolution of a PQDR?
    • A. 

      Action point

    • B. 

      Support point

    • C. 

      Screening point

    • D. 

      Originating point

  • 40. 
    What method of request for technical assistance is used in emergency situations?
    • A. 

      DMS

    • B. 

      Telephone

    • C. 

      E-mail

    • D. 

      Fax

  • 41. 
    The MDD process allows for short and long term (historical) storage of data.  What else does it allow for?
    • A. 

      Hard copy and off-line retrieval of data through user inquiry

    • B. 

      On-line and hard copy retrieval of data through user inquiry

    • C. 

      Hard copy retrieval of data through user inquiry only

    • D. 

      On-line retrieval of data through user inquiry only

  • 42. 
    Whose responsibility is it to review the data entered into the MDD system on a daily basis?
    • A. 

      Maintenance technicians and PS&D

    • B. 

      Maintenance technicians and QA

    • C. 

      Shift supervisors and maintenance technicians

    • D. 

      Workcenter and shift supervisors

  • 43. 
    At base level, on what basis does the MDD system provide equipment maintenance schedules?
    • A. 

      Hourly

    • B. 

      Monthly

    • C. 

      Quarterly

    • D. 

      Calendar

  • 44. 
    Categories of documentation and data codes are two of the characteristics of the MDD concept; what is/are the others?
    • A. 

      Retrieval

    • B. 

      Collection

    • C. 

      On-equipment, off-equipment

    • D. 

      Documentation rules, data entry

  • 45. 
    How many characters are in a job control number?
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      7

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      9

  • 46. 
    What is the maximum number of maintenance actions that can be recorded on a single AFTO Form 349?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      6

  • 47. 
    If you receive a part with two different tags attached (yellow/green), what should you do?
    • A. 

      Bench-check the part

    • B. 

      Keep the yellow tag

    • C. 

      Keep the green tag

    • D. 

      Install the part

  • 48. 
    The purpose of a JCN is to
    • A. 

      Control excessive maintenance hours

    • B. 

      Control all aircraft flying time and down time

    • C. 

      Tie all on- and off-equipment actions together

    • D. 

      Tie flight operations and maintenance activities together

  • 49. 
    Which IMDS subsystem automates the record keeping function for all end items of equipment as well as for items installed on an end item of equipment?
    • A. 

      Time change subsystem

    • B. 

      Maintenance events subsystem

    • C. 

      JDD subsystem

    • D. 

      IMDS/SBSS interface subsystem

  • 50. 
    Workcenter and shift supervisors are responsible for reviewing the data entered into IMDS at what interval?
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 51. 
    Including determining the status of a part on order and monitoring rejected transactions, which statement is one of the ways that data available within the maintenance-SBSS can be used?
    • A. 

      Schedule overdue training

    • B. 

      Clearing a workcenter event

    • C. 

      Managing time-change items

    • D. 

      Ensuring a job has been documented

  • 52. 
    Who has the responsibility for ensuring the accuracy of the IMDS time change database?
    • A. 

      Database manager

    • B. 

      QA

    • C. 

      Egress section supervisor

    • D. 

      PS&D

  • 53. 
    What ERRC identifies consumable items?
    • A. 

      NF1

    • B. 

      NF2

    • C. 

      XB3

    • D. 

      XF1

  • 54. 
    If an item is a first-time request, who determines whether a bench stock increase or decrease is temporary or permanent?
    • A. 

      EME

    • B. 

      Bench stock support element

    • C. 

      Requesting individual

    • D. 

      Demand processing

  • 55. 
    The repair cycle time of a DIFM item starts when the
    • A. 

      Serviceable item is removed from the aircraft or piece of equipment only

    • B. 

      Unserviceable item is removed from the aircraft or piece of equipment ony

    • C. 

      Serviceable item is installed on the aircraft or piece of equipment, and demand on supply is closed

    • D. 

      Unserviceable item is removed from the aircraft or piece of equipment, and a demand is made on supply

  • 56. 
    Who may assign additional DIFM status codes to cover special situations?
    • A. 

      MAJCOM

    • B. 

      Maintenance squadron

    • C. 

      Headquarters US Air Force

    • D. 

      Repair cycle support system

  • 57. 
    How often are DIFM pickup points usually checked?
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      Biweekly

    • D. 

      Monthly

  • 58. 
    The outermost orbit for the electrons of an atom is known as the
    • A. 

      Circumfuge

    • B. 

      Electron drift

    • C. 

      Valence band

    • D. 

      Free electron zone

  • 59. 
    What is the unit of measurement for electromotive force (EMF)?
    • A. 

      Volt

    • B. 

      Ohm

    • C. 

      Watt

    • D. 

      Coulomb

  • 60. 
    What device is used to produce voltage through the use of chemical reaction?
    • A. 

      Photoresistive cells

    • B. 

      Photovoltaic cells

    • C. 

      Thermocouple

    • D. 

      Voltaic cells

  • 61. 
    What does the "E" stand for in the Ohms law formula?
    • A. 

      Energy

    • B. 

      Resistance

    • C. 

      Voltage

    • D. 

      Intensity

  • 62. 
    What component is used to direct or redirect force in preplanned order?
    • A. 

      Gate

    • B. 

      Hose

    • C. 

      Tube

    • D. 

      Energy transfer line

  • 63. 
    Which component activates the fired warning indicator?
    • A. 

      SMDC initiator

    • B. 

      Canopy actuated initiator

    • C. 

      Canopy remover cartridge

    • D. 

      Ejection seat gas-SMDC initiator

  • 64. 
    Which pliers are used to bend heavy gauge steel cotter pins?
    • A. 

      Vice grips

    • B. 

      Needle nose

    • C. 

      Combination

    • D. 

      Duck bills

  • 65. 
    What type punch is used to mark soft metal?
    • A. 

      Prick

    • B. 

      Center

    • C. 

      Starter

    • D. 

      Tapered

  • 66. 
    Who is responsible for executing an effective tool program?
    • A. 

      QA

    • B. 

      Maintenance commanders

    • C. 

      Operations group commanders

    • D. 

      Squadron maintenance supervisors

  • 67. 
    The first and second characters of the worldwide (WW) identification (ID) are the
    • A. 

      Unit identification number or office symbol

    • B. 

      Equipment identification designator (EID)

    • C. 

      Personnel assignment system code (PAS)

    • D. 

      Composite tool kit number (CTK)

  • 68. 
    Torque wrenches used for maintenance of aircraft and other critical equipment will be checked and calibrated as a minimum at least every
    • A. 

      30 days

    • B. 

      60 days

    • C. 

      90 days

    • D. 

      120 days

  • 69. 
    All will distort the quality of a fixed gauge, except
    • A. 

      Dropping

    • B. 

      Wear

    • C. 

      Rust

    • D. 

      Oil

  • 70. 
    What type of engine is used on the MC-1A air compressor unit?
    • A. 

      Diesel

    • B. 

      Electric

    • C. 

      Turbine

    • D. 

      Gasoline

  • 71. 
    It is preferable to use the Self-Generating Nitrogen Service Cart (SGNSC) instead of an air source provided by a compressor installed in egress workshops because the
    • A. 

      Shop compressors' pressure is too high

    • B. 

      Shop compressors' volume is too high

    • C. 

      SGNSC provides moisture-free air

    • D. 

      SGNSC provides higher pressure

  • 72. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring an effective FOD prevention program is established?
    • A. 

      Vice wing commander

    • B. 

      Wing commander

    • C. 

      QA

    • D. 

      FOD monitor

  • 73. 
    Atoms or groups of either positively or negatively charged atoms bound together, defines
    • A. 

      Electrons

    • B. 

      Diodes

    • C. 

      Atoms

    • D. 

      Ions

  • 74. 
    How many conditions must exist for corrosion to occur?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 75. 
    Which metals are most commonly associated with pitting corrosion?
    • A. 

      Steel and titanium

    • B. 

      Steel and aluminum

    • C. 

      Titanium and magnesium

    • D. 

      Aluminum and magnesium

  • 76. 
    In addition to humidity, temperature, and geographic location, what other factor should be taken into consideration when determining the extensiveness and frequency of corrosion inspections?
    • A. 

      Air pollution

    • B. 

      The technical order

    • C. 

      The type of material involved

    • D. 

      The severity of corrosion found during past inspections

  • 77. 
    Which wire brush is considered neutral and may be used on all equipment?
    • A. 

      Steel

    • B. 

      Brass

    • C. 

      Copper

    • D. 

      Stainless steel

  • 78. 
    Which cartridge-actuated devices used in egress systems are designed primarily to supply gas pressure to actuate other devices in the system?
    • A. 

      Removers

    • B. 

      Thrusters

    • C. 

      Catapults

    • D. 

      Initiators

  • 79. 
    What are the three methods used to place initiators into groups?
    • A. 

      Color of housing, ballistic capability, and size

    • B. 

      Explosive class, method of actuation, and size

    • C. 

      Method of actuation, size, and type of cartridge

    • D. 

      Explosive class, method of actuation, and type of cartridge

  • 80. 
    Which egress system component is designed to reposition mechanical linkages?
    • A. 

      Initiator

    • B. 

      Thruster

    • C. 

      Catapult

    • D. 

      Remover

  • 81. 
    What are removers designed to do?
    • A. 

      Eject crewmembers from high-speed aircraft

    • B. 

      Jettison the canopy from high-speed aircraft

    • C. 

      Reposition mechanical devices

    • D. 

      Fire other explosive devices

  • 82. 
    What is designed for upward or downward ejection of crewmembers from high-speed aircraft?
    • A. 

      Initiator

    • B. 

      Thruster

    • C. 

      Catapult

    • D. 

      Remover

  • 83. 
    What is the best action to take when an egress explosive component is found with a noncorrectable defect?
    • A. 

      Turn the item into base supply

    • B. 

      Submit a material deficiency report

    • C. 

      Identify the item as defective and store it with serviceable items

    • D. 

      Identify the item as defective and store it with unserviceable items

  • 84. 
    Aircraft roll out dates are sometimes used to establish
    • A. 

      Shelf life

    • B. 

      Lot number

    • C. 

      Service life

    • D. 

      Part number

  • 85. 
    Who is responsible for the accuracy and neatness of entries made on maintenance forms?
    • A. 

      You

    • B. 

      Shop supervisor

    • C. 

      QA

    • D. 

      Documentation section

  • 86. 
    Which action can help prevent a breakdown in the monitoring of time change items?
    • A. 

      Use verbal location to identify time change items

    • B. 

      Use mirrors to document items that are already installed

    • C. 

      When doing several time items, complete all documentation first, then install all the time change items

    • D. 

      Check to ensure that part numbers, serial numbers, lot numbers, and locations all match the work order

  • 87. 
    The two delayed reefing line cutters used on the ACES II seat are activated by
    • A. 

      Lanyards attached to the drogue slug

    • B. 

      The recovery sequencer electrical impulse

    • C. 

      Lanyards attached to the inner tube of the mortar

    • D. 

      A trip rod lever attached to the lower edge of the seat rails

  • 88. 
    Which is an approved ACES II seat grounding procedure?
    • A. 

      Seats are grounded at the interdictor striker or the restraint release bellcrank

    • B. 

      Anywhere on the seat where no paint prevents a positive ground is acceptable

    • C. 

      The seat side caps are acceptable for grounding when no other point is available

    • D. 

      An ohmmeter should be used to verify the grounding points are within the approved resistance range

  • 89. 
    When you find the torque stripe on an ACES II gas hose fitting is not aligned, the corrective action is to
    • A. 

      Loosen the fitting, remove the old torque stripe and paint a new torque stripe

    • B. 

      Loosen the fitting, retighten to the proper torque value and ensure the paint stripe is lined up

    • C. 

      Remove the torque stripe, loosen the fitting, retighten to the proper torque value and paint a new torque stripe

    • D. 

      Remove the torque stripe, loosen the fitting, inspect for internal obstructions, retighten to the proper torque value and paint a new torque stripe

  • 90. 
    During a rotation check on the initiator firing mechanism for an ACES II seat, if the force required to rotate the firing control handle is below limits, how should the problem be corrected?
    • A. 

      Replace the grip and tighten bolt to 5 +- 2 pounds

    • B. 

      Remove and install two new fiber washers, tightening to the proper limits

    • C. 

      Tighten the bolt in the grip assembly pivot attachment, within torque limits

    • D. 

      Remove and sand the fiber washers with sandpaper and then reinstall with same hardware

  • 91. 
    The F-15 canopy is opened by
    • A. 

      Flipping the toggle switch to the OPEN position and holding it there until the canopy is raised

    • B. 

      Flipping the toggle switch to the RAISE position and releasing it. The canopy will rise to the full open position

    • C. 

      Depressing the release button to engage the control handle and turning the handle clockwise to the UP position

    • D. 

      Depressing the release button to engage the control handle and turning the handle counter clockwise to the OPEN position

  • 92. 
    The canopy locking actuator on the F-15 aircraft is hydraulically locked in the fully extended position by the
    • A. 

      Placement of the canopy manual control handle to the open position

    • B. 

      Spring operated cam mechanism that is released when the canopy is raised

    • C. 

      Spring loaded sequence valve that is allowed to close as the canopy raises

    • D. 

      Bellcrank arrangement that is rotated as the locking mechanism is activated

  • 93. 
    When closing the canopy of an F-15 aircraft, how long should you wait before you move the canopy control handle to the LOCK position?
    • A. 

      10 seconds

    • B. 

      4 to 6 seconds

    • C. 

      Until you feel the canopy hit the sill

    • D. 

      As soon as the locking actuator begins to move

  • 94. 
    To manually open an F-15 canopy, you must move the control handle to the UP position, which then
    • A. 

      Allows operation of the control box flexshaft

    • B. 

      Releases the liquid lock on the canopy actuator

    • C. 

      Prevents the one-way restrictor valve from interfering

    • D. 

      Begins the downward movement of the actuator to allow the locking mechanism to operate

  • 95. 
    Which is an accurate statement regarding an F-15 canopy jettison sequence that is begun from inside the cockpit?
    • A. 

      A shielded mild detonating cord extends the canopy remover piston

    • B. 

      Continued movement of the canopy actuator shears the hinge arm pins

    • C. 

      The canopy actuator engages the jettison bellcrank to unlock the canopy

    • D. 

      The handle under the left sill fires the internal initiator starting the event

  • 96. 
    Failure to secure the canopy actuator to the F-15 aircraft structure prior to disconnecting the actuator from the canopy will cause damage to the
    • A. 

      Steel lines

    • B. 

      Canopy seal

    • C. 

      Titanium lines

    • D. 

      Canopy plexiglas

  • 97. 
    If contamination is discovered in a component during a pre-installation inspection on an F-15 pyrotechnic module, and it cannot be dislodged by turning the panel over and shaking it, you would
    • A. 

      Replace the component

    • B. 

      Go ahead and install the module

    • C. 

      Blow compressed air at 40 psi into the component

    • D. 

      Use needle-nosed pliers to remove the contamination

  • 98. 
    When you reinstall a pyrotechnic module on an F-15 aircraft, before you connect the hoses to the components, you would disconnect the hoses and
    • A. 

      Flow check them

    • B. 

      Use a flashlight to look through them

    • C. 

      Use a borescope to look through them

    • D. 

      Run a piece of safety wire through them

  • 99. 
    Once it has fired, the rocket catapult shielded mild detonating cord (SMDC) initiator on the F-15 emergency escape sequencing system will
    • A. 

      Change from SMDC detonation to gas pressure

    • B. 

      Change from gas pressure to SMDC detonation

    • C. 

      Provide SMDC detonation to fire the rocket catapult

    • D. 

      Provide gas pressure to melt chemical wafers producing electrical power

  • 100. 
    During operation of the F-15 emergency escape sequencing system, the gas pressure at the ejection seat gas-shielded mild detonating cord (SMDC) initiator changes
    • A. 

      Velocity

    • B. 

      To SMDC detonation

    • C. 

      Back to flexible linear shaped charge (FLSC)

    • D. 

      To detonation transfer assembly (DTA) detonation

  • 101. 
    In the F-15 emergency escape sequencing system, a mode 2 ejection occurs at speeds
    • A. 

      Below 250 knots and altitudes above 15,000 feet

    • B. 

      Below 250 knots and altitudes below 15,000 feet

    • C. 

      In excess of 250 knots and altitudes above 15,000 feet

    • D. 

      In excess of 250 knots and altitudes below 15,000 feet

  • 102. 
    External electrical operation of the canopy on the F-16 aircraft is activated by a
    • A. 

      Control handle that has four detent positions including lock, down, hold, and up positions

    • B. 

      Toggle switch that is spring-loaded off from both the up and down positions

    • C. 

      Control handle that must be turned to the up or down positions

    • D. 

      Toggle switch that is spring-loaded off from the up position only

  • 103. 
    Which statement best describes the sequence of events that occur once the canopy on an F-16 aircraft engages the aircraft sill?
    • A. 

      The locking pawl will engage the locking cam energizing the close limit switch

    • B. 

      The lock handle moves to the locked position when the locking pawl engages the locking cam

    • C. 

      The locking pawl will disengage froom the locking cam allowing rotation of the latching system

    • D. 

      All three warning lamp switches are de-energized when the locking pawl disengages the locking cam

  • 104. 
    How many canopy jettison control handles is the F-16 aircraft equiped with?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      1

  • 105. 
    In order to allow either crewmember to eject both ejection seats, which position must the eject mode selector valve be in on the F-16 aircraft?
    • A. 

      AFT

    • B. 

      SOLO

    • C. 

      NORMAL

    • D. 

      FORWARD

  • 106. 
    On an F-16D ACES II ejection seat, which initiator fires the inertial reel gas generator?
    • A. 

      M99 initiator

    • B. 

      M53 initiator

    • C. 

      The left hand JAU-8/A25 initiator

    • D. 

      The right hand JAU-8/A25 initiator

  • 107. 
    How many recovery sequence modes does the F-16 ejection seat have and what does selection of a particular mode depend on?
    • A. 

      Three modes which depend upon the position of the ejection mode selector valve

    • B. 

      Three modes which depend upon the altitude and airspeed at the time of ejection

    • C. 

      Four modes which depend upon the position of the ejection mode selector valve

    • D. 

      Four modes which depend upon the altitude and airspeed during post ejection

  • 108. 
    The general parameters for a mode 2 ejection from an F-16 aircraft are
    • A. 

      Low altitude/low speed

    • B. 

      Low altitude/high speed

    • C. 

      High altitude/low speed

    • D. 

      High altitude/high speed

  • 109. 
    The cockpit canopy jettison M99 initiator on the A-10 aircraft is
    • A. 

      Ballistically-fired, mechanically-activated

    • B. 

      Cartridge-fired, mechanically-activated

    • C. 

      Mechanically-fired, cartridge-activated

    • D. 

      Electrically-activated, mechanically-fired

  • 110. 
    Where does the gas pressure come from that is diverted by the three-way check valve to fire the M53 booster initiator on the A-10 aircraft?
    • A. 

      Ejection sequence initiator, internal canopy jettison initiator, or either of the external canopy jettison initiators

    • B. 

      Either of the external canopy jettison initiators, or the canopy shear link actuator

    • C. 

      The internal canopy jettison initiator, or the sequence valve

    • D. 

      The sequence valve or the shear link actuator

  • 111. 
    The canopy can be jettisoned from the A-10 aircraft, without seat ejection by
    • A. 

      Pulling the emergency manual parachute handle

    • B. 

      Pulling either of the firing control handles

    • C. 

      Firing one of the three M53 initiators

    • D. 

      Firing one of the three M99 initiators

  • 112. 
    On the F-22, the canopy thruster extension separates into two segments and desconnects the canopy from the actuator after a thruster extension of
    • A. 

      1.0 inch

    • B. 

      1.5 inches

    • C. 

      2.0 inches

    • D. 

      2.5 inches

  • 113. 
    Which canopy system component provides the rotational force needed to lift the canopy off the F-22 aircraft?
    • A. 

      Thruster

    • B. 

      Interlock

    • C. 

      Rocket motor

    • D. 

      Damping block

  • 114. 
    During jettison of the F-22 canopy, the initial aft movement of the canopy is accomplished by the
    • A. 

      Actuator

    • B. 

      Thruster

    • C. 

      Damper

    • D. 

      Rocket

  • 115. 
    When the 1.0-second delay initiator on the T-38 ignites, it
    • A. 

      Disconnects the lapbelt buckle and actuates the seat-man separator

    • B. 

      Fires the booster and the canopy thruster

    • C. 

      Fires the drogue gun

    • D. 

      Jettisons the canopy

  • 116. 
    Which handle(s) would be used to jettison both canopies on a T-38?
    • A. 

      Either T-handle

    • B. 

      Either D-handle

    • C. 

      The T-handle in the forward cockpit

    • D. 

      The D-handle in the nose-wheel well

  • 117. 
    If each crew member needed to jettison both canopies on a T-38 aircraft while in flight, they would pull
    • A. 

      The T-handle in the forward cockpit

    • B. 

      Both external D-handles

    • C. 

      Either of the T-handles

    • D. 

      Both T-handles

  • 118. 
    To actuate the canopy locking mechanism on a T-38 aircraft, you would use
    • A. 

      One canopy control handle

    • B. 

      Two canopy control handles

    • C. 

      Three canopy control handles

    • D. 

      Four canopy control handles

  • 119. 
    On the U-2 aircraft, the gas pressure from the 0.3-second delay initiator goes through the bypass valve to the
    • A. 

      Two left cockpit console initiators, canopy thruster, and rocket catapult

    • B. 

      Drogue gun, shoulder harness reel, rocket catapult, and 1.0-second delay initiator

    • C. 

      Two left cockpit console initiators, lower bridle line cutters, and 1.0-second delay initiator

    • D. 

      Seat initiator, two left cockpit console initiators, shoulder harness reel, and rocket-catapult

  • 120. 
    On the U-2 system, the gas pressure from the second 1.0-second delay initiator goes to the
    • A. 

      Lower bridle line cutters and the 10.0-second delay cutters

    • B. 

      Seat initiator, the two left cockpit console initiators, the harness reel, and the rocket-catapult

    • C. 

      Drogue gun, the shoulder harness reel, the rocket catapult, and the second 3.0-second delay initiator

    • D. 

      Bypass valve, the two left cockpit console initiators, the seat initiator, and the 10.0-second delay initiator

  • 121. 
    After a U-2 pilot ejects from the aircraft, if the pilot remains in the seat and falls to an altitude of 15,000 (+- !,000) feet, what components(s) will fire and force gas pressure to the lap belt unlatching mechanism, torque tube thruster, and an initiator?
    • A. 

      Aneroid initiators

    • B. 

      1.0-second delay initiators

    • C. 

      3.0-second delay initiator

    • D. 

      10.0-second delay initiators

  • 122. 
    The B-1B Advanced Concept Ejection Seats arm restraint epaulet keeper is held closed by
    • A. 

      Snaps

    • B. 

      Velcro

    • C. 

      Zippers

    • D. 

      Buttons

  • 123. 
    Recovery sequencer thermal batteries are activated on the B1-B by gas pressure from the
    • A. 

      Shielded mild detonating cord detonation (SMDC)-gas initiator

    • B. 

      Ejection control initiators

    • C. 

      Gas-SMDC initiator

    • D. 

      Catapult cartridge

  • 124. 
    What component provides forward and aft movement of the B-1B seat carriage?
    • A. 

      Carriage load arrestor

    • B. 

      Carriage seat retract thruster

    • C. 

      Vertical seat positioning actuator

    • D. 

      Horzontal seat positioning actuator

  • 125. 
    Which component is used to fire the ejection seat rocket catapult on the B-1B?
    • A. 

      Gas-SMDC initiator

    • B. 

      One-way transfer initiator

    • C. 

      Hatch remover output cartridge

    • D. 

      SMDC-gas initiator

  • 126. 
    How are the recovery sequencer thermal batteries activated during ejection from the B-1B?
    • A. 

      Gas pressure from the 1.6-second time delay initiator

    • B. 

      SMDC detonation

    • C. 

      Gas pressure from the rocket catapult

    • D. 

      SMDC-gas initiator pressure

  • 127. 
    Where is the bottoom bailout initiator located on the B-1B?
    • A. 

      On each crewmembers side console

    • B. 

      On the aft end of the forward overhead panel

    • C. 

      On the aircraft structure next to the central equipment bay hatch

    • D. 

      Between the forward and aft crew stations on the center aisle left wall

  • 128. 
    How many external hatch jettison initiators are installed on the B-1B?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 129. 
    Which B-1B component blocks SMDC detonation to the ejection seat components when the external hatch jettison initiators have been fired?
    • A. 

      AND gate

    • B. 

      Interrupter

    • C. 

      Eject mode selector

    • D. 

      One-way transfer initiators

  • 130. 
    How many energy transfer panels are used on the B-1B escape system?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      6

  • 131. 
    Which B-1B component provides gas pressure to fire the gas-SMDC initiators?
    • A. 

      Eject mode selectors

    • B. 

      Ejection control initiators

    • C. 

      Hatch remover output cartridge

    • D. 

      Carriage seat retract thrusters output cartridge

  • 132. 
    The 3.2-second time delay initiator is fired on the B-1B by
    • A. 

      SMDC detonation

    • B. 

      An electrical signal from the recovery sequencer

    • C. 

      Mechanical linkage

    • D. 

      Gas pressure

  • 133. 
    Which B-1B AND gate component detonates explosive transfer lines to activate the forward hatch severance system?
    • A. 

      Seat ejection

    • B. 

      Hatch jettison

    • C. 

      Energy transfer

    • D. 

      Seat ejection sequencing

  • 134. 
    What components on the B-1B are activated by seat movement up the guide rails?
    • A. 

      Recovery sequencer start switches

    • B. 

      SMDC-gas initiators

    • C. 

      Limb restraints, emergency oxygen supply, and seat-to-aircraft ballistic hose disconnects

    • D. 

      Abandon aircraft warning light switch in the forward crew stations and emergency oxygen supply

  • 135. 
    Who is responsible for installing the bottom bailout safety pins on the B-1B?
    • A. 

      Egress

    • B. 

      Flight crew

    • C. 

      Crew chief

    • D. 

      Maintenance personnel

  • 136. 
    Which B-1B crew stations can initiate a fully automatic ejection sequence?
    • A. 

      Pilot only

    • B. 

      Pilot and copilot

    • C. 

      OSO, pilot, and copilot

    • D. 

      DSO, pilot, and copilot

  • 137. 
    What will happen if the B-1B is disabled, and the OSO pulls the ejection control handles while all mode selectors are in AUTO?
    • A. 

      OSO and DSO will be ejected; pilot/copilot will not

    • B. 

      DSO/OSO will be ejected; pilot/copilot will be ejected after 3.2 seconds

    • C. 

      OSO will be ejected; no other crewmember will be ejected

    • D. 

      All crewmembers will be ejected

  • 138. 
    Which B-1B crew station mode selectors must be in the AUTO position for an automatic mode ejection?
    • A. 

      All mode selectors

    • B. 

      Pilots mode selectors only

    • C. 

      OSO and DSO mode selectors only

    • D. 

      Pilots and copilots mode selectors only

  • 139. 
    Which B-1B component arms the seat ejection sequencing AND gates during ejection?
    • A. 

      Hatch remover input cartridge

    • B. 

      Hatch remover output cartridge

    • C. 

      Carriage seat retract thruster input cartridge

    • D. 

      Carriage seat retract thruster output cartridge

  • 140. 
    Which B-1B time delay initiator is fired by the SMDC from the seat ejection sequencing AND gate?
    • A. 

      0.3 TDI

    • B. 

      0.7 TDI

    • C. 

      1.0 TDI

    • D. 

      1.6 TDI

  • 141. 
    Which B-1B seats will eject if all mode selectors are placed in the manual mode and the pilot initiates ejection?
    • A. 

      All seats

    • B. 

      Pilot's seat only

    • C. 

      Pilot's and copilot's seats only

    • D. 

      Pilot's and DSO's seats only

  • 142. 
    Which B-1B crew stations are provided with worktable stowage thrusters?
    • A. 

      Aft crew stations

    • B. 

      Forward crew stations

    • C. 

      Copilot crew station only

    • D. 

      OSO crew station only

  • 143. 
    How many defects allowed on the environmental sensor before it must be replaced?
    • A. 

      Zero

    • B. 

      One

    • C. 

      Two

    • D. 

      Three

  • 144. 
    How many sequence valves are installed in the B-2 explosive devices subsystem?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 145. 
    Which delay initiator is designed to ensure that the hatch is clear of the ejection seat path before the seat ejection on the B-2?
    • A. 

      0.15-second

    • B. 

      0.40-second

    • C. 

      0.75-second

    • D. 

      2.75-second

  • 146. 
    What is the maximum time delay allowed for crew compartment depressurization on the B-2?
    • A. 

      1.75 seconds

    • B. 

      2.25 seconds

    • C. 

      2.75 seconds

    • D. 

      3.25 seconds

  • 147. 
    What B-2 component is used to separate the hatch from the aircraft?
    • A. 

      Confined detonation cord

    • B. 

      Flexible linear shaped charge

    • C. 

      Hatch separation assembly racetrack

    • D. 

      Hatch separation assembly horseshoe

  • 148. 
    What B-2 component fires the hatch rockets when hatch jettison is initiated using the right external hatch jettison initiator?
    • A. 

      0.15-second delay initiator

    • B. 

      0.40-second delay initiator

    • C. 

      Hatch separation assembly racetrack

    • D. 

      Hatch separation assembly horseshoe

  • 149. 
    What provides a way to sever the escape hatch to permit separation from the B-2 during an emergency ground egress?
    • A. 

      Guillotine assembly

    • B. 

      Flexible linear shaped charge

    • C. 

      Hatch separation assembly racetrack

    • D. 

      Hatch separation assembly horseshoe

  • 150. 
    What B-2 components sends energy transfer signals by the DTA lines to the hatch rockets?
    • A. 

      0.15-second delay initiator

    • B. 

      0.40-second delay initiator

    • C. 

      Hatch separation assembly racetrack

    • D. 

      Hatch separation assembly horseshoe