Module III Certification Quiz Part 1

  • CompTIA Security+
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1.   Why will a Faraday cage be used?

Explanation

A Faraday cage is a shielded enclosure that prevents the escape or entry of electromagnetic fields. It is commonly used to mitigate data emanation, which refers to the unintentional leakage of electromagnetic signals that can be intercepted by unauthorized individuals. By using a Faraday cage, the electromagnetic signals generated by electronic devices inside the cage are contained, preventing them from being intercepted or accessed by external sources. This ensures the security and confidentiality of sensitive data and helps protect against potential data breaches or unauthorized access.

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Module III Certification Quiz Part 1 - Quiz

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2.   Which media is LEAST susceptible to a tap being placed on the line?

Explanation

Fiber is the least susceptible to a tap being placed on the line because it uses light signals to transmit data instead of electrical signals. This means that it is more difficult for someone to intercept or tap into the fiber optic cable without disrupting the signal. Additionally, fiber optic cables do not emit electromagnetic radiation, making it harder for someone to detect and intercept the signal.

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3.   Which of the following is the BEST place to obtain a hotfix or patch for an application or system?

Explanation

The manufacturer's website is the best place to obtain a hotfix or patch for an application or system because it is the official source for updates and is likely to have the most up-to-date and reliable information. News groups or forums may provide unofficial or outdated information, a CD-ROM may not have the latest updates, and an email from the vendor may not be as accessible or comprehensive as the manufacturer's website.

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4.   An administrator wants to make sure that no equipment is damaged when encountering a fire or false alarm in the server room. Which type of fire suppression system should be used?

Explanation

Carbon dioxide is the most suitable fire suppression system for a server room because it is effective in extinguishing fires without causing damage to the equipment. Carbon dioxide works by displacing oxygen, which is necessary for combustion, and suffocating the fire. It is a clean agent that does not leave any residue or water behind, making it ideal for sensitive electronic equipment. Additionally, carbon dioxide is non-conductive, so it does not pose a risk of electrical damage.

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5.   Which of the following portions of a company’s network is between the Internet and an internal network?

Explanation

A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is a portion of a company's network that is located between the Internet and an internal network. It acts as a buffer zone that separates the public-facing services and systems from the internal network, providing an additional layer of security. The DMZ allows external users to access certain services, such as email or web servers, while keeping the internal network protected from potential threats. By placing these services in the DMZ, any potential attacks or vulnerabilities are contained within this zone and do not directly impact the internal network.

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6.   In computer networking, network address translation (NAT) is the process of modifying network address information in datagram packet headers while in transit across a traffic routing device for the purpose of remapping a given address space into another. Which description is true about a static NAT?

Explanation

A static NAT uses a one to one mapping, meaning that it maps a single internal IP address to a single external IP address. This allows for a direct and specific translation of IP addresses, ensuring that each internal address corresponds to a unique external address. This can be useful in scenarios where specific devices or services need to be accessed from outside the network using a dedicated IP address.

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7.   An enclosure that prevents radio frequency signals from emanating out of a controlled environment is BEST described as which of the following?

Explanation

A Faraday cage is an enclosure that is designed to block external radio frequency signals from entering or leaving a controlled environment. It is made of conductive material, such as metal, which creates a shield that prevents electromagnetic waves from passing through. This is achieved by the principle of electromagnetic shielding, where the conductive material absorbs and redistributes the electromagnetic energy, thereby minimizing its transmission. Therefore, a Faraday cage is the best description for an enclosure that prevents radio frequency signals from emanating out of a controlled environment.

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8.   A Faraday case or Faraday shield is an enclosure formed by conducting material, or by a mesh of such material. Such an enclosure blocks out external static electrical fields. Faraday cages are named after physicist Michael Faraday, who built one in 1836. Which of the following would a Faraday cage prevent usage of?

Explanation

A Faraday cage prevents the usage of a cell phone. This is because the cage is designed to block out external static electrical fields, which includes the signals and waves used by cell phones to communicate. When a cell phone is placed inside a Faraday cage, it is effectively shielded from any incoming or outgoing signals, rendering it unable to send or receive calls, messages, or data.

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9.   A small manufacturing company wants to deploy secure wireless
on their network. Which of the following wireless security
protocols could be used (Select TWO)

Explanation

WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access) and WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) are both wireless security protocols that can be used to secure a wireless network. WPA provides stronger security compared to WEP as it uses encryption algorithms and dynamic keys to protect the network. WEP, on the other hand, uses a static encryption key which makes it less secure. By using both WPA and WEP, the small manufacturing company can ensure the security of their wireless network.

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10.   The purpose of the SSID in a wireless network is to:

Explanation

The SSID in a wireless network is used to identify the network. It serves as the name of the network that users can see when searching for available networks to connect to. The SSID allows users to differentiate between different networks and choose the one they want to connect to. It is not used to define encryption protocols, protect the client, or secure the WAP. Its main purpose is simply to identify the network.

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11.   Which description is true about the process of securely removing information from media (e.g. hard drive) for future use?

Explanation

Sanitization is the process of securely removing information from media, such as a hard drive, to ensure that it cannot be recovered or accessed in the future. This involves using specialized software or hardware to overwrite the data multiple times, making it virtually impossible to retrieve. Reformatting, deleting, and destruction may not completely remove the data or make it unrecoverable, while sanitization ensures that the information is permanently erased.

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12. Many unauthorized staff has been entering the data center by piggybacking authorized staff. The CIO has mandated to stop this behavior. Which technology should be installed at the data center to prevent piggybacking?

Explanation

A mantrap is a security measure that can be installed at a data center to prevent piggybacking. It is a small enclosed area with two doors, where one door cannot be opened until the other is closed. This ensures that only one person can enter at a time and prevents unauthorized individuals from entering by piggybacking on authorized staff. By installing a mantrap, the data center can effectively control access and prevent unauthorized entry.

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13.   A software or hardware device that allows only authorized network traffic in or out of a computer or network is called a:

Explanation

A firewall is a software or hardware device that acts as a barrier between a computer or network and unauthorized access from external sources. It monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. By allowing only authorized network traffic, a firewall helps to protect the computer or network from potential threats and unauthorized access attempts.

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14.   To keep an 802.11x network from being automatically discovered,
 a user should:

Explanation

To keep an 802.11x network from being automatically discovered, the user should turn off the SSID broadcast. This means that the network's name will not be visible to other devices, making it harder for unauthorized users to find and connect to the network. Changing the SSID name or activating a password can also enhance security, but turning off the SSID broadcast is specifically effective in preventing automatic discovery of the network. Leaving the SSID default would not provide any additional security measures.

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15.   Which method can be used to correct a single security issue on a workstation?

Explanation

A patch is a software update that is designed to fix a specific security issue on a workstation. It is a small piece of code that is applied to the existing software to address vulnerabilities and improve security. By installing a patch, the specific security issue can be corrected without making any major changes to the entire system or software.

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16.   Which of the following is an installable package that includes several patches from the same vendor for various applications?

Explanation

A service pack is an installable package that includes several patches from the same vendor for various applications. It is a cumulative update that contains bug fixes, security enhancements, and additional features. Service packs are released periodically to provide a convenient way for users to update their software and ensure that they have the latest patches and improvements.

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17.   Your company has already implemented two-factor authentication and wants to install a third authentication factor. If the existing authentication system uses strong passwords and PKI tokens, which item would provide a third factor?

Explanation

A fingerprint scanner would provide a third authentication factor because it is a biometric factor that verifies the unique physical characteristic of an individual, adding an extra layer of security to the existing two-factor authentication system. This would make it more difficult for unauthorized individuals to gain access to the system, as they would need to possess not only the strong password and PKI token, but also have their fingerprint recognized by the scanner.

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18.   Which of the following are components of host hardening? (Select TWO) Choose at least one answer.

Explanation

Host hardening refers to the process of securing a host or computer system by reducing its vulnerabilities and strengthening its defenses. Disabling unnecessary services is an important component of host hardening as it helps to minimize the attack surface by shutting down any services that are not required for the system's operation. Applying patches is also crucial as it ensures that the system is up to date with the latest security fixes and updates, reducing the risk of exploitation by known vulnerabilities.

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19.   Which item specifies a set of consistent requirements for a workstation or server?

Explanation

A configuration baseline is a set of consistent requirements for a workstation or server. It defines the desired state of the system and ensures that it remains consistent and secure. It includes specifications such as hardware requirements, operating system settings, software versions, and security settings. By adhering to a configuration baseline, organizations can ensure that their systems are properly configured and meet the necessary security standards.

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20.   Which of the following BEST describes the baseline process of securing devices on a network infrastructure?

Explanation

Hardening refers to the process of securing devices on a network infrastructure by implementing various security measures such as disabling unnecessary services, applying security patches, configuring strong passwords, and implementing access controls. This helps in reducing the attack surface and strengthening the overall security posture of the network devices. Hardening is considered as the baseline process for securing devices as it establishes a strong foundation for implementing other security measures and controls.

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21.   Coaxial cable is a cable consisting of an inner conductor, surrounded by a tubular insulating layer typically made from a flexible material with a high dielectric constant, all of which is then surrounded by another conductive layer (typically of fine woven wire for flexibility, or of a then metallic foil), and then finally covered again with a thin insulating layer on the outside. Which is the primary security risk with coaxial cable?

Explanation

The primary security risk with coaxial cable is data emanation from the core. This means that there is a potential for the data being transmitted through the cable to leak or be intercepted, compromising the security and confidentiality of the information.

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22.   Fiber optic cable is considered safer than CAT5 because fiber optic cable (Select TWO)

Explanation

Fiber optic cable is considered safer than CAT5 because it is hard to tap into. Unlike copper cables, fiber optic cables do not emit electromagnetic signals that can be intercepted, making them more secure against eavesdropping or hacking attempts. Additionally, fiber optic cables are not susceptible to interference from electromagnetic fields or radio frequency interference, ensuring a reliable and uninterrupted transmission of data.

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23.   A graphical user interface (GUI) is a type of user interface which allows people to interact with electronic devices such as computers; hand-held devices such as MP3 player, Portable Media Player or Gaming device; household appliances and office equipment. Which of the following will allow a technician to restrict a user access to the GUI?

Explanation

Group policy implementation allows a technician to restrict a user's access to the graphical user interface (GUI). Group policies are a set of rules and settings that can be applied to a group of users or computers in a network. By implementing group policies, a technician can control various aspects of a user's access and privileges, including restricting their access to the GUI. This can be useful in situations where certain users need limited access or where specific settings need to be enforced for security or organizational reasons.

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24.   Which one of the following options will create a security buffer zone between two rooms?

Explanation

A mantrap is a security measure that creates a buffer zone between two rooms by using two interlocking doors or gates. It ensures that only one door can be open at a time, preventing unauthorized access and creating a controlled entry point. This physical barrier enhances security by restricting the movement of individuals between the two rooms and allowing for proper identification and authorization before granting access.

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25.   Which action should be performed to harden workstations and servers?

Explanation

Installing only needed software is an action that should be performed to harden workstations and servers. By installing only the necessary software, the attack surface of the system is reduced, minimizing the potential vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers. Unnecessary software increases the risk of security breaches as it may contain vulnerabilities or provide additional entry points for attackers. Therefore, installing only the required software helps in strengthening the security of workstations and servers.

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26.   As a network administrator you need to take personal safety into consideration. What fire suppression substances types can effectively prevent damage to electronic equipment?

Explanation

CO2 (carbon dioxide) is the correct answer because it is an effective fire suppression substance that can prevent damage to electronic equipment. CO2 is commonly used in fire suppression systems because it is non-conductive and does not leave any residue. When CO2 is released into a fire, it displaces oxygen, effectively smothering the flames and preventing further damage to the equipment. CO2 is safe to use in areas with sensitive electronics and is an efficient and reliable method of fire suppression.

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27.   Which method is easiest to disable a 10Base2 network?

Explanation

Removing a terminator is the easiest method to disable a 10Base2 network. A 10Base2 network uses coaxial cables, and terminators are used at both ends of the network to absorb signals and prevent reflections. By removing a terminator, the network loses its termination point, causing signal reflections and disrupting the network communication. This is a simple and straightforward method to disable the network.

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28.   A company wants to connect the network to a manufacturer’s network to be able to order parts. Which of the following types of networks should the company implement to provide the connection while limiting the services allowed over the connection?

Explanation

An extranet is a private network that allows controlled access to external users, such as suppliers or partners, to a company's internal network resources. By implementing an extranet, the company can connect its network to the manufacturer's network, enabling them to order parts. The extranet provides a secure and limited connection, allowing only authorized services and resources to be accessed by the manufacturer. This ensures that the company can maintain control over the connection while still benefiting from the collaboration with the manufacturer.

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29.   Which one of the following is not Bluetooth threat?

Explanation

A smurf attack is not a Bluetooth threat. A smurf attack is a type of network attack that involves sending a large amount of ICMP echo request (ping) traffic to IP broadcast addresses, causing the targeted network to become overwhelmed and resulting in a denial of service. Bluetooth threats, on the other hand, involve security vulnerabilities and attacks specifically targeting Bluetooth technology, such as blue jacking (sending unsolicited messages to Bluetooth-enabled devices), discovery mode (making a device visible to others for pairing), and bluesnarfing (unauthorized access to information on a Bluetooth device).

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30.   Why is malware that uses virtualization techniques difficult to detect?

Explanation

Malware that uses virtualization techniques can be difficult to detect because it may be running at a more privileged level than the antivirus software. This means that the malware has higher privileges and can potentially hide itself from detection by the antivirus software. It can also manipulate the virtualization environment to evade detection and make it harder for security systems to identify its presence. This makes it challenging for traditional antivirus software to detect and remove the malware effectively.

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31.   Default passwords in hardware and software should be changed ________________.

Explanation

Default passwords in hardware and software should be changed when the hardware or software is turned on. This is because default passwords are commonly known and can be easily exploited by attackers. Changing the default passwords as soon as the hardware or software is turned on helps to enhance security and prevent unauthorized access.

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32.   Which of the following types of firewalls provides inspection at layer 7 of the OSI model?

Explanation

An application-proxy firewall provides inspection at layer 7 of the OSI model. This type of firewall acts as an intermediary between the client and the server, and it can analyze the application layer data to determine if the traffic should be allowed or blocked. It can understand the specific protocols and applications being used, allowing for more granular control and better protection against advanced threats. Stateful inspection and packet filters operate at lower layers of the OSI model, while network address translation (NAT) is a technique used for translating IP addresses.

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33.   The hashing algorithm is created from a hash value, making it nearly impossible to derive the original input number. Which item can implement the strongest hashing algorithm?

Explanation

NTLMv2 can implement the strongest hashing algorithm. The hashing algorithm used in NTLMv2 is designed to be highly secure and resistant to attacks. It is created from a hash value, which makes it extremely difficult to reverse engineer and derive the original input number. This level of complexity and security makes NTLMv2 a strong choice for implementing a hashing algorithm.

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34.   What are best practices while installing and securing a new system for a home user? (Select THREE)

Explanation

The best practices for installing and securing a new system for a home user include applying all system patches and service packs. This ensures that the system has the latest updates and fixes for any vulnerabilities. Additionally, using a strong firewall is important to protect the system from unauthorized access and potential threats. Installing remote control software may not be a best practice as it can introduce security risks and potentially allow unauthorized access to the system.

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35.   On the basis of certain ports, which of the following will allow wireless access to network resources?

Explanation

802.1x is a network authentication protocol that allows wireless access to network resources. It provides a secure method of authenticating and authorizing devices to connect to a network. This protocol is commonly used in Wi-Fi networks to ensure that only authorized devices can access network resources. It uses a combination of authentication methods such as usernames and passwords, digital certificates, or smart cards to verify the identity of the device trying to connect. Once authenticated, the device is granted access to the network resources.

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36.   You work as a network technician. You have been asked to reconstruct the infrastructure of an organization. You should make sure that the virtualization technology is implemented securely. What should be taken into consideration while implementing virtualization technology?

Explanation

When implementing virtualization technology, it is important to ensure that both the virtual servers and the host have the latest service packs and patches applied. This is crucial for maintaining the security and stability of the virtual environment. Service packs and patches often include important security updates and bug fixes that address vulnerabilities and improve overall performance. By regularly updating and patching the virtual servers and host, the technician can minimize the risk of security breaches and ensure that the infrastructure remains secure.

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37.   Which of the following authentication systems make use of the KDC Key Distribution Center?

Explanation

Kerberos is the correct answer because it is an authentication protocol that uses a Key Distribution Center (KDC) to authenticate users and provide secure access to network resources. The KDC acts as a trusted third party that issues tickets to users, which they can present to access services. These tickets are encrypted using a shared secret key between the KDC and the service being accessed, ensuring secure authentication and authorization.

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38.   For the following options, which is an area of the network infrastructure that allows a technician to put public facing systems into it without compromising the entire infrastructure?

Explanation

A DMZ (Demilitarized Zone) is an area of the network infrastructure that allows a technician to put public facing systems into it without compromising the entire infrastructure. It acts as a buffer zone between the internal network and the external network, providing an additional layer of security. Public facing systems such as web servers or email servers can be placed in the DMZ, allowing external access while minimizing the risk of compromising the internal network.

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39.   Which description is correct about the standard load for all systems?

Explanation

A configuration baseline refers to a standard set of settings and configurations that are established for all systems within an organization. It serves as a reference point for ensuring consistency and security across different systems. By implementing a configuration baseline, organizations can ensure that all systems are set up and maintained in a standardized and secure manner. This helps to reduce vulnerabilities and maintain a stable and reliable IT environment.

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40.   Non-essential services are often appealing to attackers because non-essential services: (Select TWO)

Explanation

Attackers often find non-essential services appealing because these services can sustain attacks that go unnoticed and are not typically configured correctly. Non-essential services may not receive as much attention or monitoring as essential services, making it easier for attackers to exploit vulnerabilities and carry out attacks without being detected. Additionally, since these services are not critical to the functioning of a system, they may not be configured with the same level of security measures as essential services, providing attackers with potential avenues for gaining unauthorized access.

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41.   Which technology is able to isolate a host OS from some types of security threats?

Explanation

Virtualization is a technology that can isolate a host OS from some types of security threats. By creating virtual machines, the host OS can be separated from the virtualized environment, providing an additional layer of protection. This isolation helps to prevent malware or other security threats from affecting the host OS, as any malicious activity is contained within the virtual machine. Virtualization also allows for easier management and monitoring of security measures, making it an effective solution for mitigating security risks.

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42.   For which reason are clocks used in Kerberos authentication?

Explanation

Clocks are used to ensure that tickets expire correctly in Kerberos authentication. This is because Kerberos uses time-based ticket expiration as a security measure. The clocks help to keep track of the current time and ensure that tickets are only valid for a certain period. When a ticket expires, it cannot be used for authentication anymore, enhancing the security of the system.

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43.   Which item best describes an instance where a biometric system identifies legitimate users as being unauthorized?

Explanation

False rejection is the best description for an instance where a biometric system identifies legitimate users as being unauthorized. This occurs when the system incorrectly denies access to individuals who are actually authorized to use the system. It is a type of error in which the system fails to recognize and authenticate legitimate users, leading to their rejection or denial of access.

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44.   After the maximum number attempts have failed, which of the following could set an account to lockout for 30 minutes?

Explanation

The account lockout duration is the setting that determines how long an account will be locked out after the maximum number of failed login attempts. In this case, after the maximum number of attempts have failed, the account will be locked out for 30 minutes. The other options, such as account lockout threshold, password complexity requirements, and key distribution center, do not directly determine the lockout duration.

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45.   Which one of the following processes is best to remove Personally Identifiable Information (PII) data from a disk drive before reuse?

Explanation

Sanitization is the best process to remove Personally Identifiable Information (PII) data from a disk drive before reuse. Sanitization involves the thorough and irreversible removal of all data from the disk drive, ensuring that it cannot be recovered through any means. This process goes beyond simple reformatting, which can still leave traces of data behind. Degaussing, on the other hand, is a process that erases data using a magnetic field, but it may not be effective on solid-state drives. Destruction, while effective, renders the disk drive completely unusable and is not suitable for reuse. Therefore, sanitization is the most appropriate method for securely removing PII data from a disk drive.

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46.   A company is upgrading the network and needs to reduce the ability of users on the same floor and network segment to see each other’s traffic. Which of the following network devices should be used?

Explanation

A switch should be used to reduce the ability of users on the same floor and network segment to see each other's traffic. Unlike a hub, which broadcasts all traffic to all connected devices, a switch only sends traffic to the intended recipient. This means that users on the same floor and network segment will not be able to see each other's traffic unless it is specifically addressed to them. A firewall, on the other hand, is used for network security and controlling access to the network, but it does not specifically address the requirement of reducing visibility of traffic between users on the same floor and network segment. A router is used to connect different networks, but it does not provide the same level of traffic isolation as a switch.

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47.   A company implements an SMTP server on their firewall. This implementation would violate which of the following security principles?

Explanation

The implementation of an SMTP server on a firewall violates the principle of "Use a device as intended." A firewall is designed to control and monitor network traffic, not to function as an email server. By using the firewall for a purpose it was not intended for, the company is potentially compromising its security and opening itself up to vulnerabilities. It is important to use devices for their intended purposes to ensure their effectiveness and maintain a secure environment.

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48.   When a new network device is configured for first-time installation, which of the following is a security threat?

Explanation

The use of default passwords during the first-time installation of a network device can pose a security threat. Default passwords are often well-known and easily accessible to attackers, making it easier for them to gain unauthorized access to the device. This can lead to potential breaches, data theft, and unauthorized control over the network device. It is crucial to change default passwords to unique and strong ones to mitigate this security risk.

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49.   Internet filter appliances/servers will most likely analyze which three items? (Select THREE)

Explanation

Internet filter appliances/servers analyze URLs, content, and certificates. URLs are analyzed to determine the website or web page being accessed and to apply filtering rules based on the domain or specific URL. Content analysis is performed to scan and filter out any inappropriate or unauthorized content, such as malware, explicit material, or prohibited websites. Certificates are analyzed to verify the authenticity and security of the website being accessed, ensuring that it is encrypted and trusted. By analyzing these three items, internet filter appliances/servers can effectively enforce internet usage policies and protect users from potential threats or inappropriate content.

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50.   Why do security researchers often use virtual machines? Choose one answer.

Explanation

Security researchers often use virtual machines because they provide a safe and isolated environment where malware can be executed without posing any risks to the actual physical equipment and software. By using virtual machines, researchers can analyze and study malware behavior without the fear of infecting their own systems or compromising sensitive data. This allows them to conduct thorough investigations and experiments while maintaining a secure and controlled environment.

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51.   When setting password rules, which of the following would lower the level of security of a network?

Explanation

Complex passwords that users cannot remotely change are randomly generated by the administrator and given to users would lower the level of security of a network because users would not have control over their own passwords. This means that if a password is compromised, users would not be able to change it themselves, and the administrator would need to generate a new password for them. This increases the risk of unauthorized access to user accounts and reduces the overall security of the network.

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52.   In computing, a stateful firewall (any firewall that performs stateful packet inspection (SPI) or stateful inspection) is a firewall that keeps track of the state of network connections (such as TCP streams, UDP communication) traveling across it. You have been studying stateful packet inspection and want to perform this security technique on the network. Which device will you use to BEST utilize stateful packet inspection?

Explanation

A firewall is the device that is best utilized for stateful packet inspection. It is specifically designed to keep track of the state of network connections and perform stateful inspection. Switches, IDS (Intrusion Detection System), and hubs do not have the same capability to perform stateful packet inspection as a firewall does. Therefore, a firewall is the most appropriate device for implementing this security technique.

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53.   A graphical user interface (GUI) is a type of user interface which allows people to interact with electronic devices such as computers; hand-held devices such as MP3 Players, Portable Media Players or Gaming devices; household appliances and office equipment. Which of the following will permit a technician to restrict a users Access to the GUI?

Explanation

Group policy implementation allows a technician to restrict a user's access to the graphical user interface (GUI). Group policies are a set of rules and configurations that can be applied to a group of users or computers in a network. By implementing group policies, a technician can control and limit the actions and privileges of users, including their access to the GUI. This can help ensure security and prevent unauthorized access or changes to the system.

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54.   Which of the following would be the BEST reason to disable unnecessary services on a server?

Explanation

Disabling unnecessary services on a server is important because it reduces the attack surface and minimizes the opportunity for compromise. By disabling services that are not essential for the functioning of the server, potential vulnerabilities and entry points for attackers are eliminated. This helps to enhance the overall security of the server and reduce the risk of unauthorized access or exploitation. Additionally, disabling unnecessary services can also improve system performance by saving system memory and reducing startup time. It is worth noting that services can always be re-enabled if needed in the future.

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55.   Which item can reduce the attack surface of an operating system?

Explanation

Disabling unused services can reduce the attack surface of an operating system. When services are not in use, they can potentially be exploited by attackers. By disabling these services, the potential vulnerabilities they pose are eliminated, thereby reducing the overall attack surface. This ensures that only necessary services are running, minimizing the potential entry points for attackers and enhancing the security of the operating system.

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56.   In computing, the Basic Input/Output System (BIOS, also known as the System BIOS), is a de facto standard defining a firmware interface for IBM PC compatible computers. A user is concerned with the security of their laptops BIOS. Their user would not like anyone to be able to access control functions except themselves. Which of the following could make the BIOS more secure?

Explanation

A password can make the BIOS more secure by providing a form of authentication that only allows authorized users to access the control functions. By setting a password, the user can prevent unauthorized access to the BIOS and ensure that only they have the ability to make changes or access sensitive information. This adds an additional layer of security to the laptop's BIOS and protects against potential threats or unauthorized modifications.

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57.   A DNS (Domain Name Service) server uses a specific port number. Choose this port number from the options:

Explanation

A DNS server uses port number 53 because it is the standard port for DNS communication. DNS servers listen on this port to receive DNS queries and send back the corresponding DNS responses. This port number is well-known and widely used for DNS communication across the internet.

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58.   Removable storage has been around almost as long as the computer itself. Which of the following is the GREATEST security risk regarding removable storage?

Explanation

The greatest security risk regarding removable storage is the confidentiality of data. This means that there is a risk of unauthorized access or disclosure of sensitive information stored on removable storage devices. This can happen if the device is lost, stolen, or accessed by someone who is not authorized to view the data. It is important to protect the confidentiality of data by using encryption or other security measures to prevent unauthorized access.

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59.   A company wants to implement a VLAN. Senior management believes that VLAN will be secure because authentication is accomplished by MAC addressing and that dynamic trunking protocol (DTP) will facilitate network efficiency. Which of the following issues should be discussed with senior management before VLAN implementation?

Explanation

The correct answer is "MAC addresses can be spoofed and DTP allows rogue network devices to configure ports". This answer highlights two important security concerns with implementing VLANs. MAC addresses can be easily spoofed, which means that unauthorized devices can pretend to have a legitimate MAC address and gain access to the VLAN. Additionally, DTP allows for automatic configuration of ports, which can be exploited by rogue network devices to gain unauthorized access to the VLAN. These issues should be discussed with senior management to ensure that appropriate security measures are put in place before implementing VLANs.

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60.   Which of the following network authentication protocols uses symmetric key cryptography, stores a shared key for each network resource and uses a Key Distribution Center (KDC)?

Explanation

Kerberos is the correct answer because it is a network authentication protocol that uses symmetric key cryptography. It stores a shared key for each network resource and utilizes a Key Distribution Center (KDC) to securely distribute these keys to clients and servers. With Kerberos, clients and servers can authenticate each other and establish secure communication over an insecure network.

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61.   Which of the following protocols are not recommended due to them supplying passwords and information over the network?

Explanation

SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is not recommended due to it supplying passwords and information over the network. This protocol is commonly used for network management and allows devices to be monitored and controlled. However, SNMP uses clear text passwords and does not provide encryption, making it vulnerable to interception and unauthorized access. Therefore, it is not recommended to use SNMP for transmitting sensitive information over the network.

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62.   Which definition best defines what a challenge-response session is?

Explanation

A challenge-response session refers to a workstation or system that generates a random challenge string. This challenge string is then presented to the user, who must provide the correct response along with a PIN (Personal Identification Number). This mechanism is commonly used for authentication purposes in cryptography systems.

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63.   In computing, a Uniform Resource Identifier (URI) that specifies where an identified resource is available and the mechanism for retrieving it. When a user attempts to go to a website, he notices the URI has changed, which attack will most likely cause the problem?

Explanation

DNS poisoning is the most likely attack that would cause the URI to change when a user attempts to go to a website. DNS poisoning, also known as DNS cache poisoning, is a technique used by attackers to corrupt the DNS cache of a DNS server. By doing so, the attacker can redirect the user's request for a specific website to a different IP address, which would result in a changed URI. This can lead the user to a malicious website or a fake version of the intended website, causing potential harm or unauthorized access.

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64.   Which statement best describes a static NAT?

Explanation

A static NAT uses a one to one mapping, meaning that it translates a single private IP address to a single public IP address. This allows for a direct and specific translation between the private and public IP addresses, ensuring that each private IP address has a unique corresponding public IP address. This type of mapping is commonly used when a network device needs to have a consistent public IP address for external communication.

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65.   Which security policy will be most likely used while attempting to mitigate the risks involved with allowing a user to access company email via their cell phone?

Explanation

The most likely security policy to mitigate the risks involved with allowing a user to access company email via their cell phone is to require a password after a set period of inactivity. This policy ensures that if the cell phone is left unattended or lost, unauthorized individuals will not be able to access the company email without the password. It adds an extra layer of security to protect sensitive information and prevent unauthorized access.

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66.   Which of the following is MOST often used to allow a client or partner access to a network?

Explanation

An extranet is a private network that allows authorized external users, such as clients or partners, to access a company's internal network. It provides a secure and controlled environment for sharing information, collaborating on projects, and conducting business transactions. This makes it the most common choice for granting external access to a network while maintaining security and privacy. An intranet is a private network for internal use only, a DMZ is a network segment that separates an internal network from an external network, and a VLAN is a logical division of a network.

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67.   Kerberos uses which of the following ports by default?

Explanation

Kerberos uses port 88 by default. Kerberos is a network authentication protocol that uses tickets to provide secure authentication for client-server applications. It operates on port 88 to facilitate this authentication process.

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68.   Which of the following is a nonessential protocol and service?

Explanation

TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) is a nonessential protocol and service because it is a simplified version of the File Transfer Protocol (FTP) and is mainly used for transferring small files between network devices. Unlike ICMP, NNTP, and DNS, TFTP is not essential for the basic functioning of a network. It is typically used in scenarios where a lightweight and simple file transfer solution is needed, such as for firmware updates on network devices.

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69.   Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the Security Token system?

Explanation

The given statement is true because in a Security Token system, if a user's token does not have the necessary permissions to access certain information, that information will either not be displayed or the user's access will be denied. Additionally, the authentication system generates a token for each user or session at the beginning, and this token is destroyed at the end of the session.

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70.   Which of the following is employed to allow distrusted hosts to connect to services inside a network without allowing the hosts direct access to the internal networks?

Explanation

A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is employed to allow distrusted hosts to connect to services inside a network without allowing the hosts direct access to the internal networks. A DMZ acts as a buffer zone between the internal network and the external network, providing an additional layer of security. It allows external users to access certain services, such as web servers or email servers, while keeping them isolated from the internal network where sensitive data is stored. This helps to protect the internal network from potential security threats that may originate from the external network.

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71.   Virtualized applications, such as virtualized browsers, can protect the underlying operating system from which of the following?

Explanation

Virtualized applications, such as virtualized browsers, can protect the underlying operating system from malware installation from suspect internet sites. By isolating the virtualized browser from the host operating system, any malware downloaded or executed within the virtualized environment will not affect the host system. This ensures that any potential threats from suspect internet sites are contained within the virtualized environment, minimizing the risk to the underlying operating system.

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72.   The MOST common exploits of Internet-exposed network services are due to:

Explanation

Buffer overflows are the most common exploits of Internet-exposed network services because they occur when a program tries to write more data to a buffer than it can hold, causing the excess data to overflow into adjacent memory locations. This can be exploited by attackers to overwrite critical data or execute arbitrary code, leading to unauthorized access or control of the system. Active content, Trojan horse programs, and illicit servers can also be used for exploitation, but buffer overflows are more prevalent and pose a significant security risk.

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73.   Identify the item that can determine which flags are set in a TCP/IP handshake

Explanation

A protocol analyzer is a tool used to capture and analyze network traffic. It can intercept and decode packets exchanged during a TCP/IP handshake. By examining the captured packets, a protocol analyzer can determine which flags are set in the handshake process, such as the SYN and ACK flags. This information is crucial for understanding the establishment and termination of TCP connections.

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74.   Users are using thumb drives to connect to USB ports on company workstations. A technician is concerned that sensitive files can be copied to the USB drives. Which mitigation technique would address this concern (Select TWO)

Explanation

The technician's concern is that sensitive files can be copied to the USB drives. By disabling USB within the workstation's BIOS, it prevents any USB devices from being recognized or connected to the workstation, effectively blocking the ability to copy files to USB drives. Additionally, disabling the USB root hub within the operating system further prevents any USB devices from being recognized or used, providing an extra layer of security against file copying.

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75.   In which authentication model is a ticket granting server an important concept?

Explanation

In the Kerberos authentication model, a ticket granting server (TGS) is an important concept. Kerberos uses a TGS to issue tickets to clients, which can then be used to request access to specific services on the network. The TGS acts as a trusted third party, verifying the client's identity and granting tickets for requested services. This allows for secure authentication and authorization within a Kerberos-based system.

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76.   Which description is correct about a way to prevent buffer overflows?

Explanation

Applying all security patches to workstations is a correct way to prevent buffer overflows. Buffer overflows occur when a program tries to write more data into a buffer than it can hold, leading to potential security vulnerabilities. By regularly updating and applying security patches to workstations, any known vulnerabilities that could be exploited by buffer overflows are addressed and fixed. This helps to ensure that the systems are up to date and protected against potential attacks.

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77.   The purpose of a DNS server is to enable people and applications to lookup records in DNS tables. Why implement security logging on a DNS server?

Explanation

Implementing security logging on a DNS server allows for the monitoring of unauthorized zone transfers. This means that any attempts to transfer DNS zone information without proper authorization can be detected and logged. This helps in identifying any potential security breaches or unauthorized access to the DNS server. By monitoring these unauthorized zone transfers, administrators can take appropriate actions to prevent any further unauthorized access and ensure the security and integrity of the DNS server.

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78.   Which item will MOST likely permit an attacker to make a switch function like a hub?

Explanation

MAC flooding is a technique used by attackers to overload the switch's CAM (Content Addressable Memory) table, which is responsible for mapping MAC addresses to their corresponding ports. By flooding the switch with a large number of fake MAC addresses, the attacker can cause the switch to enter into a fail-open mode, where it starts behaving like a hub and broadcasting all network traffic to all connected devices. This allows the attacker to intercept and capture sensitive information from the network.

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79.   Which of the following can be used to implement a procedure to control inbound and outbound traffic on a network segment?

Explanation

ACL stands for Access Control List and it is used to implement a procedure to control inbound and outbound traffic on a network segment. ACLs are a set of rules that are applied to a network interface or device to filter traffic based on specified criteria such as source IP address, destination IP address, port number, etc. By configuring ACLs, network administrators can determine what traffic is allowed or denied to pass through a network segment, providing an additional layer of security and control.

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80.   While hardening an operating system, which item is LEAST effective?

Explanation

Installing HIDS (Host-based Intrusion Detection System) is the least effective option for hardening an operating system. While HIDS can provide some level of protection by monitoring system activity and detecting potential intrusions, it is not as effective as the other options listed. Configuration baselines help establish a secure starting point for the system, limiting administrative privileges reduces the risk of unauthorized access, and installing a software firewall adds an additional layer of protection against external threats. Therefore, installing HIDS is the least effective measure among the given options.

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81.   The Light Weight Directory Access Protocol or LDAP is an application protocol for querying and modifying directory services running over TCP/IP. A user needs to implement secure LDAP on the network. Which port number will secure LDAP use by default?

Explanation

Secure LDAP (LDAPS) uses port number 636 by default. LDAPS is a secure version of the LDAP protocol that uses SSL/TLS encryption to provide secure communication between the client and the LDAP server. By using port 636, LDAPS ensures that the data exchanged between the client and server is encrypted, preventing unauthorized access or tampering of the data.

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82.   Which threat is increased by the availability of portable external storage such as USB hard drives to networks?

Explanation

The availability of portable external storage such as USB hard drives to networks increases the threat of introducing material onto the network. This means that unauthorized individuals can easily connect their external storage devices to the network and introduce potentially harmful or malicious material, such as malware or unauthorized files. This can compromise the security and integrity of the network and its data.

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83.   For the following items, which is a security limitation of virtualization technology?

Explanation

If an attack occurs, it could potentially disrupt multiple servers because virtualization technology allows multiple virtual machines to run on a single physical server. This means that if one virtual machine is compromised, the attack could spread to other virtual machines running on the same server, leading to a disruption of multiple servers.

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84.   An accountant has logged onto the company’s outside banking website. An administrator uses a TCP/IP monitoring tool to discover that the accountant was actually using a spoofed banking website. What most likely caused this attack? (Select TWO)

Explanation

The most likely cause of the accountant using a spoofed banking website is an altered hosts file and DNS poisoning. An altered hosts file can redirect the accountant's browser to a fake banking website, while DNS poisoning can manipulate the DNS resolution process to redirect the accountant's requests to the spoofed website. Both methods can trick the accountant into thinking they are accessing the legitimate banking website when in reality they are being redirected to a malicious site.

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85.   After installing new software on a machine, what needs to be updated to the baseline?

Explanation

After installing new software on a machine, the baseline needs to be updated for the Anomaly-based NIDS. This is because Anomaly-based NIDS systems use a baseline to establish what is considered normal behavior on a network. When new software is installed, it may introduce new network traffic patterns or behaviors that deviate from the established baseline. Therefore, updating the baseline is necessary to accurately detect and identify any anomalous or suspicious activities on the network.

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86.   Which of the following needs to be backed up on a domain controller to be able to recover Active Directory?

Explanation

To be able to recover Active Directory on a domain controller, the system state needs to be backed up. The system state includes crucial components such as the registry, system files, boot files, and Active Directory database. By backing up the system state, all the necessary information and settings required for Active Directory recovery are preserved. Backing up the operating system, system files, or user data alone would not be sufficient to recover Active Directory.

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87.   Which goals can be achieved by use of security templates? Choose two.

Explanation

Security templates can help achieve the goal of ensuring that all servers start from a common security configuration. By using security templates, organizations can define a baseline security configuration that can be applied consistently across all servers, ensuring that they all have the same level of security.

Additionally, security templates can also help achieve the goal of ensuring that servers are in compliance with the corporate security policy. Organizations can define security policies and settings within the security templates, and then apply these templates to servers to ensure that they meet the required security standards and comply with the corporate security policy.

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88.   What will be implemented by a technician to mitigate the chances of a successful attack against the wireless network?

Explanation

Implementing an authentication system and WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access) will help mitigate the chances of a successful attack against the wireless network. WPA provides stronger security compared to WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) and helps protect against unauthorized access. An authentication system further adds a layer of security by verifying the identity of users before granting access to the network. This combination of authentication and encryption (WPA) helps ensure that only authorized users can connect to the network, reducing the risk of successful attacks.

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89.   Which of the following BEST describes an attempt to transfer DNS zone data?

Explanation

Reconnaissance refers to the process of gathering information about a target system or network to identify vulnerabilities and potential attack vectors. In the context of DNS, an attempt to transfer DNS zone data involves trying to obtain information about the DNS zones and their associated records. This can provide valuable information to an attacker, such as the IP addresses of servers and services within the network, which can be used for further exploitation. Therefore, reconnaissance is the best description for an attempt to transfer DNS zone data.

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90.   In cryptography, a pre-shared key or PSK is a shared secret which was previously shared between the two parties using some secure channel before it needs to be used. Pre-shared keys can be applied to which of the following?

Explanation

A pre-shared key (PSK) can be applied to a Trusted Platform Module (TPM). A TPM is a hardware chip that securely stores cryptographic keys and performs cryptographic operations. By using a PSK, the TPM can authenticate and establish a secure connection with another party, ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of the communication. PSKs are commonly used in scenarios where two parties need to establish a secure channel without relying on a public key infrastructure or certificate authority.

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91.   In computing, virtualization is a broad term that refers to the abstraction of computer resources. Which is a security reason to implement virtualization throughout the network infrastructure?

Explanation

Virtualization allows for the creation of virtual machines that can be used to analyze network traffic using protocol analyzers. By implementing virtualization throughout the network infrastructure, organizations can easily set up virtual machines specifically for traffic analysis purposes. This helps in monitoring and identifying any potential security threats or anomalies in the network traffic. Additionally, virtualization provides a flexible and scalable environment for protocol analyzers, making it easier to analyze and manage network traffic effectively.

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  Why will a Faraday cage be used?
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