3f351 CDC's Ure 4 Quiz Questions! Trivia

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  • 1/80 Questions

    The information necessary to decide which type of base a particular unit type code will be capable of deploying to is found in the

    • Basic plan and supporting supplements
    • MISCAP statement
    • Unit deployment description
    • Type unit characteristics file
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Military Training Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz titled '3F351 CDC's URE 4 Quiz Questions! Trivia' assesses knowledge on joint operation planning within the US armed forces, covering roles of CJCS, CCDR, SecDef, NSC, and strategic coordination. It's designed for learners aiming to understand military strategic processes.

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  • 2. 

    Which programs are used by installations commanders to alleviate shortfalls?

    • Augmentation duty and emergency essential programs

    • EE and innovative development through employee awareness programs

    • Fast Payback Capital Investment and resource augmentation duty programs

    • IDEA programs and READY programs

    Correct Answer
    A. Augmentation duty and emergency essential programs
    Explanation
    Installations commanders use augmentation duty and emergency essential programs to alleviate shortfalls. These programs help to provide additional personnel and resources in times of need or emergencies. Augmentation duty allows for the temporary assignment of personnel from other units or organizations to fill gaps in staffing, while emergency essential programs ensure that critical functions can continue to operate during emergencies or crises. These programs are essential for maintaining operational readiness and addressing any deficiencies or shortages that may arise.

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  • 3. 

    Which military service is not a military department within the DoD?

    • Coast Guard

    • Air Force

    • Army

    • Navy

    Correct Answer
    A. Coast Guard
    Explanation
    The Coast Guard is not a military department within the DoD because it falls under the jurisdiction of the Department of Homeland Security (DHS). While the Coast Guard is considered a military service and has a role in national defense, it primarily focuses on maritime law enforcement, search and rescue operations, and maintaining maritime safety and security. The other options listed (Air Force, Army, and Navy) are all military departments within the DoD.

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  • 4. 

    What is the principal system within the DoD to translate policy decisions into the joint combatant command's air ,land, and sea operations

    • JSPS

    • PPBE

    • JOPES

    • MEFPAK system

    Correct Answer
    A. JOPES
    Explanation
    JOPES stands for Joint Operation Planning and Execution System, which is the principal system within the DoD (Department of Defense) to translate policy decisions into the joint combatant command's air, land, and sea operations. JOPES is responsible for planning and executing military operations by providing a standardized process for joint force commanders to develop and coordinate operational plans and orders. It facilitates the integration of various military capabilities and resources to achieve mission objectives effectively and efficiently.

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  • 5. 

    How often is the USAF War and Mobilization Plan revised?

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Semiannually

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually
    Explanation
    The USAF War and Mobilization Plan is revised annually. This means that the plan is updated and reviewed once a year. By revising the plan annually, the USAF can ensure that it remains current and aligned with any changes in military strategies, technologies, or threats. Regular revisions also allow for adjustments to be made based on lessons learned from previous years, ensuring that the plan is effective and up to date.

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  • 6. 

    Which UTC suffix lets the planner know the UTC has reject conditions and has returned to the major command with changes during a HAF update?

    • 0

    • 3

    • 7

    • 9

    Correct Answer
    A. 9
    Explanation
    The UTC suffix "9" indicates that the planner knows the UTC has reject conditions and has returned to the major command with changes during a HAF update.

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  • 7. 

    A new UTC should not be requested when

    • New equipment types enter the inventory

    • Minor program changes occur in manpower or equipment

    • Deployable units experience a significant change in either operational concept or mission

    • Significant program or operational changes occur that reduce a unit's Status of Resources and Training System capability level below C-2

    Correct Answer
    A. Minor program changes occur in manpower or equipment
    Explanation
    A new UTC should not be requested when minor program changes occur in manpower or equipment because these changes do not have a significant impact on the unit's operational concept or mission. The UTC (Unit Type Code) is a standardized code that identifies the type and capabilities of a military unit. It is used for planning, organizing, and assigning resources. Minor program changes in manpower or equipment may require adjustments in the unit's operations, but they do not necessitate the creation of a new UTC.

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  • 8. 

    The Air Force planning and execution community supports the Joint Operation Planning and Execution Ststem by feeding AF unique data through the

    • MILPDS

    • MANFOR packaging system

    • MPES

    • DCAPES

    Correct Answer
    A. DCAPES
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DCAPES. DCAPES stands for Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution System. It is a planning and execution system used by the Air Force to support the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES). DCAPES allows the Air Force to input and share unique data that is specific to their operations. It helps in the coordination and execution of Air Force missions and supports the overall planning process.

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  • 9. 

    During mismatch resolution, a functional area manager may identify a suitable substitution for a particular AFSC as a solution to an identified

    • Authorization

    • Augmentation

    • Tasked unit

    • Shortfall

    Correct Answer
    A. Shortfall
    Explanation
    During mismatch resolution, a functional area manager may identify a suitable substitution for a particular AFSC as a solution to an identified shortfall. This means that if there is a shortage or lack of personnel with a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC), the manager can find a suitable replacement or substitution to fill that gap. This helps to ensure that the necessary tasks and responsibilities can still be carried out effectively, even if there is a shortfall in personnel with the required AFSC.

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  • 10. 

    A Military service does not include

    • DoD civil service personnel

    • All uniformed members

    • US Navy and Coast Guard

    • USAF

    Correct Answer
    A. DoD civil service personnel
    Explanation
    DoD civil service personnel are not included in military service because they are civilian employees of the Department of Defense (DoD) and do not serve in uniformed military roles. Military service typically refers to individuals who serve in the armed forces, such as uniformed members of the US Navy, Coast Guard, and USAF.

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  • 11. 

    Following redeployment, the military departments may reduce the number of civilian employees during which type of planning?

    • Sustainment

    • Deployment

    • Employment

    • Demomobilization

    Correct Answer
    A. Demomobilization
    Explanation
    Demobilization refers to the process of discharging military personnel and returning them to civilian status. During demobilization, the military departments may reduce the number of civilian employees as well. This is because, after a redeployment, there may no longer be a need for the same level of support staff or administrative personnel. Therefore, demobilization planning involves assessing the staffing requirements and making necessary adjustments to reduce the number of civilian employees.

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  • 12. 

    During a manpower mismatch resolution, who requests necessary unit manpower document changes to resolve problem areas?

    • Total force manager

    • Functional area manager

    • Logistical readiness officer

    • Installation deployment officer

    Correct Answer
    A. Functional area manager
    Explanation
    The functional area manager is responsible for overseeing the specific area of expertise within an organization. In the context of manpower mismatch resolution, the functional area manager would be the one who identifies the problem areas and requests necessary changes to the unit manpower documents in order to resolve them. They have the knowledge and understanding of the manpower requirements within their area of expertise, making them the appropriate person to address and resolve any discrepancies or imbalances in the workforce.

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  • 13. 

    Which command has a broad, continuing mission under a single commander and is composed of significant assigned components of two or more military departments?

    • Subordinate unified

    • Unified combatant

    • Specified combatant

    • Joint task force

    Correct Answer
    A. Unified combatant
    Explanation
    A unified combatant command is a command that has a broad, continuing mission under a single commander and is composed of significant assigned components of two or more military departments. It is responsible for specific areas of operation and has the authority to organize and employ forces as necessary to accomplish its mission. This type of command brings together resources and capabilities from multiple branches of the military to achieve unified objectives.

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  • 14. 

    At a deployed site, which type of information is not recorded in the events log?

    • Briefings provided

    • Changes in operational status

    • Number of personnel arriving in the theater

    • Requests for organizational and requirements change

    Correct Answer
    A. Number of personnel arriving in the theater
    Explanation
    The events log at a deployed site records various types of information related to the site's operations and activities. This includes briefings provided to personnel, changes in operational status, and requests for organizational and requirements change. However, the number of personnel arriving in the theater is not typically recorded in the events log. This information may be tracked separately through other means, such as personnel records or arrival/departure logs.

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  • 15. 

    Who is responsible for joint operation planning?

    • President

    • Vice-President

    • SecDef

    • CJCS and CCDR

    Correct Answer
    A. CJCS and CCDR
    Explanation
    The CJCS (Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff) and CCDR (Combatant Commander) are responsible for joint operation planning. The CJCS is the highest-ranking military officer in the United States Armed Forces and serves as the principal military advisor to the President. The CCDRs are responsible for the planning and execution of military operations within their respective geographic or functional areas of responsibility. Together, they collaborate and coordinate joint operation planning to ensure the effectiveness and success of military operations.

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  • 16. 

    When does a unit's parent major command initiate the review of designed operational capability statements?

    • Annually on the statement anniversary

    • Semiannually on the statement anniversary

    • Annually prior to the statement anniversary

    • Semiannually prior to the statement anniversary

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually prior to the statement anniversary
    Explanation
    A unit's parent major command initiates the review of designed operational capability statements annually prior to the statement anniversary. This means that the review takes place once a year, specifically before the anniversary of the statement. This ensures that the unit's operational capability statements are regularly assessed and updated as necessary.

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  • 17. 

    Who is the Air Force specialty representative in the readiness community?

    • FAM

    • Personnel readiness unit

    • Unit deployment manager

    • Installation deployment

    Correct Answer
    A. FAM
    Explanation
    The correct answer is FAM, which stands for Force Air Force specialty representative in the readiness community. This individual is responsible for ensuring that personnel are prepared and ready for deployment. They work closely with the personnel readiness unit and the unit deployment manager to coordinate and manage the deployment process. The FAM plays a crucial role in ensuring that the Air Force is prepared and ready to respond to any mission or task.

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  • 18. 

    Once the manpower and organization office is established at a deployed location, the purpose of the mission briefing is to

    • Provide manning numbers to the commander

    • Update the commander on any actions that affects the organizational structure

    • Provide key personnel a clear understanding of the responsibility, capabilities, and services provided by the MO office

    • Coordinate authorization change request with the commander before forwarding them to the commanders of the unified commands for approval

    Correct Answer
    A. Provide key personnel a clear understanding of the responsibility, capabilities, and services provided by the MO office
    Explanation
    The purpose of the mission briefing is to provide key personnel a clear understanding of the responsibility, capabilities, and services provided by the MO office. This ensures that the personnel are aware of their roles and responsibilities within the organization and have a clear understanding of the services and support that the MO office can provide. It helps in effective coordination and communication within the organization and ensures that everyone is on the same page regarding the mission objectives and the resources available to achieve them.

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  • 19. 

    In the joint operation planning process, once a situation is analyzed, you, as the planner will

    • Complete a mission analysis

    • Forward analysis to supervisor

    • Develop carious courses of action

    • Start war gaming

    Correct Answer
    A. Develop carious courses of action
    Explanation
    In the joint operation planning process, once a situation is analyzed, the planner will develop various courses of action. This involves brainstorming and creating different possible plans or strategies to address the situation at hand. By developing multiple courses of action, the planner can consider different approaches and evaluate their potential outcomes, strengths, and weaknesses. This step is crucial in the planning process as it allows for flexibility and the ability to adapt to changing circumstances during the operation.

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  • 20. 

    Which type of deliberate plan is used for situations that extend major combat operations across combatant command boundaries?

    • Campaign

    • Supporting

    • Contingency

    • Global campaign

    Correct Answer
    A. Global campaign
    Explanation
    A global campaign is the type of deliberate plan used for situations that extend major combat operations across combatant command boundaries. This type of plan is necessary when military operations involve multiple combatant commands and require coordination and cooperation on a global scale. A global campaign ensures that all relevant commands are working together towards a common objective, utilizing their resources and capabilities in a synchronized manner. It allows for a comprehensive and unified approach to achieve strategic goals in complex and widespread military operations.

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  • 21. 

    Which type of execution planning order is required to authorize the actual movement of forces to process on C-day?

    • Alert

    • Execute

    • Warning

    • PLanning

    Correct Answer
    A. Execute
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Execute". This is because the question is asking for the type of execution planning order that authorizes the actual movement of forces to process on C-day. "Execute" is the only option that directly relates to the authorization and movement of forces, while the other options (Alert, Warning, Planning) do not specifically address this requirement.

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  • 22. 

    Which document consist of parts 1 through 3 within volume 4 of the USAF WMP and identifies each geographical location that has aircraft passing through it or operating out of it during war?

    • Base support plan (BSP)

    • Operation plan (OPLAN)

    • Wartime aircraft activity (WAA)

    • Mission-oriented items activity (MOIA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Wartime aircraft activity (WAA)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Wartime aircraft activity (WAA). This document, which is part of volume 4 of the USAF WMP, identifies each geographical location that has aircraft passing through it or operating out of it during war. It provides information about the activity and movement of aircraft during wartime operations. The WAA helps in coordinating and managing the aircraft operations during war and ensures effective utilization of resources.

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  • 23. 

    War planers use UTC to document requirements for which types of planning?

    • Crisis action and initial

    • Deliberate and execution

    • Execution and crisis action

    • Deliberate and crisis action

    Correct Answer
    A. Deliberate and crisis action
    Explanation
    War planners use UTC (Universal Coordinated Time) to document requirements for deliberate and crisis action planning. Deliberate planning involves long-term strategic planning, where war planners carefully consider various options and make decisions based on extensive analysis and evaluation. Crisis action planning, on the other hand, is a rapid response planning process that occurs in real-time during an ongoing crisis or emergency situation. By using UTC to document requirements for both types of planning, war planners can ensure effective coordination and synchronization of military operations across different time zones and locations.

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  • 24. 

    Who is the final approval authority for changes to the operation plan time-phased force and deployment data?

    • Component planners

    • Component operations

    • Supported commander

    • Supporting commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Supported commander
    Explanation
    The supported commander is the final approval authority for changes to the operation plan time-phased force and deployment data. This means that the commander who is receiving support from other units or organizations has the authority to approve any changes to the plan. The supported commander is responsible for making decisions and ensuring that the plan is executed effectively.

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  • 25. 

    The principal forum for deliberating national security issues is the

    • NSC

    • SecDef

    • AFMRF

    • JPEC

    Correct Answer
    A. NSC
    Explanation
    The correct answer is NSC, which stands for National Security Council. The NSC is the primary forum where national security issues are discussed and deliberated upon. It is responsible for advising the President on matters related to national security and coordinating the efforts of various government agencies involved in national security. The NSC plays a crucial role in formulating and implementing policies to protect and promote the security interests of the nation.

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  • 26. 

    What system is used to translate policy decisions into operation plans and operation orders in support of national security objectives?

    • JSPS

    • PPBE

    • JOPES

    • MEFPAK

    Correct Answer
    A. JOPES
    Explanation
    JOPES stands for Joint Operation Planning and Execution System. It is a system used to translate policy decisions into operation plans and operation orders in support of national security objectives. JOPES provides a standardized process and tools for military planning and execution, ensuring effective coordination and integration of resources and forces. It helps in the development of detailed plans and orders for military operations, ensuring that all aspects of the operation are properly planned and executed. JOPES plays a crucial role in achieving national security objectives by enabling efficient and effective military planning and execution.

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  • 27. 

    The specific manpower required to perform the mission as defined in the unit type code's mission capability statement is found in the

    • JSPS

    • TUCHA file

    • MANFOR Packaging System

    • Air and space expeditionary force unit type code reporting tool (ART)

    Correct Answer
    A. MANFOR Packaging System
    Explanation
    The MANFOR Packaging System is the correct answer because it is the system that provides information on the specific manpower required to perform the mission as defined in the unit type code's mission capability statement. This system helps in determining the manpower needs and packaging them accordingly for the mission. The JSPS and TUCHA file are not directly related to providing information on manpower requirements, and the Air and Space Expeditionary Force Unit Type Code Reporting Tool (ART) is also not specifically mentioned in relation to the manpower required for the mission.

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  • 28. 

    All of the following data are translated through Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments except

    • Real-world crisis execution

    • Unit manning documents

    • Local exercise taskings

    • Contingency planning

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit manning documents
    Explanation
    Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments are responsible for translating data related to contingency planning, real-world crisis execution, and local exercise taskings. However, unit manning documents are not translated through these segments.

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  • 29. 

    During the AFSC cross utilization, officer requirements may be satisfied by substituting

    • One grade higher or lower

    • One skill level higher or lower

    • Two grades lower

    • Two skill levels higher

    Correct Answer
    A. One grade higher or lower
    Explanation
    During the AFSC cross utilization, officer requirements can be fulfilled by substituting one grade higher or lower. This means that an officer can be assigned to a position that is either one rank higher or one rank lower than their current rank. This flexibility allows for the efficient utilization of officers within the Air Force, ensuring that positions are filled appropriately based on skill and experience levels.

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  • 30. 

    During AFSC cross utilization, enlisted requirements may be satisfied by substituting two

    • Grades lower

    • Skill levels lower

    • Grades higher

    • Skill levels higher

    Correct Answer
    A. Skill levels higher
    Explanation
    During AFSC cross utilization, enlisted requirements may be satisfied by substituting skill levels higher. This means that individuals with higher skill levels can fulfill the requirements of a lower skill level position. This allows for flexibility in assigning personnel to different roles based on their skill and experience levels. By substituting skill levels higher, the Air Force can ensure that the necessary tasks and responsibilities of a particular position are still met, even if the individual may not have the exact skill level originally required.

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  • 31. 

    The air and space expeditionary force schedule operates on a life cycle of how many months?

    • 4

    • 6

    • 12

    • 24

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    The air and space expeditionary force schedule operates on a life cycle of 24 months. This means that every 24 months, the schedule is refreshed and a new cycle begins. This allows for proper planning and organization of air and space missions, ensuring that resources and personnel are allocated effectively. By having a longer life cycle, it also allows for more flexibility in scheduling and adapting to changing needs and priorities.

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  • 32. 

    The ultimate decision on national policy and overall strategic direction of the United States armed forces is provided by the

    • NSC

    • SecDef

    • AFMRF

    • JPEC

    Correct Answer
    A. SecDef
    Explanation
    The ultimate decision on national policy and overall strategic direction of the United States armed forces is provided by the Secretary of Defense (SecDef). This individual is responsible for advising the President on defense matters and implementing the decisions made by the National Security Council (NSC). The SecDef oversees the Department of Defense and plays a crucial role in shaping and executing the military policies of the United States.

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  • 33. 

    In the type unit characteristics file database, the distinguishing factor that exist between a standard and nonstandard UTC is that a standard UTC has

    • UTC suffix code 3

    • UTC suffix code 4

    • Partial movement characteristics

    • Complete movement characteristics

    Correct Answer
    A. Complete movement characteristics
    Explanation
    A standard UTC is distinguished from a nonstandard UTC by its complete movement characteristics. This means that a standard UTC has all the necessary information and specifications for its movement, while a nonstandard UTC may have partial movement characteristics or incomplete information regarding its movement.

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  • 34. 

    Which option is not accomplished by adaptive planning?

    • Provides more and better options

    • Triggers updates of existing plans

    • Allocates budget funds for next fiscal year

    • Promotes increased agility in plan implementation

    Correct Answer
    A. Allocates budget funds for next fiscal year
    Explanation
    Adaptive planning involves adjusting plans and strategies based on changing circumstances. It focuses on providing more and better options, triggering updates of existing plans, and promoting increased agility in plan implementation. Allocating budget funds for the next fiscal year, on the other hand, is not directly related to adaptive planning as it is a separate financial management process.

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  • 35. 

    In a deployed environment, who or what agency is the approval authority for an authorization change request?

    • The pilot unit

    • Combatant Commanders (CCDR)

    • MAJCOM that deployed the unit type code

    • The director of Manpower, Org, and Resources

    Correct Answer
    A. Combatant Commanders (CCDR)
    Explanation
    In a deployed environment, the approval authority for an authorization change request is the Combatant Commanders (CCDR). The CCDR is responsible for overseeing military operations within their assigned geographic area of responsibility. They have the authority to approve or deny authorization change requests based on the operational needs and requirements of the mission.

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  • 36. 

    Through a structured review , assessment, and modification process, joint plans are constantly assessed and updated by the

    • Joint force support staff

    • JCS

    • (JFC) joint force commander

    • JPEC

    Correct Answer
    A. (JFC) joint force commander
    Explanation
    The joint force commander (JFC) is responsible for constantly assessing and updating joint plans through a structured review, assessment, and modification process. This ensures that the plans are kept up to date and effective in achieving the objectives of the joint force. The JFC collaborates with the joint force support staff, JCS, and JPEC to ensure that the plans are comprehensive and well-coordinated.

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  • 37. 

    How often after the UTC data is developed does the responsible command review and update packages?

    • Quarterly

    • Annually

    • Biennially

    • Triennially

    Correct Answer
    A. Biennially
    Explanation
    The responsible command reviews and updates packages every two years, which is known as biennially. This means that they conduct this process once every two years to ensure that the UTC data is up-to-date and accurate.

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  • 38. 

    What is the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System database part of an operation plan that planners use to identify the movement data associated with deploying forces?

    • TUCHA file

    • MANFOR Packaging System

    • TPFDD

    • Air and space expeditionary force UTC reporting tool

    Correct Answer
    A. TPFDD
    Explanation
    The TPFDD (Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data) is the correct answer. The TPFDD is a database that is part of the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) and is used by planners to identify the movement data associated with deploying forces. It provides information on the timing and sequencing of forces and resources needed for a specific operation plan. The TPFDD helps in coordinating and synchronizing the deployment of forces, ensuring that the right resources are available at the right time and place.

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  • 39. 

    In the joint planning cycle, the deliberate planning process begins with the

    • National command Authorities mission tasking

    • Office of the President's Defense Programming Guidance

    • SecDef annual Contingency Planning guidance

    • Joint planning and execution community's annual CPG

    Correct Answer
    A. SecDef annual Contingency Planning guidance
    Explanation
    The deliberate planning process in the joint planning cycle begins with the SecDef annual Contingency Planning guidance. This guidance is provided by the Secretary of Defense and serves as a framework for developing military plans and strategies. It outlines the priorities, objectives, and requirements for contingency operations. The SecDef annual Contingency Planning guidance is crucial in setting the direction and focus for the planning efforts of the joint planning and execution community.

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  • 40. 

    To calculate available resources as a base-level planner, you conduct a base-level planning process assessment by subtracting the number deploying from the in-place resources and

    • Dividing the man-hour availability factor by the total

    • Subtracting additional resources deploying in

    • Adding any additional resources deploying in

    • Multiplying by the minimum manning needed

    Correct Answer
    A. Adding any additional resources deploying in
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "adding any additional resources deploying in". This means that when calculating available resources as a base-level planner, you need to add any additional resources that are deploying in. This is done after subtracting the number deploying from the in-place resources and dividing the man-hour availability factor by the total. Finally, the result is multiplied by the minimum manning needed.

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  • 41. 

    Which command is established on a geographical of functional basis for a mission with a specific, limited objective and dissolved when the purpose for which it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer needed?

    • Subordinate unified

    • Specified combatant

    • JTF

    • Unified combatant command

    Correct Answer
    A. JTF
    Explanation
    A Joint Task Force (JTF) is established on a geographical or functional basis for a mission with a specific, limited objective. It is dissolved when the purpose for which it was created has been achieved or when it is no longer needed. Unlike a Unified Combatant Command, which is a permanent command structure, a JTF is temporary and formed for a specific mission or operation. Therefore, the JTF is the correct answer in this case.

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  • 42. 

    Which command authority allows for organizing and employing forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to carry out the mission?

    • Operational control (OPCON)

    • Administrative control (ADCON)

    • Combatant command (COCOM)

    • Service component

    Correct Answer
    A. Operational control (OPCON)
    Explanation
    Operational control (OPCON) is the correct answer because it refers to the command authority that allows for organizing and employing forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to carry out the mission. OPCON is typically exercised by commanders at the operational level and is focused on the tactical execution of missions. Administrative control (ADCON) refers to the authority to organize, direct, coordinate, and control military forces for administrative purposes. Combatant command (COCOM) refers to the command authority over assigned forces, regardless of their location, and is exercised by combatant commanders. Service component refers to the subordinate echelons of a combatant command, representing a specific military service.

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  • 43. 

    The command authority that gives the military departments authority over subordinate organizations in regards to support is

    • COCOM

    • OPCON

    • ADCON

    • TACON

    Correct Answer
    A. ADCON
    Explanation
    ADCON stands for Administrative Control, which is the command authority that gives the military departments authority over subordinate organizations in regards to support. This means that the military departments have control over the administrative and logistical support of their subordinate organizations, such as personnel, equipment, and supplies. ADCON allows the military departments to ensure that their subordinate organizations have the necessary resources and support to carry out their missions effectively.

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  • 44. 

    Which type of joint operation planning is directed toward assembling and organizing national resources to support national objectives in time of war and for military operations other than war (MOOTW)

    • Sustainment

    • Deployment

    • Mobilization

    • Redeployment

    Correct Answer
    A. Mobilization
    Explanation
    Mobilization is the correct answer because it refers to the joint operation planning that involves assembling and organizing national resources to support national objectives during times of war and for military operations other than war (MOOTW). Mobilization involves the activation and preparation of military forces, as well as the coordination and integration of various resources and capabilities to effectively respond to the requirements of the mission. This process ensures that the necessary personnel, equipment, and supplies are available and ready to be deployed and employed in support of national objectives.

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  • 45. 

    Who may issue a planning order instead of a warning order based on the urgency of the situation?

    • Unified commander

    • Combatant commander

    • Major command commander

    • Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staffs

    Correct Answer
    A. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staffs
    Explanation
    The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staffs may issue a planning order instead of a warning order based on the urgency of the situation. This implies that the Chairman has the authority to bypass the standard warning order and directly issue a planning order if the situation requires immediate action or planning. This decision-making power is likely granted to the Chairman due to their high-ranking position and overall responsibility for coordinating military operations.

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  • 46. 

    Which plan establishes requirements for the development of mobilization and production planning programs to support sustained contingency operations of the programmed forces?

    • Strategic

    • Deliberate

    • Crisis Action

    • War and Mobilization

    Correct Answer
    A. War and Mobilization
    Explanation
    The plan that establishes requirements for the development of mobilization and production planning programs to support sustained contingency operations of the programmed forces is the War and Mobilization plan. This plan outlines the necessary steps and resources needed to effectively mobilize and produce the required forces during times of war or other contingency operations. It ensures that the necessary manpower, equipment, and supplies are available to support sustained operations and maintain readiness.

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  • 47. 

    The joint operation process (JOPP) focuses on

    • Defining the military mission

    • Synchronizing budgets

    • Producing a time-phased document

    • Ensuring the support of allied nations

    Correct Answer
    A. Defining the military mission
    Explanation
    The joint operation process (JOPP) is a planning methodology used by the military to ensure effective coordination and execution of operations. One of the key steps in this process is defining the military mission. This involves clearly articulating the objectives, tasks, and desired end state of the operation. By defining the military mission, the JOPP enables the development of a comprehensive plan that aligns resources, capabilities, and actions towards achieving the mission's goals. This step is crucial in setting the direction and focus of the operation, guiding decision-making, and facilitating effective communication and coordination among different military units and allied nations involved in the operation.

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  • 48. 

    When used in concert, force modules provide capabilities to open, establish, and operate

    • An air expeditionary wing

    • A squadron

    • A command

    • An air base

    Correct Answer
    A. An air expeditionary wing
    Explanation
    Force modules, when used together, offer the necessary capabilities to open, establish, and operate various military units or facilities. In this case, the correct answer is "an air expeditionary wing." An air expeditionary wing is a self-contained unit that can be rapidly deployed and has the ability to sustain itself in a combat environment. It is composed of various force modules, such as squadrons and commands, which work together to support the operations of the air expeditionary wing.

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  • 49. 

    The air and space expeditionary task force force module that is considered part of the baseline structure for the AETF is

    • Establish the airbase

    • Generate the mission

    • Operate the airbase

    • Robust the airbase

    Correct Answer
    A. Robust the airbase
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "robust the airbase". In the context of the given question, the AETF (Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force) requires a force module that is considered part of its baseline structure. This force module's role is to make the airbase robust, which means to strengthen and enhance its capabilities. This includes ensuring the airbase is well-equipped, prepared for various missions, and able to withstand and adapt to different operational requirements.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 18, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 18, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 03, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    Ryan

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