Y8 Allergy Quiz By S.Nelson

1. True or False: the two types of immunization exemptions are medical and administrative.

True

False

The statement is true because the two types of immunization exemptions are indeed medical and administrative. Medical exemptions are granted when a person has a medical condition that prevents them from receiving certain vaccines. Administrative exemptions, on the other hand, are granted for non-medical reasons, such as religious or philosophical beliefs. Both types of exemptions allow individuals to be exempt from the usual immunization requirements.

Explanation

The statement is true because the two types of immunization exemptions are indeed medical and administrative. Medical exemptions are granted when a person has a medical condition that prevents them from receiving certain vaccines. Administrative exemptions, on the other hand, are granted for non-medical reasons, such as religious or philosophical beliefs. Both types of exemptions allow individuals to be exempt from the usual immunization requirements.

2. What is the only contraindication to a vaccine?

There are no contraindications

Patient is feeling ill

History of anaphylactic reaction after a prior dose of a vaccine or vaccine constituent

A contraindication is a specific situation or condition where a particular treatment or intervention should not be used because it may cause harm or have adverse effects. In the context of vaccines, a history of anaphylactic reaction after a prior dose of a vaccine or vaccine constituent is the only contraindication. This means that if a person has previously experienced a severe allergic reaction to a vaccine or any of its components, they should not receive the same vaccine again. It is important to consider this contraindication to ensure the safety and well-being of the individual receiving the vaccine.

Explanation

A contraindication is a specific situation or condition where a particular treatment or intervention should not be used because it may cause harm or have adverse effects. In the context of vaccines, a history of anaphylactic reaction after a prior dose of a vaccine or vaccine constituent is the only contraindication. This means that if a person has previously experienced a severe allergic reaction to a vaccine or any of its components, they should not receive the same vaccine again. It is important to consider this contraindication to ensure the safety and well-being of the individual receiving the vaccine.

3. What are the five types of hyperimmune globulins?

Rig

Tig

VZig

BabyBig

HBig

All of the above

The correct answer is "All of the above" because all five options listed (Rig, Tig, VZig, BabyBig, HBig) are types of hyperimmune globulins. Therefore, selecting "All of the above" includes all the correct options.

Explanation

The correct answer is "All of the above" because all five options listed (Rig, Tig, VZig, BabyBig, HBig) are types of hyperimmune globulins. Therefore, selecting "All of the above" includes all the correct options.

4. Blood contains which three major types of cells that float in the liquid plasma?

Red blood cells (RBCs)

White Blood Cells (WBCs)

Platelets

All of the above

The correct answer is "all of the above" because blood contains all three major types of cells - red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs), and platelets. These cells are suspended in the liquid plasma of the blood. RBCs are responsible for carrying oxygen to the body's tissues, WBCs play a role in the immune system and fighting off infections, and platelets help in blood clotting to prevent excessive bleeding.

Explanation

The correct answer is "all of the above" because blood contains all three major types of cells - red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs), and platelets. These cells are suspended in the liquid plasma of the blood. RBCs are responsible for carrying oxygen to the body's tissues, WBCs play a role in the immune system and fighting off infections, and platelets help in blood clotting to prevent excessive bleeding.

5. The _______ immune system is the system that is always ready and does not depend upon specific recognition

Innate

Adaptive

The correct answer is "innate". The innate immune system is always ready and does not depend on specific recognition. It is the first line of defense against pathogens and works through general mechanisms such as physical barriers, inflammation, and phagocytosis. Unlike the adaptive immune system, which requires time to recognize and respond to specific pathogens, the innate immune system provides immediate protection.

Explanation

The correct answer is "innate". The innate immune system is always ready and does not depend on specific recognition. It is the first line of defense against pathogens and works through general mechanisms such as physical barriers, inflammation, and phagocytosis. Unlike the adaptive immune system, which requires time to recognize and respond to specific pathogens, the innate immune system provides immediate protection.

6. Which type of t-cell directs the immune response by sending out various signals which help other cells get excited about defending the body?

Helper t-cells

Killer or cytotoxic t-cells

Regulatory t-cells

Helper T-cells, also known as CD4+ T-cells, play a crucial role in the immune response by releasing signals called cytokines. These signals help activate and coordinate other immune cells, such as B-cells and cytotoxic T-cells, to mount a defense against pathogens. Helper T-cells are responsible for enhancing the immune response and assisting in the production of antibodies, making them vital in the body's defense against infections.

Explanation

Helper T-cells, also known as CD4+ T-cells, play a crucial role in the immune response by releasing signals called cytokines. These signals help activate and coordinate other immune cells, such as B-cells and cytotoxic T-cells, to mount a defense against pathogens. Helper T-cells are responsible for enhancing the immune response and assisting in the production of antibodies, making them vital in the body's defense against infections.

7. What is the licensing age for the Hepatitis A vaccine?

18 and older

12 months and older

10 years and older

60 years and older

The correct answer is 12 months and older. This means that individuals who are at least 12 months old are eligible to receive the Hepatitis A vaccine. This age requirement is likely based on scientific research and recommendations from healthcare professionals, which determine that the vaccine is safe and effective for children who are at least one year old.

Explanation

The correct answer is 12 months and older. This means that individuals who are at least 12 months old are eligible to receive the Hepatitis A vaccine. This age requirement is likely based on scientific research and recommendations from healthcare professionals, which determine that the vaccine is safe and effective for children who are at least one year old.

8. True or False: Anaphylaxis of any severity should be considered a medical emergency

True

False

Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that can occur within seconds or minutes of exposure to an allergen. It can cause symptoms such as difficulty breathing, swelling of the throat, low blood pressure, and loss of consciousness. Without prompt medical intervention, anaphylaxis can be fatal. Therefore, regardless of the severity of the reaction, anaphylaxis should always be considered a medical emergency and requires immediate treatment.

Explanation

Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that can occur within seconds or minutes of exposure to an allergen. It can cause symptoms such as difficulty breathing, swelling of the throat, low blood pressure, and loss of consciousness. Without prompt medical intervention, anaphylaxis can be fatal. Therefore, regardless of the severity of the reaction, anaphylaxis should always be considered a medical emergency and requires immediate treatment.

9. What is the licensing age for Gardasil?

9-45 years

9-25 years

The correct answer is 9-45 years. Gardasil is a vaccine that helps protect against certain types of HPV (human papillomavirus), which can lead to cervical cancer, as well as other types of cancers and genital warts. The vaccine is approved for use in individuals aged 9-45 years, meaning it can be given to both males and females within this age range to provide protection against HPV and its related diseases.

Explanation

The correct answer is 9-45 years. Gardasil is a vaccine that helps protect against certain types of HPV (human papillomavirus), which can lead to cervical cancer, as well as other types of cancers and genital warts. The vaccine is approved for use in individuals aged 9-45 years, meaning it can be given to both males and females within this age range to provide protection against HPV and its related diseases.

10. __________ is the process of engulfing bacteria and taking it inside a macrophage for destruction and breakdown

Monocytosis

Dendritic process

Phagocytosis

Clonal expansion

Phagocytosis is the process by which a macrophage engulfs bacteria and brings it inside for destruction and breakdown. This process involves the macrophage extending its membrane around the bacteria, forming a phagosome. The phagosome then fuses with lysosomes, forming a phagolysosome, where the bacteria are destroyed by enzymes and other substances. Phagocytosis is an important mechanism of the immune system to eliminate pathogens and foreign particles.

Explanation

Phagocytosis is the process by which a macrophage engulfs bacteria and brings it inside for destruction and breakdown. This process involves the macrophage extending its membrane around the bacteria, forming a phagosome. The phagosome then fuses with lysosomes, forming a phagolysosome, where the bacteria are destroyed by enzymes and other substances. Phagocytosis is an important mechanism of the immune system to eliminate pathogens and foreign particles.

11. Which immune system is our body's first line of defense against infection?

Innate or nonspecific

Adaptive or specific

The innate or nonspecific immune system is our body's first line of defense against infection. It is called nonspecific because it provides a general defense mechanism against a wide range of pathogens, without targeting specific antigens. This immune system includes physical barriers like the skin and mucous membranes, as well as cellular components like phagocytes and natural killer cells. These components work together to quickly recognize and eliminate foreign invaders, providing immediate protection against infections. The adaptive or specific immune system, on the other hand, is a more targeted response that develops over time and specifically targets antigens that have been encountered before.

Explanation

The innate or nonspecific immune system is our body's first line of defense against infection. It is called nonspecific because it provides a general defense mechanism against a wide range of pathogens, without targeting specific antigens. This immune system includes physical barriers like the skin and mucous membranes, as well as cellular components like phagocytes and natural killer cells. These components work together to quickly recognize and eliminate foreign invaders, providing immediate protection against infections. The adaptive or specific immune system, on the other hand, is a more targeted response that develops over time and specifically targets antigens that have been encountered before.

12. What is the adult dose of epinephrine to a patient in anaphylaxis?

0.15ml of 1:1000

0.3ml of 1:1000

The adult dose of epinephrine to a patient in anaphylaxis is 0.3ml of 1:1000. This means that 0.3ml of epinephrine solution with a concentration of 1:1000 is administered to the patient. This dosage is recommended to effectively treat anaphylaxis in adults.

Explanation

The adult dose of epinephrine to a patient in anaphylaxis is 0.3ml of 1:1000. This means that 0.3ml of epinephrine solution with a concentration of 1:1000 is administered to the patient. This dosage is recommended to effectively treat anaphylaxis in adults.

13. Once a T-Cell becomes excited and multiplies, it goes through a process called _______. This process produces new cells that are exact copies of the original cell

Phagocytosis

Clonal expansion

Complement system

Clonal expansion is the correct answer because once a T-Cell becomes excited and multiplies, it goes through a process called clonal expansion. This process involves the rapid proliferation of the T-Cell, resulting in the production of new cells that are exact copies of the original cell. These new cells play a crucial role in the immune response by recognizing and attacking specific antigens. Phagocytosis is the process by which cells engulf and digest foreign particles, while the complement system is a group of proteins that work together to enhance the immune response.

Explanation

Clonal expansion is the correct answer because once a T-Cell becomes excited and multiplies, it goes through a process called clonal expansion. This process involves the rapid proliferation of the T-Cell, resulting in the production of new cells that are exact copies of the original cell. These new cells play a crucial role in the immune response by recognizing and attacking specific antigens. Phagocytosis is the process by which cells engulf and digest foreign particles, while the complement system is a group of proteins that work together to enhance the immune response.

14. What is the administration schedule for the Anthrax vaccine?

Day 0, day 30, 6 months, 12 months, 18 months

Day 0, 30, 180

Day 0 and 180

Day 0 and 28

The correct answer is day 0, day 30, 6 months, 12 months, 18 months. This administration schedule suggests that the Anthrax vaccine should be given on day 0, followed by a second dose on day 30. After that, additional doses should be administered at 6 months, 12 months, and 18 months. This schedule ensures that individuals receive the necessary doses of the vaccine at specific intervals to provide optimal protection against Anthrax.

Explanation

The correct answer is day 0, day 30, 6 months, 12 months, 18 months. This administration schedule suggests that the Anthrax vaccine should be given on day 0, followed by a second dose on day 30. After that, additional doses should be administered at 6 months, 12 months, and 18 months. This schedule ensures that individuals receive the necessary doses of the vaccine at specific intervals to provide optimal protection against Anthrax.

15. Which type of T-Cells kill abnormal host cells?

Helper t-cells

Regulatory t-cells

Killer or cytotoxic t-cells

Killer or cytotoxic T-cells are a type of T-cells that are responsible for killing abnormal host cells. These cells play a crucial role in immune responses by identifying and destroying cells that have been infected with viruses or have become cancerous. They do this by releasing toxic substances that induce cell death in the target cells. Killer or cytotoxic T-cells are an essential component of the immune system's defense against infections and tumors.

Explanation

Killer or cytotoxic T-cells are a type of T-cells that are responsible for killing abnormal host cells. These cells play a crucial role in immune responses by identifying and destroying cells that have been infected with viruses or have become cancerous. They do this by releasing toxic substances that induce cell death in the target cells. Killer or cytotoxic T-cells are an essential component of the immune system's defense against infections and tumors.

16. What vaccines make up Kinrix?

Hep A and Hep B

DTap and IPV

Hep B, DTap, HiB

Kinrix is a combination vaccine that contains both DTap (Diphtheria, Tetanus, and Pertussis) and IPV (Inactivated Poliovirus). This combination vaccine helps protect against diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, and polio.

Explanation

Kinrix is a combination vaccine that contains both DTap (Diphtheria, Tetanus, and Pertussis) and IPV (Inactivated Poliovirus). This combination vaccine helps protect against diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, and polio.

17. How many days prior to separation or retirement are members exempt from immunizations, with their command's permission?

30 days

60 days

90 days

180 days

Members are exempt from immunizations for 180 days prior to separation or retirement with their command's permission. This extended exemption period allows individuals to avoid unnecessary immunizations during the transition period out of the military. It gives them time to complete the separation or retirement process without the added burden of immunizations.

Explanation

Members are exempt from immunizations for 180 days prior to separation or retirement with their command's permission. This extended exemption period allows individuals to avoid unnecessary immunizations during the transition period out of the military. It gives them time to complete the separation or retirement process without the added burden of immunizations.

18. How many times daily should the vaccine temperatures be checked and recorded?

Once daily

Twice daily

Once weekly

Three times daily

The vaccine temperatures should be checked and recorded twice daily to ensure that they are being stored at the appropriate temperature. Checking the temperatures multiple times throughout the day helps to identify any fluctuations or deviations that may occur, allowing for timely action to be taken to prevent spoilage or loss of effectiveness of the vaccines. This frequent monitoring helps to maintain the quality and efficacy of the vaccines, ensuring that they can provide the intended protection when administered to individuals.

Explanation

The vaccine temperatures should be checked and recorded twice daily to ensure that they are being stored at the appropriate temperature. Checking the temperatures multiple times throughout the day helps to identify any fluctuations or deviations that may occur, allowing for timely action to be taken to prevent spoilage or loss of effectiveness of the vaccines. This frequent monitoring helps to maintain the quality and efficacy of the vaccines, ensuring that they can provide the intended protection when administered to individuals.

19. What is the licensing age for the DTap vaccine?

2 months to 6 months

6 weeks to <7 years

2 months to <7 months

2 months to 15 months

The correct answer is 6 weeks to

Explanation

The correct answer is 6 weeks to

20. When is the HiBerix vaccine used in HiB vaccination series?

First dose

Second dose

Third dose

Last dose

The HiBerix vaccine is used as the last dose in the HiB vaccination series. This means that it is administered after the first, second, and third doses. The HiBerix vaccine is typically given to provide protection against Haemophilus influenzae type b (HiB) infection, which can cause serious illnesses such as meningitis and pneumonia. By administering the HiBerix vaccine as the last dose, it ensures that individuals receive the full course of the HiB vaccination series and are adequately protected against HiB infection.

Explanation

The HiBerix vaccine is used as the last dose in the HiB vaccination series. This means that it is administered after the first, second, and third doses. The HiBerix vaccine is typically given to provide protection against Haemophilus influenzae type b (HiB) infection, which can cause serious illnesses such as meningitis and pneumonia. By administering the HiBerix vaccine as the last dose, it ensures that individuals receive the full course of the HiB vaccination series and are adequately protected against HiB infection.

21. _______ mature in the bone marrow and are found in the blood stream

B-lymphocytes

Eosinophils

T-lymphocytes

Monocytes

B-lymphocytes mature in the bone marrow and are found in the bloodstream. These cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response. They are responsible for producing antibodies, which help to identify and neutralize foreign substances in the body. B-lymphocytes are an important component of the adaptive immune system and help to protect against infections and diseases.

Explanation

B-lymphocytes mature in the bone marrow and are found in the bloodstream. These cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response. They are responsible for producing antibodies, which help to identify and neutralize foreign substances in the body. B-lymphocytes are an important component of the adaptive immune system and help to protect against infections and diseases.

22. How man immunization standards are there for military members?

Four

Eighteen

Eight

Six

There are eight immunization standards for military members.

Explanation

There are eight immunization standards for military members.

23. The _____ system is made up of a number of proteins that circulate in the body and are harmless until they are activated and attach to bacteria. Once they attach they either punch holes in the cell membrane or make it easier for the phagocytic cells to engulf and destroy the sell

Clonal

Complement

T-cell

Phagocytosis

The complement system is a group of proteins that circulate in the body and remain harmless until they are activated and attach to bacteria. Once attached, they can either create holes in the cell membrane or facilitate the engulfment and destruction of the bacteria by phagocytic cells.

Explanation

The complement system is a group of proteins that circulate in the body and remain harmless until they are activated and attach to bacteria. Once attached, they can either create holes in the cell membrane or facilitate the engulfment and destruction of the bacteria by phagocytic cells.

24. True or False: Live oral vaccines can be administered simultaneously or at any interval before or after inactivated or live injectable vaccines

True

False

Live oral vaccines can be administered simultaneously or at any interval before or after inactivated or live injectable vaccines. This is because live oral vaccines contain weakened or attenuated forms of the virus or bacteria, which stimulate the immune system without causing the disease. They can be given alongside other vaccines without interfering with their effectiveness. This flexibility in administration allows for convenient and efficient vaccination schedules.

Explanation

Live oral vaccines can be administered simultaneously or at any interval before or after inactivated or live injectable vaccines. This is because live oral vaccines contain weakened or attenuated forms of the virus or bacteria, which stimulate the immune system without causing the disease. They can be given alongside other vaccines without interfering with their effectiveness. This flexibility in administration allows for convenient and efficient vaccination schedules.

25. Which antibody created by the B cell is the first antibody produced?

IgA

IgD

IgE

IgM

IgM is the first antibody produced by B cells. It is the initial response to an infection or antigen exposure. IgM is a pentamer and is involved in the primary immune response. It is responsible for activating complement and neutralizing pathogens.

Explanation

IgM is the first antibody produced by B cells. It is the initial response to an infection or antigen exposure. IgM is a pentamer and is involved in the primary immune response. It is responsible for activating complement and neutralizing pathogens.

26. What vaccines make up ProQuad?

MMR and Varicella

Varicella and DTAP

MMR and IPV

ProQuad is a combination vaccine that contains the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine and the varicella (chickenpox) vaccine. This combination vaccine helps protect against these four diseases in one shot.

Explanation

ProQuad is a combination vaccine that contains the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine and the varicella (chickenpox) vaccine. This combination vaccine helps protect against these four diseases in one shot.

27. Refrigerator temperature logs should eb kept for a minimum of how many years?

Three years

Not necessary to keep

One year

Two years

Refrigerator temperature logs should be kept for a minimum of three years to ensure food safety and compliance with regulations. This duration allows for sufficient time to track and monitor temperature fluctuations, identify any potential issues or deviations, and take necessary corrective actions. Keeping these logs for three years also helps in maintaining a record of temperature trends and patterns over an extended period, which can be useful for audits, inspections, and quality control purposes.

Explanation

Refrigerator temperature logs should be kept for a minimum of three years to ensure food safety and compliance with regulations. This duration allows for sufficient time to track and monitor temperature fluctuations, identify any potential issues or deviations, and take necessary corrective actions. Keeping these logs for three years also helps in maintaining a record of temperature trends and patterns over an extended period, which can be useful for audits, inspections, and quality control purposes.

28. At what age should a person begin receiving the influenza vaccine?

12 months

6 months

15 months

18 months

The influenza vaccine should be given to a person starting at 6 months of age. This is because infants are more vulnerable to severe complications from the flu, and getting vaccinated at an early age helps protect them from the virus. Additionally, vaccinating young children also helps prevent the spread of influenza to other vulnerable populations, such as the elderly or individuals with weakened immune systems.

Explanation

The influenza vaccine should be given to a person starting at 6 months of age. This is because infants are more vulnerable to severe complications from the flu, and getting vaccinated at an early age helps protect them from the virus. Additionally, vaccinating young children also helps prevent the spread of influenza to other vulnerable populations, such as the elderly or individuals with weakened immune systems.

29. What is the licensing age for Ixario?

17 and older

18 and older

10 and older

2 months and older

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

30. Which one do you like?

Option 1

Option 2

Option 3

Option 4

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

31. What is the pediatric schedule for Hep A?

2, 4 ,6 months

2, 4, 12-15 months

12 and 18 months

2 and 4 months

The pediatric schedule for Hep A vaccination is recommended at 12 and 18 months of age. This timing allows for optimal protection against the hepatitis A virus, as the vaccine is most effective when administered in two doses several months apart. By following this schedule, children can develop immunity against Hep A at a young age and reduce their risk of infection.

Explanation

The pediatric schedule for Hep A vaccination is recommended at 12 and 18 months of age. This timing allows for optimal protection against the hepatitis A virus, as the vaccine is most effective when administered in two doses several months apart. By following this schedule, children can develop immunity against Hep A at a young age and reduce their risk of infection.

32. Which branch of service is the only one required to have Yellow fever?

Air Force

Army

Marine Corps

All of the above

The Marine Corps is the only branch of service that is required to have Yellow fever. This means that all members of the Marine Corps must receive a Yellow fever vaccination in order to serve. The Air Force and Army are not required to have this vaccination.

Explanation

The Marine Corps is the only branch of service that is required to have Yellow fever. This means that all members of the Marine Corps must receive a Yellow fever vaccination in order to serve. The Air Force and Army are not required to have this vaccination.

33. _____ is a condition in a recipient that increases the risk for a serious adverse reaction

Contraindication

Precaution

A contraindication is a condition in a recipient that increases the risk for a serious adverse reaction. This means that if a recipient has a contraindication, it is not recommended for them to receive a particular treatment or medication due to the potential harm it could cause. In contrast, a precaution refers to a condition that may require extra care or monitoring when administering a treatment or medication, but it does not necessarily mean that the treatment should be avoided altogether.

Explanation

A contraindication is a condition in a recipient that increases the risk for a serious adverse reaction. This means that if a recipient has a contraindication, it is not recommended for them to receive a particular treatment or medication due to the potential harm it could cause. In contrast, a precaution refers to a condition that may require extra care or monitoring when administering a treatment or medication, but it does not necessarily mean that the treatment should be avoided altogether.

34. A ________ is a condition in a patient that might increase the risk for a serious adverse reaction

Contraindication

Precaution

A precaution is a condition in a patient that might increase the risk for a serious adverse reaction. It is a measure taken to prevent harm or minimize risks associated with a particular treatment or procedure. In the context of medical care, precautions are necessary when there is a potential risk to the patient's health, and they help healthcare providers make informed decisions about the best course of action. Contrarily, a contraindication refers to a condition or factor that makes a particular treatment or procedure inappropriate or potentially harmful for a patient.

Explanation

A precaution is a condition in a patient that might increase the risk for a serious adverse reaction. It is a measure taken to prevent harm or minimize risks associated with a particular treatment or procedure. In the context of medical care, precautions are necessary when there is a potential risk to the patient's health, and they help healthcare providers make informed decisions about the best course of action. Contrarily, a contraindication refers to a condition or factor that makes a particular treatment or procedure inappropriate or potentially harmful for a patient.

35. Which of the following contains gelatin?

VZV

IPV

Yellow Fever

Oral Typhoid

VZV, also known as Varicella-Zoster Virus, contains gelatin. Gelatin is commonly used as a stabilizer and protective agent in vaccines, including the VZV vaccine. It helps to maintain the integrity and effectiveness of the vaccine during storage and transportation. Gelatin is derived from collagen, a protein found in animal tissues, and is used in vaccine production to ensure stability and enhance the immune response. Therefore, VZV is the correct answer as it contains gelatin.

Explanation

VZV, also known as Varicella-Zoster Virus, contains gelatin. Gelatin is commonly used as a stabilizer and protective agent in vaccines, including the VZV vaccine. It helps to maintain the integrity and effectiveness of the vaccine during storage and transportation. Gelatin is derived from collagen, a protein found in animal tissues, and is used in vaccine production to ensure stability and enhance the immune response. Therefore, VZV is the correct answer as it contains gelatin.

36. Who is not responsible for ensuring all military/non military personnel under their jurisdiction receive required immunizations?

Combatant commanders

Unit commanding officers

Primary vaccine coordinators

Major command commanders

Primary vaccine coordinators are not responsible for ensuring all military/non military personnel under their jurisdiction receive required immunizations. This responsibility falls on combatant commanders, unit commanding officers, and major command commanders. Primary vaccine coordinators may assist in coordinating and administering vaccines, but they do not have the overall responsibility for ensuring immunizations are received by personnel.

Explanation

Primary vaccine coordinators are not responsible for ensuring all military/non military personnel under their jurisdiction receive required immunizations. This responsibility falls on combatant commanders, unit commanding officers, and major command commanders. Primary vaccine coordinators may assist in coordinating and administering vaccines, but they do not have the overall responsibility for ensuring immunizations are received by personnel.

37. Which antibody is the allergic antibody?

IgG

IgA

IgM

IgE

IgE is the allergic antibody because it is primarily involved in allergic reactions. When an allergen enters the body, IgE antibodies are produced and bind to mast cells and basophils. Upon re-exposure to the allergen, these IgE antibodies trigger the release of inflammatory mediators, such as histamine, leading to allergic symptoms such as itching, swelling, and difficulty breathing. IgG, IgA, and IgM are involved in different immune responses but are not specifically associated with allergic reactions.

Explanation

IgE is the allergic antibody because it is primarily involved in allergic reactions. When an allergen enters the body, IgE antibodies are produced and bind to mast cells and basophils. Upon re-exposure to the allergen, these IgE antibodies trigger the release of inflammatory mediators, such as histamine, leading to allergic symptoms such as itching, swelling, and difficulty breathing. IgG, IgA, and IgM are involved in different immune responses but are not specifically associated with allergic reactions.

38. What is the licensing age for Hepatitis B?

18 and older

12 months and older

Birth and older

60 and older

There is no specific licensing age for Hepatitis B. The disease can affect individuals of all ages, including newborns (birth and older) and adults. Therefore, the correct answer is "birth and older" as it encompasses all age groups.

Explanation

There is no specific licensing age for Hepatitis B. The disease can affect individuals of all ages, including newborns (birth and older) and adults. Therefore, the correct answer is "birth and older" as it encompasses all age groups.

39. What is the licensing age for Adacel (Tdap)?

10 and older

10 to 64 years

The correct answer is 10 to 64 years. This means that individuals aged 10 and older up to 64 years old are eligible to receive the Adacel (Tdap) vaccine. The vaccine is commonly used to provide protection against tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis (whooping cough). It is important for individuals within this age range to receive the vaccine to prevent the spread of these diseases and maintain their own health and well-being.

Explanation

The correct answer is 10 to 64 years. This means that individuals aged 10 and older up to 64 years old are eligible to receive the Adacel (Tdap) vaccine. The vaccine is commonly used to provide protection against tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis (whooping cough). It is important for individuals within this age range to receive the vaccine to prevent the spread of these diseases and maintain their own health and well-being.

40. These lymphocytes mature in the thymus and are responsible for cell-mediated immunity

T-lymphocytes

B-lymphocytes

T-cells

Histamines

T-lymphocytes, also known as T-cells, are a type of lymphocyte that mature in the thymus. They play a crucial role in cell-mediated immunity, which involves the activation of immune cells to directly attack and destroy infected or cancerous cells. T-lymphocytes recognize specific antigens on the surface of these abnormal cells and initiate an immune response to eliminate them. This response can include the release of chemicals called cytokines, which attract other immune cells to the site of infection or inflammation. Therefore, T-lymphocytes are responsible for coordinating and regulating the body's immune response against pathogens and abnormal cells.

Explanation

T-lymphocytes, also known as T-cells, are a type of lymphocyte that mature in the thymus. They play a crucial role in cell-mediated immunity, which involves the activation of immune cells to directly attack and destroy infected or cancerous cells. T-lymphocytes recognize specific antigens on the surface of these abnormal cells and initiate an immune response to eliminate them. This response can include the release of chemicals called cytokines, which attract other immune cells to the site of infection or inflammation. Therefore, T-lymphocytes are responsible for coordinating and regulating the body's immune response against pathogens and abnormal cells.

41. What is the maximum age the rotavirus vaccine can be started?

14 weeks, 0 days

15 weeks, 0 days

32 weeks

14 weeks, 6 days

The maximum age the rotavirus vaccine can be started is 14 weeks, 6 days. This means that the vaccine should be administered before the infant reaches 15 weeks of age. It is important to administer the vaccine within this time frame to ensure maximum effectiveness and protection against rotavirus infection.

Explanation

The maximum age the rotavirus vaccine can be started is 14 weeks, 6 days. This means that the vaccine should be administered before the infant reaches 15 weeks of age. It is important to administer the vaccine within this time frame to ensure maximum effectiveness and protection against rotavirus infection.

42. Which of the following is not one of the five types of antibodies created by B cells?

IgA

IgB

IgG

IgM

IgB is not one of the five types of antibodies created by B cells. The five types of antibodies created by B cells are IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, and IgM.

Explanation

IgB is not one of the five types of antibodies created by B cells. The five types of antibodies created by B cells are IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, and IgM.

43. When not administered on the same day, live nasally administered or injected vaccines must be separated by how many weeks?

2 weeks

3 months

At least four weeks

No need to separate

Live nasally administered or injected vaccines must be separated by at least four weeks when not administered on the same day. This is because giving these vaccines too close together can potentially interfere with their effectiveness or cause adverse reactions. By spacing them out, the body has enough time to mount a proper immune response to each vaccine without any interference or complications.

Explanation

Live nasally administered or injected vaccines must be separated by at least four weeks when not administered on the same day. This is because giving these vaccines too close together can potentially interfere with their effectiveness or cause adverse reactions. By spacing them out, the body has enough time to mount a proper immune response to each vaccine without any interference or complications.

44. Which antibody is the found in the highest quantities in the blood stream?

IgG

IgA

IgM

IgE

IgG is the antibody found in the highest quantities in the bloodstream. It is the most abundant antibody in the human body and plays a crucial role in providing long-term immunity against pathogens. IgG is able to cross the placenta, providing passive immunity to newborns, and it also activates complement proteins to enhance the immune response.

Explanation

IgG is the antibody found in the highest quantities in the bloodstream. It is the most abundant antibody in the human body and plays a crucial role in providing long-term immunity against pathogens. IgG is able to cross the placenta, providing passive immunity to newborns, and it also activates complement proteins to enhance the immune response.

45. What is the child dose of epinephrine for a patient in anaphylaxis?

0.15ml of 1:1000

0.3mg of 1:1000

The correct answer is 0.15ml of 1:1000. In anaphylaxis, epinephrine is administered to help relieve symptoms and improve breathing. The child dose of epinephrine is typically 0.15ml of a 1:1000 concentration. This means that in each milliliter of solution, there is 1mg of epinephrine. This dose is appropriate for children experiencing anaphylaxis and can be administered using an auto-injector device.

Explanation

The correct answer is 0.15ml of 1:1000. In anaphylaxis, epinephrine is administered to help relieve symptoms and improve breathing. The child dose of epinephrine is typically 0.15ml of a 1:1000 concentration. This means that in each milliliter of solution, there is 1mg of epinephrine. This dose is appropriate for children experiencing anaphylaxis and can be administered using an auto-injector device.

46. How many proteins is a T-Cell designed to recognize?

One

Two

Three

Five

A T-Cell is designed to recognize one specific protein. T-Cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune system by identifying and attacking foreign substances in the body. Each T-Cell has a unique receptor on its surface that is capable of recognizing a specific protein, known as an antigen. This recognition allows the T-Cell to initiate an immune response against the antigen, helping to eliminate the threat. Therefore, a T-Cell is designed to recognize only one protein.

Explanation

A T-Cell is designed to recognize one specific protein. T-Cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune system by identifying and attacking foreign substances in the body. Each T-Cell has a unique receptor on its surface that is capable of recognizing a specific protein, known as an antigen. This recognition allows the T-Cell to initiate an immune response against the antigen, helping to eliminate the threat. Therefore, a T-Cell is designed to recognize only one protein.

47. Which vaccine should be refrigerated?

Cholera

VZV

Anthrax

MMRV

Anthrax vaccine should be refrigerated because it contains live, attenuated bacteria that can lose their potency if exposed to higher temperatures. Refrigeration helps to maintain the stability and effectiveness of the vaccine by preventing bacterial growth and degradation of the vaccine components. Proper storage of the anthrax vaccine ensures that it remains safe and efficacious for administration to individuals at risk of anthrax infection.

Explanation

Anthrax vaccine should be refrigerated because it contains live, attenuated bacteria that can lose their potency if exposed to higher temperatures. Refrigeration helps to maintain the stability and effectiveness of the vaccine by preventing bacterial growth and degradation of the vaccine components. Proper storage of the anthrax vaccine ensures that it remains safe and efficacious for administration to individuals at risk of anthrax infection.

48. What is the licensing age for the Anthrax vaccine?

18 and older

18 to 60

18 to 65

11 to 64

The correct answer is 18 to 65. This age range indicates that individuals between the ages of 18 and 65 are eligible to receive the Anthrax vaccine. It is important to note that individuals younger than 18 or older than 65 may not be approved to receive the vaccine due to potential risks or lack of effectiveness.

Explanation

The correct answer is 18 to 65. This age range indicates that individuals between the ages of 18 and 65 are eligible to receive the Anthrax vaccine. It is important to note that individuals younger than 18 or older than 65 may not be approved to receive the vaccine due to potential risks or lack of effectiveness.

49. What is the licensing age for Shingrix?

50 years and older

35 years and older

60 years and older

20 years and older

The correct answer is 50 years and older. This means that individuals who are 50 years old or above are eligible to receive the Shingrix vaccine. This vaccine is used to prevent shingles, a painful rash that is caused by the varicella-zoster virus. By receiving the vaccine, individuals can reduce their risk of developing shingles and its associated complications. It is important for individuals in this age group to consult with their healthcare provider to determine if they should receive the Shingrix vaccine.

Explanation

The correct answer is 50 years and older. This means that individuals who are 50 years old or above are eligible to receive the Shingrix vaccine. This vaccine is used to prevent shingles, a painful rash that is caused by the varicella-zoster virus. By receiving the vaccine, individuals can reduce their risk of developing shingles and its associated complications. It is important for individuals in this age group to consult with their healthcare provider to determine if they should receive the Shingrix vaccine.

50. Along with neutrophils, these also serve as the first line of defense against infection and perform the same functions as monocytes

T-Lymphocytes

Macrophages

Eosinophils

B-Lymphocytes

Macrophages serve as the first line of defense against infection, just like neutrophils. They are a type of white blood cell that engulfs and destroys pathogens, dead cells, and other foreign substances in the body. Macrophages also play a role in initiating and regulating immune responses. They are similar to monocytes in terms of their functions, as both are involved in phagocytosis and antigen presentation. Therefore, macrophages are the correct answer as they align with the given explanation.

Explanation

Macrophages serve as the first line of defense against infection, just like neutrophils. They are a type of white blood cell that engulfs and destroys pathogens, dead cells, and other foreign substances in the body. Macrophages also play a role in initiating and regulating immune responses. They are similar to monocytes in terms of their functions, as both are involved in phagocytosis and antigen presentation. Therefore, macrophages are the correct answer as they align with the given explanation.

51. Kinrix is used as the final dose in which series of vaccines?

HiB and Hep b

Hep A and Hep B

DTap and IPV

PCV13 and IPV

Kinrix is a combination vaccine that is used as the final dose in the series of vaccines for DTap (diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis) and IPV (inactivated poliovirus). This means that after receiving the recommended doses of DTap and IPV vaccines, the final dose can be administered using Kinrix. It is important to follow the recommended vaccine schedule to ensure proper immunization and protection against these diseases.

Explanation

Kinrix is a combination vaccine that is used as the final dose in the series of vaccines for DTap (diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis) and IPV (inactivated poliovirus). This means that after receiving the recommended doses of DTap and IPV vaccines, the final dose can be administered using Kinrix. It is important to follow the recommended vaccine schedule to ensure proper immunization and protection against these diseases.

52. What is the schedule for PCV13?

2, 4 and 6 months

2, 4, 6 and 12-15 months

2 and 4 months

18 months and older

PCV13 refers to the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine, which is used to protect against infections caused by the bacteria Streptococcus pneumoniae. The vaccine is typically administered in a series of doses at specific intervals. The correct answer states that the schedule for PCV13 includes doses at 2, 4, 6, and 12-15 months. This means that the vaccine should be given to infants at these specific ages to provide optimal protection against pneumococcal infections.

Explanation

PCV13 refers to the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine, which is used to protect against infections caused by the bacteria Streptococcus pneumoniae. The vaccine is typically administered in a series of doses at specific intervals. The correct answer states that the schedule for PCV13 includes doses at 2, 4, 6, and 12-15 months. This means that the vaccine should be given to infants at these specific ages to provide optimal protection against pneumococcal infections.

53. What is the licensing age for Boostrix (Tdap)?

10 and older

10- 64 years

The licensing age for Boostrix (Tdap) is 10 and older. This means that individuals who are 10 years old or older are eligible to receive the Boostrix vaccine. It is important to note that Boostrix is specifically recommended for adolescents and adults, as it provides protection against tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis.

Explanation

The licensing age for Boostrix (Tdap) is 10 and older. This means that individuals who are 10 years old or older are eligible to receive the Boostrix vaccine. It is important to note that Boostrix is specifically recommended for adolescents and adults, as it provides protection against tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis.

54. What is the licensing age for the FluMist?

6 months and older

12 months and older

18-49 years

2-49 years

The correct answer is 2-49 years. This means that the FluMist vaccine can be given to individuals who are between the ages of 2 and 49 years old. It is not recommended for infants younger than 2 years old or adults older than 49 years old. This age range is based on the safety and effectiveness of the vaccine in these specific age groups.

Explanation

The correct answer is 2-49 years. This means that the FluMist vaccine can be given to individuals who are between the ages of 2 and 49 years old. It is not recommended for infants younger than 2 years old or adults older than 49 years old. This age range is based on the safety and effectiveness of the vaccine in these specific age groups.

55. When an allergen binds to and cross-links the IgE, the ____________ releases chemical mediators from its granules

Dendritic cells

Histamines

Macrophages

Mast cells

When an allergen binds to and cross-links the IgE, mast cells release chemical mediators from their granules. Mast cells are a type of immune cell found in tissues throughout the body, especially in areas prone to allergic reactions such as the skin, lungs, and digestive tract. When activated by an allergen, mast cells release substances like histamines, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes, which trigger an inflammatory response. This response leads to the symptoms associated with allergies, such as itching, sneezing, and swelling. Dendritic cells and macrophages are also involved in the immune response but do not release the same chemical mediators as mast cells.

Explanation

When an allergen binds to and cross-links the IgE, mast cells release chemical mediators from their granules. Mast cells are a type of immune cell found in tissues throughout the body, especially in areas prone to allergic reactions such as the skin, lungs, and digestive tract. When activated by an allergen, mast cells release substances like histamines, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes, which trigger an inflammatory response. This response leads to the symptoms associated with allergies, such as itching, sneezing, and swelling. Dendritic cells and macrophages are also involved in the immune response but do not release the same chemical mediators as mast cells.

56. _______ is defined as the triggered appearance of one or more associated systemic signs and systems that are usually responsive to epinephrine

Allergic reaction

Anaphylaxis

Adverse reaction

Mastocytosis

Anaphylaxis is defined as the triggered appearance of one or more associated systemic signs and symptoms that are usually responsive to epinephrine. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that occurs rapidly and can be life-threatening. It is characterized by symptoms such as difficulty breathing, swelling of the throat or tongue, hives, low blood pressure, and gastrointestinal symptoms. Prompt administration of epinephrine is essential in the treatment of anaphylaxis.

Explanation

Anaphylaxis is defined as the triggered appearance of one or more associated systemic signs and symptoms that are usually responsive to epinephrine. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that occurs rapidly and can be life-threatening. It is characterized by symptoms such as difficulty breathing, swelling of the throat or tongue, hives, low blood pressure, and gastrointestinal symptoms. Prompt administration of epinephrine is essential in the treatment of anaphylaxis.

57. Which is not a vaccine that contains Bakers Yeast?

Hep A

Hep B

HPV

Oral Typhoid

Hep A is not a vaccine that contains Bakers Yeast. The other options, Hep B, HPV, and Oral Typhoid, may contain Bakers Yeast as an ingredient in their vaccines.

Explanation

Hep A is not a vaccine that contains Bakers Yeast. The other options, Hep B, HPV, and Oral Typhoid, may contain Bakers Yeast as an ingredient in their vaccines.

58. _________ is an overabundance of mast cells that carries an increased risk for anaphylaxis

Phagocytosis

Complement system

Mastocytosis

Mastocytosis is a condition characterized by an overabundance of mast cells, which are a type of immune cell involved in allergic reactions. This condition carries an increased risk for anaphylaxis, a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction. Phagocytosis is the process by which cells engulf and destroy foreign particles, while the complement system is a part of the immune system that helps to enhance the body's ability to fight off infections. Therefore, neither phagocytosis nor the complement system are associated with an overabundance of mast cells or an increased risk for anaphylaxis.

Explanation

Mastocytosis is a condition characterized by an overabundance of mast cells, which are a type of immune cell involved in allergic reactions. This condition carries an increased risk for anaphylaxis, a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction. Phagocytosis is the process by which cells engulf and destroy foreign particles, while the complement system is a part of the immune system that helps to enhance the body's ability to fight off infections. Therefore, neither phagocytosis nor the complement system are associated with an overabundance of mast cells or an increased risk for anaphylaxis.

59. Which of these is a virus?

Hepatitis B

Anthrax

Tetanus

Typhoid

Hepatitis B is a virus that infects the liver and can cause both acute and chronic diseases. It is transmitted through contact with the blood or other body fluids of an infected person. Anthrax, tetanus, and typhoid are not caused by viruses; anthrax is caused by a bacterium, tetanus is caused by a toxin produced by bacteria, and typhoid is caused by a bacterium.

Explanation

Hepatitis B is a virus that infects the liver and can cause both acute and chronic diseases. It is transmitted through contact with the blood or other body fluids of an infected person. Anthrax, tetanus, and typhoid are not caused by viruses; anthrax is caused by a bacterium, tetanus is caused by a toxin produced by bacteria, and typhoid is caused by a bacterium.

60. How many doses should a child have completed by the age of 6 for: Rotateq?

5

4

3

2

By the age of 6, a child should have completed three doses of Rotateq. Rotateq is a vaccine that helps protect against rotavirus, a common cause of severe diarrhea and vomiting in infants and young children. The vaccine is given in a series of doses, with the first dose usually administered at 2 months of age, followed by two more doses at 4 months and 6 months of age. Completing the full series of three doses ensures optimal protection against rotavirus infection.

Explanation

By the age of 6, a child should have completed three doses of Rotateq. Rotateq is a vaccine that helps protect against rotavirus, a common cause of severe diarrhea and vomiting in infants and young children. The vaccine is given in a series of doses, with the first dose usually administered at 2 months of age, followed by two more doses at 4 months and 6 months of age. Completing the full series of three doses ensures optimal protection against rotavirus infection.

61. What is the recommended pediatric schedule for Rotarix?

2 and 4 months

2, 4 and 6 months

The recommended pediatric schedule for Rotarix is 2 and 4 months. This means that the vaccine should be administered to infants at the age of 2 months and again at 4 months. This schedule ensures that infants receive the necessary protection against rotavirus, a common cause of severe diarrhea in young children. Administering the vaccine at these specific intervals helps to provide optimal immunity and minimize the risk of infection.

Explanation

The recommended pediatric schedule for Rotarix is 2 and 4 months. This means that the vaccine should be administered to infants at the age of 2 months and again at 4 months. This schedule ensures that infants receive the necessary protection against rotavirus, a common cause of severe diarrhea in young children. Administering the vaccine at these specific intervals helps to provide optimal immunity and minimize the risk of infection.

62. What is the schedule for Twinrix?

Day 0, 30, 180

Day 0, 30, 60

Day 0, 60, 180

The correct schedule for Twinrix is to receive the vaccine on day 0, then again on day 30, and finally on day 180. This schedule ensures that the individual receives the necessary doses of the vaccine at the appropriate intervals to build immunity against hepatitis A and B.

Explanation

The correct schedule for Twinrix is to receive the vaccine on day 0, then again on day 30, and finally on day 180. This schedule ensures that the individual receives the necessary doses of the vaccine at the appropriate intervals to build immunity against hepatitis A and B.

63. What is the licensing age for MMR vaccine?

12 months and older

2 months and older

18 years and older

60 years and older

The licensing age for the MMR vaccine is 12 months and older. This means that individuals who are at least 12 months old can receive the vaccine. The MMR vaccine is given to protect against measles, mumps, and rubella, and it is typically administered in two doses, with the first dose given at around 12-15 months of age. This age requirement is based on the recommendations of healthcare authorities and research on the effectiveness and safety of the vaccine in children.

Explanation

The licensing age for the MMR vaccine is 12 months and older. This means that individuals who are at least 12 months old can receive the vaccine. The MMR vaccine is given to protect against measles, mumps, and rubella, and it is typically administered in two doses, with the first dose given at around 12-15 months of age. This age requirement is based on the recommendations of healthcare authorities and research on the effectiveness and safety of the vaccine in children.

64. ______ are a subset of antigens that bind to circulation IgE antibodies and cause an allergic reaction

Allergies

Histamines

Allergens

Allergens are a subset of antigens that bind to circulation IgE antibodies and cause an allergic reaction. Antigens are substances that can trigger an immune response in the body, and allergens specifically trigger an allergic response. When an allergen enters the body, it binds to IgE antibodies, which then release histamines. Histamines are responsible for the symptoms of an allergic reaction, such as itching, sneezing, and swelling. Therefore, allergens are the correct answer as they specifically refer to substances that cause allergies by binding to IgE antibodies.

Explanation

Allergens are a subset of antigens that bind to circulation IgE antibodies and cause an allergic reaction. Antigens are substances that can trigger an immune response in the body, and allergens specifically trigger an allergic response. When an allergen enters the body, it binds to IgE antibodies, which then release histamines. Histamines are responsible for the symptoms of an allergic reaction, such as itching, sneezing, and swelling. Therefore, allergens are the correct answer as they specifically refer to substances that cause allergies by binding to IgE antibodies.

65. What vaccines make up Pediarix?

DTap, Hep B and IPV

DTap, HiB and IPV

MMR and Varicella

DTap, IPV and ActHib

Pediarix is a combination vaccine that protects against diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (DTap), hepatitis B (Hep B), and polio (IPV). It does not include the MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) or varicella (chickenpox) vaccines.

Explanation

Pediarix is a combination vaccine that protects against diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (DTap), hepatitis B (Hep B), and polio (IPV). It does not include the MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) or varicella (chickenpox) vaccines.

66. What is the schedule for Rabies (Pre Exposure)?

Day 0, 7, 21 or 28 days

Day 0 and 3

Day 0, 3, 7, and 14

The correct answer is day 0, 7, 21 or 28 days. This schedule refers to the pre-exposure vaccination for rabies. It involves receiving the vaccine on day 0, followed by additional doses on day 7, day 21, and sometimes day 28. This vaccination schedule helps to build immunity against the rabies virus before potential exposure occurs.

Explanation

The correct answer is day 0, 7, 21 or 28 days. This schedule refers to the pre-exposure vaccination for rabies. It involves receiving the vaccine on day 0, followed by additional doses on day 7, day 21, and sometimes day 28. This vaccination schedule helps to build immunity against the rabies virus before potential exposure occurs.

67. What is the schedule for Gardasil for age 9-14?

Day 0, 6-12 months

Day 0, 60, 180 days

The schedule for Gardasil for age 9-14 is to receive the vaccine on day 0, and then receive a second dose 6-12 months later. This means that the initial dose is given on day 0, and then the second dose is given sometime between 6 to 12 months after the first dose.

Explanation

The schedule for Gardasil for age 9-14 is to receive the vaccine on day 0, and then receive a second dose 6-12 months later. This means that the initial dose is given on day 0, and then the second dose is given sometime between 6 to 12 months after the first dose.

68. What is the schedule for ixario?

Day 0, day 30

Day 0, day 60

Day 0, day 180

Day 0, day 28

The schedule for ixario is on day 0 and day 28. This means that ixario is scheduled to occur on the first day and again after 28 days.

Explanation

The schedule for ixario is on day 0 and day 28. This means that ixario is scheduled to occur on the first day and again after 28 days.

69. What type of microbe causes polio?

Bacteria

Virus

Polio is caused by a virus, not bacteria. The poliovirus specifically targets the nervous system, leading to paralysis or even death in severe cases. This viral infection is transmitted through contaminated food, water, or direct contact with an infected person's feces. Vaccination has been highly effective in preventing polio, leading to a significant reduction in cases worldwide.

Explanation

Polio is caused by a virus, not bacteria. The poliovirus specifically targets the nervous system, leading to paralysis or even death in severe cases. This viral infection is transmitted through contaminated food, water, or direct contact with an infected person's feces. Vaccination has been highly effective in preventing polio, leading to a significant reduction in cases worldwide.

70. How long do macrophages stay in the blood stream before patrolling in the body's tissues?

1 day

12 hours

1 week

3 days

Macrophages are immune cells that play a crucial role in the body's defense system. They are initially produced in the bone marrow and released into the bloodstream as monocytes. From the bloodstream, they migrate to various tissues where they differentiate into mature macrophages. Once in the tissues, macrophages perform their functions, such as engulfing and destroying pathogens. The given answer, 3 days, suggests that macrophages spend approximately three days in the bloodstream before patrolling the body's tissues. This time allows for the transportation of monocytes to different areas, where they can mature into macrophages and carry out their immune functions.

Explanation

Macrophages are immune cells that play a crucial role in the body's defense system. They are initially produced in the bone marrow and released into the bloodstream as monocytes. From the bloodstream, they migrate to various tissues where they differentiate into mature macrophages. Once in the tissues, macrophages perform their functions, such as engulfing and destroying pathogens. The given answer, 3 days, suggests that macrophages spend approximately three days in the bloodstream before patrolling the body's tissues. This time allows for the transportation of monocytes to different areas, where they can mature into macrophages and carry out their immune functions.

71. What vaccines make up Pentacel?

DTap, Hiberix and IPV

DTap, Hep B and IPV

DTap and IPV

DTap, IPV and ActHib

Pentacel is a combination vaccine that protects against diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (DTap), polio (IPV), and Haemophilus influenzae type b (ActHib). Therefore, the correct answer is DTap, IPV, and ActHib.

Explanation

Pentacel is a combination vaccine that protects against diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (DTap), polio (IPV), and Haemophilus influenzae type b (ActHib). Therefore, the correct answer is DTap, IPV, and ActHib.

72. _______ make up 1-3% of WBCs and are increased in allergic disorders and parasite infections

Macrophages

Eosinophils

Monocytes

Phagocytosis

Eosinophils make up 1-3% of white blood cells (WBCs) and are increased in allergic disorders and parasite infections. Eosinophils are a type of granulocyte that play a role in immune responses against parasites and in allergic reactions. They release toxic substances to kill parasites and are involved in the inflammation response during allergies. Therefore, an increase in eosinophils can indicate the presence of these conditions.

Explanation

Eosinophils make up 1-3% of white blood cells (WBCs) and are increased in allergic disorders and parasite infections. Eosinophils are a type of granulocyte that play a role in immune responses against parasites and in allergic reactions. They release toxic substances to kill parasites and are involved in the inflammation response during allergies. Therefore, an increase in eosinophils can indicate the presence of these conditions.

73. _______ make up 20-25% of the total WBC count and are very important because they provide immunologic memory.

Lymphocytes

Eosinophils

Macrophages

Monocytes

Lymphocytes make up 20-25% of the total WBC count and are very important because they provide immunologic memory. They play a crucial role in the adaptive immune response, recognizing and remembering specific pathogens. This allows the immune system to respond more effectively upon subsequent encounters with the same pathogen. Lymphocytes include B cells, T cells, and natural killer cells, each with their own specialized functions in immune defense.

Explanation

Lymphocytes make up 20-25% of the total WBC count and are very important because they provide immunologic memory. They play a crucial role in the adaptive immune response, recognizing and remembering specific pathogens. This allows the immune system to respond more effectively upon subsequent encounters with the same pathogen. Lymphocytes include B cells, T cells, and natural killer cells, each with their own specialized functions in immune defense.

74. What is the recommended pediatric schedule for MMR vaccine?

2, 4, and 6 months

12 months and 4-6 years

2, 4, 6, and 12 months

18 months and 4 to 6 years

The recommended pediatric schedule for MMR vaccine is at 12 months and 4-6 years. This schedule allows for the first dose to be given at 12 months to provide protection against measles, mumps, and rubella, and the second dose to be given at 4-6 years to ensure long-lasting immunity. This timing is based on the age at which children are most at risk for these diseases and the effectiveness of the vaccine at these ages.

Explanation

The recommended pediatric schedule for MMR vaccine is at 12 months and 4-6 years. This schedule allows for the first dose to be given at 12 months to provide protection against measles, mumps, and rubella, and the second dose to be given at 4-6 years to ensure long-lasting immunity. This timing is based on the age at which children are most at risk for these diseases and the effectiveness of the vaccine at these ages.

75. At what age should Kinrix be avoided using?

7 years and older

3 years and older

6 years and older

14 weeks and 6 days

Kinrix is a vaccine that is used to prevent diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (whooping cough), and polio. It is recommended for use in children who are 7 years and older. This means that it should not be used in children who are younger than 7 years old. The vaccine is considered safe and effective for children in this age group, but its use should be avoided in younger children.

Explanation

Kinrix is a vaccine that is used to prevent diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (whooping cough), and polio. It is recommended for use in children who are 7 years and older. This means that it should not be used in children who are younger than 7 years old. The vaccine is considered safe and effective for children in this age group, but its use should be avoided in younger children.

76. Which shots are given at the 4-6 year range?

DTap

HPV

VZV

Hib

The shots given at the 4-6 year range are DTap (Diphtheria, Tetanus, and Pertussis) and VZV (Varicella-Zoster Virus). DTap is a combination vaccine that protects against three bacterial diseases, while VZV is a vaccine that protects against chickenpox. The other two options, HPV (Human Papillomavirus) and Hib (Haemophilus influenzae type b), are not typically given at this age range.

Explanation

The shots given at the 4-6 year range are DTap (Diphtheria, Tetanus, and Pertussis) and VZV (Varicella-Zoster Virus). DTap is a combination vaccine that protects against three bacterial diseases, while VZV is a vaccine that protects against chickenpox. The other two options, HPV (Human Papillomavirus) and Hib (Haemophilus influenzae type b), are not typically given at this age range.

Submit

77. This WBC is found in very small numbers in circulating blood and nasal secretions

Basophils

Neutrophils

Eosinophils

B-lymphocytes

Basophils are a type of white blood cell (WBC) that are found in very small numbers in circulating blood and nasal secretions. They play a role in the immune response by releasing chemicals such as histamine, which are involved in allergic reactions and inflammation. Basophils are also involved in defense against parasites. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and B-lymphocytes are other types of WBCs, but they are not specifically associated with being found in small numbers in circulating blood and nasal secretions.

Explanation

Basophils are a type of white blood cell (WBC) that are found in very small numbers in circulating blood and nasal secretions. They play a role in the immune response by releasing chemicals such as histamine, which are involved in allergic reactions and inflammation. Basophils are also involved in defense against parasites. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and B-lymphocytes are other types of WBCs, but they are not specifically associated with being found in small numbers in circulating blood and nasal secretions.

78. What is the licensing age for Menamune?

2 months to 55 years

18 and older

2 years and older

None fo the above

The correct answer is 2 months to 55 years. This means that individuals as young as 2 months old and as old as 55 years old are eligible to receive the Menamune vaccine. The vaccine is not restricted to a specific age group and can be administered to a wide range of individuals within this age range.

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 months to 55 years. This means that individuals as young as 2 months old and as old as 55 years old are eligible to receive the Menamune vaccine. The vaccine is not restricted to a specific age group and can be administered to a wide range of individuals within this age range.

79. Which of the following vaccines contain streptomycin?

IPV

MMR

VZV

HiB

IPV stands for Inactivated Polio Vaccine, which does not contain streptomycin. Streptomycin is an antibiotic that is not used in the production of IPV. Therefore, IPV does not include streptomycin as an ingredient.

Explanation

IPV stands for Inactivated Polio Vaccine, which does not contain streptomycin. Streptomycin is an antibiotic that is not used in the production of IPV. Therefore, IPV does not include streptomycin as an ingredient.

80. When spacing live vaccines and antibody containing products, how long do you need to wait to administer the antibody containing product after the administration of a live vaccine?

14 days

21 days

28 days

3 months

When spacing live vaccines and antibody containing products, it is necessary to wait for 14 days before administering the antibody containing product after the administration of a live vaccine. This waiting period allows the immune response to the live vaccine to settle down before introducing the antibody containing product, ensuring optimal effectiveness of both interventions.

Explanation

When spacing live vaccines and antibody containing products, it is necessary to wait for 14 days before administering the antibody containing product after the administration of a live vaccine. This waiting period allows the immune response to the live vaccine to settle down before introducing the antibody containing product, ensuring optimal effectiveness of both interventions.

81. What is the schedule for Engerix for a patients 20 years and older?

1 ml: day 0, 30, 180

0.5ml: day 0, 30, 180

0.5ml: day 0, 30

1 ml: day 0, 30

The correct answer is 1 ml: day 0, 30, 180. This means that patients who are 20 years and older should receive a 1 ml dose of Engerix on day 0, another 1 ml dose on day 30, and a final 1 ml dose on day 180. This schedule ensures that the patient receives the appropriate dosage at the recommended intervals for maximum effectiveness.

Explanation

The correct answer is 1 ml: day 0, 30, 180. This means that patients who are 20 years and older should receive a 1 ml dose of Engerix on day 0, another 1 ml dose on day 30, and a final 1 ml dose on day 180. This schedule ensures that the patient receives the appropriate dosage at the recommended intervals for maximum effectiveness.

82. Which of the following is not considered a sign or symptom of anaphylaxis

Tachycardia

Gi upset

Sense of impending doom

Id angioedema

GI upset is not considered a sign or symptom of anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can cause symptoms such as difficulty breathing, hives, swelling, low blood pressure, and rapid heartbeat. GI upset, such as nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea, is not typically associated with anaphylaxis. Instead, it may be a symptom of other conditions or reactions.

Explanation

GI upset is not considered a sign or symptom of anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can cause symptoms such as difficulty breathing, hives, swelling, low blood pressure, and rapid heartbeat. GI upset, such as nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea, is not typically associated with anaphylaxis. Instead, it may be a symptom of other conditions or reactions.

83. How many doses should a child have completed by the age of 6 for: DTap?

5

4

3

2

A child should have completed 5 doses of DTap vaccine by the age of 6. DTap is a vaccine that protects against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis (whooping cough). The vaccine is typically given in a series of 5 doses, with the first dose given at 2 months of age and the remaining doses given at 4 months, 6 months, 15-18 months, and 4-6 years. By completing all 5 doses, the child will have the maximum protection against these diseases by the age of 6.

Explanation

A child should have completed 5 doses of DTap vaccine by the age of 6. DTap is a vaccine that protects against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis (whooping cough). The vaccine is typically given in a series of 5 doses, with the first dose given at 2 months of age and the remaining doses given at 4 months, 6 months, 15-18 months, and 4-6 years. By completing all 5 doses, the child will have the maximum protection against these diseases by the age of 6.

84. What is the adult schedule for MMR vaccine?

Day 0 and 28

Day 0 and 30

Day 0, 30, 60

Day 0 and 180

The correct answer is day 0 and 28. This schedule indicates that the MMR vaccine should be administered on the first day and then again 28 days later. This timing allows for optimal protection against measles, mumps, and rubella.

Explanation

The correct answer is day 0 and 28. This schedule indicates that the MMR vaccine should be administered on the first day and then again 28 days later. This timing allows for optimal protection against measles, mumps, and rubella.

85. What is the pediatric schedule for Hep B if used in a combination vaccine?

2, 4, and 6 months

2, 4, 6 and 12-15 months

2 and 4 months

None of the above

The pediatric schedule for Hep B if used in a combination vaccine is 2, 4, and 6 months. This means that the vaccine should be administered to the child at 2 months of age, followed by doses at 4 and 6 months. This schedule is recommended to ensure that the child is protected against Hepatitis B at an early age and to provide optimal immunity. The option of 2 and 4 months is incorrect as it does not include the third dose at 6 months. The option of 2, 4, 6, and 12-15 months is also incorrect as it includes an additional dose at 12-15 months, which is not part of the recommended schedule.

Explanation

The pediatric schedule for Hep B if used in a combination vaccine is 2, 4, and 6 months. This means that the vaccine should be administered to the child at 2 months of age, followed by doses at 4 and 6 months. This schedule is recommended to ensure that the child is protected against Hepatitis B at an early age and to provide optimal immunity. The option of 2 and 4 months is incorrect as it does not include the third dose at 6 months. The option of 2, 4, 6, and 12-15 months is also incorrect as it includes an additional dose at 12-15 months, which is not part of the recommended schedule.

86. At what age can Kinrix be given?

4-6 years old

2 months and older

2 to 6 months

2 to 12 months

Kinrix is a vaccine that provides protection against diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, and polio. It is typically given to children as a booster dose between the ages of 4 and 6 years old. This is because children at this age have usually completed their primary immunization series and are due for a booster to maintain their immunity. Giving Kinrix at this age helps to ensure continued protection against these diseases.

Explanation

Kinrix is a vaccine that provides protection against diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, and polio. It is typically given to children as a booster dose between the ages of 4 and 6 years old. This is because children at this age have usually completed their primary immunization series and are due for a booster to maintain their immunity. Giving Kinrix at this age helps to ensure continued protection against these diseases.

87. Which of the following does not contain neomycin?

MMR

MMRV

VZV

Zoster

HPV

Neomycin is an antibiotic commonly used in topical medications and vaccines to prevent bacterial contamination. The question asks for the option that does not contain neomycin. Among the given options, HPV (Human Papillomavirus) does not contain neomycin. HPV is a viral infection and does not require the use of neomycin. Therefore, HPV is the correct answer.

Explanation

Neomycin is an antibiotic commonly used in topical medications and vaccines to prevent bacterial contamination. The question asks for the option that does not contain neomycin. Among the given options, HPV (Human Papillomavirus) does not contain neomycin. HPV is a viral infection and does not require the use of neomycin. Therefore, HPV is the correct answer.

88. What is the recommended schedule for ActHib

2, 4, 6, and 12 months

2, 4, 6, and 15-18 months

2, 4, 6, and 12-15 months

2, 4, and 6 months

The recommended schedule for ActHib vaccination is 2, 4, 6, and 12-15 months. This means that the vaccine should be given at 2 months of age, followed by doses at 4 and 6 months of age. The final dose should be administered between 12 and 15 months of age. This schedule ensures that the child receives the necessary protection against Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) infection, which can cause severe illnesses such as meningitis and pneumonia.

Explanation

The recommended schedule for ActHib vaccination is 2, 4, 6, and 12-15 months. This means that the vaccine should be given at 2 months of age, followed by doses at 4 and 6 months of age. The final dose should be administered between 12 and 15 months of age. This schedule ensures that the child receives the necessary protection against Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) infection, which can cause severe illnesses such as meningitis and pneumonia.

89. What is the recommended schedule for PedvaxHib?

2, 4, and 12-15 months

2, 4, 6, and 12 months

2, 4, 6 and 15-18 months

2, 4, and 6 months

The recommended schedule for PedvaxHib is 2, 4, and 12-15 months. This means that the vaccine should be administered at 2 months, followed by another dose at 4 months, and a final dose between 12 and 15 months. This schedule ensures that the child receives the necessary doses of the vaccine to provide protection against Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) infection.

Explanation

The recommended schedule for PedvaxHib is 2, 4, and 12-15 months. This means that the vaccine should be administered at 2 months, followed by another dose at 4 months, and a final dose between 12 and 15 months. This schedule ensures that the child receives the necessary doses of the vaccine to provide protection against Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) infection.

90. What is the licensing age for menactra?

9 months- 55 years

2 months- 55 years

18 and older

None of the above

The licensing age for Menactra is from 9 months to 55 years. This means that individuals who are at least 9 months old up to the age of 55 are eligible to receive the Menactra vaccine.

Explanation

The licensing age for Menactra is from 9 months to 55 years. This means that individuals who are at least 9 months old up to the age of 55 are eligible to receive the Menactra vaccine.

91. What is the schedule for Rabies (Post exposure, Pre vaccination)?

Day 0, 7, 21 or 28 days

Day 0 and 3

Day 0, 3, 7 and 14

The correct schedule for Rabies (Post exposure, Pre vaccination) is day 0, 3, 7 and 14. This schedule involves receiving the rabies vaccine on the day of exposure, and then receiving additional doses on days 3, 7, and 14. This schedule helps to ensure that the individual develops immunity against the rabies virus.

Explanation

The correct schedule for Rabies (Post exposure, Pre vaccination) is day 0, 3, 7 and 14. This schedule involves receiving the rabies vaccine on the day of exposure, and then receiving additional doses on days 3, 7, and 14. This schedule helps to ensure that the individual develops immunity against the rabies virus.

92. What is the licensing age for Yellow Fever?

2 years and older

2 months and older

9 years and older

9 months and older

The correct answer is 9 months and older. This means that individuals who are at least 9 months old are eligible to receive the Yellow Fever vaccine. This age requirement is put in place to ensure that the vaccine is safe and effective for the individual receiving it. Younger infants may not have a fully developed immune system, making them more susceptible to potential side effects of the vaccine. Therefore, it is recommended to wait until the child is at least 9 months old before administering the Yellow Fever vaccine.

Explanation

The correct answer is 9 months and older. This means that individuals who are at least 9 months old are eligible to receive the Yellow Fever vaccine. This age requirement is put in place to ensure that the vaccine is safe and effective for the individual receiving it. Younger infants may not have a fully developed immune system, making them more susceptible to potential side effects of the vaccine. Therefore, it is recommended to wait until the child is at least 9 months old before administering the Yellow Fever vaccine.

93. _______ make up 60-70% of WBCs and are part of the organism's first line of defense against infection.

Eosinophils

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

Neutrophils

Neutrophils make up 60-70% of WBCs and are part of the organism's first line of defense against infection. They are phagocytic cells that are able to engulf and destroy bacteria and other pathogens. Neutrophils are typically the first immune cells to arrive at the site of infection and play a crucial role in the inflammatory response. They release enzymes and chemicals to kill the invading pathogens and recruit other immune cells to the site of infection.

Explanation

Neutrophils make up 60-70% of WBCs and are part of the organism's first line of defense against infection. They are phagocytic cells that are able to engulf and destroy bacteria and other pathogens. Neutrophils are typically the first immune cells to arrive at the site of infection and play a crucial role in the inflammatory response. They release enzymes and chemicals to kill the invading pathogens and recruit other immune cells to the site of infection.

94. How many doses should a child have completed by the age of 6 for: Prevnar?

5

4

3

2

A child should have completed 4 doses of Prevnar by the age of 6. Prevnar is a vaccine that protects against pneumococcal disease, which can cause serious infections such as pneumonia, meningitis, and bloodstream infections. The vaccine is typically given in a series of doses, with the first dose usually administered at 2 months of age. The remaining doses are given at specific intervals, with the final dose typically given between 12 and 15 months of age. By completing 4 doses by the age of 6, the child will have received the recommended number of doses for optimal protection against pneumococcal disease.

Explanation

A child should have completed 4 doses of Prevnar by the age of 6. Prevnar is a vaccine that protects against pneumococcal disease, which can cause serious infections such as pneumonia, meningitis, and bloodstream infections. The vaccine is typically given in a series of doses, with the first dose usually administered at 2 months of age. The remaining doses are given at specific intervals, with the final dose typically given between 12 and 15 months of age. By completing 4 doses by the age of 6, the child will have received the recommended number of doses for optimal protection against pneumococcal disease.

95. Which vaccines are kept in the freezer?

MMRV

Influenza

Cholera

IPV

MMRV (Measles, Mumps, Rubella, and Varicella) vaccine and Cholera vaccine are typically stored in the freezer. Freezing helps to maintain the stability and efficacy of these vaccines. Influenza (flu) vaccine and IPV (Inactivated Polio Vaccine) are usually stored in the refrigerator, as they do not require freezing temperatures for storage.

Explanation

MMRV (Measles, Mumps, Rubella, and Varicella) vaccine and Cholera vaccine are typically stored in the freezer. Freezing helps to maintain the stability and efficacy of these vaccines. Influenza (flu) vaccine and IPV (Inactivated Polio Vaccine) are usually stored in the refrigerator, as they do not require freezing temperatures for storage.

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96. What is the schedule for Heplisav-B?

Day 0, 30

Day 0, 30, 60

Day 0, 30, 60, 180

Day 0, 30, 180

The schedule for Heplisav-B is to receive the vaccine on day 0 and then again on day 30. This means that the vaccine is given twice, with a 30-day interval between doses.

Explanation

The schedule for Heplisav-B is to receive the vaccine on day 0 and then again on day 30. This means that the vaccine is given twice, with a 30-day interval between doses.

97. What is the pediatric schedule for Pediarix?

2, 4, and 6 months

2, 4, 6 and 12-15 months

12 months and 4-6 years

18 months and 4-6 years

The correct answer is 2, 4, and 6 months. This is the pediatric schedule for Pediarix, a combination vaccine that protects against diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, hepatitis B, and polio. The vaccine is administered at 2 months, followed by doses at 4 and 6 months of age. This schedule ensures that infants receive the necessary immunization to protect them against these diseases at an early age when they are most vulnerable.

Explanation

The correct answer is 2, 4, and 6 months. This is the pediatric schedule for Pediarix, a combination vaccine that protects against diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, hepatitis B, and polio. The vaccine is administered at 2 months, followed by doses at 4 and 6 months of age. This schedule ensures that infants receive the necessary immunization to protect them against these diseases at an early age when they are most vulnerable.

98. Which of the following vaccines contain eggs? Check all that apply

Influenza

Yellow fever

MMR

VZV

Zoster

Influenza, yellow fever, and MMR vaccines contain eggs. These vaccines are produced using chicken eggs as a growth medium for the viruses used in the vaccines. The viruses are grown inside fertilized chicken eggs, and then the viruses are harvested and processed to make the vaccines. However, it's important to note that the amount of egg protein in these vaccines is minimal and unlikely to cause an allergic reaction in most individuals.

Explanation

Influenza, yellow fever, and MMR vaccines contain eggs. These vaccines are produced using chicken eggs as a growth medium for the viruses used in the vaccines. The viruses are grown inside fertilized chicken eggs, and then the viruses are harvested and processed to make the vaccines. However, it's important to note that the amount of egg protein in these vaccines is minimal and unlikely to cause an allergic reaction in most individuals.

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99. What is the schedule for Pentacel?

2, 4 and 6 months

2, 4, 6 and 12 months

2, 4, 6 and 15-18 months

The schedule for Pentacel includes doses at 2, 4, 6, and 15-18 months. This means that the vaccine should be administered to individuals at these specific time intervals in order to provide the necessary protection.

Explanation

The schedule for Pentacel includes doses at 2, 4, 6, and 15-18 months. This means that the vaccine should be administered to individuals at these specific time intervals in order to provide the necessary protection.

100. What is the recommended schedule for the Comvax vaccine?

2, 4, 6, and 12 months

2, 4, 6, and 15-18 months

2, 4 and 12-15 months

2, 4 and 6 months

The recommended schedule for the Comvax vaccine is to administer it at 2, 4, and 12-15 months. This means that the first dose should be given at 2 months of age, followed by a second dose at 4 months, and a final dose between 12 and 15 months. This schedule ensures that the child receives the necessary protection against the diseases targeted by the Comvax vaccine at the appropriate ages when they are most vulnerable.

Explanation

The recommended schedule for the Comvax vaccine is to administer it at 2, 4, and 12-15 months. This means that the first dose should be given at 2 months of age, followed by a second dose at 4 months, and a final dose between 12 and 15 months. This schedule ensures that the child receives the necessary protection against the diseases targeted by the Comvax vaccine at the appropriate ages when they are most vulnerable.

101. _________ specializes in presenting parts of these organisms to other cells in the immune system, such as t-cells, and are thus known as "antigen presenting cells".

Basinophils

B-lymphocytes

Monocytes

T-cells

Monocytes specialize in presenting parts of organisms to other cells in the immune system, such as T-cells, and are thus known as "antigen presenting cells". This means that monocytes play a crucial role in the immune response by presenting antigens to T-cells, which then activate the immune system to fight against pathogens.

Explanation

Monocytes specialize in presenting parts of organisms to other cells in the immune system, such as T-cells, and are thus known as "antigen presenting cells". This means that monocytes play a crucial role in the immune response by presenting antigens to T-cells, which then activate the immune system to fight against pathogens.

102. What is the cutoff age for a patient to receive the Rotavirus vaccine?

14 weeks, 6 days

15 weeks

8 months, 0 days

7 months, 29 days

The cutoff age for a patient to receive the Rotavirus vaccine is 8 months, 0 days. This means that the vaccine should be administered before the patient reaches 8 months and 1 day old. It is important to adhere to this cutoff age to ensure the effectiveness and safety of the vaccine.

Explanation

The cutoff age for a patient to receive the Rotavirus vaccine is 8 months, 0 days. This means that the vaccine should be administered before the patient reaches 8 months and 1 day old. It is important to adhere to this cutoff age to ensure the effectiveness and safety of the vaccine.

103. Which of the following is caused by bacteria? Check all that apply

Anthrax

Diptheria

HiB

Pneumoccocal

Typhoid

Polio

Hepatitis A

Anthrax, Diptheria, HiB, Pneumoccocal, and Typhoid are all caused by bacteria. These bacterial infections can cause various symptoms and health complications in individuals. Polio and Hepatitis A, on the other hand, are caused by viruses and not bacteria.

Explanation

Anthrax, Diptheria, HiB, Pneumoccocal, and Typhoid are all caused by bacteria. These bacterial infections can cause various symptoms and health complications in individuals. Polio and Hepatitis A, on the other hand, are caused by viruses and not bacteria.

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