Egress Journeyman 5 Level

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    The final responsibility for your personal safety rests with

    • You
    • Your supervisor
    • Wing safety office
    • Squadron commander
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Egress Journeyman 5 Level - Quiz
About This Quiz

This quiz is designed to assist you in making a satisfactory score for your Egress Journeyman 2A653, 5 level CDC's. Good Luck.

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  • 2. 

    Serviceable and unserviceable explosive items must be

    • Integrated

    • Segregated

    • Stored in an approved shipping container

    • Turned in to the munitions storage area as soon as possible

    Correct Answer
    A. Segregated
    Explanation
    Explosive items need to be segregated, which means they should be separated or kept apart from each other. This is important for safety reasons as it helps to prevent accidental detonation or ignition of explosives. By keeping serviceable and unserviceable explosive items segregated, the risk of mishandling or improper storage is minimized. Therefore, it is necessary to ensure that explosive items are properly segregated to maintain a safe environment.

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  • 3. 

    The grounding point for the F-16 ejection seat is the

    • Interdictor striker or the restraint release bellcrank

    • Seat side cap or the ejection control handle

    • Restraint release bellcrank or the seat side cap

    • Interdictor striker or the ejection control handle

    Correct Answer
    A. Interdictor striker or the restraint release bellcrank
    Explanation
    The grounding point for the F-16 ejection seat is the interdictor striker or the restraint release bellcrank. This means that either the interdictor striker or the restraint release bellcrank can be used as a point of grounding for the ejection seat in the F-16 aircraft.

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  • 4. 

    Who is responsible for the accuracy and neatness of entries made on maintenance forms?

    • You

    • Shop supervisor

    • QA

    • Documentation section

    Correct Answer
    A. You
    Explanation
    The responsibility for the accuracy and neatness of entries made on maintenance forms lies with the person who is filling out the form, which is referred to as "you" in this context. This means that the individual who is completing the maintenance form is accountable for ensuring that the information entered is correct and presented in a tidy manner.

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  • 5. 

    The general parameters for a mode 2 ejection from an F-16 aircraft are

    • Low altitude/low speed

    • Low altitude/high speed

    • High altitude/low speed

    • High altitude/high speed

    Correct Answer
    A. Low altitude/high speed
    Explanation
    A mode 2 ejection from an F-16 aircraft is typically performed at low altitude and high speed. This is because in such situations, the pilot may not have enough time to safely descend to a lower altitude or reduce speed before ejecting. Ejecting at a high speed helps to ensure that the pilot clears the aircraft quickly and avoids any potential hazards. Additionally, ejecting at a low altitude allows for a shorter descent time and increases the chances of survival for the pilot.

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  • 6. 

    Which is an approved ACES II seat grounding procedure?

    • Seats are grounded at the interdictor striker or the restraint release bellcrank

    • Anywhere on the seat where no paint prevents a positive ground is acceptable

    • The seat side caps are acceptable for grounding when no other point is available

    • An ohmmeter should be used to verify the grounding points are within the approved resistance range

    Correct Answer
    A. Seats are grounded at the interdictor striker or the restraint release bellcrank
    Explanation
    The approved ACES II seat grounding procedure states that seats should be grounded at either the interdictor striker or the restraint release bellcrank. These specific points on the seat are designated for grounding purposes to ensure the safety and functionality of the seat.

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  • 7. 

    Which flight performs off-equipment maintenance of electronic warfare systems?

    • Avionics

    • Munitions

    • Accessories

    • TMDE

    Correct Answer
    A. Avionics
    Explanation
    Avionics refers to the electronics systems used in aircraft, including communication, navigation, and electronic warfare systems. Off-equipment maintenance means the maintenance performed on these systems while they are not installed in the aircraft. Therefore, avionics is the correct answer as it is responsible for the off-equipment maintenance of electronic warfare systems.

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  • 8. 

    What type of inspection is required if an aircraft has an unusual condition such as a ground egress?

    • Special

    • Calendar

    • Acceptance

    • Time Replacement

    Correct Answer
    A. Special
    Explanation
    Special inspections are required when an aircraft has an unusual condition such as a ground egress. These inspections are not part of the routine maintenance schedule and are performed to address specific issues or abnormalities. Special inspections are typically more thorough and detailed than regular inspections, and they may involve additional testing, checks, or repairs to ensure the aircraft's safety and airworthiness.

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  • 9. 

    How many characters are in a job control number?

    • 6

    • 7

    • 8

    • 9

    Correct Answer
    A. 9
    Explanation
    A job control number typically consists of a combination of alphanumeric characters that are used to identify and track a specific job or task. Since the answer is 9, it suggests that a job control number is comprised of 9 characters.

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  • 10. 

    What is designed for upward or downward ejection of crewmembers from high-speed aircraft?

    • Initiator

    • Thruster

    • Catapult

    • Remover

    Correct Answer
    A. Catapult
    Explanation
    A catapult is designed for the upward or downward ejection of crewmembers from high-speed aircraft. It provides a powerful launch mechanism to rapidly propel the crewmembers out of the aircraft in emergency situations. This allows for a quick and efficient evacuation, ensuring the safety of the crewmembers.

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  • 11. 

    The maximum speed limit on the flight line is

    • 5 mph

    • 10 mph

    • 15 mph

    • 20 mph

    Correct Answer
    A. 15 mph
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 15 mph. This speed limit is set to ensure the safety of personnel and equipment on the flight line. It allows for efficient movement of vehicles and reduces the risk of accidents or collisions. A speed limit of 15 mph strikes a balance between maintaining a reasonable pace and ensuring that everyone on the flight line is able to react and respond to any potential hazards in a timely manner.

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  • 12. 

    Workcenter and shift supervisors are responsible for reviewing the data entered into IMDS at what interval?

    • Daily

    • Weekly

    • Monthly

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily
    Explanation
    Workcenter and shift supervisors are responsible for reviewing the data entered into IMDS on a daily basis. This is important to ensure the accuracy and completeness of the data. By reviewing the data daily, supervisors can identify any errors or discrepancies promptly and take appropriate actions to rectify them. Regular review also helps in monitoring the progress of work and identifying any potential issues or trends that may require attention. Therefore, daily review of the data entered into IMDS is crucial for maintaining data integrity and ensuring smooth operations.

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  • 13. 

    How many recovery sequence modes does the F-16 ejection seat have and what does selection of a particular mode depend on?

    • Three modes which depend upon the position of the ejection mode selector valve

    • Three modes which depend upon the altitude and airspeed at the time of ejection

    • Four modes which depend upon the position of the ejection mode selector valve

    • Four modes which depend upon the altitude and airspeed during post ejection

    Correct Answer
    A. Three modes which depend upon the altitude and airspeed at the time of ejection
    Explanation
    The F-16 ejection seat has three recovery sequence modes that depend upon the altitude and airspeed at the time of ejection. The selection of a particular mode is determined by these factors, as they play a crucial role in ensuring a safe and effective ejection from the aircraft. Different altitudes and airspeeds may require different recovery sequences to account for various flight conditions and potential hazards during ejection.

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  • 14. 

    What method of request for technical assistance is used in emergency situations?

    • DMS

    • Telephone

    • E-mail

    • Fax

    Correct Answer
    A. Telephone
    Explanation
    In emergency situations, using the telephone to request technical assistance is the most effective method. This is because it allows for immediate communication and real-time problem-solving. Unlike other methods such as email or fax, which may have delays in response time, the telephone enables quick and direct communication with technical support personnel. This is crucial in emergency situations where time is of the essence and prompt assistance is needed to resolve the issue.

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  • 15. 

    Which cartridge-actuated devices used in egress systems are designed primarily to supply gas pressure to actuate other devices in the system?

    • Removers

    • Thrusters

    • Catapults

    • Initiators

    Correct Answer
    A. Initiators
    Explanation
    Initiators are cartridge-actuated devices used in egress systems primarily to supply gas pressure to actuate other devices in the system. They are designed to initiate a controlled explosion or combustion process, which generates gas pressure that is then used to activate other components or mechanisms in the egress system. Initiators play a crucial role in ensuring the proper functioning of egress systems and facilitating the safe evacuation of individuals in emergency situations.

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  • 16. 

    Which statement best describes a preflight inspection?

    • A security alert check

    • A routine visual check

    • A flight preparedness check

    • An optional inspection check

    Correct Answer
    A. A flight preparedness check
    Explanation
    A preflight inspection refers to a flight preparedness check. This involves thoroughly examining an aircraft before a flight to ensure that it is in proper working condition and ready for takeoff. It includes checking various components such as the engine, controls, fuel system, landing gear, and overall structural integrity. This inspection is essential for ensuring the safety of the flight and preventing any potential issues or malfunctions during the journey.

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  • 17. 

    If you receive a part with two different tags attached (yellow/green), what should you do?

    • Bench-check the part

    • Keep the yellow tag

    • Keep the green tag

    • Install the part

    Correct Answer
    A. Bench-check the part
    Explanation
    When you receive a part with two different tags attached (yellow/green), the correct course of action is to bench-check the part. This means that you should thoroughly inspect and test the part to ensure its quality and functionality before proceeding with any further actions. The tags are likely there to indicate different stages or conditions of the part, but it is important to verify its condition through a bench-check before making any decisions on whether to keep or install it.

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  • 18. 

    What are removers designed to do?

    • Eject crewmembers from high-speed aircraft

    • Jettison the canopy from high-speed aircraft

    • Reposition mechanical devices

    • Fire other explosive devices

    Correct Answer
    A. Jettison the canopy from high-speed aircraft
    Explanation
    Removers are designed to jettison the canopy from high-speed aircraft. This means that they are specifically created to detach or release the protective cover or enclosure of the aircraft in order to provide a safe exit for the crewmembers. This action is crucial in emergency situations or when the crew needs to evacuate the aircraft quickly.

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  • 19. 

    The two delayed reefing line cutters used on the ACES II seat are activated by

    • Lanyards attached to the drogue slug

    • The recovery sequencer electrical impulse

    • Lanyards attached to the inner tube of the mortar

    • A trip rod lever attached to the lower edge of the seat rails

    Correct Answer
    A. Lanyards attached to the inner tube of the mortar
    Explanation
    The correct answer is lanyards attached to the inner tube of the mortar. This means that the delayed reefing line cutters on the ACES II seat are activated by pulling on the lanyards that are attached to the inner tube of the mortar. This action triggers the cutters to release the reefing lines, allowing the parachute to fully deploy.

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  • 20. 

    Personnel in the applicable office must respond to your appeal of an unsatisfactory response to a hazard report within

    • 5 days

    • 10 days

    • 20 days

    • 30 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 days
    Explanation
    Personnel in the applicable office must respond to your appeal of an unsatisfactory response to a hazard report within 10 days. This means that if you are not satisfied with the initial response to your hazard report, you have the right to appeal and the personnel in the office must address your appeal within 10 days. This ensures that your concerns are taken seriously and addressed in a timely manner.

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  • 21. 

    When you are driving within 25 feet of an aircraft, you should

    • Maintain your speed

    • Reduce your speed to 5 mph

    • Reduce your speed to 10 mph

    • Increase your speed to 20 mph

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduce your speed to 5 mph
    Explanation
    When driving within 25 feet of an aircraft, it is important to reduce your speed to 5 mph. This is because aircrafts are sensitive to the airflow created by passing vehicles, and a higher speed can create turbulence that may affect the aircraft's stability. By reducing your speed to 5 mph, you minimize the potential impact on the aircraft and ensure a safer driving environment.

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  • 22. 

    All will distort the quality of a fixed gauge, except

    • Dropping

    • Wear

    • Rust

    • Oil

    Correct Answer
    A. Oil
    Explanation
    Dropping, wear, and rust can all cause damage to a fixed gauge and distort its quality. However, oil does not have the same effect. Oil can actually help to prevent rust and wear, and it can also lubricate the gauge, ensuring smooth operation. Therefore, oil does not distort the quality of a fixed gauge.

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  • 23. 

    When you reinstall a pyrotechnic module on an F-15 aircraft, before you connect the hoses to the components, you would disconnect the hoses and

    • Flow check them

    • Use a flashlight to look through them

    • Use a borescope to look through them

    • Run a piece of safety wire through them

    Correct Answer
    A. Flow check them
    Explanation
    Before connecting the hoses to the components, it is necessary to disconnect them and perform a flow check. This is done to ensure that there are no obstructions or blockages in the hoses that could impede the flow of pyrotechnic materials. By conducting a flow check, any issues can be identified and resolved before the hoses are reconnected, ensuring the proper functioning of the pyrotechnic module on the F-15 aircraft.

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  • 24. 

    One of the main advantages of using abbreviated technical orders is that they

    • Paraphrase and eliminate the need for basic technical orders

    • Serve as supplemental material

    • Cover safety in more detail

    • Simplify work

    Correct Answer
    A. Simplify work
    Explanation
    Abbreviated technical orders simplify work by condensing complex information into shorter, more concise instructions. By eliminating unnecessary details and focusing on the essential steps, workers can quickly and easily understand and follow the instructions. This saves time and reduces the chances of errors or confusion. Additionally, abbreviated technical orders are often designed to be user-friendly, using clear and straightforward language, further enhancing their ability to simplify work.

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  • 25. 

    Which wire brush is considered neutral and may be used on all equipment?

    • Steel

    • Brass

    • Copper

    • Stainless steel

    Correct Answer
    A. Stainless steel
    Explanation
    Stainless steel wire brushes are considered neutral and can be safely used on all types of equipment. This is because stainless steel is a non-reactive material that does not corrode or leave behind any residue when used. It is also durable and can withstand high temperatures, making it suitable for various cleaning and maintenance tasks on different types of equipment.

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  • 26. 

    Supervisors make sure fire extinguishers are inspected how often?

    • Weekly

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    Supervisors ensure that fire extinguishers are inspected on a monthly basis. This regular inspection schedule allows for any potential issues or maintenance needs to be identified and addressed in a timely manner. Monthly inspections help to ensure that fire extinguishers are in proper working condition and ready to be used effectively in case of a fire emergency.

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  • 27. 

    It is preferable to use the Self-Generating Nitrogen Service Cart (SGNSC) instead of an air source provided by a compressor installed in egress workshops because the

    • Shop compressors' pressure is too high

    • Shop compressors' volume is too high

    • SGNSC provides moisture-free air

    • SGNSC provides higher pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. SGNSC provides moisture-free air
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the SGNSC provides moisture-free air. This is preferable because moisture in the compressed air can cause corrosion and damage to sensitive equipment. By using the SGNSC, which is designed to remove moisture from the air, the risk of damage is reduced.

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  • 28. 

    When you find the torque stripe on an ACES II gas hose fitting is not aligned, the corrective action is to

    • Loosen the fitting, remove the old torque stripe and paint a new torque stripe

    • Loosen the fitting, retighten to the proper torque value and ensure the paint stripe is lined up

    • Remove the torque stripe, loosen the fitting, retighten to the proper torque value and paint a new torque stripe

    • Remove the torque stripe, loosen the fitting, inspect for internal obstructions, retighten to the proper torque value and paint a new torque stripe

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove the torque stripe, loosen the fitting, inspect for internal obstructions, retighten to the proper torque value and paint a new torque stripe
    Explanation
    When the torque stripe on an ACES II gas hose fitting is not aligned, the correct action is to remove the torque stripe first. Then, the fitting needs to be loosened and inspected for any internal obstructions that may be causing the misalignment. After ensuring there are no obstructions, the fitting should be retightened to the proper torque value. Finally, a new torque stripe should be painted on the fitting. This sequence of actions ensures that the fitting is properly aligned and functioning correctly.

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  • 29. 

    How are the recovery sequencer thermal batteries activated during ejection from the B-1B?

    • Gas pressure from the 1.6-second time delay initiator

    • SMDC detonation

    • Gas pressure from the rocket catapult

    • SMDC-gas initiator pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Gas pressure from the rocket catapult
    Explanation
    The recovery sequencer thermal batteries are activated during ejection from the B-1B by gas pressure from the rocket catapult. This means that the batteries are activated by the force generated by the rocket catapult, which propels the recovery sequencer and activates the thermal batteries.

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  • 30. 

    How many defects allowed on the environmental sensor before it must be replaced?

    • Zero

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    Correct Answer
    A. Zero
    Explanation
    The correct answer is zero because the question is asking for the number of defects allowed on the environmental sensor before it must be replaced. "Zero" means that no defects are allowed, indicating that even a single defect would require the sensor to be replaced.

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  • 31. 

    After a U-2 pilot ejects from the aircraft, if the pilot remains in the seat and falls to an altitude of 15,000 (+- !,000) feet, what components(s) will fire and force gas pressure to the lap belt unlatching mechanism, torque tube thruster, and an initiator?

    • Aneroid initiators

    • 1.0-second delay initiators

    • 3.0-second delay initiator

    • 10.0-second delay initiators

    Correct Answer
    A. Aneroid initiators
    Explanation
    Aneroid initiators are the components that will fire and force gas pressure to the lap belt unlatching mechanism, torque tube thruster, and an initiator after a U-2 pilot ejects from the aircraft and falls to an altitude of 15,000 feet.

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  • 32. 

    The B-1B Advanced Concept Ejection Seats arm restraint epaulet keeper is held closed by

    • Snaps

    • Velcro

    • Zippers

    • Buttons

    Correct Answer
    A. Velcro
    Explanation
    The correct answer is velcro. Velcro is a type of fastening material that consists of two strips, one with tiny hooks and the other with small loops. When pressed together, the hooks and loops interlock, creating a secure closure. In the case of the B-1B Advanced Concept Ejection Seats arm restraint epaulet keeper, velcro is used to hold it closed. Velcro is a popular choice for fastening items that need to be easily opened and closed, as it provides a strong hold while still being simple to use.

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  • 33. 

    The second part of a TO number identifies the

    • Model and series of the equipment covered by the TO

    • Types of instructions in the TO

    • Category number of the TO

    • Sectionalization of the TO

    Correct Answer
    A. Model and series of the equipment covered by the TO
    Explanation
    The second part of a TO number identifies the model and series of the equipment covered by the TO. This means that the second part of the TO number provides information about the specific model and series of equipment that the TO is referring to. This helps to differentiate between different types of equipment and ensures that the correct instructions are provided for the specific model and series in question.

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  • 34. 

    The outermost orbit for the electrons of an atom is known as the

    • Circumfuge

    • Electron drift

    • Valence band

    • Free electron zone

    Correct Answer
    A. Valence band
    Explanation
    The outermost orbit for the electrons of an atom is known as the valence band. The valence band is the highest energy level that contains electrons in an atom. Electrons in the valence band are involved in chemical bonding and determine the reactivity and properties of an element.

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  • 35. 

    If contamination is discovered in a component during a pre-installation inspection on an F-15 pyrotechnic module, and it cannot be dislodged by turning the panel over and shaking it, you would

    • Replace the component

    • Go ahead and install the module

    • Blow compressed air at 40 psi into the component

    • Use needle-nosed pliers to remove the contamination

    Correct Answer
    A. Replace the component
    Explanation
    If contamination is discovered in a component during a pre-installation inspection on an F-15 pyrotechnic module and it cannot be dislodged by turning the panel over and shaking it, the best course of action would be to replace the component. This is because contamination can compromise the performance and safety of the module, and attempting to remove it with compressed air or needle-nosed pliers may not fully eliminate the contamination or could potentially damage the component. Therefore, the most effective solution would be to replace the component entirely to ensure the module functions properly and safely.

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  • 36. 

    In the F-15 emergency escape sequencing system, a mode 2 ejection occurs at speeds

    • Below 250 knots and altitudes above 15,000 feet

    • Below 250 knots and altitudes below 15,000 feet

    • In excess of 250 knots and altitudes above 15,000 feet

    • In excess of 250 knots and altitudes below 15,000 feet

    Correct Answer
    A. In excess of 250 knots and altitudes below 15,000 feet
  • 37. 

    The canopy can be jettisoned from the A-10 aircraft, without seat ejection by

    • Pulling the emergency manual parachute handle

    • Pulling either of the firing control handles

    • Firing one of the three M53 initiators

    • Firing one of the three M99 initiators

    Correct Answer
    A. Firing one of the three M99 initiators
    Explanation
    The correct answer is firing one of the three M99 initiators. The M99 initiators are responsible for initiating the explosive charges that release the canopy from the A-10 aircraft. By firing one of these initiators, the explosive charges are activated, allowing the canopy to be jettisoned without the need for seat ejection.

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  • 38. 

    What is the minimum permissible distance you can drive a vehicle toward an aircraft that has its engines running?

    • 25 feet front, 200 feet rear

    • 50 feet front, 200 feet rear

    • 100 feet front, 100 feet rear

    • 200 feet front, 100 feet rear

    Correct Answer
    A. 25 feet front, 200 feet rear
    Explanation
    When a vehicle is driving towards an aircraft with its engines running, it is important to maintain a safe distance to avoid any accidents or damage. The minimum permissible distance is 25 feet in the front and 200 feet in the rear. This ensures that there is enough space for the vehicle to maneuver and prevents any potential hazards that may arise from being too close to the aircraft.

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  • 39. 

    What device is used to produce voltage through the use of chemical reaction?

    • Photoresistive cells

    • Photovoltaic cells

    • Thermocouple

    • Voltaic cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Voltaic cells
    Explanation
    Voltaic cells are devices that generate voltage through a chemical reaction. They consist of two different electrodes immersed in an electrolyte solution. The chemical reaction between the electrodes and the electrolyte produces a flow of electrons, creating an electric current. This process is known as electrochemical reaction, where chemical energy is converted into electrical energy. Therefore, voltaic cells are used to produce voltage through the use of a chemical reaction.

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  • 40. 

    To be acceptable for the storage of explosives, a proposed facility must

    • Have at least two exits

    • Be protected from dry, cool temperatures

    • Contain a minimum of three fire extinguishers

    • Be protected from moisture and high temperatures

    Correct Answer
    A. Be protected from moisture and high temperatures
    Explanation
    To ensure the safe storage of explosives, it is crucial for the facility to be protected from moisture and high temperatures. This is because moisture can cause the explosives to become unstable and potentially explode, while high temperatures can also increase the risk of ignition. By protecting the facility from these factors, the chances of accidents or explosions are minimized, ensuring the safety of both the facility and its surroundings.

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  • 41. 

    What B-2 component is used to separate the hatch from the aircraft?

    • Confined detonation cord

    • Flexible linear shaped charge

    • Hatch separation assembly racetrack

    • Hatch separation assembly horseshoe

    Correct Answer
    A. Hatch separation assembly horseshoe
    Explanation
    The hatch separation assembly horseshoe is used to separate the hatch from the aircraft. This component is specifically designed for this purpose and ensures a secure and effective separation between the hatch and the aircraft. It is likely shaped like a horseshoe to provide the necessary strength and stability for this task.

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  • 42. 

    Which egress system component is designed to reposition mechanical linkages?

    • Initiator

    • Thruster

    • Catapult

    • Remover

    Correct Answer
    A. Thruster
    Explanation
    A thruster is a component of the egress system that is specifically designed to reposition mechanical linkages. It generates thrust or force to move the linkages, allowing for the repositioning of various components in the egress system. Initiator, catapult, and remover do not have the same function as a thruster in repositioning mechanical linkages.

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  • 43. 

    When an egress item's service life is due to expire, it must be

    • Added to the nearest inspection interval

    • Added to the next time replacement schedule

    • Changed at the occurrence of a specific condition

    • Changed and is never left until the next scheduled inspection

    Correct Answer
    A. Changed and is never left until the next scheduled inspection
    Explanation
    When an egress item's service life is due to expire, it must be changed and is never left until the next scheduled inspection. This means that the item should not be used beyond its service life and should be replaced immediately, rather than waiting for the next scheduled inspection. This ensures that the item remains in good working condition and does not pose any safety risks.

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  • 44. 

    Which action can help prevent a breakdown in the monitoring of time change items?

    • Use verbal location to identify time change items

    • Use mirrors to document items that are already installed

    • When doing several time items, complete all documentation first, then install all the time change items

    • Check to ensure that part numbers, serial numbers, lot numbers, and locations all match the work order

    Correct Answer
    A. Check to ensure that part numbers, serial numbers, lot numbers, and locations all match the work order
    Explanation
    Checking to ensure that part numbers, serial numbers, lot numbers, and locations all match the work order can help prevent a breakdown in the monitoring of time change items. This action ensures that the correct items are being installed in the correct locations, reducing the chances of errors or discrepancies in the monitoring process. By cross-referencing the information on the work order with the actual items being installed, any potential issues or mistakes can be identified and addressed before they cause a breakdown in the monitoring system.

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  • 45. 

    Where does the gas pressure come from that is diverted by the three-way check valve to fire the M53 booster initiator on the A-10 aircraft?

    • Ejection sequence initiator, internal canopy jettison initiator, or either of the external canopy jettison initiators

    • Either of the external canopy jettison initiators, or the canopy shear link actuator

    • The internal canopy jettison initiator, or the sequence valve

    • The sequence valve or the shear link actuator

    Correct Answer
    A. Ejection sequence initiator, internal canopy jettison initiator, or either of the external canopy jettison initiators
    Explanation
    The gas pressure that is diverted by the three-way check valve to fire the M53 booster initiator on the A-10 aircraft comes from either the ejection sequence initiator, the internal canopy jettison initiator, or either of the external canopy jettison initiators.

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  • 46. 

    Which B-1B crew station mode selectors must be in the AUTO position for an automatic mode ejection?

    • All mode selectors

    • Pilots mode selectors only

    • OSO and DSO mode selectors only

    • Pilots and copilots mode selectors only

    Correct Answer
    A. All mode selectors
    Explanation
    For an automatic mode ejection in a B-1B aircraft, all mode selectors must be in the AUTO position. This means that both the pilots' mode selectors and the copilots' mode selectors need to be set to AUTO. The mode selectors control various functions and settings within the crew station, and having them all in the AUTO position ensures that the ejection process will be carried out automatically without any manual intervention.

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  • 47. 

    Which B-1B crew stations are provided with worktable stowage thrusters?

    • Aft crew stations

    • Forward crew stations

    • Copilot crew station only

    • OSO crew station only

    Correct Answer
    A. Aft crew stations
    Explanation
    The correct answer is aft crew stations. This means that the worktable stowage thrusters are provided in the crew stations located at the back of the aircraft. These thrusters help in storing and securing worktables in place during flight. The forward crew stations, copilot crew station, and OSO crew station do not have these thrusters.

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  • 48. 

    Egress augmentees are required to receive refresher training and recertification on the particular egress system they maintain every

    • 3 years

    • 2 years

    • 18 months

    • 12 months

    Correct Answer
    A. 18 months
    Explanation
    Egress augmentees are required to receive refresher training and recertification on the particular egress system they maintain every 18 months. This means that after 18 months, they need to undergo training and recertification to ensure they are up to date with the knowledge and skills required to maintain the egress system. This periodic training and recertification helps to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the egress system and the personnel responsible for its maintenance.

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  • 49. 

    Responsibility for ensuring that explosive safety training is provided to applicable personnel rests with the

    • Supervisors

    • Unit commander

    • Unit Explosive Safety NCO

    • Personnel in the Maintenance Training Division

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit Explosive Safety NCO
    Explanation
    The unit Explosive Safety NCO is responsible for ensuring that explosive safety training is provided to applicable personnel. This individual is specifically trained in explosive safety protocols and regulations, and their role is to oversee and coordinate all aspects of explosive safety within the unit. They work closely with supervisors and unit commanders to ensure that all personnel receive the necessary training to safely handle explosives.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 15, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 15, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 30, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Ryan75840

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