3f351 CDC's Ure 4 Quiz Questions! Trivia

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Who is responsible for joint operation planning?

    • A. 

      President

    • B. 

      Vice-President

    • C. 

      SecDef

    • D. 

      CJCS and CCDR

    Correct Answer
    D. CJCS and CCDR
    Explanation
    The CJCS (Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff) and CCDR (Combatant Commander) are responsible for joint operation planning. The CJCS is the highest-ranking military officer in the United States Armed Forces and serves as the principal military advisor to the President. The CCDRs are responsible for the planning and execution of military operations within their respective geographic or functional areas of responsibility. Together, they collaborate and coordinate joint operation planning to ensure the effectiveness and success of military operations.

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  • 2. 

    The ultimate decision on national policy and overall strategic direction of the United States armed forces is provided by the

    • A. 

      NSC

    • B. 

      SecDef

    • C. 

      AFMRF

    • D. 

      JPEC

    Correct Answer
    B. SecDef
    Explanation
    The ultimate decision on national policy and overall strategic direction of the United States armed forces is provided by the Secretary of Defense (SecDef). This individual is responsible for advising the President on defense matters and implementing the decisions made by the National Security Council (NSC). The SecDef oversees the Department of Defense and plays a crucial role in shaping and executing the military policies of the United States.

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  • 3. 

    The principal forum for deliberating national security issues is the

    • A. 

      NSC

    • B. 

      SecDef

    • C. 

      AFMRF

    • D. 

      JPEC

    Correct Answer
    A. NSC
    Explanation
    The correct answer is NSC, which stands for National Security Council. The NSC is the primary forum where national security issues are discussed and deliberated upon. It is responsible for advising the President on matters related to national security and coordinating the efforts of various government agencies involved in national security. The NSC plays a crucial role in formulating and implementing policies to protect and promote the security interests of the nation.

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  • 4. 

    Which type of joint operation planning is directed toward assembling and organizing national resources to support national objectives in time of war and for military operations other than war (MOOTW)

    • A. 

      Sustainment

    • B. 

      Deployment

    • C. 

      Mobilization

    • D. 

      Redeployment

    Correct Answer
    C. Mobilization
    Explanation
    Mobilization is the correct answer because it refers to the joint operation planning that involves assembling and organizing national resources to support national objectives during times of war and for military operations other than war (MOOTW). Mobilization involves the activation and preparation of military forces, as well as the coordination and integration of various resources and capabilities to effectively respond to the requirements of the mission. This process ensures that the necessary personnel, equipment, and supplies are available and ready to be deployed and employed in support of national objectives.

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  • 5. 

    Following redeployment, the military departments may reduce the number of civilian employees during which type of planning?

    • A. 

      Sustainment

    • B. 

      Deployment

    • C. 

      Employment

    • D. 

      Demomobilization

    Correct Answer
    D. Demomobilization
    Explanation
    Demobilization refers to the process of discharging military personnel and returning them to civilian status. During demobilization, the military departments may reduce the number of civilian employees as well. This is because, after a redeployment, there may no longer be a need for the same level of support staff or administrative personnel. Therefore, demobilization planning involves assessing the staffing requirements and making necessary adjustments to reduce the number of civilian employees.

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  • 6. 

    What is used to provide the required strategic direction to coordinate the planning efforts of the combatant commanders in pursuit of national strategic objectives?

    • A. 

      Joint Planning Document (JPD)

    • B. 

      National Military Strategy (NMS)

    • C. 

      Contingency Planning Guidance (CPG)

    • D. 

      Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP)

    Correct Answer
    D. Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP)
    Explanation
    The Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP) is used to provide the required strategic direction to coordinate the planning efforts of the combatant commanders in pursuit of national strategic objectives. The JSCP outlines the specific capabilities and resources that are available to the combatant commanders and guides their planning and decision-making processes. It ensures that the combatant commanders are aligned with the overall national strategic objectives and allows for effective coordination and synchronization of military operations.

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  • 7. 

    Through a structured review , assessment, and modification process, joint plans are constantly assessed and updated by the

    • A. 

      Joint force support staff

    • B. 

      JCS

    • C. 

      (JFC) joint force commander

    • D. 

      JPEC

    Correct Answer
    C. (JFC) joint force commander
    Explanation
    The joint force commander (JFC) is responsible for constantly assessing and updating joint plans through a structured review, assessment, and modification process. This ensures that the plans are kept up to date and effective in achieving the objectives of the joint force. The JFC collaborates with the joint force support staff, JCS, and JPEC to ensure that the plans are comprehensive and well-coordinated.

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  • 8. 

    The joint operation process (JOPP) focuses on

    • A. 

      Defining the military mission

    • B. 

      Synchronizing budgets

    • C. 

      Producing a time-phased document

    • D. 

      Ensuring the support of allied nations

    Correct Answer
    A. Defining the military mission
    Explanation
    The joint operation process (JOPP) is a planning methodology used by the military to ensure effective coordination and execution of operations. One of the key steps in this process is defining the military mission. This involves clearly articulating the objectives, tasks, and desired end state of the operation. By defining the military mission, the JOPP enables the development of a comprehensive plan that aligns resources, capabilities, and actions towards achieving the mission's goals. This step is crucial in setting the direction and focus of the operation, guiding decision-making, and facilitating effective communication and coordination among different military units and allied nations involved in the operation.

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  • 9. 

    In which step of the joint operation planning process does HQ USAF advise component Air Force commanders of the resources available to support joint requirements?

    • A. 

      1-Planning initiation

    • B. 

      2- Mission analysis

    • C. 

      3- Course of action development

    • D. 

      4-Course of action analysis and war gaming

    Correct Answer
    A. 1-Planning initiation
    Explanation
    In the planning initiation step of the joint operation planning process, HQ USAF advises component Air Force commanders of the resources available to support joint requirements. This step marks the beginning of the planning process where initial guidance and direction are provided to commanders. It is during this phase that the available resources are identified and communicated to the component commanders, enabling them to make informed decisions and develop plans accordingly.

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  • 10. 

    During which step in the joint operation planning process does the planner identify the forces needed to support the proposed operation?

    • A. 

      1-Planning initiation

    • B. 

      2-Mission analysis

    • C. 

      3-Course of action development

    • D. 

      4-Course of action analysis and war gaming

    Correct Answer
    B. 2-Mission analysis
    Explanation
    During the mission analysis step in the joint operation planning process, the planner identifies the forces needed to support the proposed operation. This step involves a comprehensive assessment of the mission objectives, tasks, and requirements, including the identification of the specific forces and capabilities required to accomplish the mission. By conducting a thorough mission analysis, the planner can determine the appropriate force composition and allocation necessary to achieve the desired outcomes of the operation.

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  • 11. 

    In the joint operation planning process, once a situation is analyzed, you, as the planner will

    • A. 

      Complete a mission analysis

    • B. 

      Forward analysis to supervisor

    • C. 

      Develop carious courses of action

    • D. 

      Start war gaming

    Correct Answer
    C. Develop carious courses of action
    Explanation
    In the joint operation planning process, once a situation is analyzed, the planner will develop various courses of action. This involves brainstorming and creating different possible plans or strategies to address the situation at hand. By developing multiple courses of action, the planner can consider different approaches and evaluate their potential outcomes, strengths, and weaknesses. This step is crucial in the planning process as it allows for flexibility and the ability to adapt to changing circumstances during the operation.

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  • 12. 

    The staff completes the commander's estimate during which step of the joint operation planning process?

    • A. 

      1-Planning initiation

    • B. 

      2-Mission analysis

    • C. 

      4-Course of action analysis and war gaming

    • D. 

      6-Course of action approval

    Correct Answer
    D. 6-Course of action approval
    Explanation
    During the course of action approval step of the joint operation planning process, the staff completes the commander's estimate. This step involves the commander reviewing and evaluating the various courses of action developed by the staff, and ultimately selecting the most suitable one. The staff's completion of the commander's estimate during this step indicates that they have thoroughly analyzed and assessed the potential courses of action, and have provided their recommendations to the commander for final approval.

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  • 13. 

    What type of planning is used during peacetime for future hypothetical combat operations?

    • A. 

      Strategic

    • B. 

      Deliberate

    • C. 

      Operation

    • D. 

      Crisis action

    Correct Answer
    B. Deliberate
    Explanation
    During peacetime, deliberate planning is used to prepare for future hypothetical combat operations. This type of planning involves a thorough and systematic analysis of potential scenarios, considering various factors such as resources, objectives, and potential risks. It allows military commanders to develop detailed and comprehensive plans that can be implemented when needed. Deliberate planning ensures that all aspects of a potential operation are carefully considered and allows for the development of well-thought-out strategies and courses of action.

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  • 14. 

    In the joint planning cycle, the deliberate planning process begins with the

    • A. 

      National command Authorities mission tasking

    • B. 

      Office of the President's Defense Programming Guidance

    • C. 

      SecDef annual Contingency Planning guidance

    • D. 

      Joint planning and execution community's annual CPG

    Correct Answer
    C. SecDef annual Contingency Planning guidance
    Explanation
    The deliberate planning process in the joint planning cycle begins with the SecDef annual Contingency Planning guidance. This guidance is provided by the Secretary of Defense and serves as a framework for developing military plans and strategies. It outlines the priorities, objectives, and requirements for contingency operations. The SecDef annual Contingency Planning guidance is crucial in setting the direction and focus for the planning efforts of the joint planning and execution community.

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  • 15. 

    When the United States is left with no recourse except the address scenarios through military actions. the planner uses deliberate planning to develop what type of plan?

    • A. 

      Campaign

    • B. 

      Supporting

    • C. 

      Contingency

    • D. 

      Global Campaign

    Correct Answer
    A. Campaign
    Explanation
    When the United States is left with no recourse except to address scenarios through military actions, the planner uses deliberate planning to develop a campaign plan. A campaign plan is a comprehensive and strategic plan that outlines the objectives, resources, and actions required to achieve a specific military goal. It involves the coordination of multiple military operations and activities over an extended period of time. This type of plan is necessary when military actions are the only option available to address a situation effectively.

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  • 16. 

    Which type of deliberate plan is used for situations that extend major combat operations across combatant command boundaries?

    • A. 

      Campaign

    • B. 

      Supporting

    • C. 

      Contingency

    • D. 

      Global campaign

    Correct Answer
    D. Global campaign
    Explanation
    A global campaign is the type of deliberate plan used for situations that extend major combat operations across combatant command boundaries. This type of plan is necessary when military operations involve multiple combatant commands and require coordination and cooperation on a global scale. A global campaign ensures that all relevant commands are working together towards a common objective, utilizing their resources and capabilities in a synchronized manner. It allows for a comprehensive and unified approach to achieve strategic goals in complex and widespread military operations.

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  • 17. 

    Which type of execution planning orders initiates development of a course of action?

    • A. 

      Alert

    • B. 

      Execute

    • C. 

      Warning

    • D. 

      PLaning

    Correct Answer
    C. Warning
  • 18. 

    Who may issue a planning order instead of a warning order based on the urgency of the situation?

    • A. 

      Unified commander

    • B. 

      Combatant commander

    • C. 

      Major command commander

    • D. 

      Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staffs

    Correct Answer
    D. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staffs
    Explanation
    The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staffs may issue a planning order instead of a warning order based on the urgency of the situation. This implies that the Chairman has the authority to bypass the standard warning order and directly issue a planning order if the situation requires immediate action or planning. This decision-making power is likely granted to the Chairman due to their high-ranking position and overall responsibility for coordinating military operations.

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  • 19. 

    Which type of execution planning order gives the commanders of the unified commands all essential execution planning information and the JCS-approves course of action?

    • A. 

      Alert

    • B. 

      Execute

    • C. 

      Warning

    • D. 

      Planning

    Correct Answer
    D. Planning
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Planning." In the context of the question, "Planning" refers to the type of execution planning order that provides commanders of unified commands with all the necessary execution planning information and a course of action that is approved by the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS). This indicates that the "Planning" phase involves comprehensive preparation and coordination to ensure that commanders have the required information and a JCS-approved plan to carry out their operations effectively.

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  • 20. 

    Which type of execution planning order incorporates the president and secretary of defense's approval of the course derived from the JCS consultations?

    • A. 

      Alert

    • B. 

      Execute

    • C. 

      Warning

    • D. 

      Planning

    Correct Answer
    A. Alert
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Alert." In the context of the question, the term "Alert" refers to a type of execution planning order that requires the approval of the president and secretary of defense. This order is derived from consultations with the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS). The inclusion of the president and secretary of defense in the approval process suggests that the decision being made is of high importance and requires top-level authorization.

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  • 21. 

    Which type of execution planning order refines the estimated C-day and L-hour and confirms lift allocations for the deploying forces

    • A. 

      Alert

    • B. 

      Execute

    • C. 

      Warning

    • D. 

      Planning

    Correct Answer
    A. Alert
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Alert". In the context of execution planning, an alert is a type of notification or signal that refines the estimated C-day (the day of deployment) and L-hour (the time of deployment) and confirms the allocation of lift (transportation) resources for the deploying forces. This means that when an alert is received, the planning and preparation for the deployment are finalized and the specific details regarding the timing and resources are confirmed.

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  • 22. 

    Which type of execution planning order is required to authorize the actual movement of forces to process on C-day?

    • A. 

      Alert

    • B. 

      Execute

    • C. 

      Warning

    • D. 

      PLanning

    Correct Answer
    B. Execute
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Execute". This is because the question is asking for the type of execution planning order that authorizes the actual movement of forces to process on C-day. "Execute" is the only option that directly relates to the authorization and movement of forces, while the other options (Alert, Warning, Planning) do not specifically address this requirement.

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  • 23. 

    What system is used to translate policy decisions into operation plans and operation orders in support of national security objectives?

    • A. 

      JSPS

    • B. 

      PPBE

    • C. 

      JOPES

    • D. 

      MEFPAK

    Correct Answer
    C. JOPES
    Explanation
    JOPES stands for Joint Operation Planning and Execution System. It is a system used to translate policy decisions into operation plans and operation orders in support of national security objectives. JOPES provides a standardized process and tools for military planning and execution, ensuring effective coordination and integration of resources and forces. It helps in the development of detailed plans and orders for military operations, ensuring that all aspects of the operation are properly planned and executed. JOPES plays a crucial role in achieving national security objectives by enabling efficient and effective military planning and execution.

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  • 24. 

    What is the principal system within the DoD to translate policy decisions into the joint combatant command's air ,land, and sea operations

    • A. 

      JSPS

    • B. 

      PPBE

    • C. 

      JOPES

    • D. 

      MEFPAK system

    Correct Answer
    C. JOPES
    Explanation
    JOPES stands for Joint Operation Planning and Execution System, which is the principal system within the DoD (Department of Defense) to translate policy decisions into the joint combatant command's air, land, and sea operations. JOPES is responsible for planning and executing military operations by providing a standardized process for joint force commanders to develop and coordinate operational plans and orders. It facilitates the integration of various military capabilities and resources to achieve mission objectives effectively and efficiently.

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  • 25. 

    Which plan establishes requirements for the development of mobilization and production planning programs to support sustained contingency operations of the programmed forces?

    • A. 

      Strategic

    • B. 

      Deliberate

    • C. 

      Crisis Action

    • D. 

      War and Mobilization

    Correct Answer
    D. War and Mobilization
    Explanation
    The plan that establishes requirements for the development of mobilization and production planning programs to support sustained contingency operations of the programmed forces is the War and Mobilization plan. This plan outlines the necessary steps and resources needed to effectively mobilize and produce the required forces during times of war or other contingency operations. It ensures that the necessary manpower, equipment, and supplies are available to support sustained operations and maintain readiness.

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  • 26. 

    How often is the USAF War and Mobilization Plan revised?

    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Quarterly

    • C. 

      Semiannually

    • D. 

      Annually

    Correct Answer
    D. Annually
    Explanation
    The USAF War and Mobilization Plan is revised annually. This means that the plan is updated and reviewed once a year. By revising the plan annually, the USAF can ensure that it remains current and aligned with any changes in military strategies, technologies, or threats. Regular revisions also allow for adjustments to be made based on lessons learned from previous years, ensuring that the plan is effective and up to date.

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  • 27. 

    Which part of the USAF War and mobilization Plan, volume 3, Combat and support Forces, Lists all available combat forces by type aircraft, unit identification, unit availability date, and scenarios or theaters for which they are apportioned for deliberate planning?

    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
  • 28. 

    The information necessary to decide which type of base a particular unit type code will be capable of deploying to is found in the

    • A. 

      Basic plan and supporting supplements

    • B. 

      MISCAP statement

    • C. 

      Unit deployment description

    • D. 

      Type unit characteristics file

    Correct Answer
    B. MISCAP statement
    Explanation
    The MISCAP statement contains the necessary information to determine the type of base that a particular unit type code can deploy to. This statement provides details about the capabilities and requirements of the unit, including the specific type of base it is capable of deploying to. By referring to the MISCAP statement, one can determine the appropriate base for deployment based on the unit type code.

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  • 29. 

    A unit type code becomes standard when it is entered in the type unit characteristics file database and registered in the

    • A. 

      MANFOR packaging system

    • B. 

      SORTS

    • C. 

      TPFDD

    • D. 

      MEFPAK System

    Correct Answer
    D. MEFPAK System
    Explanation
    The MEFPAK System is the correct answer because it is the system where a unit type code becomes standard. When a unit type code is entered in the type unit characteristics file database and registered in the MEFPAK System, it is recognized as a standard unit type code. The MEFPAK System is responsible for managing and organizing unit information and ensuring that it is standardized across different systems and databases.

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  • 30. 

    In the type unit characteristics file database, the distinguishing factor that exist between a standard and nonstandard UTC is that a standard UTC has

    • A. 

      UTC suffix code 3

    • B. 

      UTC suffix code 4

    • C. 

      Partial movement characteristics

    • D. 

      Complete movement characteristics

    Correct Answer
    D. Complete movement characteristics
    Explanation
    A standard UTC is distinguished from a nonstandard UTC by its complete movement characteristics. This means that a standard UTC has all the necessary information and specifications for its movement, while a nonstandard UTC may have partial movement characteristics or incomplete information regarding its movement.

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  • 31. 

    Which UTC suffix lets the planner know the UTC has reject conditions and has returned to the major command with changes during a HAF update?

    • A. 

      0

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      7

    • D. 

      9

    Correct Answer
    D. 9
    Explanation
    The UTC suffix "9" indicates that the planner knows the UTC has reject conditions and has returned to the major command with changes during a HAF update.

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  • 32. 

    Which USAF War and Mobilization volume is the most valuable source document used in base support planning?

    • A. 

      1, Basic Plan and Supporting Annexes

    • B. 

      2, Plans Listing and Summary

    • C. 

      3, Combat and Support Forces

    • D. 

      4, Wartime Aircraft Activity

    Correct Answer
    D. 4, Wartime Aircraft Activity
    Explanation
    The most valuable source document used in base support planning is the "Wartime Aircraft Activity" volume. This document provides crucial information about the aircraft activity during wartime, including details about the number and type of aircraft involved, their missions, and deployment. This information is essential for base support planning as it helps in determining the resources and infrastructure required to support the aircraft operations effectively.

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  • 33. 

    Which document consist of parts 1 through 3 within volume 4 of the USAF WMP and identifies each geographical location that has aircraft passing through it or operating out of it during war?

    • A. 

      Base support plan (BSP)

    • B. 

      Operation plan (OPLAN)

    • C. 

      Wartime aircraft activity (WAA)

    • D. 

      Mission-oriented items activity (MOIA)

    Correct Answer
    C. Wartime aircraft activity (WAA)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Wartime aircraft activity (WAA). This document, which is part of volume 4 of the USAF WMP, identifies each geographical location that has aircraft passing through it or operating out of it during war. It provides information about the activity and movement of aircraft during wartime operations. The WAA helps in coordinating and managing the aircraft operations during war and ensures effective utilization of resources.

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  • 34. 

    Which USAF WMP volume contains the wartime sortie and attrition rates including sortie duration by type or aircraft?

    • A. 

      1, Basic Plan and Supporting Annexes

    • B. 

      3, Combat and Support Forces

    • C. 

      4, Wartime Aircraft Activity

    • D. 

      5, Basic Planning Factors and Data

    Correct Answer
    D. 5, Basic Planning Factors and Data
    Explanation
    Volume 5, Basic Planning Factors and Data, contains the wartime sortie and attrition rates including sortie duration by type of aircraft in the USAF WMP. This volume provides essential information for basic planning and includes data related to aircraft activity during wartime.

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  • 35. 

    The key to collecting, reporting, and using the Manpower and Equipment Force Packaging System data is the

    • A. 

      UTC

    • B. 

      Defense guidance scenario

    • C. 

      MISCAP statement

    • D. 

      MANFOR Packaging System

    Correct Answer
    A. UTC
    Explanation
    The correct answer is UTC. The UTC (Unit Type Code) is essential for collecting, reporting, and using the Manpower and Equipment Force Packaging System data. UTCs are alphanumeric codes that identify specific types of units and the resources they require. They help in determining the manpower and equipment needed for different scenarios and aid in resource allocation and planning. The UTC is a crucial component of the Manpower and Equipment Force Packaging System, making it the key to collecting, reporting, and using the data effectively.

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  • 36. 

    A new UTC should not be requested when

    • A. 

      New equipment types enter the inventory

    • B. 

      Minor program changes occur in manpower or equipment

    • C. 

      Deployable units experience a significant change in either operational concept or mission

    • D. 

      Significant program or operational changes occur that reduce a unit's Status of Resources and Training System capability level below C-2

    Correct Answer
    B. Minor program changes occur in manpower or equipment
    Explanation
    A new UTC should not be requested when minor program changes occur in manpower or equipment because these changes do not have a significant impact on the unit's operational concept or mission. The UTC (Unit Type Code) is a standardized code that identifies the type and capabilities of a military unit. It is used for planning, organizing, and assigning resources. Minor program changes in manpower or equipment may require adjustments in the unit's operations, but they do not necessitate the creation of a new UTC.

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  • 37. 

    In developing unit type codes, who makes sure that an accurate logistics detail is built for the finalized manpower detail?

    • A. 

      Pilot unit

    • B. 

      Responsible MAJCOM

    • C. 

      Command manpower plans MANFOR Packaging System manager

    • D. 

      MEFPAK System office of primary responsibility (OPR)

    Correct Answer
    A. Pilot unit
    Explanation
    The pilot unit is responsible for ensuring that an accurate logistics detail is built for the finalized manpower detail in developing unit type codes. They are likely to have the most knowledge and expertise regarding the specific logistics requirements and can provide valuable input in creating an accurate and effective plan.

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  • 38. 

    Which agency receives the request for a new unit type code from the Manpower and equipment Force Packaging System responsibility agency by way of Deliberate and Crisis Action PLanning and Execution Segments (DECAPES)

    • A. 

      HQ USAF/A1MR

    • B. 

      AFMAA/MAZ

    • C. 

      HQ USAF/A3OD

    • D. 

      AFMAA/MAW

    Correct Answer
    C. HQ USAF/A3OD
    Explanation
    HQ USAF/A3OD is the correct answer because it is the agency responsible for receiving the request for a new unit type code from the Manpower and Equipment Force Packaging System responsibility agency through the Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DECAPES).

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  • 39. 

    Which agency is responsible for entering a new UTC into the Manpower Force Packaging System?

    • A. 

      HQ USAF/A1MR

    • B. 

      AFMAA/MAZ

    • C. 

      HQ USAF/A3OD

    • D. 

      AFMAA/MAW

    Correct Answer
    D. AFMAA/MAW
    Explanation
    AFMAA/MAW is responsible for entering a new UTC into the Manpower Force Packaging System.

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  • 40. 

    How often after the UTC data is developed does the responsible command review and update packages?

    • A. 

      Quarterly

    • B. 

      Annually

    • C. 

      Biennially

    • D. 

      Triennially

    Correct Answer
    C. Biennially
    Explanation
    The responsible command reviews and updates packages every two years, which is known as biennially. This means that they conduct this process once every two years to ensure that the UTC data is up-to-date and accurate.

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  • 41. 

    The specific manpower required to perform the mission as defined in the unit type code's mission capability statement is found in the

    • A. 

      JSPS

    • B. 

      TUCHA file

    • C. 

      MANFOR Packaging System

    • D. 

      Air and space expeditionary force unit type code reporting tool (ART)

    Correct Answer
    C. MANFOR Packaging System
    Explanation
    The MANFOR Packaging System is the correct answer because it is the system that provides information on the specific manpower required to perform the mission as defined in the unit type code's mission capability statement. This system helps in determining the manpower needs and packaging them accordingly for the mission. The JSPS and TUCHA file are not directly related to providing information on manpower requirements, and the Air and Space Expeditionary Force Unit Type Code Reporting Tool (ART) is also not specifically mentioned in relation to the manpower required for the mission.

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  • 42. 

    War planers use UTC to document requirements for which types of planning?

    • A. 

      Crisis action and initial

    • B. 

      Deliberate and execution

    • C. 

      Execution and crisis action

    • D. 

      Deliberate and crisis action

    Correct Answer
    D. Deliberate and crisis action
    Explanation
    War planners use UTC (Universal Coordinated Time) to document requirements for deliberate and crisis action planning. Deliberate planning involves long-term strategic planning, where war planners carefully consider various options and make decisions based on extensive analysis and evaluation. Crisis action planning, on the other hand, is a rapid response planning process that occurs in real-time during an ongoing crisis or emergency situation. By using UTC to document requirements for both types of planning, war planners can ensure effective coordination and synchronization of military operations across different time zones and locations.

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  • 43. 

    What is the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System database part of an operation plan that planners use to identify the movement data associated with deploying forces?

    • A. 

      TUCHA file

    • B. 

      MANFOR Packaging System

    • C. 

      TPFDD

    • D. 

      Air and space expeditionary force UTC reporting tool

    Correct Answer
    C. TPFDD
    Explanation
    The TPFDD (Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data) is the correct answer. The TPFDD is a database that is part of the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) and is used by planners to identify the movement data associated with deploying forces. It provides information on the timing and sequencing of forces and resources needed for a specific operation plan. The TPFDD helps in coordinating and synchronizing the deployment of forces, ensuring that the right resources are available at the right time and place.

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  • 44. 

    Which type of Timed-Phased Force and Deployment Data is associated with written operation plans? (OPLANS)

    • A. 

      Deployment data

    • B. 

      Capabilities-driven

    • C. 

      Deliberate planning

    • D. 

      Requirements-driven

    Correct Answer
    D. Requirements-driven
    Explanation
    Requirements-driven Timed-Phased Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD) is associated with written operation plans (OPLANS). This type of TPFDD focuses on the specific requirements and needs of the operation, taking into account factors such as resources, personnel, equipment, and logistics. It ensures that the necessary resources are available and deployed in a timely manner to support the objectives outlined in the OPLAN. This approach allows for a systematic and organized deployment of forces based on the specific requirements of the operation.

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  • 45. 

    TPFDD maintenance focuses on changes that occurred to the

    • A. 

      National Command Authorities' concept

    • B. 

      Real-world requirements data since refinement

    • C. 

      Deployment data since refinement

    • D. 

      NCA phased forces

    Correct Answer
    C. Deployment data since refinement
  • 46. 

    Who is the final approval authority for changes to the operation plan time-phased force and deployment data?

    • A. 

      Component planners

    • B. 

      Component operations

    • C. 

      Supported commander

    • D. 

      Supporting commander

    Correct Answer
    C. Supported commander
    Explanation
    The supported commander is the final approval authority for changes to the operation plan time-phased force and deployment data. This means that the commander who is receiving support from other units or organizations has the authority to approve any changes to the plan. The supported commander is responsible for making decisions and ensuring that the plan is executed effectively.

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  • 47. 

    When used in concert, force modules provide capabilities to open, establish, and operate

    • A. 

      An air expeditionary wing

    • B. 

      A squadron

    • C. 

      A command

    • D. 

      An air base

    Correct Answer
    A. An air expeditionary wing
    Explanation
    Force modules, when used together, offer the necessary capabilities to open, establish, and operate various military units or facilities. In this case, the correct answer is "an air expeditionary wing." An air expeditionary wing is a self-contained unit that can be rapidly deployed and has the ability to sustain itself in a combat environment. It is composed of various force modules, such as squadrons and commands, which work together to support the operations of the air expeditionary wing.

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  • 48. 

    The air and space expeditionary task force force module that is considered part of the baseline structure for the AETF is

    • A. 

      Establish the airbase

    • B. 

      Generate the mission

    • C. 

      Operate the airbase

    • D. 

      Robust the airbase

    Correct Answer
    D. Robust the airbase
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "robust the airbase". In the context of the given question, the AETF (Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force) requires a force module that is considered part of its baseline structure. This force module's role is to make the airbase robust, which means to strengthen and enhance its capabilities. This includes ensuring the airbase is well-equipped, prepared for various missions, and able to withstand and adapt to different operational requirements.

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  • 49. 

    The Air Force planning and execution community supports the Joint Operation Planning and Execution Ststem by feeding AF unique data through the

    • A. 

      MILPDS

    • B. 

      MANFOR packaging system

    • C. 

      MPES

    • D. 

      DCAPES

    Correct Answer
    D. DCAPES
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DCAPES. DCAPES stands for Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution System. It is a planning and execution system used by the Air Force to support the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES). DCAPES allows the Air Force to input and share unique data that is specific to their operations. It helps in the coordination and execution of Air Force missions and supports the overall planning process.

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  • 50. 

    All of the following data are translated through Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments except

    • A. 

      Real-world crisis execution

    • B. 

      Unit manning documents

    • C. 

      Local exercise taskings

    • D. 

      Contingency planning

    Correct Answer
    B. Unit manning documents
    Explanation
    Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments are responsible for translating data related to contingency planning, real-world crisis execution, and local exercise taskings. However, unit manning documents are not translated through these segments.

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