Egress Journeyman 5 Level

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1. The final responsibility for your personal safety rests with

Explanation

The correct answer is "you". This is because personal safety is ultimately the individual's responsibility. While supervisors, wing safety offices, and squadron commanders may provide guidance and resources, it is up to the individual to make decisions and take actions to ensure their own safety.

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About This Quiz
Egress Systems Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz is designed to assist you in making a satisfactory score for your Egress Journeyman 2A653, 5 level CDC's. Good Luck.

2. Serviceable and unserviceable explosive items must be

Explanation

Explosive items need to be segregated, which means they should be separated or kept apart from each other. This is important for safety reasons as it helps to prevent accidental detonation or ignition of explosives. By keeping serviceable and unserviceable explosive items segregated, the risk of mishandling or improper storage is minimized. Therefore, it is necessary to ensure that explosive items are properly segregated to maintain a safe environment.

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3. The grounding point for the F-16 ejection seat is the

Explanation

The grounding point for the F-16 ejection seat is the interdictor striker or the restraint release bellcrank. This means that either the interdictor striker or the restraint release bellcrank can be used as a point of grounding for the ejection seat in the F-16 aircraft.

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4. Who is responsible for the accuracy and neatness of entries made on maintenance forms?

Explanation

The responsibility for the accuracy and neatness of entries made on maintenance forms lies with the person who is filling out the form, which is referred to as "you" in this context. This means that the individual who is completing the maintenance form is accountable for ensuring that the information entered is correct and presented in a tidy manner.

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5. The general parameters for a mode 2 ejection from an F-16 aircraft are

Explanation

A mode 2 ejection from an F-16 aircraft is typically performed at low altitude and high speed. This is because in such situations, the pilot may not have enough time to safely descend to a lower altitude or reduce speed before ejecting. Ejecting at a high speed helps to ensure that the pilot clears the aircraft quickly and avoids any potential hazards. Additionally, ejecting at a low altitude allows for a shorter descent time and increases the chances of survival for the pilot.

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6. What type of inspection is required if an aircraft has an unusual condition such as a ground egress?

Explanation

Special inspections are required when an aircraft has an unusual condition such as a ground egress. These inspections are not part of the routine maintenance schedule and are performed to address specific issues or abnormalities. Special inspections are typically more thorough and detailed than regular inspections, and they may involve additional testing, checks, or repairs to ensure the aircraft's safety and airworthiness.

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7. How many characters are in a job control number?

Explanation

A job control number typically consists of a combination of alphanumeric characters that are used to identify and track a specific job or task. Since the answer is 9, it suggests that a job control number is comprised of 9 characters.

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8. Which is an approved ACES II seat grounding procedure?

Explanation

The approved ACES II seat grounding procedure states that seats should be grounded at either the interdictor striker or the restraint release bellcrank. These specific points on the seat are designated for grounding purposes to ensure the safety and functionality of the seat.

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9. What is designed for upward or downward ejection of crewmembers from high-speed aircraft?

Explanation

A catapult is designed for the upward or downward ejection of crewmembers from high-speed aircraft. It provides a powerful launch mechanism to rapidly propel the crewmembers out of the aircraft in emergency situations. This allows for a quick and efficient evacuation, ensuring the safety of the crewmembers.

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10. Workcenter and shift supervisors are responsible for reviewing the data entered into IMDS at what interval?

Explanation

Workcenter and shift supervisors are responsible for reviewing the data entered into IMDS on a daily basis. This is important to ensure the accuracy and completeness of the data. By reviewing the data daily, supervisors can identify any errors or discrepancies promptly and take appropriate actions to rectify them. Regular review also helps in monitoring the progress of work and identifying any potential issues or trends that may require attention. Therefore, daily review of the data entered into IMDS is crucial for maintaining data integrity and ensuring smooth operations.

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11. Which flight performs off-equipment maintenance of electronic warfare systems?

Explanation

Avionics refers to the electronics systems used in aircraft, including communication, navigation, and electronic warfare systems. Off-equipment maintenance means the maintenance performed on these systems while they are not installed in the aircraft. Therefore, avionics is the correct answer as it is responsible for the off-equipment maintenance of electronic warfare systems.

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12. How many recovery sequence modes does the F-16 ejection seat have and what does selection of a particular mode depend on?

Explanation

The F-16 ejection seat has three recovery sequence modes that depend upon the altitude and airspeed at the time of ejection. The selection of a particular mode is determined by these factors, as they play a crucial role in ensuring a safe and effective ejection from the aircraft. Different altitudes and airspeeds may require different recovery sequences to account for various flight conditions and potential hazards during ejection.

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13. The maximum speed limit on the flight line is

Explanation

The correct answer is 15 mph. This speed limit is set to ensure the safety of personnel and equipment on the flight line. It allows for efficient movement of vehicles and reduces the risk of accidents or collisions. A speed limit of 15 mph strikes a balance between maintaining a reasonable pace and ensuring that everyone on the flight line is able to react and respond to any potential hazards in a timely manner.

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14. Which cartridge-actuated devices used in egress systems are designed primarily to supply gas pressure to actuate other devices in the system?

Explanation

Initiators are cartridge-actuated devices used in egress systems primarily to supply gas pressure to actuate other devices in the system. They are designed to initiate a controlled explosion or combustion process, which generates gas pressure that is then used to activate other components or mechanisms in the egress system. Initiators play a crucial role in ensuring the proper functioning of egress systems and facilitating the safe evacuation of individuals in emergency situations.

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15. What method of request for technical assistance is used in emergency situations?

Explanation

In emergency situations, using the telephone to request technical assistance is the most effective method. This is because it allows for immediate communication and real-time problem-solving. Unlike other methods such as email or fax, which may have delays in response time, the telephone enables quick and direct communication with technical support personnel. This is crucial in emergency situations where time is of the essence and prompt assistance is needed to resolve the issue.

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16. If you receive a part with two different tags attached (yellow/green), what should you do?

Explanation

When you receive a part with two different tags attached (yellow/green), the correct course of action is to bench-check the part. This means that you should thoroughly inspect and test the part to ensure its quality and functionality before proceeding with any further actions. The tags are likely there to indicate different stages or conditions of the part, but it is important to verify its condition through a bench-check before making any decisions on whether to keep or install it.

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17. What are removers designed to do?

Explanation

Removers are designed to jettison the canopy from high-speed aircraft. This means that they are specifically created to detach or release the protective cover or enclosure of the aircraft in order to provide a safe exit for the crewmembers. This action is crucial in emergency situations or when the crew needs to evacuate the aircraft quickly.

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18. The two delayed reefing line cutters used on the ACES II seat are activated by

Explanation

The correct answer is lanyards attached to the inner tube of the mortar. This means that the delayed reefing line cutters on the ACES II seat are activated by pulling on the lanyards that are attached to the inner tube of the mortar. This action triggers the cutters to release the reefing lines, allowing the parachute to fully deploy.

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19. When you are driving within 25 feet of an aircraft, you should

Explanation

When driving within 25 feet of an aircraft, it is important to reduce your speed to 5 mph. This is because aircrafts are sensitive to the airflow created by passing vehicles, and a higher speed can create turbulence that may affect the aircraft's stability. By reducing your speed to 5 mph, you minimize the potential impact on the aircraft and ensure a safer driving environment.

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20. Which statement best describes a preflight inspection?

Explanation

A preflight inspection refers to a flight preparedness check. This involves thoroughly examining an aircraft before a flight to ensure that it is in proper working condition and ready for takeoff. It includes checking various components such as the engine, controls, fuel system, landing gear, and overall structural integrity. This inspection is essential for ensuring the safety of the flight and preventing any potential issues or malfunctions during the journey.

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21. When you reinstall a pyrotechnic module on an F-15 aircraft, before you connect the hoses to the components, you would disconnect the hoses and

Explanation

Before connecting the hoses to the components, it is necessary to disconnect them and perform a flow check. This is done to ensure that there are no obstructions or blockages in the hoses that could impede the flow of pyrotechnic materials. By conducting a flow check, any issues can be identified and resolved before the hoses are reconnected, ensuring the proper functioning of the pyrotechnic module on the F-15 aircraft.

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22. Personnel in the applicable office must respond to your appeal of an unsatisfactory response to a hazard report within

Explanation

Personnel in the applicable office must respond to your appeal of an unsatisfactory response to a hazard report within 10 days. This means that if you are not satisfied with the initial response to your hazard report, you have the right to appeal and the personnel in the office must address your appeal within 10 days. This ensures that your concerns are taken seriously and addressed in a timely manner.

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23. Which wire brush is considered neutral and may be used on all equipment?

Explanation

Stainless steel wire brushes are considered neutral and can be safely used on all types of equipment. This is because stainless steel is a non-reactive material that does not corrode or leave behind any residue when used. It is also durable and can withstand high temperatures, making it suitable for various cleaning and maintenance tasks on different types of equipment.

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24. When you find the torque stripe on an ACES II gas hose fitting is not aligned, the corrective action is to

Explanation

When the torque stripe on an ACES II gas hose fitting is not aligned, the correct action is to remove the torque stripe first. Then, the fitting needs to be loosened and inspected for any internal obstructions that may be causing the misalignment. After ensuring there are no obstructions, the fitting should be retightened to the proper torque value. Finally, a new torque stripe should be painted on the fitting. This sequence of actions ensures that the fitting is properly aligned and functioning correctly.

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25. All will distort the quality of a fixed gauge, except

Explanation

Dropping, wear, and rust can all cause damage to a fixed gauge and distort its quality. However, oil does not have the same effect. Oil can actually help to prevent rust and wear, and it can also lubricate the gauge, ensuring smooth operation. Therefore, oil does not distort the quality of a fixed gauge.

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26. How many defects allowed on the environmental sensor before it must be replaced?

Explanation

The correct answer is zero because the question is asking for the number of defects allowed on the environmental sensor before it must be replaced. "Zero" means that no defects are allowed, indicating that even a single defect would require the sensor to be replaced.

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27. Supervisors make sure fire extinguishers are inspected how often?

Explanation

Supervisors ensure that fire extinguishers are inspected on a monthly basis. This regular inspection schedule allows for any potential issues or maintenance needs to be identified and addressed in a timely manner. Monthly inspections help to ensure that fire extinguishers are in proper working condition and ready to be used effectively in case of a fire emergency.

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28. One of the main advantages of using abbreviated technical orders is that they

Explanation

Abbreviated technical orders simplify work by condensing complex information into shorter, more concise instructions. By eliminating unnecessary details and focusing on the essential steps, workers can quickly and easily understand and follow the instructions. This saves time and reduces the chances of errors or confusion. Additionally, abbreviated technical orders are often designed to be user-friendly, using clear and straightforward language, further enhancing their ability to simplify work.

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29. It is preferable to use the Self-Generating Nitrogen Service Cart (SGNSC) instead of an air source provided by a compressor installed in egress workshops because the

Explanation

The correct answer is that the SGNSC provides moisture-free air. This is preferable because moisture in the compressed air can cause corrosion and damage to sensitive equipment. By using the SGNSC, which is designed to remove moisture from the air, the risk of damage is reduced.

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30. How are the recovery sequencer thermal batteries activated during ejection from the B-1B?

Explanation

The recovery sequencer thermal batteries are activated during ejection from the B-1B by gas pressure from the rocket catapult. This means that the batteries are activated by the force generated by the rocket catapult, which propels the recovery sequencer and activates the thermal batteries.

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31. The second part of a TO number identifies the

Explanation

The second part of a TO number identifies the model and series of the equipment covered by the TO. This means that the second part of the TO number provides information about the specific model and series of equipment that the TO is referring to. This helps to differentiate between different types of equipment and ensures that the correct instructions are provided for the specific model and series in question.

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32. What is the minimum permissible distance you can drive a vehicle toward an aircraft that has its engines running?

Explanation

When a vehicle is driving towards an aircraft with its engines running, it is important to maintain a safe distance to avoid any accidents or damage. The minimum permissible distance is 25 feet in the front and 200 feet in the rear. This ensures that there is enough space for the vehicle to maneuver and prevents any potential hazards that may arise from being too close to the aircraft.

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33. The B-1B Advanced Concept Ejection Seats arm restraint epaulet keeper is held closed by

Explanation

The correct answer is velcro. Velcro is a type of fastening material that consists of two strips, one with tiny hooks and the other with small loops. When pressed together, the hooks and loops interlock, creating a secure closure. In the case of the B-1B Advanced Concept Ejection Seats arm restraint epaulet keeper, velcro is used to hold it closed. Velcro is a popular choice for fastening items that need to be easily opened and closed, as it provides a strong hold while still being simple to use.

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34. In the F-15 emergency escape sequencing system, a mode 2 ejection occurs at speeds

Explanation

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35. What device is used to produce voltage through the use of chemical reaction?

Explanation

Voltaic cells are devices that generate voltage through a chemical reaction. They consist of two different electrodes immersed in an electrolyte solution. The chemical reaction between the electrodes and the electrolyte produces a flow of electrons, creating an electric current. This process is known as electrochemical reaction, where chemical energy is converted into electrical energy. Therefore, voltaic cells are used to produce voltage through the use of a chemical reaction.

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36. The canopy can be jettisoned from the A-10 aircraft, without seat ejection by

Explanation

The correct answer is firing one of the three M99 initiators. The M99 initiators are responsible for initiating the explosive charges that release the canopy from the A-10 aircraft. By firing one of these initiators, the explosive charges are activated, allowing the canopy to be jettisoned without the need for seat ejection.

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37. If contamination is discovered in a component during a pre-installation inspection on an F-15 pyrotechnic module, and it cannot be dislodged by turning the panel over and shaking it, you would

Explanation

If contamination is discovered in a component during a pre-installation inspection on an F-15 pyrotechnic module and it cannot be dislodged by turning the panel over and shaking it, the best course of action would be to replace the component. This is because contamination can compromise the performance and safety of the module, and attempting to remove it with compressed air or needle-nosed pliers may not fully eliminate the contamination or could potentially damage the component. Therefore, the most effective solution would be to replace the component entirely to ensure the module functions properly and safely.

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38. To be acceptable for the storage of explosives, a proposed facility must

Explanation

To ensure the safe storage of explosives, it is crucial for the facility to be protected from moisture and high temperatures. This is because moisture can cause the explosives to become unstable and potentially explode, while high temperatures can also increase the risk of ignition. By protecting the facility from these factors, the chances of accidents or explosions are minimized, ensuring the safety of both the facility and its surroundings.

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39. The outermost orbit for the electrons of an atom is known as the

Explanation

The outermost orbit for the electrons of an atom is known as the valence band. The valence band is the highest energy level that contains electrons in an atom. Electrons in the valence band are involved in chemical bonding and determine the reactivity and properties of an element.

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40. When an egress item's service life is due to expire, it must be

Explanation

When an egress item's service life is due to expire, it must be changed and is never left until the next scheduled inspection. This means that the item should not be used beyond its service life and should be replaced immediately, rather than waiting for the next scheduled inspection. This ensures that the item remains in good working condition and does not pose any safety risks.

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41. Which egress system component is designed to reposition mechanical linkages?

Explanation

A thruster is a component of the egress system that is specifically designed to reposition mechanical linkages. It generates thrust or force to move the linkages, allowing for the repositioning of various components in the egress system. Initiator, catapult, and remover do not have the same function as a thruster in repositioning mechanical linkages.

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42. After a U-2 pilot ejects from the aircraft, if the pilot remains in the seat and falls to an altitude of 15,000 (+- !,000) feet, what components(s) will fire and force gas pressure to the lap belt unlatching mechanism, torque tube thruster, and an initiator?

Explanation

Aneroid initiators are the components that will fire and force gas pressure to the lap belt unlatching mechanism, torque tube thruster, and an initiator after a U-2 pilot ejects from the aircraft and falls to an altitude of 15,000 feet.

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43. Where does the gas pressure come from that is diverted by the three-way check valve to fire the M53 booster initiator on the A-10 aircraft?

Explanation

The gas pressure that is diverted by the three-way check valve to fire the M53 booster initiator on the A-10 aircraft comes from either the ejection sequence initiator, the internal canopy jettison initiator, or either of the external canopy jettison initiators.

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44. What B-2 component is used to separate the hatch from the aircraft?

Explanation

The hatch separation assembly horseshoe is used to separate the hatch from the aircraft. This component is specifically designed for this purpose and ensures a secure and effective separation between the hatch and the aircraft. It is likely shaped like a horseshoe to provide the necessary strength and stability for this task.

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45. Which B-1B crew stations are provided with worktable stowage thrusters?

Explanation

The correct answer is aft crew stations. This means that the worktable stowage thrusters are provided in the crew stations located at the back of the aircraft. These thrusters help in storing and securing worktables in place during flight. The forward crew stations, copilot crew station, and OSO crew station do not have these thrusters.

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46. Aircraft roll out dates are sometimes used to establish

Explanation

Aircraft roll out dates are sometimes used to establish the service life of the aircraft. The service life refers to the period of time that the aircraft is expected to remain in active service before it is retired or decommissioned. By using the roll out date, manufacturers and operators can determine the expected lifespan of the aircraft and plan for maintenance, repairs, and replacements accordingly. This information is crucial for ensuring the safety and reliability of the aircraft throughout its operational lifespan.

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47. Which action can help prevent a breakdown in the monitoring of time change items?

Explanation

Checking to ensure that part numbers, serial numbers, lot numbers, and locations all match the work order can help prevent a breakdown in the monitoring of time change items. This action ensures that the correct items are being installed in the correct locations, reducing the chances of errors or discrepancies in the monitoring process. By cross-referencing the information on the work order with the actual items being installed, any potential issues or mistakes can be identified and addressed before they cause a breakdown in the monitoring system.

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48. Egress augmentees are required to receive refresher training and recertification on the particular egress system they maintain every

Explanation

Egress augmentees are required to receive refresher training and recertification on the particular egress system they maintain every 18 months. This means that after 18 months, they need to undergo training and recertification to ensure they are up to date with the knowledge and skills required to maintain the egress system. This periodic training and recertification helps to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the egress system and the personnel responsible for its maintenance.

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49. On an F-16D ACES II ejection seat, which initiator fires the inertial reel gas generator?

Explanation

The correct answer is the right hand JAU-8/A25 initiator. This initiator is responsible for firing the inertial reel gas generator on an F-16D ACES II ejection seat.

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50. Whose responsibility is it to review the data entered into the MDD system on a daily basis?

Explanation

The workcenter and shift supervisors are responsible for reviewing the data entered into the MDD system on a daily basis. This implies that they are in charge of ensuring the accuracy and completeness of the data entered into the system. By reviewing the data regularly, they can identify any errors or discrepancies and take appropriate actions to rectify them. This responsibility is crucial in maintaining the integrity of the MDD system and ensuring that the data stored within it is reliable for decision-making purposes.

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51. The cockpit canopy jettison M99 initiator on the A-10 aircraft is

Explanation

The correct answer is mechanically-fired, cartridge-activated. This means that the mechanism for jettisoning the cockpit canopy on the A-10 aircraft is activated by a mechanical action, such as a lever or button, and the firing of a cartridge. The cartridge provides the necessary force to initiate the jettisoning process.

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52. Responsibility for ensuring that explosive safety training is provided to applicable personnel rests with the

Explanation

The unit Explosive Safety NCO is responsible for ensuring that explosive safety training is provided to applicable personnel. This individual is specifically trained in explosive safety protocols and regulations, and their role is to oversee and coordinate all aspects of explosive safety within the unit. They work closely with supervisors and unit commanders to ensure that all personnel receive the necessary training to safely handle explosives.

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53. What B-2 components sends energy transfer signals by the DTA lines to the hatch rockets?

Explanation

The hatch separation assembly horseshoe is responsible for sending energy transfer signals to the hatch rockets in the B-2 components. This suggests that the horseshoe mechanism is designed to initiate the separation of the hatch from the rest of the assembly. The other options, such as the delay initiators, are not directly related to the energy transfer signals required for hatch separation.

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54. Each time you are assigned to a new egress system, you are required to learn the new system by attending

Explanation

When assigned to a new egress system, you are required to learn the new system by attending an Air Education and Training Command (AETC) approved Egress Journeyman Course. This course is specifically designed and approved by the AETC to provide comprehensive training on egress systems. It covers all the necessary knowledge and skills required to operate and maintain the egress system effectively. By attending this course, you can ensure that you are properly trained and qualified to work on the specific egress system assigned to you.

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55. What inspection is designed to detect descrepancies which may have developed due to wear and tear, or other damage, since the last inspection?

Explanation

Visual inspection is designed to detect discrepancies which may have developed due to wear and tear, or other damage, since the last inspection. This type of inspection involves visually examining the item or area being inspected to identify any visible signs of damage, deterioration, or other issues. It does not require specialized equipment or testing procedures, but rather relies on the inspector's observation skills. Visual inspections are commonly used in various industries, such as manufacturing, construction, and maintenance, to ensure the safety and integrity of equipment, structures, and systems.

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56. Which B-1B crew station mode selectors must be in the AUTO position for an automatic mode ejection?

Explanation

For an automatic mode ejection in a B-1B aircraft, all mode selectors must be in the AUTO position. This means that both the pilots' mode selectors and the copilots' mode selectors need to be set to AUTO. The mode selectors control various functions and settings within the crew station, and having them all in the AUTO position ensures that the ejection process will be carried out automatically without any manual intervention.

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57. The purpose of a JCN is to

Explanation

A JCN, or Job Control Number, is used to tie all on- and off-equipment actions together. This means that it is used to track and manage all the tasks and actions related to the maintenance and operation of equipment, ensuring that they are properly coordinated and executed. By using a JCN, organizations can have a centralized system to monitor and control the various activities involved in maintaining and operating equipment, helping to streamline processes and improve efficiency.

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58. Which is an accurate statement regarding an F-15 canopy jettison sequence that is begun from inside the cockpit?

Explanation

The handle under the left sill fires the internal initiator starting the event. This means that in an F-15 canopy jettison sequence initiated from inside the cockpit, the handle located under the left sill is responsible for firing the internal initiator, which starts the process of jettisoning the canopy.

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59. Who is responsible for ensuring an effective FOD prevention program is established?

Explanation

The vice wing commander is responsible for ensuring an effective FOD prevention program is established. This individual holds a high-ranking position within the wing and has the authority to oversee and enforce the implementation of FOD prevention measures. They work closely with other personnel, such as QA and the FOD monitor, to ensure that all necessary steps are taken to prevent foreign object damage and maintain safety within the organization.

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60. Which metals are most commonly associated with pitting corrosion?

Explanation

Pitting corrosion is a localized form of corrosion that occurs on the surface of metals, forming small pits or holes. Aluminum and magnesium are most commonly associated with pitting corrosion. This is because both metals have a tendency to form protective oxide layers on their surfaces, but these layers can be easily disrupted, leading to the formation of pits when exposed to corrosive environments. Steel and titanium are not as commonly associated with pitting corrosion as aluminum and magnesium.

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61. The repair cycle time of a DIFM item starts when the

Explanation

The repair cycle time of a DIFM (Do It For Me) item starts when the unserviceable item is removed from the aircraft or piece of equipment, and a demand is made on supply. This means that the repair cycle time begins when the faulty or damaged item is taken out of the aircraft or equipment and a request is made for a replacement or repair. This ensures that the repair process is initiated and the necessary steps are taken to fix or replace the item in a timely manner.

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62. Which B-1B crew stations can initiate a fully automatic ejection sequence?

Explanation

The correct answer is pilot and copilot. This means that both the pilot and copilot have the capability to initiate a fully automatic ejection sequence.

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63. Who is responsible for maintaining an up-to-date master technical order file?

Explanation

The Quality Assurance (QA) department is responsible for maintaining an up-to-date master technical order file. This department ensures that all technical orders are accurate, current, and in compliance with industry standards. They review and update the master technical order file regularly to ensure that any changes or updates are implemented. This helps to maintain the quality and reliability of the technical order documentation, which is essential for the smooth operation of any organization.

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64. Once it has fired, the rocket catapult shielded mild detonating cord (SMDC) initiator on the F-15 emergency escape sequencing system will

Explanation

The correct answer is "change from SMDC detonation to gas pressure." This means that after the rocket catapult shielded mild detonating cord (SMDC) initiator has fired, it will transition from using SMDC detonation as the mechanism for propulsion to using gas pressure instead. This change in mechanism allows for the rocket catapult to continue functioning and provide the necessary propulsion for the emergency escape sequencing system on the F-15 aircraft.

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65. As an egress journeyman, you're required to have weapons safety training

Explanation

As an egress journeyman, it is necessary to have weapons safety training before performing explosive-related tasks. This initial training is a prerequisite to ensure that the individual has the necessary knowledge and skills to handle weapons safely in such tasks. Additionally, it is important to undergo this training annually to refresh and update one's knowledge on weapons safety, as there may be new developments, regulations, or protocols that need to be followed. This regular training helps to ensure the continued safety and competence of the egress journeyman in handling weapons in explosive-related tasks.

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66. To be acceptable for storage, explosives must be

Explanation

Explosives need to be assigned a hazard classification in order to be stored safely. This classification helps to identify and communicate the level of danger associated with the explosive material. It takes into account factors such as the type of explosive, its physical and chemical properties, and the potential risks it poses. By assigning a hazard classification, appropriate storage and handling procedures can be implemented to ensure the safety of individuals and the surrounding environment. Without this classification, it would be difficult to determine the necessary precautions and protocols for storing explosives.

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67. Including determining the status of a part on order and monitoring rejected transactions, which statement is one of the ways that data available within the maintenance-SBSS can be used?

Explanation

One of the ways that data available within the maintenance-SBSS can be used is by managing time-change items. This involves keeping track of when certain parts need to be replaced or serviced based on their usage or lifespan. By effectively managing time-change items, maintenance personnel can ensure that necessary maintenance tasks are performed on time, reducing the risk of equipment failure and maximizing operational efficiency.

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68. What B-2 component fires the hatch rockets when hatch jettison is initiated using the right external hatch jettison initiator?

Explanation

The hatch separation assembly horseshoe is the B-2 component that fires the hatch rockets when hatch jettison is initiated using the right external hatch jettison initiator.

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69. What activity is responsible for resolution of a PQDR?

Explanation

An action point is responsible for the resolution of a PQDR (Product Quality Deficiency Report). It refers to a specific step or task that needs to be taken in order to address and resolve the issue mentioned in the PQDR. The action point could involve investigating the root cause of the problem, implementing corrective measures, or coordinating with relevant stakeholders to fix the deficiency. By completing the action point, the PQDR can be resolved effectively.

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70. Which B-1B time delay initiator is fired by the SMDC from the seat ejection sequencing AND gate?

Explanation

The correct answer is 0.3 TDI. This means that the B-1B time delay initiator fired by the SMDC from the seat ejection sequencing AND gate is set to 0.3 TDI.

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71. You are performing a periodic inspection of an explosive operation.  To do this properly, you would

Explanation

To perform a periodic inspection of an explosive operation properly, it is important not to limit the inspection to one area. By inspecting multiple areas, you can ensure that all aspects of the operation are thoroughly examined and any potential issues or hazards are identified. This approach allows for a comprehensive assessment of the entire operation, rather than focusing on only one aspect. It helps to ensure the overall safety and effectiveness of the explosive operation.

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72. What provides a way to sever the escape hatch to permit separation from the B-2 during an emergency ground egress?

Explanation

The hatch separation assembly horseshoe provides a way to sever the escape hatch to permit separation from the B-2 during an emergency ground egress. This assembly is specifically designed to facilitate the safe and efficient separation of the hatch, allowing the individuals inside the B-2 to exit in case of an emergency. The term "horseshoe" likely refers to the shape or configuration of the assembly, which may resemble the outline of a horseshoe.

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73. Within the PQDR system, repairs to exhibits will not be performed unless authorized by the

Explanation

In the PQDR system, repairs to exhibits will only be carried out if they are authorized by the action point. This means that the action point has the authority to approve or deny repairs to exhibits. The originating point refers to where the PQDR was first initiated, the screening point is where the PQDR is reviewed and evaluated, and the support point is where assistance and resources are provided. However, it is the action point that ultimately has the power to authorize repairs.

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74. Which B-1B seats will eject if all mode selectors are placed in the manual mode and the pilot initiates ejection?

Explanation

If all mode selectors are placed in the manual mode and the pilot initiates ejection, only the pilot's seat will eject. This means that the other seats, including the copilot's and DSO's seats, will not eject in this scenario.

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75. Which component is used to fire the ejection seat rocket catapult on the B-1B?

Explanation

The SMDC-gas initiator is the component used to fire the ejection seat rocket catapult on the B-1B. This initiator combines the gas and solid propellant to generate the necessary pressure and force to activate the ejection seat. It is a crucial component in ensuring the successful deployment of the ejection seat during emergency situations.

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76. The MDD process allows for short and long term (historical) storage of data.  What else does it allow for?

Explanation

The MDD process allows for on-line retrieval of data through user inquiry only. It does not provide for hard copy retrieval or offline retrieval of data.

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77. Which B-1B component provides gas pressure to fire the gas-SMDC initiators?

Explanation

The ejection control initiators provide gas pressure to fire the gas-SMDC initiators.

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78. Who may assign additional DIFM status codes to cover special situations?

Explanation

MAJCOM, or Major Command, is responsible for assigning additional DIFM (Dropped from Inventory, but not Maintenance) status codes to cover special situations. This implies that MAJCOM has the authority and capability to designate specific codes for items that have been removed from inventory but still require maintenance. The other options, such as maintenance squadron, headquarters US Air Force, and repair cycle support system, do not have the same level of authority or responsibility in assigning these status codes.

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79. How often are DIFM pickup points usually checked?

Explanation

DIFM pickup points are usually checked on a weekly basis. This means that the points where customers drop off their items for professionals to handle are inspected once every week. Checking the pickup points weekly ensures that any items left behind are promptly collected and that the area is clean and organized for the next round of pickups. This regularity helps maintain efficiency and customer satisfaction in the DIFM service.

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80. During jettison of the F-22 canopy, the initial aft movement of the canopy is accomplished by the

Explanation

The correct answer is thruster. During the jettison of the F-22 canopy, the initial aft movement of the canopy is accomplished by the thruster. This thruster provides the necessary force to propel the canopy away from the aircraft. The thruster is specifically designed for this purpose and is activated at the time of jettison to ensure a smooth and efficient separation of the canopy from the aircraft.

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81. When the 1.0-second delay initiator on the T-38 ignites, it

Explanation

When the 1.0-second delay initiator on the T-38 ignites, it disconnects the lapbelt buckle and actuates the seat-man separator. This means that the initiator triggers two actions simultaneously. First, it disconnects the lapbelt buckle, which would release the pilot from the seat. Second, it actuates the seat-man separator, which would separate the seat from the pilot. This ensures that the pilot is safely ejected from the aircraft in case of an emergency.

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82. What component provides forward and aft movement of the B-1B seat carriage?

Explanation

The horizontal seat positioning actuator is responsible for providing forward and aft movement of the B-1B seat carriage. This component allows the seat to be adjusted horizontally, allowing for optimal positioning and comfort for the occupant.

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83. External electrical operation of the canopy on the F-16 aircraft is activated by a

Explanation

The correct answer is "toggle switch that is spring-loaded off from both the up and down positions." This means that the switch automatically returns to the off position when released, regardless of whether it was in the up or down position. This ensures that the canopy operation is controlled and consistent, as the switch will always return to the off position after being toggled.

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84. Who performs the basic mission of the Air Force?

Explanation

The correct answer is Operations group. The basic mission of the Air Force is performed by the Operations group. This group is responsible for conducting and supporting military operations, including air combat, air superiority, and air defense. They are in charge of planning, organizing, and executing missions to achieve the objectives of the Air Force. The Operations group plays a crucial role in ensuring the readiness and effectiveness of the Air Force in carrying out its missions.

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85. Category I PQDRs must be submitted to the screening point within how many workdays  after the discovery of a deficiency?

Explanation

Category I PQDRs must be submitted to the screening point within 1 workday after the discovery of a deficiency. This means that as soon as a deficiency is identified, it must be reported to the appropriate screening point within one workday. This ensures that immediate action can be taken to address and rectify the deficiency, minimizing any potential risks or impacts.

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86. Category II PQDRs must be submitted within how many working days after the discovery of a deficiency?

Explanation

Category II PQDRs must be submitted within 3 working days after the discovery of a deficiency. This means that once a deficiency is identified, the responsible party has a maximum of 3 working days to submit the PQDR. This ensures that any issues or deficiencies are reported and addressed promptly, allowing for timely resolution and improvement in the product or system.

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87. During operation of the F-15 emergency escape sequencing system, the gas pressure at the ejection seat gas-shielded mild detonating cord (SMDC) initiator changes

Explanation

During the operation of the F-15 emergency escape sequencing system, the gas pressure at the ejection seat causes a change in the velocity of the gas-shielded mild detonating cord (SMDC). This change in velocity triggers the SMDC to detonate, which then leads to the initiation of the flexible linear shaped charge (FLSC). Finally, the FLSC initiates the detonation transfer assembly (DTA), resulting in its detonation.

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88. Messages to report PQDRs are used when

Explanation

The given correct answer states that messages to report PQDRs are used when automated means are not feasible. This means that if there is a situation where automated systems or processes cannot be used to report a PQDR (Product Quality Deficiency Report), then messages are used as an alternative method. This could be due to technical limitations, system failures, or any other reason that prevents the use of automated means.

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89. Who has the responsibility for ensuring the accuracy of the IMDS time change database?

Explanation

The egress section supervisor is responsible for ensuring the accuracy of the IMDS time change database. This individual oversees the egress section, which is responsible for managing and maintaining the database. They are in charge of ensuring that all changes and updates to the database are accurate and up to date. The egress section supervisor plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity of the database and ensuring that it is reliable for its intended purposes.

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90. Egress explosives must  be carried in

Explanation

Egress explosives must be carried in protective containers to ensure their safe transportation and handling. These containers are specifically designed to contain and mitigate the risks associated with explosive materials. They are equipped with features such as sturdy construction, impact resistance, and insulation to prevent accidental detonation or leakage. By using protective containers, the potential hazards and dangers of transporting explosives can be minimized, protecting both individuals and the environment.

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91. What type punch is used to mark soft metal?

Explanation

A prick punch is used to mark soft metal. It has a sharp, pointed tip that is used to make small indentations or marks on the surface of the metal. These marks can be used as reference points for drilling, cutting, or shaping the metal. The sharpness of the prick punch allows for precise and accurate marking on soft materials without causing significant damage or deformation.

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92. What type of engine is used on the MC-1A air compressor unit?

Explanation

The MC-1A air compressor unit uses a gasoline engine.

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93. Atoms or groups of either positively or negatively charged atoms bound together, defines

Explanation

Ions are atoms or groups of atoms that are either positively or negatively charged due to the loss or gain of electrons. They are formed when atoms gain or lose electrons to achieve a stable electron configuration. This charge difference between ions allows them to attract and interact with other ions or molecules, leading to various chemical reactions and processes.

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94. What ERRC identifies consumable items?

Explanation

ERRC stands for "Economic Recovery and Reconstruction Cluster," which is a framework used in humanitarian response to identify and address the recovery needs of a community after a crisis or disaster. Within this framework, consumable items are identified by the code XB3. Therefore, the correct answer is XB3.

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95. When closing the canopy of an F-15 aircraft, how long should you wait before you move the canopy control handle to the LOCK position?

Explanation

After closing the canopy of an F-15 aircraft, it is recommended to wait for 10 seconds before moving the canopy control handle to the LOCK position. This waiting period allows the canopy to fully settle into the correct position and ensures a secure and proper seal. Moving the handle too quickly may result in an improper lock, compromising the safety and integrity of the canopy.

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96. Which canopy system component provides the rotational force needed to lift the canopy off the F-22 aircraft?

Explanation

The rocket motor is the component that provides the rotational force needed to lift the canopy off the F-22 aircraft. The rocket motor generates the necessary thrust to propel the canopy upwards, allowing it to be lifted off the aircraft. It is responsible for creating the force required to overcome the weight of the canopy and initiate its movement.

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97. Where is the bottoom bailout initiator located on the B-1B?

Explanation

The correct answer is "between the forward and aft crew stations on the center aisle left wall." This means that the bottoom bailout initiator is located on the left wall of the center aisle, specifically between the forward and aft crew stations.

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98. What is the unit of measurement for electromotive force (EMF)?

Explanation

The unit of measurement for electromotive force (EMF) is volt. Volt is the SI unit for measuring electric potential difference, which is the driving force that pushes electric charges through a circuit. EMF is commonly associated with batteries and power sources, and it represents the amount of electrical energy provided per unit charge. Therefore, volt is the correct unit for measuring EMF.

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99. To manually open an F-15 canopy, you must move the control handle to the UP position, which then

Explanation

Moving the control handle to the UP position in an F-15 canopy releases the liquid lock on the canopy actuator. This allows the actuator to move downward and operate the locking mechanism, thus manually opening the canopy.

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100. Which component activates the fired warning indicator?

Explanation

The canopy actuated initiator is the component that activates the fired warning indicator. This means that when the canopy is opened or closed, it triggers the warning indicator to indicate that a firing has occurred.

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101. In order to allow either crewmember to eject both ejection seats, which position must the eject mode selector valve be in on the F-16 aircraft?

Explanation

The correct answer is AFT. In order to allow either crewmember to eject both ejection seats, the eject mode selector valve must be in the AFT position on the F-16 aircraft. This position enables both crewmembers to initiate ejection from either seat, providing flexibility and safety in emergency situations.

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102. During a rotation check on the initiator firing mechanism for an ACES II seat, if the force required to rotate the firing control handle is below limits, how should the problem be corrected?

Explanation

The problem should be corrected by tightening the bolt in the grip assembly pivot attachment, within torque limits. This means that the bolt should be tightened to the specified torque value to ensure that it is secure and functioning properly. This will help to ensure the proper rotation of the firing control handle in the ACES II seat initiator firing mechanism.

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103. What part of the TO number determines the type of equipment found in the TO?

Explanation

The first part of the TO number determines the type of equipment found in the TO.

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104. Who is responsible for installing the bottom bailout safety pins on the B-1B?

Explanation

The flight crew is responsible for installing the bottom bailout safety pins on the B-1B. This means that it is their duty to ensure that these safety pins are properly installed to ensure the safety of the aircraft and its crew. The flight crew is trained and responsible for various tasks related to the aircraft's operation and safety, and installing the bottom bailout safety pins is one of these important responsibilities.

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105. If each crew member needed to jettison both canopies on a T-38 aircraft while in flight, they would pull

Explanation

In the event that each crew member needs to jettison both canopies on a T-38 aircraft while in flight, they would pull both T-handles. This means that each crew member is responsible for jettisoning the canopy in their respective cockpit by pulling the T-handle located there. Pulling both T-handles ensures that both canopies are successfully jettisoned, ensuring the safety of the crew members.

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106. If an item is a first-time request, who determines whether a bench stock increase or decrease is temporary or permanent?

Explanation

The bench stock support element is responsible for determining whether a bench stock increase or decrease is temporary or permanent for a first-time request. They have the knowledge and expertise to assess the demand and usage patterns of the item, as well as consider any specific circumstances or factors that may affect its availability. Therefore, they are best equipped to make an informed decision regarding the duration of the stock adjustment.

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107. The first part of a TO number identifies the

Explanation

The first part of a TO number identifies the technical system or equipment category. This means that the initial portion of the TO number is used to classify the type of system or equipment that the TO pertains to. This classification helps in organizing and categorizing the TOs for easy reference and retrieval. It allows users to quickly identify the relevant TOs based on the equipment category, ensuring that the correct instructions are followed for a specific system or equipment.

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108. In addition to humidity, temperature, and geographic location, what other factor should be taken into consideration when determining the extensiveness and frequency of corrosion inspections?

Explanation

When determining the extensiveness and frequency of corrosion inspections, air pollution should be taken into consideration. Air pollution can contribute to the corrosion process by introducing pollutants and chemicals into the atmosphere, which can react with the surface of materials and accelerate corrosion. Therefore, understanding the level of air pollution in a particular area is important in order to assess the potential impact on the corrosion rate and determine the appropriate frequency and extent of inspections.

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109. Category II PQDRs are classified as

Explanation

Category II PQDRs are classified as enhancement, deficiency, or improvement reports. This means that these reports can be related to any of these three categories. Category II PQDRs are used to identify and document any issues or problems with a product or system, as well as any potential enhancements or improvements that can be made. By classifying these reports as enhancement, deficiency, or improvement, it allows for a comprehensive assessment of the product or system's performance and potential areas for development.

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110. On the F-22, the canopy thruster extension separates into two segments and desconnects the canopy from the actuator after a thruster extension of

Explanation

The correct answer is 2.0 inches. On the F-22, the canopy thruster extension separates into two segments and disconnects the canopy from the actuator after a thruster extension of 2.0 inches.

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111. What are the three priorities for technical order deficiency reports?

Explanation

The three priorities for technical order deficiency reports are emergency, urgent, and routine. This means that when reporting a deficiency, it is important to prioritize based on the level of urgency and severity. Emergency reports are for critical and immediate issues that require immediate attention and action. Urgent reports are for issues that need to be addressed quickly but are not as critical as emergencies. Routine reports are for less urgent matters that can be addressed in a timely manner.

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112. If there are no major command (MAJCOM) weapons safety training plans available, who is responsible for developing a local one?

Explanation

If there are no major command (MAJCOM) weapons safety training plans available, the responsibility for developing a local one falls on you or the personnel in your section.

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113. What is the best action to take when an egress explosive component is found with a noncorrectable defect?

Explanation

When an egress explosive component is found with a noncorrectable defect, the best action to take is to submit a material deficiency report. This report allows for the identification and documentation of the defective component, ensuring that appropriate actions can be taken to address the issue. By submitting the report, the necessary steps can be taken to either repair or replace the defective component, ensuring the safety and functionality of the equipment.

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114. Which statement best describes the sequence of events that occur once the canopy on an F-16 aircraft engages the aircraft sill?

Explanation

Once the canopy on an F-16 aircraft engages the aircraft sill, the locking pawl will disengage from the locking cam. This disengagement allows for the rotation of the latching system.

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115. What component is used to direct or redirect force in preplanned order?

Explanation

A gate is a component that is used to direct or redirect force in a preplanned order. It acts as a barrier or control mechanism to regulate the flow of a substance or energy. Gates are commonly used in various industries and systems, such as hydraulic systems, irrigation systems, and process control systems, to control the direction and flow of fluids or materials. They can be opened or closed to allow or restrict the passage of the substance or energy, ensuring that it flows in a desired and controlled manner.

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116. The aircraft inspection process is broken down into how many phases?

Explanation

The aircraft inspection process is broken down into four phases. These phases are designed to ensure that the aircraft is properly maintained and safe for operation. Each phase focuses on different aspects of the aircraft, such as the structure, systems, and components. By breaking down the inspection process into multiple phases, it allows for a thorough examination of the aircraft and helps to identify any potential issues or maintenance needs.

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117. Torque wrenches used for maintenance of aircraft and other critical equipment will be checked and calibrated as a minimum at least every

Explanation

Torque wrenches used for maintenance of aircraft and other critical equipment need to be regularly checked and calibrated to ensure their accuracy and reliability. The interval at which they should be checked may vary depending on the specific requirements and regulations of the industry. In this case, the correct answer is 60 days, indicating that these torque wrenches should be checked and calibrated every two months to maintain their effectiveness and precision.

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118. How many external hatch jettison initiators are installed on the B-1B?

Explanation

The correct answer is 3. This means that there are three external hatch jettison initiators installed on the B-1B aircraft. These initiators are responsible for initiating the jettisoning of external hatches, which are used for various purposes such as emergency exits or access to certain areas of the aircraft. Having multiple initiators ensures redundancy and allows for the safe and efficient operation of the hatch jettison system.

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119. The 3.2-second time delay initiator is fired on the B-1B by

Explanation

The correct answer is SMDC detonation. This means that the 3.2-second time delay initiator on the B-1B is activated by the detonation of an SMDC (Standard Missile Defense Control) system. This suggests that the initiator is designed to be triggered by an explosion or detonation, possibly as a safety measure or as part of a larger defense system. It is likely that the SMDC detonation sends a signal or releases energy that triggers the time delay initiator.

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120. The OSO

Explanation

The OSO is responsible for managing the flying hour program, wing AFE, and flight simulator systems. This means that they oversee and coordinate the allocation of flying hours for pilots, ensuring that they have enough training and practice time. They also manage the wing AFE (Aircrew Flight Equipment), which includes the maintenance and distribution of equipment necessary for flight operations. Additionally, they are in charge of the flight simulator systems, which are used for training and simulation exercises. Overall, the OSO plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth and efficient operation of the flying hour program and flight simulator systems within the organization.

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121. At base level, on what basis does the MDD system provide equipment maintenance schedules?

Explanation

The MDD system provides equipment maintenance schedules based on the calendar. This means that the maintenance schedules are determined by specific dates on the calendar, rather than being based on the number of hours, months, or quarters that have passed. Using the calendar allows for more precise scheduling and ensures that maintenance tasks are performed at regular intervals throughout the year.

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122. What is the maximum number of maintenance actions that can be recorded on a single AFTO Form 349?

Explanation

The correct answer is 6 because the AFTO Form 349 is designed to record maintenance actions, and it has space for up to 6 entries. This means that a maximum of 6 maintenance actions can be recorded on a single form.

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123. What are the three methods used to place initiators into groups?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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124. Which B-1B component blocks SMDC detonation to the ejection seat components when the external hatch jettison initiators have been fired?

Explanation

The interrupter is the B-1B component that blocks SMDC detonation to the ejection seat components when the external hatch jettison initiators have been fired. It acts as a barrier or switch that prevents the detonation from reaching the ejection seat components, ensuring the safety of the occupants during the hatch jettison process.

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125. Categories of documentation and data codes are two of the characteristics of the MDD concept; what is/are the others?

Explanation

The other characteristics of the MDD concept, in addition to categories of documentation and data codes, are documentation rules and data entry. These characteristics refer to the guidelines and regulations for documenting and entering data into the MDD system. They ensure that the documentation is accurate, consistent, and follows a standardized format, while also ensuring that the data entered into the system is valid and reliable.

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126. What will happen if the B-1B is disabled, and the OSO pulls the ejection control handles while all mode selectors are in AUTO?

Explanation

If the B-1B is disabled and the OSO pulls the ejection control handles while all mode selectors are in AUTO, only the OSO will be ejected. The other crewmembers, including the pilot and copilot, will not be ejected.

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127. Recovery sequencer thermal batteries are activated on the B1-B by gas pressure from the

Explanation

The correct answer is "catapult cartridge". Recovery sequencer thermal batteries on the B1-B are activated by the gas pressure generated from the catapult cartridge. This cartridge provides the necessary force to launch the aircraft from the catapult, and the gas pressure produced during this process is utilized to activate the thermal batteries.

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128. What does the "E" stand for in the Ohms law formula?

Explanation

The "E" in Ohm's law formula stands for voltage. Ohm's law states that the voltage across a conductor is directly proportional to the current flowing through it, and inversely proportional to the resistance of the conductor. Therefore, "E" represents the electrical potential difference or voltage in the formula.

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129. What is the maximum time delay allowed for crew compartment depressurization on the B-2?

Explanation

The maximum time delay allowed for crew compartment depressurization on the B-2 is 2.75 seconds.

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130. Which pliers are used to bend heavy gauge steel cotter pins?

Explanation

Combination pliers are used to bend heavy gauge steel cotter pins. These pliers have a strong grip and a long handle, allowing for better leverage when working with heavy materials like steel. They also have a cutting edge near the pivot point, which can be used to cut the cotter pins if needed. Needle nose pliers have a pointed tip and are better suited for precision work, while vice grips are designed for locking and holding objects in place. Duck bills pliers have a wide, flat tip and are typically used for gripping and pulling.

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131. Failure to secure the canopy actuator to the F-15 aircraft structure prior to disconnecting the actuator from the canopy will cause damage to the

Explanation

If the canopy actuator is not secured to the F-15 aircraft structure before disconnecting it from the canopy, it can cause damage to the titanium lines. This is because the actuator is responsible for controlling the movement of the canopy, and if it is not properly secured, it can cause the titanium lines to become misaligned or damaged. The titanium lines are crucial for the proper functioning of the canopy, and any damage to them can lead to issues with the canopy's operation.

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132. The F-15 canopy is opened by

Explanation

The correct answer is "depressing the release button to engage the control handle and turning the handle clockwise to the UP position" because this is the correct sequence of actions to open the F-15 canopy. By depressing the release button, the control handle is engaged, and then turning the handle clockwise will cause the canopy to move upwards to the fully open position.

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133. Which B-1B AND gate component detonates explosive transfer lines to activate the forward hatch severance system?

Explanation

The correct answer is "energy transfer". In the context of the question, the B-1B AND gate component is responsible for detonating explosive transfer lines, which in turn activates the forward hatch severance system. This suggests that the energy transfer mechanism is used to initiate the necessary actions for the hatch jettison process.

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134. The individuals responsible to ensure maintenance is only performed by personnel who are trained, qualified, and certified, unless under direct supervision of a trainer or certifier  is the

Explanation

The maintenance group commander is responsible for ensuring that maintenance is only performed by personnel who are trained, qualified, and certified, unless under direct supervision of a trainer or certifier. This role oversees the entire maintenance group and has the authority to enforce these requirements and ensure that all personnel are following proper procedures and protocols. The wing commander and squadron commander may have some oversight in this area, but the maintenance group commander is specifically tasked with ensuring the qualifications and certifications of maintenance personnel.

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135. Which handle(s) would be used to jettison both canopies on a T-38?

Explanation

Either D-handle would be used to jettison both canopies on a T-38.

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136. How many sequence valves are installed in the B-2 explosive devices subsystem?

Explanation

There are five sequence valves installed in the B-2 explosive devices subsystem.

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137. Which B-1B component arms the seat ejection sequencing AND gates during ejection?

Explanation

The carriage seat retract thruster output cartridge arms the seat ejection sequencing AND gates during ejection. This means that it is responsible for activating the mechanism that controls the sequencing of the seat ejection process.

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138. Which delay initiator is designed to ensure that the hatch is clear of the ejection seat path before the seat ejection on the B-2?

Explanation

The 0.15-second delay initiator is designed to ensure that the hatch is clear of the ejection seat path before the seat ejection on the B-2. This delay allows enough time for the hatch to fully open and move out of the way before the ejection seat is activated. It is crucial for the safety of the pilot, as it prevents any potential collisions or obstructions between the hatch and the ejection seat during the ejection process.

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139. What components on the B-1B are activated by seat movement up the guide rails?

Explanation

When the seat on the B-1B moves up the guide rails, it activates the abandon aircraft warning light switch in the forward crew stations and the emergency oxygen supply. This means that when the seat is moved, it triggers the warning light switch to indicate that the crew should abandon the aircraft, and it also activates the emergency oxygen supply to provide breathable air in case of an emergency.

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140. On the U-2 aircraft, the gas pressure from the 0.3-second delay initiator goes through the bypass valve to the

Explanation

The gas pressure from the 0.3-second delay initiator on the U-2 aircraft goes through the bypass valve to activate the drogue gun, shoulder harness reel, rocket catapult, and the 1.0-second delay initiator. This means that the gas pressure is used to initiate the deployment of the drogue gun, release the shoulder harness reel, activate the rocket catapult, and trigger the 1.0-second delay initiator.

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141. How many conditions must exist for corrosion to occur?

Explanation

Corrosion is a chemical process that occurs when certain conditions are present. These conditions include the presence of a corrosive substance, such as oxygen or moisture, the presence of a metal or alloy that can be corroded, an electrolyte to facilitate the transfer of electrons, and an electrochemical cell to drive the corrosion process. Therefore, four conditions must exist for corrosion to occur.

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142. Which IMDS subsystem automates the record keeping function for all end items of equipment as well as for items installed on an end item of equipment?

Explanation

The time change subsystem automates the record keeping function for all end items of equipment as well as for items installed on an end item of equipment. This means that it is responsible for maintaining accurate records of when equipment and items were last serviced or had any changes made to them. It helps ensure that maintenance schedules are followed and that equipment is properly maintained.

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143. The first and second characters of the worldwide (WW) identification (ID) are the

Explanation

The first and second characters of the worldwide identification (ID) are used to indicate the personnel assignment system code (PAS). This code is used to identify the specific personnel assignment or job role within a unit or organization. It helps to track and manage personnel assignments and responsibilities.

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144. The canopy locking actuator on the F-15 aircraft is hydraulically locked in the fully extended position by the

Explanation

The canopy locking actuator on the F-15 aircraft is hydraulically locked in the fully extended position by a spring-loaded sequence valve that is allowed to close as the canopy raises. This valve is designed to close and lock the actuator in place when the canopy reaches its fully raised position, ensuring that it remains securely locked during flight.

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145. On the U-2 system, the gas pressure from the second 1.0-second delay initiator goes to the

Explanation

The gas pressure from the second 1.0-second delay initiator goes to the lower bridle line cutters and the 10.0-second delay cutters. This means that when the initiator is activated, the gas pressure is directed to these specific components.

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146. How many energy transfer panels are used on the B-1B escape system?

Explanation

The B-1B escape system uses a total of 6 energy transfer panels. These panels are responsible for transferring energy from the ejection seat to the parachute system during an emergency ejection. Having multiple panels ensures a more efficient and reliable transfer of energy, increasing the chances of a successful ejection and safe landing for the crew.

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147. Who is the technical authority and advisor of maintenance production?

Explanation

The Section Chief is the technical authority and advisor of maintenance production. They are responsible for overseeing and managing maintenance operations, ensuring compliance with regulations and standards, and providing technical guidance and support to maintenance personnel. They have extensive knowledge and expertise in maintenance procedures and are the go-to person for any technical issues or concerns.

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148. Who is responsible for executing an effective tool program?

Explanation

Squadron maintenance supervisors are responsible for executing an effective tool program. They are in charge of overseeing the maintenance operations within their squadron and ensuring that the necessary tools are available and utilized effectively. This includes managing the tool inventory, training personnel on proper tool usage, and implementing procedures to ensure the safe and efficient use of tools. By taking on this responsibility, squadron maintenance supervisors play a crucial role in maintaining the effectiveness and efficiency of the tool program.

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149. How many canopy jettison control handles is the F-16 aircraft equiped with?

Explanation

The F-16 aircraft is equipped with four canopy jettison control handles. This means that there are four separate handles that can be used to jettison or release the canopy of the aircraft.

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150. To actuate the canopy locking mechanism on a T-38 aircraft, you would use

Explanation

The correct answer is four canopy control handles. This suggests that the canopy locking mechanism on a T-38 aircraft requires the use of four separate handles to actuate it. Each handle likely controls a different aspect of the locking mechanism, and all four handles must be engaged to properly secure the canopy.

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The final responsibility for your personal safety rests with
Serviceable and unserviceable explosive items must be
The grounding point for the F-16 ejection seat is the
Who is responsible for the accuracy and neatness of entries made on...
The general parameters for a mode 2 ejection from an F-16 aircraft are
What type of inspection is required if an aircraft has an unusual...
How many characters are in a job control number?
Which is an approved ACES II seat grounding procedure?
What is designed for upward or downward ejection of crewmembers from...
Workcenter and shift supervisors are responsible for reviewing the...
Which flight performs off-equipment maintenance of electronic warfare...
How many recovery sequence modes does the F-16 ejection seat have and...
The maximum speed limit on the flight line is
Which cartridge-actuated devices used in egress systems are designed...
What method of request for technical assistance is used in emergency...
If you receive a part with two different tags attached (yellow/green),...
What are removers designed to do?
The two delayed reefing line cutters used on the ACES II seat are...
When you are driving within 25 feet of an aircraft, you should
Which statement best describes a preflight inspection?
When you reinstall a pyrotechnic module on an F-15 aircraft, before...
Personnel in the applicable office must respond to your appeal of an...
Which wire brush is considered neutral and may be used on all...
When you find the torque stripe on an ACES II gas hose fitting is not...
All will distort the quality of a fixed gauge, except
How many defects allowed on the environmental sensor before it must be...
Supervisors make sure fire extinguishers are inspected how often?
One of the main advantages of using abbreviated technical orders is...
It is preferable to use the Self-Generating Nitrogen Service Cart...
How are the recovery sequencer thermal batteries activated during...
The second part of a TO number identifies the
What is the minimum permissible distance you can drive a vehicle...
The B-1B Advanced Concept Ejection Seats arm restraint epaulet keeper...
In the F-15 emergency escape sequencing system, a mode 2 ejection...
What device is used to produce voltage through the use of chemical...
The canopy can be jettisoned from the A-10 aircraft, without seat...
If contamination is discovered in a component during a...
To be acceptable for the storage of explosives, a proposed facility...
The outermost orbit for the electrons of an atom is known as the
When an egress item's service life is due to expire, it must be
Which egress system component is designed to reposition mechanical...
After a U-2 pilot ejects from the aircraft, if the pilot remains in...
Where does the gas pressure come from that is diverted by the...
What B-2 component is used to separate the hatch from the aircraft?
Which B-1B crew stations are provided with worktable stowage...
Aircraft roll out dates are sometimes used to establish
Which action can help prevent a breakdown in the monitoring of time...
Egress augmentees are required to receive refresher training and...
On an F-16D ACES II ejection seat, which initiator fires the inertial...
Whose responsibility is it to review the data entered into the MDD...
The cockpit canopy jettison M99 initiator on the A-10 aircraft is
Responsibility for ensuring that explosive safety training is provided...
What B-2 components sends energy transfer signals by the DTA lines to...
Each time you are assigned to a new egress system, you are required to...
What inspection is designed to detect descrepancies which may have...
Which B-1B crew station mode selectors must be in the AUTO position...
The purpose of a JCN is to
Which is an accurate statement regarding an F-15 canopy jettison...
Who is responsible for ensuring an effective FOD prevention program is...
Which metals are most commonly associated with pitting corrosion?
The repair cycle time of a DIFM item starts when the
Which B-1B crew stations can initiate a fully automatic ejection...
Who is responsible for maintaining an up-to-date master technical...
Once it has fired, the rocket catapult shielded mild detonating cord...
As an egress journeyman, you're required to have weapons safety...
To be acceptable for storage, explosives must be
Including determining the status of a part on order and monitoring...
What B-2 component fires the hatch rockets when hatch jettison is...
What activity is responsible for resolution of a PQDR?
Which B-1B time delay initiator is fired by the SMDC from the seat...
You are performing a periodic inspection of an explosive...
What provides a way to sever the escape hatch to permit separation...
Within the PQDR system, repairs to exhibits will not be performed...
Which B-1B seats will eject if all mode selectors are placed in the...
Which component is used to fire the ejection seat rocket catapult on...
The MDD process allows for short and long term (historical) storage of...
Which B-1B component provides gas pressure to fire the gas-SMDC...
Who may assign additional DIFM status codes to cover special...
How often are DIFM pickup points usually checked?
During jettison of the F-22 canopy, the initial aft movement of the...
When the 1.0-second delay initiator on the T-38 ignites, it
What component provides forward and aft movement of the B-1B seat...
External electrical operation of the canopy on the F-16 aircraft is...
Who performs the basic mission of the Air Force?
Category I PQDRs must be submitted to the screening point within how...
Category II PQDRs must be submitted within how many working days after...
During operation of the F-15 emergency escape sequencing system, the...
Messages to report PQDRs are used when
Who has the responsibility for ensuring the accuracy of the IMDS time...
Egress explosives must  be carried in
What type punch is used to mark soft metal?
What type of engine is used on the MC-1A air compressor unit?
Atoms or groups of either positively or negatively charged atoms bound...
What ERRC identifies consumable items?
When closing the canopy of an F-15 aircraft, how long should you wait...
Which canopy system component provides the rotational force needed to...
Where is the bottoom bailout initiator located on the B-1B?
What is the unit of measurement for electromotive force (EMF)?
To manually open an F-15 canopy, you must move the control handle to...
Which component activates the fired warning indicator?
In order to allow either crewmember to eject both ejection seats,...
During a rotation check on the initiator firing mechanism for an ACES...
What part of the TO number determines the type of equipment found in...
Who is responsible for installing the bottom bailout safety pins on...
If each crew member needed to jettison both canopies on a T-38...
If an item is a first-time request, who determines whether a bench...
The first part of a TO number identifies the
In addition to humidity, temperature, and geographic location, what...
Category II PQDRs are classified as
On the F-22, the canopy thruster extension separates into two segments...
What are the three priorities for technical order deficiency reports?
If there are no major command (MAJCOM) weapons safety training plans...
What is the best action to take when an egress explosive component is...
Which statement best describes the sequence of events that occur once...
What component is used to direct or redirect force in preplanned...
The aircraft inspection process is broken down into how many phases?
Torque wrenches used for maintenance of aircraft and other critical...
How many external hatch jettison initiators are installed on the B-1B?
The 3.2-second time delay initiator is fired on the B-1B by
The OSO
At base level, on what basis does the MDD system provide equipment...
What is the maximum number of maintenance actions that can be recorded...
What are the three methods used to place initiators into groups?
Which B-1B component blocks SMDC detonation to the ejection seat...
Categories of documentation and data codes are two of the...
What will happen if the B-1B is disabled, and the OSO pulls the...
Recovery sequencer thermal batteries are activated on the B1-B by gas...
What does the "E" stand for in the Ohms law formula?
What is the maximum time delay allowed for crew compartment...
Which pliers are used to bend heavy gauge steel cotter pins?
Failure to secure the canopy actuator to the F-15 aircraft structure...
The F-15 canopy is opened by
Which B-1B AND gate component detonates explosive transfer lines to...
The individuals responsible to ensure maintenance is only performed by...
Which handle(s) would be used to jettison both canopies on a T-38?
How many sequence valves are installed in the B-2 explosive devices...
Which B-1B component arms the seat ejection sequencing AND gates...
Which delay initiator is designed to ensure that the hatch is clear of...
What components on the B-1B are activated by seat movement up the...
On the U-2 aircraft, the gas pressure from the 0.3-second delay...
How many conditions must exist for corrosion to occur?
Which IMDS subsystem automates the record keeping function for all end...
The first and second characters of the worldwide (WW) identification...
The canopy locking actuator on the F-15 aircraft is hydraulically...
On the U-2 system, the gas pressure from the second 1.0-second delay...
How many energy transfer panels are used on the B-1B escape system?
Who is the technical authority and advisor of maintenance production?
Who is responsible for executing an effective tool program?
How many canopy jettison control handles is the F-16 aircraft equiped...
To actuate the canopy locking mechanism on a T-38 aircraft, you would...
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