Y8 Allergy Quiz By S.Nelson

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  • 1/103 Questions

    Blood contains which three major types of cells that float in the liquid plasma?

    • Red blood cells (RBCs)
    • White Blood Cells (WBCs)
    • Platelets
    • All of the above
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About This Quiz

Y8 Allergy Quiz by S. Nelson explores key aspects of blood cells and their roles in the immune system, focusing on types of white blood cells and their functions.

Y8 Allergy Quiz By S.Nelson - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    True or False: the two types of immunization exemptions are medical and administrative.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because the two types of immunization exemptions are indeed medical and administrative. Medical exemptions are granted when a person has a medical condition that prevents them from receiving certain vaccines. Administrative exemptions, on the other hand, are granted for non-medical reasons, such as religious or philosophical beliefs. Both types of exemptions allow individuals to be exempt from the usual immunization requirements.

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  • 3. 

    What is the only contraindication to a vaccine?

    • There are no contraindications

    • Patient is feeling ill

    • History of anaphylactic reaction after a prior dose of a vaccine or vaccine constituent

    Correct Answer
    A. History of anaphylactic reaction after a prior dose of a vaccine or vaccine constituent
    Explanation
    A contraindication is a specific situation or condition where a particular treatment or intervention should not be used because it may cause harm or have adverse effects. In the context of vaccines, a history of anaphylactic reaction after a prior dose of a vaccine or vaccine constituent is the only contraindication. This means that if a person has previously experienced a severe allergic reaction to a vaccine or any of its components, they should not receive the same vaccine again. It is important to consider this contraindication to ensure the safety and well-being of the individual receiving the vaccine.

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  • 4. 

    What are the five types of hyperimmune globulins?

    • Rig

    • Tig

    • VZig

    • BabyBig

    • HBig

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because all five options listed (Rig, Tig, VZig, BabyBig, HBig) are types of hyperimmune globulins. Therefore, selecting "All of the above" includes all the correct options.

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  • 5. 

    What is the licensing age for the Hepatitis A vaccine?

    • 18 and older

    • 12 months and older

    • 10 years and older

    • 60 years and older

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 months and older
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 12 months and older. This means that individuals who are at least 12 months old are eligible to receive the Hepatitis A vaccine. This age requirement is likely based on scientific research and recommendations from healthcare professionals, which determine that the vaccine is safe and effective for children who are at least one year old.

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  • 6. 

    What is the licensing age for Gardasil?

    • 9-45 years

    • 9-25 years

    Correct Answer
    A. 9-45 years
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 9-45 years. Gardasil is a vaccine that helps protect against certain types of HPV (human papillomavirus), which can lead to cervical cancer, as well as other types of cancers and genital warts. The vaccine is approved for use in individuals aged 9-45 years, meaning it can be given to both males and females within this age range to provide protection against HPV and its related diseases.

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  • 7. 

    The _______ immune system is the system that is always ready and does not depend upon specific recognition

    • Innate

    • Adaptive

    Correct Answer
    A. Innate
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "innate". The innate immune system is always ready and does not depend on specific recognition. It is the first line of defense against pathogens and works through general mechanisms such as physical barriers, inflammation, and phagocytosis. Unlike the adaptive immune system, which requires time to recognize and respond to specific pathogens, the innate immune system provides immediate protection.

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  • 8. 

    __________ is the process of engulfing bacteria and taking it inside a macrophage for destruction and breakdown

    • Monocytosis

    • Dendritic process

    • Phagocytosis

    • Clonal expansion

    Correct Answer
    A. Phagocytosis
    Explanation
    Phagocytosis is the process by which a macrophage engulfs bacteria and brings it inside for destruction and breakdown. This process involves the macrophage extending its membrane around the bacteria, forming a phagosome. The phagosome then fuses with lysosomes, forming a phagolysosome, where the bacteria are destroyed by enzymes and other substances. Phagocytosis is an important mechanism of the immune system to eliminate pathogens and foreign particles.

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  • 9. 

    Which type of t-cell directs the immune response by sending out various signals which help other  cells get excited about defending the body?

    • Helper t-cells

    • Killer or cytotoxic t-cells

    • Regulatory t-cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Helper t-cells
    Explanation
    Helper T-cells, also known as CD4+ T-cells, play a crucial role in the immune response by releasing signals called cytokines. These signals help activate and coordinate other immune cells, such as B-cells and cytotoxic T-cells, to mount a defense against pathogens. Helper T-cells are responsible for enhancing the immune response and assisting in the production of antibodies, making them vital in the body's defense against infections.

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  • 10. 

    True or False: Anaphylaxis of any severity should be considered a medical emergency

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that can occur within seconds or minutes of exposure to an allergen. It can cause symptoms such as difficulty breathing, swelling of the throat, low blood pressure, and loss of consciousness. Without prompt medical intervention, anaphylaxis can be fatal. Therefore, regardless of the severity of the reaction, anaphylaxis should always be considered a medical emergency and requires immediate treatment.

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  • 11. 

    _______ mature in the bone marrow and are found in the blood stream

    • B-lymphocytes

    • Eosinophils

    • T-lymphocytes

    • Monocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. B-lymphocytes
    Explanation
    B-lymphocytes mature in the bone marrow and are found in the bloodstream. These cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response. They are responsible for producing antibodies, which help to identify and neutralize foreign substances in the body. B-lymphocytes are an important component of the adaptive immune system and help to protect against infections and diseases.

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  • 12. 

    Once a T-Cell becomes excited and multiplies, it goes through a process called _______. This process produces new cells that are exact copies of the original cell

    • Phagocytosis

    • Clonal expansion

    • Complement system

    Correct Answer
    A. Clonal expansion
    Explanation
    Clonal expansion is the correct answer because once a T-Cell becomes excited and multiplies, it goes through a process called clonal expansion. This process involves the rapid proliferation of the T-Cell, resulting in the production of new cells that are exact copies of the original cell. These new cells play a crucial role in the immune response by recognizing and attacking specific antigens. Phagocytosis is the process by which cells engulf and digest foreign particles, while the complement system is a group of proteins that work together to enhance the immune response.

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  • 13. 

    Which type of T-Cells kill abnormal host cells?

    • Helper t-cells

    • Regulatory t-cells

    • Killer or cytotoxic t-cells 

    Correct Answer
    A. Killer or cytotoxic t-cells 
    Explanation
    Killer or cytotoxic T-cells are a type of T-cells that are responsible for killing abnormal host cells. These cells play a crucial role in immune responses by identifying and destroying cells that have been infected with viruses or have become cancerous. They do this by releasing toxic substances that induce cell death in the target cells. Killer or cytotoxic T-cells are an essential component of the immune system's defense against infections and tumors.

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  • 14. 

    Which immune system is our body's first line of defense against infection?

    • Innate or nonspecific

    • Adaptive or specific

    Correct Answer
    A. Innate or nonspecific
    Explanation
    The innate or nonspecific immune system is our body's first line of defense against infection. It is called nonspecific because it provides a general defense mechanism against a wide range of pathogens, without targeting specific antigens. This immune system includes physical barriers like the skin and mucous membranes, as well as cellular components like phagocytes and natural killer cells. These components work together to quickly recognize and eliminate foreign invaders, providing immediate protection against infections. The adaptive or specific immune system, on the other hand, is a more targeted response that develops over time and specifically targets antigens that have been encountered before.

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  • 15. 

    Which antibody created by the B cell is the first antibody produced?

    • IgA

    • IgD

    • IgE

    • IgM

    Correct Answer
    A. IgM
    Explanation
    IgM is the first antibody produced by B cells. It is the initial response to an infection or antigen exposure. IgM is a pentamer and is involved in the primary immune response. It is responsible for activating complement and neutralizing pathogens.

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  • 16. 

    What is the adult dose of epinephrine to a patient in anaphylaxis?

    • 0.15ml of 1:1000

    • 0.3ml of 1:1000

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.3ml of 1:1000
    Explanation
    The adult dose of epinephrine to a patient in anaphylaxis is 0.3ml of 1:1000. This means that 0.3ml of epinephrine solution with a concentration of 1:1000 is administered to the patient. This dosage is recommended to effectively treat anaphylaxis in adults.

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  • 17. 

    How man immunization standards are there for military members?

    • Four

    • Eighteen

    • Eight

    • Six

    Correct Answer
    A. Eight
    Explanation
    There are eight immunization standards for military members.

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  • 18. 

    What is the administration schedule for the Anthrax vaccine?

    • Day 0, day 30, 6 months, 12 months, 18 months

    • Day 0, 30, 180

    • Day 0 and 180

    • Day 0 and 28

    Correct Answer
    A. Day 0, day 30, 6 months, 12 months, 18 months
    Explanation
    The correct answer is day 0, day 30, 6 months, 12 months, 18 months. This administration schedule suggests that the Anthrax vaccine should be given on day 0, followed by a second dose on day 30. After that, additional doses should be administered at 6 months, 12 months, and 18 months. This schedule ensures that individuals receive the necessary doses of the vaccine at specific intervals to provide optimal protection against Anthrax.

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  • 19. 

    What is the licensing age for the DTap vaccine?

    • 2 months to 6 months

    • 6 weeks to <7 years

    • 2 months to <7 months

    • 2 months to 15 months

    Correct Answer
    A. 6 weeks to <7 years
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 6 weeks to

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  • 20. 

    What vaccines make up Kinrix?

    • Hep A and Hep B

    • DTap and IPV

    • Hep B, DTap, HiB

    Correct Answer
    A. DTap and IPV
    Explanation
    Kinrix is a combination vaccine that contains both DTap (Diphtheria, Tetanus, and Pertussis) and IPV (Inactivated Poliovirus). This combination vaccine helps protect against diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, and polio.

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  • 21. 

    What vaccines make up ProQuad?

    • MMR and Varicella

    • Varicella and DTAP

    • MMR and IPV

    Correct Answer
    A. MMR and Varicella
    Explanation
    ProQuad is a combination vaccine that contains the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine and the varicella (chickenpox) vaccine. This combination vaccine helps protect against these four diseases in one shot.

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  • 22. 

    At what age should a person begin receiving the influenza vaccine?

    • 12 months

    • 6 months

    • 15 months

    • 18 months

    Correct Answer
    A. 6 months
    Explanation
    The influenza vaccine should be given to a person starting at 6 months of age. This is because infants are more vulnerable to severe complications from the flu, and getting vaccinated at an early age helps protect them from the virus. Additionally, vaccinating young children also helps prevent the spread of influenza to other vulnerable populations, such as the elderly or individuals with weakened immune systems.

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  • 23. 

    Which one do you like?

    • Option 1

    • Option 2

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Option 1
  • 24. 

    The _____ system is made up of a number of proteins that circulate in the body and are harmless until they are activated and attach to bacteria. Once they attach they either punch holes in the cell membrane or make it easier for the phagocytic cells to engulf and destroy the sell

    • Clonal

    • Complement

    • T-cell

    • Phagocytosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Complement
    Explanation
    The complement system is a group of proteins that circulate in the body and remain harmless until they are activated and attach to bacteria. Once attached, they can either create holes in the cell membrane or facilitate the engulfment and destruction of the bacteria by phagocytic cells.

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  • 25. 

    Who is not responsible for ensuring all military/non military personnel under their jurisdiction receive required immunizations?

    • Combatant commanders

    • Unit commanding officers

    • Primary vaccine coordinators

    • Major command commanders

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary vaccine coordinators
    Explanation
    Primary vaccine coordinators are not responsible for ensuring all military/non military personnel under their jurisdiction receive required immunizations. This responsibility falls on combatant commanders, unit commanding officers, and major command commanders. Primary vaccine coordinators may assist in coordinating and administering vaccines, but they do not have the overall responsibility for ensuring immunizations are received by personnel.

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  • 26. 

    How many days prior to separation or retirement are members exempt from immunizations, with their command's permission?

    • 30 days

    • 60 days

    • 90 days

    • 180 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 180 days
    Explanation
    Members are exempt from immunizations for 180 days prior to separation or retirement with their command's permission. This extended exemption period allows individuals to avoid unnecessary immunizations during the transition period out of the military. It gives them time to complete the separation or retirement process without the added burden of immunizations.

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  • 27. 

    Which branch of service is the only one required to have Yellow fever?

    • Air Force

    • Army

    • Marine Corps

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Marine Corps
    Explanation
    The Marine Corps is the only branch of service that is required to have Yellow fever. This means that all members of the Marine Corps must receive a Yellow fever vaccination in order to serve. The Air Force and Army are not required to have this vaccination.

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  • 28. 

    _____ is a condition in a recipient that increases the risk for a serious adverse reaction

    • Contraindication

    • Precaution

    Correct Answer
    A. Contraindication
    Explanation
    A contraindication is a condition in a recipient that increases the risk for a serious adverse reaction. This means that if a recipient has a contraindication, it is not recommended for them to receive a particular treatment or medication due to the potential harm it could cause. In contrast, a precaution refers to a condition that may require extra care or monitoring when administering a treatment or medication, but it does not necessarily mean that the treatment should be avoided altogether.

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  • 29. 

    True or False: Live oral vaccines can be administered simultaneously or at any interval before or after inactivated or live injectable vaccines

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Live oral vaccines can be administered simultaneously or at any interval before or after inactivated or live injectable vaccines. This is because live oral vaccines contain weakened or attenuated forms of the virus or bacteria, which stimulate the immune system without causing the disease. They can be given alongside other vaccines without interfering with their effectiveness. This flexibility in administration allows for convenient and efficient vaccination schedules.

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  • 30. 

    A ________ is a condition in a patient that might increase the risk for a serious adverse reaction

    • Contraindication

    • Precaution

    Correct Answer
    A. Precaution
    Explanation
    A precaution is a condition in a patient that might increase the risk for a serious adverse reaction. It is a measure taken to prevent harm or minimize risks associated with a particular treatment or procedure. In the context of medical care, precautions are necessary when there is a potential risk to the patient's health, and they help healthcare providers make informed decisions about the best course of action. Contrarily, a contraindication refers to a condition or factor that makes a particular treatment or procedure inappropriate or potentially harmful for a patient.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following contains gelatin?

    • VZV

    • IPV

    • Yellow Fever

    • Oral Typhoid

    Correct Answer
    A. VZV
    Explanation
    VZV, also known as Varicella-Zoster Virus, contains gelatin. Gelatin is commonly used as a stabilizer and protective agent in vaccines, including the VZV vaccine. It helps to maintain the integrity and effectiveness of the vaccine during storage and transportation. Gelatin is derived from collagen, a protein found in animal tissues, and is used in vaccine production to ensure stability and enhance the immune response. Therefore, VZV is the correct answer as it contains gelatin.

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  • 32. 

    How many times daily should the vaccine temperatures be checked and recorded?

    • Once daily

    • Twice daily

    • Once weekly

    • Three times daily 

    Correct Answer
    A. Twice daily
    Explanation
    The vaccine temperatures should be checked and recorded twice daily to ensure that they are being stored at the appropriate temperature. Checking the temperatures multiple times throughout the day helps to identify any fluctuations or deviations that may occur, allowing for timely action to be taken to prevent spoilage or loss of effectiveness of the vaccines. This frequent monitoring helps to maintain the quality and efficacy of the vaccines, ensuring that they can provide the intended protection when administered to individuals.

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  • 33. 

    Refrigerator temperature logs should eb kept for a minimum of how many years?

    • Three years

    • Not necessary to keep

    • One year

    • Two years

    Correct Answer
    A. Three years
    Explanation
    Refrigerator temperature logs should be kept for a minimum of three years to ensure food safety and compliance with regulations. This duration allows for sufficient time to track and monitor temperature fluctuations, identify any potential issues or deviations, and take necessary corrective actions. Keeping these logs for three years also helps in maintaining a record of temperature trends and patterns over an extended period, which can be useful for audits, inspections, and quality control purposes.

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  • 34. 

    When is the HiBerix vaccine used in HiB vaccination series?

    • First dose

    • Second dose

    • Third dose

    • Last dose

    Correct Answer
    A. Last dose
    Explanation
    The HiBerix vaccine is used as the last dose in the HiB vaccination series. This means that it is administered after the first, second, and third doses. The HiBerix vaccine is typically given to provide protection against Haemophilus influenzae type b (HiB) infection, which can cause serious illnesses such as meningitis and pneumonia. By administering the HiBerix vaccine as the last dose, it ensures that individuals receive the full course of the HiB vaccination series and are adequately protected against HiB infection.

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  • 35. 

    What is the pediatric schedule for Hep A?

    • 2, 4 ,6 months

    • 2, 4, 12-15 months

    • 12 and 18 months

    • 2 and 4 months

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 and 18 months
    Explanation
    The pediatric schedule for Hep A vaccination is recommended at 12 and 18 months of age. This timing allows for optimal protection against the hepatitis A virus, as the vaccine is most effective when administered in two doses several months apart. By following this schedule, children can develop immunity against Hep A at a young age and reduce their risk of infection.

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  • 36. 

    What is the licensing age for Hepatitis B?

    • 18 and older

    • 12 months and older

    • Birth and older

    • 60 and older

    Correct Answer
    A. Birth and older
    Explanation
    There is no specific licensing age for Hepatitis B. The disease can affect individuals of all ages, including newborns (birth and older) and adults. Therefore, the correct answer is "birth and older" as it encompasses all age groups.

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  • 37. 

    What is the licensing age for Ixario?

    • 17 and older

    • 18 and older

    • 10 and older

    • 2 months and older

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 months and older
  • 38. 

    What is the licensing age for the Anthrax vaccine?

    • 18 and older

    • 18 to 60

    • 18 to 65

    • 11 to 64

    Correct Answer
    A. 18 to 65
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 18 to 65. This age range indicates that individuals between the ages of 18 and 65 are eligible to receive the Anthrax vaccine. It is important to note that individuals younger than 18 or older than 65 may not be approved to receive the vaccine due to potential risks or lack of effectiveness.

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  • 39. 

    How many proteins is a T-Cell designed to recognize?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Five

    Correct Answer
    A. One
    Explanation
    A T-Cell is designed to recognize one specific protein. T-Cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune system by identifying and attacking foreign substances in the body. Each T-Cell has a unique receptor on its surface that is capable of recognizing a specific protein, known as an antigen. This recognition allows the T-Cell to initiate an immune response against the antigen, helping to eliminate the threat. Therefore, a T-Cell is designed to recognize only one protein.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following is not one of the five types of antibodies created by B cells?

    • IgA

    • IgB

    • IgG

    • IgM

    Correct Answer
    A. IgB
    Explanation
    IgB is not one of the five types of antibodies created by B cells. The five types of antibodies created by B cells are IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, and IgM.

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  • 41. 

    Which antibody is the allergic antibody?

    • IgG

    • IgA

    • IgM

    • IgE

    Correct Answer
    A. IgE
    Explanation
    IgE is the allergic antibody because it is primarily involved in allergic reactions. When an allergen enters the body, IgE antibodies are produced and bind to mast cells and basophils. Upon re-exposure to the allergen, these IgE antibodies trigger the release of inflammatory mediators, such as histamine, leading to allergic symptoms such as itching, swelling, and difficulty breathing. IgG, IgA, and IgM are involved in different immune responses but are not specifically associated with allergic reactions.

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  • 42. 

    What is the child dose of epinephrine for a patient in anaphylaxis?

    • 0.15ml of 1:1000

    • 0.3mg of 1:1000

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.15ml of 1:1000
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 0.15ml of 1:1000. In anaphylaxis, epinephrine is administered to help relieve symptoms and improve breathing. The child dose of epinephrine is typically 0.15ml of a 1:1000 concentration. This means that in each milliliter of solution, there is 1mg of epinephrine. This dose is appropriate for children experiencing anaphylaxis and can be administered using an auto-injector device.

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  • 43. 

    Kinrix is used as the final dose in which series of vaccines?

    • HiB and Hep b

    • Hep A and Hep B

    • DTap and IPV

    • PCV13 and IPV

    Correct Answer
    A. DTap and IPV
    Explanation
    Kinrix is a combination vaccine that is used as the final dose in the series of vaccines for DTap (diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis) and IPV (inactivated poliovirus). This means that after receiving the recommended doses of DTap and IPV vaccines, the final dose can be administered using Kinrix. It is important to follow the recommended vaccine schedule to ensure proper immunization and protection against these diseases.

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  • 44. 

    What is the schedule for PCV13?

    • 2, 4 and 6 months

    • 2, 4, 6 and 12-15 months 

    • 2 and 4 months

    • 18 months and older

    Correct Answer
    A. 2, 4, 6 and 12-15 months 
    Explanation
    PCV13 refers to the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine, which is used to protect against infections caused by the bacteria Streptococcus pneumoniae. The vaccine is typically administered in a series of doses at specific intervals. The correct answer states that the schedule for PCV13 includes doses at 2, 4, 6, and 12-15 months. This means that the vaccine should be given to infants at these specific ages to provide optimal protection against pneumococcal infections.

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  • 45. 

    What is the licensing age for Adacel (Tdap)?

    • 10 and older

    • 10 to 64 years

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 to 64 years
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 10 to 64 years. This means that individuals aged 10 and older up to 64 years old are eligible to receive the Adacel (Tdap) vaccine. The vaccine is commonly used to provide protection against tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis (whooping cough). It is important for individuals within this age range to receive the vaccine to prevent the spread of these diseases and maintain their own health and well-being.

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  • 46. 

    What is the licensing age for Shingrix?

    • 50 years and older

    • 35 years and older

    • 60 years and older

    • 20 years and older

    Correct Answer
    A. 50 years and older
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 50 years and older. This means that individuals who are 50 years old or above are eligible to receive the Shingrix vaccine. This vaccine is used to prevent shingles, a painful rash that is caused by the varicella-zoster virus. By receiving the vaccine, individuals can reduce their risk of developing shingles and its associated complications. It is important for individuals in this age group to consult with their healthcare provider to determine if they should receive the Shingrix vaccine.

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  • 47. 

    What is the licensing age for the FluMist?

    • 6 months and older

    • 12 months and older

    • 18-49 years

    • 2-49 years

    Correct Answer
    A. 2-49 years
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2-49 years. This means that the FluMist vaccine can be given to individuals who are between the ages of 2 and 49 years old. It is not recommended for infants younger than 2 years old or adults older than 49 years old. This age range is based on the safety and effectiveness of the vaccine in these specific age groups.

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  • 48. 

    These lymphocytes mature in the thymus and are responsible for cell-mediated immunity

    • T-lymphocytes

    • B-lymphocytes

    • T-cells

    • Histamines

    Correct Answer
    A. T-lymphocytes
    Explanation
    T-lymphocytes, also known as T-cells, are a type of lymphocyte that mature in the thymus. They play a crucial role in cell-mediated immunity, which involves the activation of immune cells to directly attack and destroy infected or cancerous cells. T-lymphocytes recognize specific antigens on the surface of these abnormal cells and initiate an immune response to eliminate them. This response can include the release of chemicals called cytokines, which attract other immune cells to the site of infection or inflammation. Therefore, T-lymphocytes are responsible for coordinating and regulating the body's immune response against pathogens and abnormal cells.

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  • 49. 

    Which antibody is the found in the highest quantities in the blood stream?

    • IgG

    • IgA

    • IgM

    • IgE

    Correct Answer
    A. IgG
    Explanation
    IgG is the antibody found in the highest quantities in the bloodstream. It is the most abundant antibody in the human body and plays a crucial role in providing long-term immunity against pathogens. IgG is able to cross the placenta, providing passive immunity to newborns, and it also activates complement proteins to enhance the immune response.

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  • Sep 05, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Nov 16, 2019
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    Suzanna

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