Y8 Allergy Quiz By S.Nelson
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Blood contains which three major types of cells that float in the liquid plasma?
- A.
Red blood cells (RBCs)
- B.
White Blood Cells (WBCs)
- C.
Platelets
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is "all of the above" because blood contains all three major types of cells - red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs), and platelets. These cells are suspended in the liquid plasma of the blood. RBCs are responsible for carrying oxygen to the body's tissues, WBCs play a role in the immune system and fighting off infections, and platelets help in blood clotting to prevent excessive bleeding.Rate this question:
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- 2.
_______ make up 20-25% of the total WBC count and are very important because they provide immunologic memory.
- A.
Lymphocytes
- B.
Eosinophils
- C.
Macrophages
- D.
Monocytes
Correct Answer
A. LymphocytesExplanation
Lymphocytes make up 20-25% of the total WBC count and are very important because they provide immunologic memory. They play a crucial role in the adaptive immune response, recognizing and remembering specific pathogens. This allows the immune system to respond more effectively upon subsequent encounters with the same pathogen. Lymphocytes include B cells, T cells, and natural killer cells, each with their own specialized functions in immune defense.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Along with neutrophils, these also serve as the first line of defense against infection and perform the same functions as monocytes
- A.
T-Lymphocytes
- B.
Macrophages
- C.
Eosinophils
- D.
B-Lymphocytes
Correct Answer
B. MacrophagesExplanation
Macrophages serve as the first line of defense against infection, just like neutrophils. They are a type of white blood cell that engulfs and destroys pathogens, dead cells, and other foreign substances in the body. Macrophages also play a role in initiating and regulating immune responses. They are similar to monocytes in terms of their functions, as both are involved in phagocytosis and antigen presentation. Therefore, macrophages are the correct answer as they align with the given explanation.Rate this question:
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- 4.
_______ make up 60-70% of WBCs and are part of the organism's first line of defense against infection.
- A.
Eosinophils
- B.
Lymphocytes
- C.
Monocytes
- D.
Neutrophils
Correct Answer
D. NeutrophilsExplanation
Neutrophils make up 60-70% of WBCs and are part of the organism's first line of defense against infection. They are phagocytic cells that are able to engulf and destroy bacteria and other pathogens. Neutrophils are typically the first immune cells to arrive at the site of infection and play a crucial role in the inflammatory response. They release enzymes and chemicals to kill the invading pathogens and recruit other immune cells to the site of infection.Rate this question:
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- 5.
This WBC is found in very small numbers in circulating blood and nasal secretions
- A.
Basophils
- B.
Neutrophils
- C.
Eosinophils
- D.
B-lymphocytes
Correct Answer
A. BasophilsExplanation
Basophils are a type of white blood cell (WBC) that are found in very small numbers in circulating blood and nasal secretions. They play a role in the immune response by releasing chemicals such as histamine, which are involved in allergic reactions and inflammation. Basophils are also involved in defense against parasites. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and B-lymphocytes are other types of WBCs, but they are not specifically associated with being found in small numbers in circulating blood and nasal secretions.Rate this question:
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- 6.
_________ specializes in presenting parts of these organisms to other cells in the immune system, such as t-cells, and are thus known as "antigen presenting cells".
- A.
Basinophils
- B.
B-lymphocytes
- C.
Monocytes
- D.
T-cells
Correct Answer
C. MonocytesExplanation
Monocytes specialize in presenting parts of organisms to other cells in the immune system, such as T-cells, and are thus known as "antigen presenting cells". This means that monocytes play a crucial role in the immune response by presenting antigens to T-cells, which then activate the immune system to fight against pathogens.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which one do you like?
- A.
Option 1
- B.
Option 2
- C.
Option 3
- D.
Option 4
Correct Answer
A. Option 1 -
- 8.
These lymphocytes mature in the thymus and are responsible for cell-mediated immunity
- A.
T-lymphocytes
- B.
B-lymphocytes
- C.
T-cells
- D.
Histamines
Correct Answer
A. T-lymphocytesExplanation
T-lymphocytes, also known as T-cells, are a type of lymphocyte that mature in the thymus. They play a crucial role in cell-mediated immunity, which involves the activation of immune cells to directly attack and destroy infected or cancerous cells. T-lymphocytes recognize specific antigens on the surface of these abnormal cells and initiate an immune response to eliminate them. This response can include the release of chemicals called cytokines, which attract other immune cells to the site of infection or inflammation. Therefore, T-lymphocytes are responsible for coordinating and regulating the body's immune response against pathogens and abnormal cells.Rate this question:
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- 9.
_______ mature in the bone marrow and are found in the blood stream
- A.
B-lymphocytes
- B.
Eosinophils
- C.
T-lymphocytes
- D.
Monocytes
Correct Answer
A. B-lymphocytesExplanation
B-lymphocytes mature in the bone marrow and are found in the bloodstream. These cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response. They are responsible for producing antibodies, which help to identify and neutralize foreign substances in the body. B-lymphocytes are an important component of the adaptive immune system and help to protect against infections and diseases.Rate this question:
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- 10.
_______ make up 1-3% of WBCs and are increased in allergic disorders and parasite infections
- A.
Macrophages
- B.
Eosinophils
- C.
Monocytes
- D.
Phagocytosis
Correct Answer
B. EosinophilsExplanation
Eosinophils make up 1-3% of white blood cells (WBCs) and are increased in allergic disorders and parasite infections. Eosinophils are a type of granulocyte that play a role in immune responses against parasites and in allergic reactions. They release toxic substances to kill parasites and are involved in the inflammation response during allergies. Therefore, an increase in eosinophils can indicate the presence of these conditions.Rate this question:
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- 11.
When an allergen binds to and cross-links the IgE, the ____________ releases chemical mediators from its granules
- A.
Dendritic cells
- B.
Histamines
- C.
Macrophages
- D.
Mast cells
Correct Answer
D. Mast cellsExplanation
When an allergen binds to and cross-links the IgE, mast cells release chemical mediators from their granules. Mast cells are a type of immune cell found in tissues throughout the body, especially in areas prone to allergic reactions such as the skin, lungs, and digestive tract. When activated by an allergen, mast cells release substances like histamines, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes, which trigger an inflammatory response. This response leads to the symptoms associated with allergies, such as itching, sneezing, and swelling. Dendritic cells and macrophages are also involved in the immune response but do not release the same chemical mediators as mast cells.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The _______ immune system is the system that is always ready and does not depend upon specific recognition
- A.
Innate
- B.
Adaptive
Correct Answer
A. InnateExplanation
The correct answer is "innate". The innate immune system is always ready and does not depend on specific recognition. It is the first line of defense against pathogens and works through general mechanisms such as physical barriers, inflammation, and phagocytosis. Unlike the adaptive immune system, which requires time to recognize and respond to specific pathogens, the innate immune system provides immediate protection.Rate this question:
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- 13.
__________ is the process of engulfing bacteria and taking it inside a macrophage for destruction and breakdown
- A.
Monocytosis
- B.
Dendritic process
- C.
Phagocytosis
- D.
Clonal expansion
Correct Answer
C. PhagocytosisExplanation
Phagocytosis is the process by which a macrophage engulfs bacteria and brings it inside for destruction and breakdown. This process involves the macrophage extending its membrane around the bacteria, forming a phagosome. The phagosome then fuses with lysosomes, forming a phagolysosome, where the bacteria are destroyed by enzymes and other substances. Phagocytosis is an important mechanism of the immune system to eliminate pathogens and foreign particles.Rate this question:
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- 14.
How long do macrophages stay in the blood stream before patrolling in the body's tissues?
- A.
1 day
- B.
12 hours
- C.
1 week
- D.
3 days
Correct Answer
D. 3 daysExplanation
Macrophages are immune cells that play a crucial role in the body's defense system. They are initially produced in the bone marrow and released into the bloodstream as monocytes. From the bloodstream, they migrate to various tissues where they differentiate into mature macrophages. Once in the tissues, macrophages perform their functions, such as engulfing and destroying pathogens. The given answer, 3 days, suggests that macrophages spend approximately three days in the bloodstream before patrolling the body's tissues. This time allows for the transportation of monocytes to different areas, where they can mature into macrophages and carry out their immune functions.Rate this question:
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- 15.
The _____ system is made up of a number of proteins that circulate in the body and are harmless until they are activated and attach to bacteria. Once they attach they either punch holes in the cell membrane or make it easier for the phagocytic cells to engulf and destroy the sell
- A.
Clonal
- B.
Complement
- C.
T-cell
- D.
Phagocytosis
Correct Answer
B. ComplementExplanation
The complement system is a group of proteins that circulate in the body and remain harmless until they are activated and attach to bacteria. Once attached, they can either create holes in the cell membrane or facilitate the engulfment and destruction of the bacteria by phagocytic cells.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Once a T-Cell becomes excited and multiplies, it goes through a process called _______. This process produces new cells that are exact copies of the original cell
- A.
Phagocytosis
- B.
Clonal expansion
- C.
Complement system
Correct Answer
B. Clonal expansionExplanation
Clonal expansion is the correct answer because once a T-Cell becomes excited and multiplies, it goes through a process called clonal expansion. This process involves the rapid proliferation of the T-Cell, resulting in the production of new cells that are exact copies of the original cell. These new cells play a crucial role in the immune response by recognizing and attacking specific antigens. Phagocytosis is the process by which cells engulf and digest foreign particles, while the complement system is a group of proteins that work together to enhance the immune response.Rate this question:
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- 17.
How many proteins is a T-Cell designed to recognize?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Five
Correct Answer
A. OneExplanation
A T-Cell is designed to recognize one specific protein. T-Cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune system by identifying and attacking foreign substances in the body. Each T-Cell has a unique receptor on its surface that is capable of recognizing a specific protein, known as an antigen. This recognition allows the T-Cell to initiate an immune response against the antigen, helping to eliminate the threat. Therefore, a T-Cell is designed to recognize only one protein.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which type of T-Cells kill abnormal host cells?
- A.
Helper t-cells
- B.
Regulatory t-cells
- C.
Killer or cytotoxic t-cells
Correct Answer
C. Killer or cytotoxic t-cellsExplanation
Killer or cytotoxic T-cells are a type of T-cells that are responsible for killing abnormal host cells. These cells play a crucial role in immune responses by identifying and destroying cells that have been infected with viruses or have become cancerous. They do this by releasing toxic substances that induce cell death in the target cells. Killer or cytotoxic T-cells are an essential component of the immune system's defense against infections and tumors.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which type of t-cell directs the immune response by sending out various signals which help other cells get excited about defending the body?
- A.
Helper t-cells
- B.
Killer or cytotoxic t-cells
- C.
Regulatory t-cells
Correct Answer
A. Helper t-cellsExplanation
Helper T-cells, also known as CD4+ T-cells, play a crucial role in the immune response by releasing signals called cytokines. These signals help activate and coordinate other immune cells, such as B-cells and cytotoxic T-cells, to mount a defense against pathogens. Helper T-cells are responsible for enhancing the immune response and assisting in the production of antibodies, making them vital in the body's defense against infections.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which immune system is our body's first line of defense against infection?
- A.
Innate or nonspecific
- B.
Adaptive or specific
Correct Answer
A. Innate or nonspecificExplanation
The innate or nonspecific immune system is our body's first line of defense against infection. It is called nonspecific because it provides a general defense mechanism against a wide range of pathogens, without targeting specific antigens. This immune system includes physical barriers like the skin and mucous membranes, as well as cellular components like phagocytes and natural killer cells. These components work together to quickly recognize and eliminate foreign invaders, providing immediate protection against infections. The adaptive or specific immune system, on the other hand, is a more targeted response that develops over time and specifically targets antigens that have been encountered before.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which of the following is not one of the five types of antibodies created by B cells?
- A.
IgA
- B.
IgB
- C.
IgG
- D.
IgM
Correct Answer
B. IgBExplanation
IgB is not one of the five types of antibodies created by B cells. The five types of antibodies created by B cells are IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, and IgM.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which antibody created by the B cell is the first antibody produced?
- A.
IgA
- B.
IgD
- C.
IgE
- D.
IgM
Correct Answer
D. IgMExplanation
IgM is the first antibody produced by B cells. It is the initial response to an infection or antigen exposure. IgM is a pentamer and is involved in the primary immune response. It is responsible for activating complement and neutralizing pathogens.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which antibody is the found in the highest quantities in the blood stream?
- A.
IgG
- B.
IgA
- C.
IgM
- D.
IgE
Correct Answer
A. IgGExplanation
IgG is the antibody found in the highest quantities in the bloodstream. It is the most abundant antibody in the human body and plays a crucial role in providing long-term immunity against pathogens. IgG is able to cross the placenta, providing passive immunity to newborns, and it also activates complement proteins to enhance the immune response.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which antibody is the allergic antibody?
- A.
IgG
- B.
IgA
- C.
IgM
- D.
IgE
Correct Answer
D. IgEExplanation
IgE is the allergic antibody because it is primarily involved in allergic reactions. When an allergen enters the body, IgE antibodies are produced and bind to mast cells and basophils. Upon re-exposure to the allergen, these IgE antibodies trigger the release of inflammatory mediators, such as histamine, leading to allergic symptoms such as itching, swelling, and difficulty breathing. IgG, IgA, and IgM are involved in different immune responses but are not specifically associated with allergic reactions.Rate this question:
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- 25.
_______ is defined as the triggered appearance of one or more associated systemic signs and systems that are usually responsive to epinephrine
- A.
Allergic reaction
- B.
Anaphylaxis
- C.
Adverse reaction
- D.
Mastocytosis
Correct Answer
B. AnaphylaxisExplanation
Anaphylaxis is defined as the triggered appearance of one or more associated systemic signs and symptoms that are usually responsive to epinephrine. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that occurs rapidly and can be life-threatening. It is characterized by symptoms such as difficulty breathing, swelling of the throat or tongue, hives, low blood pressure, and gastrointestinal symptoms. Prompt administration of epinephrine is essential in the treatment of anaphylaxis.Rate this question:
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- 26.
______ are a subset of antigens that bind to circulation IgE antibodies and cause an allergic reaction
- A.
Allergies
- B.
Histamines
- C.
Allergens
Correct Answer
C. AllergensExplanation
Allergens are a subset of antigens that bind to circulation IgE antibodies and cause an allergic reaction. Antigens are substances that can trigger an immune response in the body, and allergens specifically trigger an allergic response. When an allergen enters the body, it binds to IgE antibodies, which then release histamines. Histamines are responsible for the symptoms of an allergic reaction, such as itching, sneezing, and swelling. Therefore, allergens are the correct answer as they specifically refer to substances that cause allergies by binding to IgE antibodies.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which of the following is not considered a sign or symptom of anaphylaxis
- A.
Tachycardia
- B.
Gi upset
- C.
Sense of impending doom
- D.
Id angioedema
Correct Answer
B. Gi upsetExplanation
GI upset is not considered a sign or symptom of anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can cause symptoms such as difficulty breathing, hives, swelling, low blood pressure, and rapid heartbeat. GI upset, such as nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea, is not typically associated with anaphylaxis. Instead, it may be a symptom of other conditions or reactions.Rate this question:
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- 28.
True or False: Anaphylaxis of any severity should be considered a medical emergency
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that can occur within seconds or minutes of exposure to an allergen. It can cause symptoms such as difficulty breathing, swelling of the throat, low blood pressure, and loss of consciousness. Without prompt medical intervention, anaphylaxis can be fatal. Therefore, regardless of the severity of the reaction, anaphylaxis should always be considered a medical emergency and requires immediate treatment.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What is the adult dose of epinephrine to a patient in anaphylaxis?
- A.
0.15ml of 1:1000
- B.
0.3ml of 1:1000
Correct Answer
B. 0.3ml of 1:1000Explanation
The adult dose of epinephrine to a patient in anaphylaxis is 0.3ml of 1:1000. This means that 0.3ml of epinephrine solution with a concentration of 1:1000 is administered to the patient. This dosage is recommended to effectively treat anaphylaxis in adults.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What is the child dose of epinephrine for a patient in anaphylaxis?
- A.
0.15ml of 1:1000
- B.
0.3mg of 1:1000
Correct Answer
A. 0.15ml of 1:1000Explanation
The correct answer is 0.15ml of 1:1000. In anaphylaxis, epinephrine is administered to help relieve symptoms and improve breathing. The child dose of epinephrine is typically 0.15ml of a 1:1000 concentration. This means that in each milliliter of solution, there is 1mg of epinephrine. This dose is appropriate for children experiencing anaphylaxis and can be administered using an auto-injector device.Rate this question:
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- 31.
_________ is an overabundance of mast cells that carries an increased risk for anaphylaxis
- A.
Phagocytosis
- B.
Complement system
- C.
Mastocytosis
Correct Answer
C. MastocytosisExplanation
Mastocytosis is a condition characterized by an overabundance of mast cells, which are a type of immune cell involved in allergic reactions. This condition carries an increased risk for anaphylaxis, a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction. Phagocytosis is the process by which cells engulf and destroy foreign particles, while the complement system is a part of the immune system that helps to enhance the body's ability to fight off infections. Therefore, neither phagocytosis nor the complement system are associated with an overabundance of mast cells or an increased risk for anaphylaxis.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Who is not responsible for ensuring all military/non military personnel under their jurisdiction receive required immunizations?
- A.
Combatant commanders
- B.
Unit commanding officers
- C.
Primary vaccine coordinators
- D.
Major command commanders
Correct Answer
C. Primary vaccine coordinatorsExplanation
Primary vaccine coordinators are not responsible for ensuring all military/non military personnel under their jurisdiction receive required immunizations. This responsibility falls on combatant commanders, unit commanding officers, and major command commanders. Primary vaccine coordinators may assist in coordinating and administering vaccines, but they do not have the overall responsibility for ensuring immunizations are received by personnel.Rate this question:
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- 33.
How many days prior to separation or retirement are members exempt from immunizations, with their command's permission?
- A.
30 days
- B.
60 days
- C.
90 days
- D.
180 days
Correct Answer
D. 180 daysExplanation
Members are exempt from immunizations for 180 days prior to separation or retirement with their command's permission. This extended exemption period allows individuals to avoid unnecessary immunizations during the transition period out of the military. It gives them time to complete the separation or retirement process without the added burden of immunizations.Rate this question:
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- 34.
True or False: the two types of immunization exemptions are medical and administrative.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The statement is true because the two types of immunization exemptions are indeed medical and administrative. Medical exemptions are granted when a person has a medical condition that prevents them from receiving certain vaccines. Administrative exemptions, on the other hand, are granted for non-medical reasons, such as religious or philosophical beliefs. Both types of exemptions allow individuals to be exempt from the usual immunization requirements.Rate this question:
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- 35.
How man immunization standards are there for military members?
- A.
Four
- B.
Eighteen
- C.
Eight
- D.
Six
Correct Answer
C. EightExplanation
There are eight immunization standards for military members.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which branch of service is the only one required to have Yellow fever?
- A.
Air Force
- B.
Army
- C.
Marine Corps
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. Marine CorpsExplanation
The Marine Corps is the only branch of service that is required to have Yellow fever. This means that all members of the Marine Corps must receive a Yellow fever vaccination in order to serve. The Air Force and Army are not required to have this vaccination.Rate this question:
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- 37.
_____ is a condition in a recipient that increases the risk for a serious adverse reaction
- A.
Contraindication
- B.
Precaution
Correct Answer
A. ContraindicationExplanation
A contraindication is a condition in a recipient that increases the risk for a serious adverse reaction. This means that if a recipient has a contraindication, it is not recommended for them to receive a particular treatment or medication due to the potential harm it could cause. In contrast, a precaution refers to a condition that may require extra care or monitoring when administering a treatment or medication, but it does not necessarily mean that the treatment should be avoided altogether.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What is the only contraindication to a vaccine?
- A.
There are no contraindications
- B.
Patient is feeling ill
- C.
History of anaphylactic reaction after a prior dose of a vaccine or vaccine constituent
Correct Answer
C. History of anaphylactic reaction after a prior dose of a vaccine or vaccine constituentExplanation
A contraindication is a specific situation or condition where a particular treatment or intervention should not be used because it may cause harm or have adverse effects. In the context of vaccines, a history of anaphylactic reaction after a prior dose of a vaccine or vaccine constituent is the only contraindication. This means that if a person has previously experienced a severe allergic reaction to a vaccine or any of its components, they should not receive the same vaccine again. It is important to consider this contraindication to ensure the safety and well-being of the individual receiving the vaccine.Rate this question:
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- 39.
True or False: Live oral vaccines can be administered simultaneously or at any interval before or after inactivated or live injectable vaccines
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Live oral vaccines can be administered simultaneously or at any interval before or after inactivated or live injectable vaccines. This is because live oral vaccines contain weakened or attenuated forms of the virus or bacteria, which stimulate the immune system without causing the disease. They can be given alongside other vaccines without interfering with their effectiveness. This flexibility in administration allows for convenient and efficient vaccination schedules.Rate this question:
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- 40.
When not administered on the same day, live nasally administered or injected vaccines must be separated by how many weeks?
- A.
2 weeks
- B.
3 months
- C.
At least four weeks
- D.
No need to separate
Correct Answer
C. At least four weeksExplanation
Live nasally administered or injected vaccines must be separated by at least four weeks when not administered on the same day. This is because giving these vaccines too close together can potentially interfere with their effectiveness or cause adverse reactions. By spacing them out, the body has enough time to mount a proper immune response to each vaccine without any interference or complications.Rate this question:
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- 41.
When spacing live vaccines and antibody containing products, how long do you need to wait to administer the antibody containing product after the administration of a live vaccine?
- A.
14 days
- B.
21 days
- C.
28 days
- D.
3 months
Correct Answer
A. 14 daysExplanation
When spacing live vaccines and antibody containing products, it is necessary to wait for 14 days before administering the antibody containing product after the administration of a live vaccine. This waiting period allows the immune response to the live vaccine to settle down before introducing the antibody containing product, ensuring optimal effectiveness of both interventions.Rate this question:
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- 42.
A ________ is a condition in a patient that might increase the risk for a serious adverse reaction
- A.
Contraindication
- B.
Precaution
Correct Answer
B. PrecautionExplanation
A precaution is a condition in a patient that might increase the risk for a serious adverse reaction. It is a measure taken to prevent harm or minimize risks associated with a particular treatment or procedure. In the context of medical care, precautions are necessary when there is a potential risk to the patient's health, and they help healthcare providers make informed decisions about the best course of action. Contrarily, a contraindication refers to a condition or factor that makes a particular treatment or procedure inappropriate or potentially harmful for a patient.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What are the five types of hyperimmune globulins?
- A.
Rig
- B.
Tig
- C.
VZig
- D.
BabyBig
- E.
HBig
- F.
All of the above
Correct Answer
F. All of the aboveExplanation
The correct answer is "All of the above" because all five options listed (Rig, Tig, VZig, BabyBig, HBig) are types of hyperimmune globulins. Therefore, selecting "All of the above" includes all the correct options.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which is not a vaccine that contains Bakers Yeast?
- A.
Hep A
- B.
Hep B
- C.
HPV
- D.
Oral Typhoid
Correct Answer
A. Hep AExplanation
Hep A is not a vaccine that contains Bakers Yeast. The other options, Hep B, HPV, and Oral Typhoid, may contain Bakers Yeast as an ingredient in their vaccines.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which of the following contains gelatin?
- A.
VZV
- B.
IPV
- C.
Yellow Fever
- D.
Oral Typhoid
Correct Answer
A. VZVExplanation
VZV, also known as Varicella-Zoster Virus, contains gelatin. Gelatin is commonly used as a stabilizer and protective agent in vaccines, including the VZV vaccine. It helps to maintain the integrity and effectiveness of the vaccine during storage and transportation. Gelatin is derived from collagen, a protein found in animal tissues, and is used in vaccine production to ensure stability and enhance the immune response. Therefore, VZV is the correct answer as it contains gelatin.Rate this question:
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- 46.
How many times daily should the vaccine temperatures be checked and recorded?
- A.
Once daily
- B.
Twice daily
- C.
Once weekly
- D.
Three times daily
Correct Answer
B. Twice dailyExplanation
The vaccine temperatures should be checked and recorded twice daily to ensure that they are being stored at the appropriate temperature. Checking the temperatures multiple times throughout the day helps to identify any fluctuations or deviations that may occur, allowing for timely action to be taken to prevent spoilage or loss of effectiveness of the vaccines. This frequent monitoring helps to maintain the quality and efficacy of the vaccines, ensuring that they can provide the intended protection when administered to individuals.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which vaccine should be refrigerated?
- A.
Cholera
- B.
VZV
- C.
Anthrax
- D.
MMRV
Correct Answer
C. AnthraxExplanation
Anthrax vaccine should be refrigerated because it contains live, attenuated bacteria that can lose their potency if exposed to higher temperatures. Refrigeration helps to maintain the stability and effectiveness of the vaccine by preventing bacterial growth and degradation of the vaccine components. Proper storage of the anthrax vaccine ensures that it remains safe and efficacious for administration to individuals at risk of anthrax infection.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Refrigerator temperature logs should eb kept for a minimum of how many years?
- A.
Three years
- B.
Not necessary to keep
- C.
One year
- D.
Two years
Correct Answer
A. Three yearsExplanation
Refrigerator temperature logs should be kept for a minimum of three years to ensure food safety and compliance with regulations. This duration allows for sufficient time to track and monitor temperature fluctuations, identify any potential issues or deviations, and take necessary corrective actions. Keeping these logs for three years also helps in maintaining a record of temperature trends and patterns over an extended period, which can be useful for audits, inspections, and quality control purposes.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What is the licensing age for the Anthrax vaccine?
- A.
18 and older
- B.
18 to 60
- C.
18 to 65
- D.
11 to 64
Correct Answer
C. 18 to 65Explanation
The correct answer is 18 to 65. This age range indicates that individuals between the ages of 18 and 65 are eligible to receive the Anthrax vaccine. It is important to note that individuals younger than 18 or older than 65 may not be approved to receive the vaccine due to potential risks or lack of effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What is the administration schedule for the Anthrax vaccine?
- A.
Day 0, day 30, 6 months, 12 months, 18 months
- B.
Day 0, 30, 180
- C.
Day 0 and 180
- D.
Day 0 and 28
Correct Answer
A. Day 0, day 30, 6 months, 12 months, 18 monthsExplanation
The correct answer is day 0, day 30, 6 months, 12 months, 18 months. This administration schedule suggests that the Anthrax vaccine should be given on day 0, followed by a second dose on day 30. After that, additional doses should be administered at 6 months, 12 months, and 18 months. This schedule ensures that individuals receive the necessary doses of the vaccine at specific intervals to provide optimal protection against Anthrax.Rate this question:
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