Egress Journeyman 5 Level

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Journeyman Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz is designed to assist you in making a satisfactory score for your Egress Journeyman 2A653, 5 level CDC's. Good Luck.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The final responsibility for your personal safety rests with

    • A.

      You

    • B.

      Your supervisor

    • C.

      Wing safety office

    • D.

      Squadron commander

    Correct Answer
    A. You
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "you". This is because personal safety is ultimately the individual's responsibility. While supervisors, wing safety offices, and squadron commanders may provide guidance and resources, it is up to the individual to make decisions and take actions to ensure their own safety.

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  • 2. 

    Personnel in the applicable office must respond to your appeal of an unsatisfactory response to a hazard report within

    • A.

      5 days

    • B.

      10 days

    • C.

      20 days

    • D.

      30 days

    Correct Answer
    B. 10 days
    Explanation
    Personnel in the applicable office must respond to your appeal of an unsatisfactory response to a hazard report within 10 days. This means that if you are not satisfied with the initial response to your hazard report, you have the right to appeal and the personnel in the office must address your appeal within 10 days. This ensures that your concerns are taken seriously and addressed in a timely manner.

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  • 3. 

    Egress augmentees are required to receive refresher training and recertification on the particular egress system they maintain every

    • A.

      3 years

    • B.

      2 years

    • C.

      18 months

    • D.

      12 months

    Correct Answer
    C. 18 months
    Explanation
    Egress augmentees are required to receive refresher training and recertification on the particular egress system they maintain every 18 months. This means that after 18 months, they need to undergo training and recertification to ensure they are up to date with the knowledge and skills required to maintain the egress system. This periodic training and recertification helps to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the egress system and the personnel responsible for its maintenance.

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  • 4. 

    Each time you are assigned to a new egress system, you are required to learn the new system by attending

    • A.

      A proficiency course

    • B.

      A special training course

    • C.

      An on-the-job (OJT) course

    • D.

      An Air Education and Training Command (AETC) approved Egress Journeyman Course

    Correct Answer
    D. An Air Education and Training Command (AETC) approved Egress Journeyman Course
    Explanation
    When assigned to a new egress system, you are required to learn the new system by attending an Air Education and Training Command (AETC) approved Egress Journeyman Course. This course is specifically designed and approved by the AETC to provide comprehensive training on egress systems. It covers all the necessary knowledge and skills required to operate and maintain the egress system effectively. By attending this course, you can ensure that you are properly trained and qualified to work on the specific egress system assigned to you.

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  • 5. 

    As an egress journeyman, you're required to have weapons safety training

    • A.

      Annually

    • B.

      Prior to performing explosive-related tasks

    • C.

      Prior to performing explosive-related tasks and then annually

    • D.

      Prior to performing explosive-related tasks and then semiannually

    Correct Answer
    C. Prior to performing explosive-related tasks and then annually
    Explanation
    As an egress journeyman, it is necessary to have weapons safety training before performing explosive-related tasks. This initial training is a prerequisite to ensure that the individual has the necessary knowledge and skills to handle weapons safely in such tasks. Additionally, it is important to undergo this training annually to refresh and update one's knowledge on weapons safety, as there may be new developments, regulations, or protocols that need to be followed. This regular training helps to ensure the continued safety and competence of the egress journeyman in handling weapons in explosive-related tasks.

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  • 6. 

    The maximum speed limit on the flight line is

    • A.

      5 mph

    • B.

      10 mph

    • C.

      15 mph

    • D.

      20 mph

    Correct Answer
    C. 15 mph
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 15 mph. This speed limit is set to ensure the safety of personnel and equipment on the flight line. It allows for efficient movement of vehicles and reduces the risk of accidents or collisions. A speed limit of 15 mph strikes a balance between maintaining a reasonable pace and ensuring that everyone on the flight line is able to react and respond to any potential hazards in a timely manner.

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  • 7. 

    When you are driving within 25 feet of an aircraft, you should

    • A.

      Maintain your speed

    • B.

      Reduce your speed to 5 mph

    • C.

      Reduce your speed to 10 mph

    • D.

      Increase your speed to 20 mph

    Correct Answer
    B. Reduce your speed to 5 mph
    Explanation
    When driving within 25 feet of an aircraft, it is important to reduce your speed to 5 mph. This is because aircrafts are sensitive to the airflow created by passing vehicles, and a higher speed can create turbulence that may affect the aircraft's stability. By reducing your speed to 5 mph, you minimize the potential impact on the aircraft and ensure a safer driving environment.

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  • 8. 

    What is the minimum permissible distance you can drive a vehicle toward an aircraft that has its engines running?

    • A.

      25 feet front, 200 feet rear

    • B.

      50 feet front, 200 feet rear

    • C.

      100 feet front, 100 feet rear

    • D.

      200 feet front, 100 feet rear

    Correct Answer
    A. 25 feet front, 200 feet rear
    Explanation
    When a vehicle is driving towards an aircraft with its engines running, it is important to maintain a safe distance to avoid any accidents or damage. The minimum permissible distance is 25 feet in the front and 200 feet in the rear. This ensures that there is enough space for the vehicle to maneuver and prevents any potential hazards that may arise from being too close to the aircraft.

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  • 9. 

    If there are no major command (MAJCOM) weapons safety training plans available, who is responsible for developing a local one?

    • A.

      You or the personnel in your section

    • B.

      Personnel in the Maintainance Training Division

    • C.

      The base or unit Ground Safety Officer or NCO

    • D.

      The base or unit Weapons Safety Officer or NCO

    Correct Answer
    A. You or the personnel in your section
    Explanation
    If there are no major command (MAJCOM) weapons safety training plans available, the responsibility for developing a local one falls on you or the personnel in your section.

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  • 10. 

    Responsibility for ensuring that explosive safety training is provided to applicable personnel rests with the

    • A.

      Supervisors

    • B.

      Unit commander

    • C.

      Unit Explosive Safety NCO

    • D.

      Personnel in the Maintenance Training Division

    Correct Answer
    C. Unit Explosive Safety NCO
    Explanation
    The unit Explosive Safety NCO is responsible for ensuring that explosive safety training is provided to applicable personnel. This individual is specifically trained in explosive safety protocols and regulations, and their role is to oversee and coordinate all aspects of explosive safety within the unit. They work closely with supervisors and unit commanders to ensure that all personnel receive the necessary training to safely handle explosives.

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  • 11. 

    You are performing a periodic inspection of an explosive operation.  To do this properly, you would

    • A.

      Not limit your inspection to one area

    • B.

      Use checklists that focus strictly on explosive operations

    • C.

      Time the inspection to coincide with the wing safety inspection

    • D.

      Request assistance from someone outside of your area for a more honest evaluation

    Correct Answer
    A. Not limit your inspection to one area
    Explanation
    To perform a periodic inspection of an explosive operation properly, it is important not to limit the inspection to one area. By inspecting multiple areas, you can ensure that all aspects of the operation are thoroughly examined and any potential issues or hazards are identified. This approach allows for a comprehensive assessment of the entire operation, rather than focusing on only one aspect. It helps to ensure the overall safety and effectiveness of the explosive operation.

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  • 12. 

    Egress explosives must  be carried in

    • A.

      Protective containers

    • B.

      Shipping containers

    • C.

      A properly marked box

    • D.

      Explosive-proof containers

    Correct Answer
    A. Protective containers
    Explanation
    Egress explosives must be carried in protective containers to ensure their safe transportation and handling. These containers are specifically designed to contain and mitigate the risks associated with explosive materials. They are equipped with features such as sturdy construction, impact resistance, and insulation to prevent accidental detonation or leakage. By using protective containers, the potential hazards and dangers of transporting explosives can be minimized, protecting both individuals and the environment.

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  • 13. 

    To be acceptable for storage, explosives must be

    • A.

      Clean

    • B.

      Segregated

    • C.

      Undamaged

    • D.

      Assigned a hazard classification

    Correct Answer
    D. Assigned a hazard classification
    Explanation
    Explosives need to be assigned a hazard classification in order to be stored safely. This classification helps to identify and communicate the level of danger associated with the explosive material. It takes into account factors such as the type of explosive, its physical and chemical properties, and the potential risks it poses. By assigning a hazard classification, appropriate storage and handling procedures can be implemented to ensure the safety of individuals and the surrounding environment. Without this classification, it would be difficult to determine the necessary precautions and protocols for storing explosives.

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  • 14. 

    Serviceable and unserviceable explosive items must be

    • A.

      Integrated

    • B.

      Segregated

    • C.

      Stored in an approved shipping container

    • D.

      Turned in to the munitions storage area as soon as possible

    Correct Answer
    B. Segregated
    Explanation
    Explosive items need to be segregated, which means they should be separated or kept apart from each other. This is important for safety reasons as it helps to prevent accidental detonation or ignition of explosives. By keeping serviceable and unserviceable explosive items segregated, the risk of mishandling or improper storage is minimized. Therefore, it is necessary to ensure that explosive items are properly segregated to maintain a safe environment.

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  • 15. 

    To be acceptable for the storage of explosives, a proposed facility must

    • A.

      Have at least two exits

    • B.

      Be protected from dry, cool temperatures

    • C.

      Contain a minimum of three fire extinguishers

    • D.

      Be protected from moisture and high temperatures

    Correct Answer
    D. Be protected from moisture and high temperatures
    Explanation
    To ensure the safe storage of explosives, it is crucial for the facility to be protected from moisture and high temperatures. This is because moisture can cause the explosives to become unstable and potentially explode, while high temperatures can also increase the risk of ignition. By protecting the facility from these factors, the chances of accidents or explosions are minimized, ensuring the safety of both the facility and its surroundings.

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  • 16. 

    Supervisors make sure fire extinguishers are inspected how often?

    • A.

      Weekly

    • B.

      Monthly

    • C.

      Quarterly

    • D.

      Annually

    Correct Answer
    B. Monthly
    Explanation
    Supervisors ensure that fire extinguishers are inspected on a monthly basis. This regular inspection schedule allows for any potential issues or maintenance needs to be identified and addressed in a timely manner. Monthly inspections help to ensure that fire extinguishers are in proper working condition and ready to be used effectively in case of a fire emergency.

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  • 17. 

    One of the main advantages of using abbreviated technical orders is that they

    • A.

      Paraphrase and eliminate the need for basic technical orders

    • B.

      Serve as supplemental material

    • C.

      Cover safety in more detail

    • D.

      Simplify work

    Correct Answer
    D. Simplify work
    Explanation
    Abbreviated technical orders simplify work by condensing complex information into shorter, more concise instructions. By eliminating unnecessary details and focusing on the essential steps, workers can quickly and easily understand and follow the instructions. This saves time and reduces the chances of errors or confusion. Additionally, abbreviated technical orders are often designed to be user-friendly, using clear and straightforward language, further enhancing their ability to simplify work.

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  • 18. 

    The first part of a TO number identifies the

    • A.

      Sectionalization scheme of the TO

    • B.

      Type of instructions found in the TO

    • C.

      Technical system or equipment category

    • D.

      Model and series of the equipment covered by the TO

    Correct Answer
    C. Technical system or equipment category
    Explanation
    The first part of a TO number identifies the technical system or equipment category. This means that the initial portion of the TO number is used to classify the type of system or equipment that the TO pertains to. This classification helps in organizing and categorizing the TOs for easy reference and retrieval. It allows users to quickly identify the relevant TOs based on the equipment category, ensuring that the correct instructions are followed for a specific system or equipment.

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  • 19. 

    The second part of a TO number identifies the

    • A.

      Model and series of the equipment covered by the TO

    • B.

      Types of instructions in the TO

    • C.

      Category number of the TO

    • D.

      Sectionalization of the TO

    Correct Answer
    A. Model and series of the equipment covered by the TO
    Explanation
    The second part of a TO number identifies the model and series of the equipment covered by the TO. This means that the second part of the TO number provides information about the specific model and series of equipment that the TO is referring to. This helps to differentiate between different types of equipment and ensures that the correct instructions are provided for the specific model and series in question.

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  • 20. 

    What part of the TO number determines the type of equipment found in the TO?

    • A.

      First

    • B.

      Second

    • C.

      Third

    • D.

      Fourth

    Correct Answer
    A. First
    Explanation
    The first part of the TO number determines the type of equipment found in the TO.

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  • 21. 

    What are the three priorities for technical order deficiency reports?

    • A.

      Emergency, urgent, and routine

    • B.

      Immediate, urgent, and routine

    • C.

      Emergency, urgent, and record

    • D.

      Immediate, urgent, and record

    Correct Answer
    A. Emergency, urgent, and routine
    Explanation
    The three priorities for technical order deficiency reports are emergency, urgent, and routine. This means that when reporting a deficiency, it is important to prioritize based on the level of urgency and severity. Emergency reports are for critical and immediate issues that require immediate attention and action. Urgent reports are for issues that need to be addressed quickly but are not as critical as emergencies. Routine reports are for less urgent matters that can be addressed in a timely manner.

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  • 22. 

    Who performs the basic mission of the Air Force?

    • A.

      Operations group

    • B.

      Maintenance group

    • C.

      Numbered Air Force

    • D.

      Headquarters USAF

    Correct Answer
    A. Operations group
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Operations group. The basic mission of the Air Force is performed by the Operations group. This group is responsible for conducting and supporting military operations, including air combat, air superiority, and air defense. They are in charge of planning, organizing, and executing missions to achieve the objectives of the Air Force. The Operations group plays a crucial role in ensuring the readiness and effectiveness of the Air Force in carrying out its missions.

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  • 23. 

    Who is the technical authority and advisor of maintenance production?

    • A.

      Maintenance supervisor

    • B.

      Squadron commander

    • C.

      Section Chief

    • D.

      Flight Chief

    Correct Answer
    C. Section Chief
    Explanation
    The Section Chief is the technical authority and advisor of maintenance production. They are responsible for overseeing and managing maintenance operations, ensuring compliance with regulations and standards, and providing technical guidance and support to maintenance personnel. They have extensive knowledge and expertise in maintenance procedures and are the go-to person for any technical issues or concerns.

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  • 24. 

    Which flight performs off-equipment maintenance of electronic warfare systems?

    • A.

      Avionics

    • B.

      Munitions

    • C.

      Accessories

    • D.

      TMDE

    Correct Answer
    A. Avionics
    Explanation
    Avionics refers to the electronics systems used in aircraft, including communication, navigation, and electronic warfare systems. Off-equipment maintenance means the maintenance performed on these systems while they are not installed in the aircraft. Therefore, avionics is the correct answer as it is responsible for the off-equipment maintenance of electronic warfare systems.

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  • 25. 

    The individuals responsible to ensure maintenance is only performed by personnel who are trained, qualified, and certified, unless under direct supervision of a trainer or certifier  is the

    • A.

      Wing commander

    • B.

      Squadron commander

    • C.

      All maintenance personnel

    • D.

      Maintenance group commander

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance group commander
    Explanation
    The maintenance group commander is responsible for ensuring that maintenance is only performed by personnel who are trained, qualified, and certified, unless under direct supervision of a trainer or certifier. This role oversees the entire maintenance group and has the authority to enforce these requirements and ensure that all personnel are following proper procedures and protocols. The wing commander and squadron commander may have some oversight in this area, but the maintenance group commander is specifically tasked with ensuring the qualifications and certifications of maintenance personnel.

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  • 26. 

    The OSO

    • A.

      Provides intelligence support during all phases of conflict

    • B.

      Provides airfield management and air traffic operations services to the base flying wing

    • C.

      Develops procedures and unit tactics for planning and employing operational mission and wing assets

    • D.

      Manages the flying hour program, wing AFE, and flight simulator systems

    Correct Answer
    D. Manages the flying hour program, wing AFE, and flight simulator systems
    Explanation
    The OSO is responsible for managing the flying hour program, wing AFE, and flight simulator systems. This means that they oversee and coordinate the allocation of flying hours for pilots, ensuring that they have enough training and practice time. They also manage the wing AFE (Aircrew Flight Equipment), which includes the maintenance and distribution of equipment necessary for flight operations. Additionally, they are in charge of the flight simulator systems, which are used for training and simulation exercises. Overall, the OSO plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth and efficient operation of the flying hour program and flight simulator systems within the organization.

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  • 27. 

    Who is responsible for maintaining an up-to-date master technical order file?

    • A.

      QA

    • B.

      MTF

    • C.

      PS&D

    • D.

      MOCC

    Correct Answer
    A. QA
    Explanation
    The Quality Assurance (QA) department is responsible for maintaining an up-to-date master technical order file. This department ensures that all technical orders are accurate, current, and in compliance with industry standards. They review and update the master technical order file regularly to ensure that any changes or updates are implemented. This helps to maintain the quality and reliability of the technical order documentation, which is essential for the smooth operation of any organization.

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  • 28. 

    Which statement best describes a preflight inspection?

    • A.

      A security alert check

    • B.

      A routine visual check

    • C.

      A flight preparedness check

    • D.

      An optional inspection check

    Correct Answer
    C. A flight preparedness check
    Explanation
    A preflight inspection refers to a flight preparedness check. This involves thoroughly examining an aircraft before a flight to ensure that it is in proper working condition and ready for takeoff. It includes checking various components such as the engine, controls, fuel system, landing gear, and overall structural integrity. This inspection is essential for ensuring the safety of the flight and preventing any potential issues or malfunctions during the journey.

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  • 29. 

    What type of inspection is required if an aircraft has an unusual condition such as a ground egress?

    • A.

      Special

    • B.

      Calendar

    • C.

      Acceptance

    • D.

      Time Replacement

    Correct Answer
    A. Special
    Explanation
    Special inspections are required when an aircraft has an unusual condition such as a ground egress. These inspections are not part of the routine maintenance schedule and are performed to address specific issues or abnormalities. Special inspections are typically more thorough and detailed than regular inspections, and they may involve additional testing, checks, or repairs to ensure the aircraft's safety and airworthiness.

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  • 30. 

    When an egress item's service life is due to expire, it must be

    • A.

      Added to the nearest inspection interval

    • B.

      Added to the next time replacement schedule

    • C.

      Changed at the occurrence of a specific condition

    • D.

      Changed and is never left until the next scheduled inspection

    Correct Answer
    D. Changed and is never left until the next scheduled inspection
    Explanation
    When an egress item's service life is due to expire, it must be changed and is never left until the next scheduled inspection. This means that the item should not be used beyond its service life and should be replaced immediately, rather than waiting for the next scheduled inspection. This ensures that the item remains in good working condition and does not pose any safety risks.

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  • 31. 

    What inspection is designed to detect descrepancies which may have developed due to wear and tear, or other damage, since the last inspection?

    • A.

      Final

    • B.

      Visual

    • C.

      Special

    • D.

      Scheduled

    Correct Answer
    B. Visual
    Explanation
    Visual inspection is designed to detect discrepancies which may have developed due to wear and tear, or other damage, since the last inspection. This type of inspection involves visually examining the item or area being inspected to identify any visible signs of damage, deterioration, or other issues. It does not require specialized equipment or testing procedures, but rather relies on the inspector's observation skills. Visual inspections are commonly used in various industries, such as manufacturing, construction, and maintenance, to ensure the safety and integrity of equipment, structures, and systems.

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  • 32. 

    The grounding point for the F-16 ejection seat is the

    • A.

      Interdictor striker or the restraint release bellcrank

    • B.

      Seat side cap or the ejection control handle

    • C.

      Restraint release bellcrank or the seat side cap

    • D.

      Interdictor striker or the ejection control handle

    Correct Answer
    A. Interdictor striker or the restraint release bellcrank
    Explanation
    The grounding point for the F-16 ejection seat is the interdictor striker or the restraint release bellcrank. This means that either the interdictor striker or the restraint release bellcrank can be used as a point of grounding for the ejection seat in the F-16 aircraft.

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  • 33. 

    The aircraft inspection process is broken down into how many phases?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    C. 4
    Explanation
    The aircraft inspection process is broken down into four phases. These phases are designed to ensure that the aircraft is properly maintained and safe for operation. Each phase focuses on different aspects of the aircraft, such as the structure, systems, and components. By breaking down the inspection process into multiple phases, it allows for a thorough examination of the aircraft and helps to identify any potential issues or maintenance needs.

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  • 34. 

    Category I PQDRs must be submitted to the screening point within how many workdays  after the discovery of a deficiency?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      7

    • D.

      10

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    Category I PQDRs must be submitted to the screening point within 1 workday after the discovery of a deficiency. This means that as soon as a deficiency is identified, it must be reported to the appropriate screening point within one workday. This ensures that immediate action can be taken to address and rectify the deficiency, minimizing any potential risks or impacts.

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  • 35. 

    Category II PQDRs are classified as

    • A.

      Deficiency and improvement reports

    • B.

      Deficiency and enhancement reports

    • C.

      Enhancement and improvement reports

    • D.

      Enhancement, deficiency, or improvement reports

    Correct Answer
    D. Enhancement, deficiency, or improvement reports
    Explanation
    Category II PQDRs are classified as enhancement, deficiency, or improvement reports. This means that these reports can be related to any of these three categories. Category II PQDRs are used to identify and document any issues or problems with a product or system, as well as any potential enhancements or improvements that can be made. By classifying these reports as enhancement, deficiency, or improvement, it allows for a comprehensive assessment of the product or system's performance and potential areas for development.

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  • 36. 

    Category II PQDRs must be submitted within how many working days after the discovery of a deficiency?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      10

    • D.

      13

    Correct Answer
    B. 3
    Explanation
    Category II PQDRs must be submitted within 3 working days after the discovery of a deficiency. This means that once a deficiency is identified, the responsible party has a maximum of 3 working days to submit the PQDR. This ensures that any issues or deficiencies are reported and addressed promptly, allowing for timely resolution and improvement in the product or system.

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  • 37. 

    Messages to report PQDRs are used when

    • A.

      The report is a CAT I

    • B.

      The report is a CAT II

    • C.

      Automated means are not feasible

    • D.

      A DD Form 1575, Suspended Tag-Material, is not feasible

    Correct Answer
    C. Automated means are not feasible
    Explanation
    The given correct answer states that messages to report PQDRs are used when automated means are not feasible. This means that if there is a situation where automated systems or processes cannot be used to report a PQDR (Product Quality Deficiency Report), then messages are used as an alternative method. This could be due to technical limitations, system failures, or any other reason that prevents the use of automated means.

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  • 38. 

    Within the PQDR system, repairs to exhibits will not be performed unless authorized by the

    • A.

      Originating point

    • B.

      Screening point

    • C.

      Support point

    • D.

      Action point

    Correct Answer
    D. Action point
    Explanation
    In the PQDR system, repairs to exhibits will only be carried out if they are authorized by the action point. This means that the action point has the authority to approve or deny repairs to exhibits. The originating point refers to where the PQDR was first initiated, the screening point is where the PQDR is reviewed and evaluated, and the support point is where assistance and resources are provided. However, it is the action point that ultimately has the power to authorize repairs.

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  • 39. 

    What activity is responsible for resolution of a PQDR?

    • A.

      Action point

    • B.

      Support point

    • C.

      Screening point

    • D.

      Originating point

    Correct Answer
    A. Action point
    Explanation
    An action point is responsible for the resolution of a PQDR (Product Quality Deficiency Report). It refers to a specific step or task that needs to be taken in order to address and resolve the issue mentioned in the PQDR. The action point could involve investigating the root cause of the problem, implementing corrective measures, or coordinating with relevant stakeholders to fix the deficiency. By completing the action point, the PQDR can be resolved effectively.

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  • 40. 

    What method of request for technical assistance is used in emergency situations?

    • A.

      DMS

    • B.

      Telephone

    • C.

      E-mail

    • D.

      Fax

    Correct Answer
    B. Telephone
    Explanation
    In emergency situations, using the telephone to request technical assistance is the most effective method. This is because it allows for immediate communication and real-time problem-solving. Unlike other methods such as email or fax, which may have delays in response time, the telephone enables quick and direct communication with technical support personnel. This is crucial in emergency situations where time is of the essence and prompt assistance is needed to resolve the issue.

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  • 41. 

    The MDD process allows for short and long term (historical) storage of data.  What else does it allow for?

    • A.

      Hard copy and off-line retrieval of data through user inquiry

    • B.

      On-line and hard copy retrieval of data through user inquiry

    • C.

      Hard copy retrieval of data through user inquiry only

    • D.

      On-line retrieval of data through user inquiry only

    Correct Answer
    D. On-line retrieval of data through user inquiry only
    Explanation
    The MDD process allows for on-line retrieval of data through user inquiry only. It does not provide for hard copy retrieval or offline retrieval of data.

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  • 42. 

    Whose responsibility is it to review the data entered into the MDD system on a daily basis?

    • A.

      Maintenance technicians and PS&D

    • B.

      Maintenance technicians and QA

    • C.

      Shift supervisors and maintenance technicians

    • D.

      Workcenter and shift supervisors

    Correct Answer
    D. Workcenter and shift supervisors
    Explanation
    The workcenter and shift supervisors are responsible for reviewing the data entered into the MDD system on a daily basis. This implies that they are in charge of ensuring the accuracy and completeness of the data entered into the system. By reviewing the data regularly, they can identify any errors or discrepancies and take appropriate actions to rectify them. This responsibility is crucial in maintaining the integrity of the MDD system and ensuring that the data stored within it is reliable for decision-making purposes.

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  • 43. 

    At base level, on what basis does the MDD system provide equipment maintenance schedules?

    • A.

      Hourly

    • B.

      Monthly

    • C.

      Quarterly

    • D.

      Calendar

    Correct Answer
    D. Calendar
    Explanation
    The MDD system provides equipment maintenance schedules based on the calendar. This means that the maintenance schedules are determined by specific dates on the calendar, rather than being based on the number of hours, months, or quarters that have passed. Using the calendar allows for more precise scheduling and ensures that maintenance tasks are performed at regular intervals throughout the year.

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  • 44. 

    Categories of documentation and data codes are two of the characteristics of the MDD concept; what is/are the others?

    • A.

      Retrieval

    • B.

      Collection

    • C.

      On-equipment, off-equipment

    • D.

      Documentation rules, data entry

    Correct Answer
    D. Documentation rules, data entry
    Explanation
    The other characteristics of the MDD concept, in addition to categories of documentation and data codes, are documentation rules and data entry. These characteristics refer to the guidelines and regulations for documenting and entering data into the MDD system. They ensure that the documentation is accurate, consistent, and follows a standardized format, while also ensuring that the data entered into the system is valid and reliable.

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  • 45. 

    How many characters are in a job control number?

    • A.

      6

    • B.

      7

    • C.

      8

    • D.

      9

    Correct Answer
    D. 9
    Explanation
    A job control number typically consists of a combination of alphanumeric characters that are used to identify and track a specific job or task. Since the answer is 9, it suggests that a job control number is comprised of 9 characters.

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  • 46. 

    What is the maximum number of maintenance actions that can be recorded on a single AFTO Form 349?

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      5

    • D.

      6

    Correct Answer
    D. 6
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 6 because the AFTO Form 349 is designed to record maintenance actions, and it has space for up to 6 entries. This means that a maximum of 6 maintenance actions can be recorded on a single form.

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  • 47. 

    If you receive a part with two different tags attached (yellow/green), what should you do?

    • A.

      Bench-check the part

    • B.

      Keep the yellow tag

    • C.

      Keep the green tag

    • D.

      Install the part

    Correct Answer
    A. Bench-check the part
    Explanation
    When you receive a part with two different tags attached (yellow/green), the correct course of action is to bench-check the part. This means that you should thoroughly inspect and test the part to ensure its quality and functionality before proceeding with any further actions. The tags are likely there to indicate different stages or conditions of the part, but it is important to verify its condition through a bench-check before making any decisions on whether to keep or install it.

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  • 48. 

    The purpose of a JCN is to

    • A.

      Control excessive maintenance hours

    • B.

      Control all aircraft flying time and down time

    • C.

      Tie all on- and off-equipment actions together

    • D.

      Tie flight operations and maintenance activities together

    Correct Answer
    C. Tie all on- and off-equipment actions together
    Explanation
    A JCN, or Job Control Number, is used to tie all on- and off-equipment actions together. This means that it is used to track and manage all the tasks and actions related to the maintenance and operation of equipment, ensuring that they are properly coordinated and executed. By using a JCN, organizations can have a centralized system to monitor and control the various activities involved in maintaining and operating equipment, helping to streamline processes and improve efficiency.

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  • 49. 

    Which IMDS subsystem automates the record keeping function for all end items of equipment as well as for items installed on an end item of equipment?

    • A.

      Time change subsystem

    • B.

      Maintenance events subsystem

    • C.

      JDD subsystem

    • D.

      IMDS/SBSS interface subsystem

    Correct Answer
    A. Time change subsystem
    Explanation
    The time change subsystem automates the record keeping function for all end items of equipment as well as for items installed on an end item of equipment. This means that it is responsible for maintaining accurate records of when equipment and items were last serviced or had any changes made to them. It helps ensure that maintenance schedules are followed and that equipment is properly maintained.

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  • 50. 

    Workcenter and shift supervisors are responsible for reviewing the data entered into IMDS at what interval?

    • A.

      Daily

    • B.

      Weekly

    • C.

      Monthly

    • D.

      Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily
    Explanation
    Workcenter and shift supervisors are responsible for reviewing the data entered into IMDS on a daily basis. This is important to ensure the accuracy and completeness of the data. By reviewing the data daily, supervisors can identify any errors or discrepancies promptly and take appropriate actions to rectify them. Regular review also helps in monitoring the progress of work and identifying any potential issues or trends that may require attention. Therefore, daily review of the data entered into IMDS is crucial for maintaining data integrity and ensuring smooth operations.

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