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Buchita

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 148

Questions: 95 | Attempts: 148 | Updated: Jan 23, 2023

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Questions and Answers

1.

What does Zero Administration Memory Management do?
- A.
  
  It makes entering PRIV mode impossible
- B.
  
  It prevents the administrator of the system from setting any memory parameters.
- C.
  
  It allows all memory parameters to be set automatically
- D.
  
  It allows total extended memory size to grow dynamically and allows other memory parameters
Correct Answer
D. It allows total extended memory size to grow dynamically and allows other memory parameters

Explanation
Zero Administration Memory Management (ZAMM) is a memory management technique that allows the total extended memory size to grow dynamically and also enables the automatic setting of other memory parameters. This means that ZAMM automatically adjusts the memory size according to the system's needs, without requiring manual intervention from the administrator. It simplifies the memory management process by eliminating the need for administrators to manually set memory parameters, allowing for more efficient and hassle-free memory management.

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2.

Which of the following RFC quota parameters should be set to maintain the number of dialog work processes that should be kept free for users? Choose the correct answer.
- A.
  
  Rdisp/rfc_max_own_wp
- B.
  
  Rdisp/rfc_min_wait_dia_wp
- C.
  
  Rdisp/rfc_max_own_login
- D.
  
  Rdisp/rfc_max_comm_entries
Correct Answer
B. Rdisp/rfc_min_wait_dia_wp

Explanation
The correct answer is "rdisp/rfc_min_wait_dia_wp". This parameter should be set to maintain the number of dialog work processes that should be kept free for users. This means that the system will reserve a certain number of dialog work processes to handle user requests and ensure that there are enough available for user interactions.

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3.

Which of the following tools is best for monitoring and analyzing issues in the transactional RFC queue? Choose the correct answer
- A.
  
  SM58
- B.
  
  SMQ1
- C.
  
  SMQ2
- D.
  
  ST05
Correct Answer
A. SM58

Explanation
SM58 is the correct answer because it is the transaction code used to monitor and analyze issues in the transactional RFC queue. It allows users to view and manage the inbound and outbound queues, check the status of the RFCs, and reprocess any failed RFCs. SMQ1 and SMQ2 are transaction codes used for monitoring and analyzing the qRFC (queued RFC) queues, while ST05 is used for performance tuning and analysis.

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4.

What is RFC+CPIC time in synchronous RFC? Choose the correct answer.
- A.
  
  Time needed to establish the RFC communication to the RFC server.
- B.
  
  Time needed to establish the RFC communication plus roll out time, roll wait time, and roll in time.
- C.
  
  Roll wait time caused by RFC communication.
- D.
  
  GUI time.
Correct Answer
B. Time needed to establish the RFC communication plus roll out time, roll wait time, and roll in time.

Explanation
The RFC+CPIC time in synchronous RFC refers to the total time required for establishing the RFC communication with the RFC server, including the roll-out time, roll-wait time, and roll-in time. This means that it encompasses the time needed for establishing the communication as well as the additional time required for the various stages of the roll-out process.

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5.

Which of the following types of RFC calls guarantees multiple communications steps in a specific order? Choose the correct answer
- A.
  
  Asynchronous RFC
- B.
  
  Transactional RFC
- C.
  
  Synchronous RFC
- D.
  
  Queued RFC
Correct Answer
D. Queued RFC

Explanation
Queued RFC calls guarantee multiple communication steps in a specific order. In a Queued RFC, the system queues the RFC request and processes it in the order it was received. This ensures that the steps are executed sequentially, maintaining the desired order of communication. Asynchronous RFC does not guarantee a specific order as it allows parallel processing. Transactional RFC ensures atomicity and consistency but not a specific order. Synchronous RFC also does not guarantee a specific order as it waits for a response before proceeding.

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6.

You are reviewing RFC data in the transaction Workload Monitor (ST03n). Which RFC profile provides information about function modules in other systems that are called from this system?
- A.
  
  RFC server-destination profile
- B.
  
  RFC client-destination profile
- C.
  
  RFC client profile
- D.
  
  RFC server profile
Correct Answer
C. RFC client profile

Explanation
The RFC client profile provides information about function modules in other systems that are called from this system. This profile is used to monitor the performance and usage of RFC calls made by the local system to remote systems. It tracks the number of calls, response times, and other metrics related to RFC communication between systems.

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7.

Which system parameters are used to set RFC quotas? There are 2 correct answers to this question
- A.
  
  rdisp/rfc_use_quotas
- B.
  
  rdisp/rfc_max_login
- C.
  
  rdisp/queue/wait
- D.
  
  rdisp/max_sessions
Correct Answer(s)
A. rdisp/rfc_use_quotas
B. rdisp/rfc_max_login

Explanation
The system parameters rdisp/rfc_use_quotas and rdisp/rfc_max_login are used to set RFC quotas. The parameter rdisp/rfc_use_quotas determines whether quotas are used for RFC connections, while rdisp/rfc_max_login sets the maximum number of allowed logins for an RFC user. These parameters help manage and control the usage of RFC connections in the system.

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8.

Which RFC type is used if you want to establish communication with a remote system, but don't want to wait for the result for further processing?
- A.
  
  Synchronous RFC (sRFC)
- B.
  
  Background RFC (bgRFC)
- C.
  
  Asynchronous RFC (aRFC)
- D.
  
  Background RFC (bgRFC)
Correct Answer
C. Asynchronous RFC (aRFC)

Explanation
Asynchronous RFC (aRFC) is the correct answer because it allows for establishing communication with a remote system without having to wait for the result before further processing. This type of RFC is commonly used in scenarios where the response time is not critical and the system can continue with other tasks while waiting for the result.

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9.

Which elements are part of the RFC CPIC time during a synchronous RFC call to another system? There are 4 correct answers to this question.
- A.
  
  Roll wait time
- B.
  
  Roll out time
- C.
  
  Processing time
- D.
  
  Time to establish the RFC connection
- E.
  
  Database request time
- F.
  
  Roll in time
Correct Answer(s)
A. Roll wait time
B. Roll out time
D. Time to establish the RFC connection
F. Roll in time

Explanation
During a synchronous RFC call to another system, several elements are involved. Roll wait time refers to the time spent waiting for a database lock to be released. Roll out time is the time taken to transfer data from the caller system to the target system. Time to establish the RFC connection is the duration required to establish a connection between the systems. Roll in time is the time taken to transfer data back from the target system to the caller system. These elements are all part of the RFC CPIC time during a synchronous RFC call.

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10.

What is the purpose of buffering data in SAP table buffers? 2 right
- A.
  
  To reduce load on the database
- B.
  
  To speed up access to data
- C.
  
  To speed up buffering time
- D.
  
  To reduce the load on extended memory
- E.
  
  To allow users fast access
Correct Answer(s)
A. To reduce load on the database
B. To speed up access to data

Explanation
Buffering data in SAP table buffers serves the purpose of reducing the load on the database by storing frequently accessed data in memory. This helps to minimize the number of database accesses required, resulting in improved system performance. Additionally, buffering data also speeds up access to data by allowing faster retrieval of information from the buffer rather than querying the database.

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11.

SQL trace (transaction ST05) offers a lot of information on table accesses, which includes the database activities, number of ABAP requests, and number of invalidations. Determine whether this statement is true or false.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
B. False

Explanation
The statement is false. SQL trace (transaction ST05) does offer a lot of information on table accesses, including the database activities, number of ABAP requests, and number of invalidations.

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12.

Table buffering is recommended for which of the following scenarios ? Choose 2 correct answers.
- A.
  
  Tables that are seldom changed.
- B.
  
  Large tables that are often accessed.
- C.
  
  Customizing data.
- D.
  
  Transaction data.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Tables that are seldom changed.
C. Customizing data.

Explanation
Table buffering is recommended for tables that are seldom changed and customizing data. Table buffering helps to improve the performance of accessing data from these tables by storing the data in the buffer memory. This reduces the need to read the data from the database every time it is accessed, resulting in faster data retrieval. For tables that are seldom changed, table buffering can be beneficial as it allows for quicker access to the data without the need to constantly update the buffer. Similarly, for customizing data that is not frequently modified, table buffering can enhance performance by reducing the database access time.

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13.

Which of the following parameter controls the buffer synchronization behavior in the SAP system? Choose the correct answer.
- A.
  
  rdisp/ddlogmode
- B.
  
  rdisp/switch_bufmode
- C.
  
  rdisp/bufremode
- D.
  
  rdisp/auto_buf
Correct Answer
C. rdisp/bufremode

Explanation
The parameter "rdisp/bufremode" controls the buffer synchronization behavior in the SAP system. This parameter determines whether the buffer is removed from the memory after a work process is finished or if it remains in memory for reuse.

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14.

Which of the following are valid options for table buffering types? Choose 3 correct answers.
- A.
  
  Single record buffered
- B.
  
  Generic area buffered
- C.
  
  Fully buffered
- D.
  
  Client specific buffered
Correct Answer(s)
A. Single record buffered
B. Generic area buffered
C. Fully buffered

Explanation
The question asks for valid options for table buffering types. The correct answers are Single record buffered, Generic area buffered, and Fully buffered. These options are valid because they are all types of table buffering that can be used in SAP systems. Single record buffering buffers only one record at a time, generic area buffering buffers a group of records, and fully buffering buffers the entire table. Client specific buffering is not a valid option for table buffering types.

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15.

What happens when a buffered table is updated by an SQL request? There are 2 correct answers to this question.
- A.
  
  The database is updated and the buffer of the current application server is invalidated.
- B.
  
  Changes are written to table DDLOG, which is read at a certain interval to invalidate the buffered content on the other application servers.
- C.
  
  The buffered table is updated at all application servers and the database is updated afterward asynchronously by report DDLOG.
- D.
  
  Changes are written to table DDLOG, which is read at a certain interval to update the content of the database.
Correct Answer(s)
A. The database is updated and the buffer of the current application server is invalidated.
B. Changes are written to table DDLOG, which is read at a certain interval to invalidate the buffered content on the other application servers.

Explanation
When a buffered table is updated by an SQL request, the first correct answer states that the database is updated and the buffer of the current application server is invalidated. This means that the changes made to the table are immediately reflected in the database, and the buffer in the current application server is cleared to ensure that the most up-to-date data is retrieved. The second correct answer explains that the changes are written to table DDLOG, which is periodically read to invalidate the buffered content on the other application servers. This ensures that all application servers have the latest data by periodically updating their buffers based on the changes recorded in table DDLOG.

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16.

When should you usually switch on table buffering? There is 1 correct answers to this question.
- A.
  
  If the table is larger than 1MB.
- B.
  
  If the table experiences many invalidations.
- C.
  
  If the table is already buffered in the database buffer.
- D.
  
  If the table is frequently accessed.
Correct Answer
D. If the table is frequently accessed.

Explanation
Table buffering is a technique used to improve the performance of frequently accessed tables by storing them in the memory buffer. When a table is frequently accessed, enabling table buffering can help reduce the number of disk reads, resulting in faster response times. Therefore, the correct answer is that table buffering should be switched on if the table is frequently accessed.

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17.

Which option represents "Generic area buffered"?
- A.
  
  During the first access to a table, all table content is copied to the table buffer on the SAP instance.
- B.
  
  You set some of key fields for a table to be used to determine the data to be buffered during access.
- C.
  
  You set all key fields of a table to specify which records are buffered on the SAP instance.
- D.
  
  Each individual record accessed is buffered on the SAP instance.
Correct Answer
B. You set some of key fields for a table to be used to determine the data to be buffered during access.

Explanation
This option represents "Generic area buffered" because it states that only some of the key fields for a table are set to determine the data to be buffered during access. This means that not all records are buffered, but only those that meet the specified criteria.

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18.

When you run transaction Table Call Statistics (ST10), which of the following indicates that a table should be unbuffered? There are 3 correct answers to this question
- A.
  
  Tables with a high number of invalidations
- B.
  
  Tables with a high number of "Rows affected"
- C.
  
  Tables with a large buffer size
- D.
  
  Tables with buffer state 'pending'
- E.
  
  Tables with more direct reads than sequential reads
Correct Answer(s)
A. Tables with a high number of invalidations
B. Tables with a high number of "Rows affected"
C. Tables with a large buffer size

Explanation
When running transaction Table Call Statistics (ST10), a high number of invalidations, a high number of "Rows affected," and a large buffer size all indicate that a table should be unbuffered. Invalidations occur when data in the table is changed, which can cause performance issues if the table is buffered. "Rows affected" refers to the number of rows that are modified or accessed, which can also cause performance issues if the table is buffered. A large buffer size indicates that the table is consuming a significant amount of memory, which may be unnecessary if the table is not frequently accessed.

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19.

Which profile parameters control the buffer synchronization? There are 2 correct answers to this question
- A.
  
  rdisp/bufrefmode
- B.
  
  rdisp/bufreftime
- C.
  
  rdisp/max_alt_modes
- D.
  
  rdisp/buffer_on
Correct Answer(s)
A. rdisp/bufrefmode
B. rdisp/bufreftime

Explanation
The profile parameters "rdisp/bufrefmode" and "rdisp/bufreftime" control the buffer synchronization. "rdisp/bufrefmode" determines the buffer synchronization mode, while "rdisp/bufreftime" specifies the time interval for buffer synchronization. These parameters are used to manage the synchronization of buffers in the system.

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20.

Programs which show database request time > 40 % (response time – wait time) in the transaction profile of ST03 are potential candidates for containing expensive SQL statements. Determine whether this statement is true or false.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
The statement is true. If the programs in the transaction profile of ST03 show a database request time that is greater than 40% of the response time minus the wait time, it indicates that these programs may contain expensive SQL statements. The high percentage suggests that a significant portion of the overall response time is due to the execution of these SQL statements, indicating potential performance issues that need to be addressed.

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21.

Which of the following can be found in the Explain function in SQL trace? Choose 3 correct answers
- A.
  
  Execution plan (table/index access)
- B.
  
  Estimated costs/ Estimated rows
- C.
  
  Memory usage
- D.
  
  Table/indexes statistics
Correct Answer(s)
A. Execution plan (table/index access)
B. Estimated costs/ Estimated rows
D. Table/indexes statistics

Explanation
The Explain function in SQL trace can provide information about the execution plan, including table and index access. It can also provide estimated costs and estimated rows for the query. Additionally, it can provide statistics about the tables and indexes involved in the query.

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22.

The ABAP trace (transaction SE30 or SAT) is the tool to use if we want to find out more about the expensive SQL statement and its execution plan. Determine whether this statement is true or false.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
B. False

Explanation
The given statement is false. The ABAP trace is not the tool to use for finding out more about expensive SQL statements and their execution plans. The correct tool for this purpose is the SQL Trace (transaction ST05). The ABAP trace is used to analyze the performance of ABAP programs, while the SQL Trace is specifically designed to analyze SQL statements and their execution plans.

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23.

Which of the following SQL statements cannot be tuned? Choose 3 correct answers.
- A.
  
  SQL statements used by ABAP programs
- B.
  
  SQL statements used by SAP Basis Tables
- C.
  
  Recursive SQL Statements
- D.
  
  SQL statements used by Database Administration Tools
Correct Answer(s)
B. SQL statements used by SAP Basis Tables
C. Recursive SQL Statements
D. SQL statements used by Database Administration Tools

Explanation
The SQL statements used by SAP Basis Tables, recursive SQL statements, and SQL statements used by Database Administration Tools cannot be tuned because they are either system-generated or used for administrative tasks, which means they are not customizable or modifiable by the user for performance optimization.

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24.

Which of the following statements is true about the SQL Monitor? Choose 3 correct answers.
- A.
  
  SQL Monitor can be switched on for all or dedicated servers.
- B.
  
  SQL Monitor is designed to trace a single process.
- C.
  
  SQL Monitor can trace every SQL statement coming from ABAP programs, which include all OPEN SQL, native SQL, and ABAP kernel SQL statements.
- D.
  
  SQL Monitor has low impact on the performance of the production system.
Correct Answer(s)
A. SQL Monitor can be switched on for all or dedicated servers.
C. SQL Monitor can trace every SQL statement coming from ABAP programs, which include all OPEN SQL, native SQL, and ABAP kernel SQL statements.
D. SQL Monitor has low impact on the performance of the production system.

Explanation
The SQL Monitor can be switched on for all or dedicated servers, allowing for flexibility in monitoring. It is designed to trace a single process, allowing for detailed analysis of that specific process. The SQL Monitor can trace every SQL statement coming from ABAP programs, including all OPEN SQL, native SQL, and ABAP kernel SQL statements. Additionally, the SQL Monitor has low impact on the performance of the production system, ensuring that it does not significantly affect the overall system performance.

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25.

Which of the following statements is considered to be an expensive SQL statement? Choose 2 correct answers.
- A.
  
  SQL statement which requires many records to be transferred to the ABAP program.
- B.
  
  SQL statement which uses table buffering.
- C.
  
  SQL statement which uses index during data retrieval.
- D.
  
  SQL statement which reads many blocks but retrieves only a few records from the database.
Correct Answer(s)
A. SQL statement which requires many records to be transferred to the ABAP program.
D. SQL statement which reads many blocks but retrieves only a few records from the database.

Explanation
An expensive SQL statement is one that requires a significant amount of resources or time to execute. The first statement mentioned requires many records to be transferred to the ABAP program, indicating that a large amount of data needs to be processed, which can be resource-intensive. The fourth statement mentioned reads many blocks but retrieves only a few records from the database, suggesting that a large amount of data needs to be accessed and processed, which can also be time-consuming and resource-intensive. Both of these statements can be considered expensive in terms of their impact on performance and resource usage.

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26.

How should optimizer statistics be kept up to date? 2 right
- A.
  
  By using scheduled periodic refreshes.
- B.
  
  By manual updates to avoid inconsistencies.
- C.
  
  By using update jobs that are scheduled when an issue occurs.
- D.
  
  Using the database planning calendar (transaction DB13).
- E.
  
  By triggering the AS ABAP update work process.
Correct Answer(s)
A. By using scheduled periodic refreshes.
D. Using the database planning calendar (transaction DB13).

Explanation
The correct answers for keeping optimizer statistics up to date are by using scheduled periodic refreshes and using the database planning calendar (transaction DB13). Scheduled periodic refreshes ensure that the optimizer statistics are regularly updated to reflect any changes in the database, allowing for more accurate query optimization. The database planning calendar (transaction DB13) is a tool in the database system that can be used to schedule jobs for updating optimizer statistics at specific times or intervals. Both methods help to maintain the accuracy and efficiency of the optimizer statistics.

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27.

What is an expensive SQL statement?
- A.
  
  An SQL statement that causes the database to read many blocks (from disk or database buffer).
- B.
  
  An SQL statement that does not use the best possible access path.
- C.
  
  An SQL statement that causes the database to read more blocks (from disk or buffer) than required.
- D.
  
  An SQL statement that cannot be tuned by implementing database related changes.
Correct Answer
A. An SQL statement that causes the database to read many blocks (from disk or database buffer).

Explanation
An expensive SQL statement refers to an SQL statement that causes the database to read many blocks from disk or the database buffer. This means that the statement requires a large amount of data to be retrieved, which can result in slower performance and increased resource usage. It is important to optimize these statements to improve overall database efficiency.

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28.

Where can you find the top expensive SQL statements on the system?
- A.
  
  In the cursor cache of the DBA cockpit.
- B.
  
  In the transaction Operating System Monitor (ST06(n))
- C.
  
  In transaction SQL trace (ST05 or ST12).
- D.
  
  In transaction Work Process Overview (SM50 and SM66).
Correct Answer
A. In the cursor cache of the DBA cockpit.

Explanation
The top expensive SQL statements on the system can be found in the cursor cache of the DBA cockpit.

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29.

What is mean time?
- A.
  
  Average (aggregated) execution time of the SQL statement in milliseconds.
- B.
  
  Average number of rows selected or changed by the SQL statement.
- C.
  
  SQL Operation kind, for example, Read, Write access and Open, Native SQL.
Correct Answer
A. Average (aggregated) execution time of the SQL statement in milliseconds.

Explanation
Mean time refers to the average (aggregated) execution time of the SQL statement in milliseconds. This means that it calculates the average amount of time it takes for the SQL statement to be executed. It provides a measure of the efficiency and performance of the SQL statement, allowing for comparisons and optimizations to be made.

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30.

On which information does the data access strategy used for executing an SQL statement depend on? There are 3 correct answers to this question.
- A.
  
  The fields specified in the WHERE clause of the SQL statement.
- B.
  
  The number of database records that will be retrieved.
- C.
  
  The availability of indexes for the queried tables.
- D.
  
  The structure of the queried table as expressed by its statistics.
- E.
  
  How often an SQL statement is executed.
Correct Answer(s)
A. The fields specified in the WHERE clause of the SQL statement.
C. The availability of indexes for the queried tables.
D. The structure of the queried table as expressed by its statistics.

Explanation
The data access strategy used for executing an SQL statement depends on the fields specified in the WHERE clause of the SQL statement, as this determines the specific data that needs to be retrieved. It also depends on the availability of indexes for the queried tables, as indexes can greatly improve the performance of data retrieval. Additionally, the structure of the queried table, as expressed by its statistics, plays a role in determining the most efficient way to access the data.

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31.

In the transaction Workload Monitor (ST03n), what is the main indicator of poor database performance?
- A.
  
  Average DB request time of more than 40% of average response time.
- B.
  
  Average DB request time is higher than average CPU time.
- C.
  
  Average DB request time of more than twice the average CPU time.
- D.
  
  Average DB request time of more than 100ms.
Correct Answer
A. Average DB request time of more than 40% of average response time.

Explanation
The main indicator of poor database performance in the transaction Workload Monitor (ST03n) is when the average DB request time is more than 40% of the average response time. This suggests that a significant portion of the overall response time is being spent on database requests, which can indicate inefficiencies or bottlenecks in the database system.

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32.

What are some of the evaluation criteria for the impact of SQL statements on performance? There are 2 correct answers to this question.
- A.
  
  How often is the statement executed.
- B.
  
  Which user is executing the statement.
- C.
  
  What the contribution is to the system's overall response.
- D.
  
  Which work process type is executing the statement.
Correct Answer(s)
A. How often is the statement executed.
C. What the contribution is to the system's overall response.

Explanation
The evaluation criteria for the impact of SQL statements on performance include how often the statement is executed and what the contribution is to the system's overall response. The frequency of execution helps determine the potential impact on performance, as frequently executed statements may have a larger impact. Additionally, understanding the contribution of the statement to the system's overall response helps identify any bottlenecks or areas for optimization.

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33.

When you are investigating a database performance issue you find an often used expensive SQL statement that is doing a full table scan to access a small amount of data. No suitable index exists. How can you improve the performance of this query?
- A.
  
  By creating an index using selective fields from the where clause.
- B.
  
  By updating the statistics, so the optimizer will create an appropriate index.
- C.
  
  By creating an index using all fields from the where clause.
- D.
  
  By educating end users to use the program that calls this SQL statement correctly.
Correct Answer
A. By creating an index using selective fields from the where clause.

Explanation
To improve the performance of the query, creating an index using selective fields from the where clause is the best option. By doing this, the database can quickly locate the relevant data without having to perform a full table scan. This selective index will only include the necessary fields mentioned in the where clause, optimizing the query's performance by reducing the amount of data that needs to be scanned.

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34.

Which elements of total response time should be under 20ms? 3 right
- A.
  
  Roll-in time
- B.
  
  Wait time
- C.
  
  Dialog time
- D.
  
  Roll-out time
Correct Answer(s)
A. Roll-in time
B. Wait time
D. Roll-out time

Explanation
The elements of total response time that should be under 20ms are Roll-in time, Wait time, and Roll-out time. Dialog time is not mentioned as one of the elements that should be under 20ms.

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35.

In the transaction profile Workload Monitor (ST03), how do you identify a bottleneck? 2 right
- A.
  
  Its average CPU time and/or db times are high
- B.
  
  Its processing time is greater than twice the CPU time
- C.
  
  Which SQL statement has the highest execution time
- D.
  
  On the Times tab, check the average response time.
- E.
  
  On the Times tab, choose Task Type → DIALOG.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Its average CPU time and/or db times are high
B. Its processing time is greater than twice the CPU time

Explanation
To identify a bottleneck in the transaction profile Workload Monitor (ST03), one can look for indications such as high average CPU time and/or database times. This suggests that the system is spending a significant amount of time on CPU processing or accessing the database, which may indicate a bottleneck. Additionally, if the processing time is greater than twice the CPU time, it could also indicate a bottleneck. These factors suggest that certain operations are taking longer than expected, potentially causing a bottleneck in the system.

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36.

PHYS_MEMSIZE indicates how much memory is used in an SAP instance and it can be used to automatically initiate changes of those formula-based memory parameters. Determine whether this statement is true or false.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
The statement is true. PHYS_MEMSIZE is a parameter that indicates the amount of memory used in an SAP instance. It can be used to automatically initiate changes to formula-based memory parameters, allowing for efficient memory management within the SAP system.

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37.

Which of the following tools can be used to check the formulas and the values used in the formula-based memory parameters? Choose the correct answer.
- A.
  
  Transaction ST02
- B.
  
  SAP Management Console
- C.
  
  Executable program sappfpar
- D.
  
  Transaction RZ10
Correct Answer
C. Executable program sappfpar

Explanation
The correct answer is "Executable program sappfpar." This program can be used to check the formulas and the values used in the formula-based memory parameters. It allows users to view and modify the memory parameters in the SAP system.

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38.

There is hardware bottleneck in the CPU if processing time is more than twice the CPU time. Determine whether this statement is true or false.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
A. True

Explanation
The statement is true. A hardware bottleneck in the CPU occurs when the processing time is more than twice the CPU time. This means that the CPU is not able to handle the workload efficiently, resulting in slower processing times. A bottleneck can occur due to various reasons such as outdated hardware, insufficient processing power, or high demand on the system. When a hardware bottleneck occurs, it is necessary to upgrade the CPU or optimize the system to improve performance.

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39.

Which of the following from the Operating System Monitor (transaction ST06) indicates that there is some hardware bottleneck in the SAP system if it happens all the time? Choose 2 correct answers.
- A.
  
  High CPU utilization near 100%
- B.
  
  High CPU idle time
- C.
  
  High swap/paging activity
- D.
  
  High DB time
Correct Answer(s)
A. High CPU utilization near 100%
C. High swap/paging activity

Explanation
If the CPU utilization is consistently near 100%, it indicates that the system is using the maximum processing power available and there may be a hardware bottleneck causing the system to slow down. Similarly, high swap/paging activity suggests that the system is frequently accessing the disk to swap data between memory and disk, which can indicate a lack of available memory or a slow disk subsystem. Both of these scenarios can indicate hardware bottlenecks in the SAP system.

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40.

You see very high paging rates (>20% RAM per hour). What could be possible countermeasures? There are 2 correct answers to this question.
- A.
  
  Distribute processes that do not need to run on this specific hardware to other hardware with unused capacity.
- B.
  
  Increase CPU capacity to avoid that memory is being paged.
- C.
  
  Optimize the database interface so that unneeded data is not being paged out.
- D.
  
  Identify users/programs that cause high memory consumption and optimize expensive SQL statements and suboptimal programming.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Distribute processes that do not need to run on this specific hardware to other hardware with unused capacity.
D. Identify users/programs that cause high memory consumption and optimize expensive SQL statements and suboptimal programming.

Explanation
To address the high paging rates, one possible countermeasure is to distribute processes that do not need to run on the specific hardware to other hardware with unused capacity. This helps to alleviate the memory usage on the overloaded hardware and prevent excessive paging. Another countermeasure is to identify users/programs that cause high memory consumption and optimize expensive SQL statements and suboptimal programming. By optimizing these aspects, the memory usage can be reduced, resulting in lower paging rates.

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41.

With transaction Operating System Monitor (STO6) - Top 40 CPU Processes, you identified a process with unusually high CPU utilization. What are next steps to check the root cause? There are 2 correct answers to this question.
- A.
  
  If it is a database process, you use the database monitor (ST04) and check if this activity can be tuned or moved to another time.
- B.
  
  If this process leaves 10% or less overall CPU idle time, there is no need for further action because there is still headroom.
- C.
  
  If it is an SAP work process, you compare the process ID (PID) to the list of transactions in SM50 to find out what activity is causing the load.
- D.
  
  If it is the SAP gateway process, you might check if update processing can be moved to another instance.
Correct Answer(s)
A. If it is a database process, you use the database monitor (ST04) and check if this activity can be tuned or moved to another time.
C. If it is an SAP work process, you compare the process ID (PID) to the list of transactions in SM50 to find out what activity is causing the load.

Explanation
To identify the root cause of the process with high CPU utilization, there are two next steps to consider. Firstly, if it is a database process, the database monitor (ST04) can be used to analyze if the activity can be optimized or scheduled for a different time. Secondly, if it is an SAP work process, comparing the process ID (PID) to the list of transactions in SM50 can help determine the specific activity causing the high load. These steps will help in identifying and addressing the root cause of the high CPU utilization.

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42.

In transaction Operating System Monitor (ST06) you detect that CPU idle value on a server, with dedicated resources, is often below 20%. How should you investigate this situation? There are 2 correct answers to this question
- A.
  
  Check if load can be distributed to other servers with spare CPU capacity
- B.
  
  Check the 'Top 40 CPU Processes' in transaction Operating System Monitor (ST06(n)).
- C.
  
  Check that there are enough Dialog work processes configured on the instance(s) on that server.
- D.
  
  Perform a detailed analysis of the memory configuration of the SAP system.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Check if load can be distributed to other servers with spare CPU capacity
B. Check the 'Top 40 CPU Processes' in transaction Operating System Monitor (ST06(n)).

Explanation
To investigate the situation of CPU idle value often being below 20%, you should check if the load can be distributed to other servers with spare CPU capacity. This would help balance the workload and alleviate the strain on the server in question. Additionally, you should also check the 'Top 40 CPU Processes' in transaction Operating System Monitor (ST06(n)) to identify any specific processes consuming excessive CPU resources.

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43.

In transaction Operating System Monitor (STDG) in an ABAP-only system, how can you recognize a memory bottleneck? There are 2 correct answers to this question.
- A.
  
  In a Unix system, more than 20% of RAM paged out/ swapped out per hour.
- B.
  
  In a Windows system, more than 20% of RAM paged out per hour.
- C.
  
  In a Unix system, more than 20% of RAM paged in / swapped in per hour.
- D.
  
  In a Windows system, more than 25% of RAM paged in per hour.
Correct Answer(s)
A. In a Unix system, more than 20% of RAM paged out/ swapped out per hour.
D. In a Windows system, more than 25% of RAM paged in per hour.

Explanation
A memory bottleneck can be recognized in a Unix system when more than 20% of RAM is paged out or swapped out per hour. This indicates that the system is constantly moving data between RAM and disk, which can slow down the overall performance. In a Windows system, a memory bottleneck can be identified when more than 25% of RAM is paged in per hour. This suggests that the system is frequently loading data from disk into RAM, which can also impact the system's performance.

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44.

You suspect that there is an issue with the network connection from the application layer to the presentation layer. Which check do you perform in which transaction?
- A.
  
  LAN check by ping in transaction Operating System Monitor (ST06(n)).
- B.
  
  Trace, in transaction Single Transaction Analysis (ST12).
- C.
  
  Connection test in Work Process Overview (SM5O/SM66).
- D.
  
  Trace, in transaction Single Transaction Analysis (ST12).
- E.
  
  Check Cursor Cache in transaction DBA Cockpit (DBACOCKPIT).
Correct Answer
A. LAN check by ping in transaction Operating System Monitor (ST06(n)).

Explanation
In order to determine if there is an issue with the network connection from the application layer to the presentation layer, you would perform a LAN check by ping. This can be done in the transaction Operating System Monitor (ST06(n)). This check allows you to test the connectivity between different layers of the network and identify any potential issues or delays.

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45.

In which sequence do dialog work processes allocate memory
- A.
  
  Extended memory, Remaining part of roll area, Heap memory and Initial part of roll area,
- B.
  
  Extended memory, Heap memory, Initial part of roll area and Remaining part of roll area
- C.
  
  Initial part of roll area, Extended memory, Heap memory and Remaining part of roll area
- D.
  
  Initial part of roll area, Extended memory, Remaining part of roll area and Heap memory
Correct Answer
D. Initial part of roll area, Extended memory, Remaining part of roll area and Heap memory

Explanation
In the given sequence, dialog work processes first allocate memory in the initial part of the roll area, then in the extended memory, followed by the remaining part of the roll area, and finally in the heap memory. This sequence ensures that memory is allocated in a systematic manner, starting with the roll area and then moving on to the extended memory and heap memory. This order helps in efficient memory management and allocation for dialog work processes.

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46.

Which of the following areas of an instance’s shared memory have corresponding files on the instance the user is logged on to? 2 right
- A.
  
  Roll buffer
- B.
  
  System buffer
- C.
  
  Dialog buffer
- D.
  
  Paging buffer
- E.
  
  Server buffer
Correct Answer(s)
A. Roll buffer
D. Paging buffer

Explanation
The correct answer is Roll buffer and Paging buffer. The Roll buffer and Paging buffer are areas of an instance's shared memory that have corresponding files on the instance the user is logged on to. These buffers are used for temporary storage and management of data during database operations. The Roll buffer is used for storing undo logs, while the Paging buffer is used for storing data pages that are read from or written to disk.

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47.

Where and when is ABAP heap memory allocated?
- A.
  
  In the local memory of the work process, when required
- B.
  
  In the server memory of the work process, when required
- C.
  
  In the system memory of the work process, when required
- D.
  
  In the shared memory of the work process, when required
Correct Answer
A. In the local memory of the work process, when required

Explanation
ABAP heap memory is allocated in the local memory of the work process when required. This means that when a program or process in ABAP requires memory to store data, it will allocate that memory in the local memory of the work process. This memory is specific to that particular work process and is not shared with other processes or programs. The allocation happens dynamically as and when required, allowing for efficient memory usage.

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48.

Why are parts of user contexts stored in SM50 (extended?) memory instead of local memory of a system?
- A.
  
  To speed up context switches (roll-in/ roll-out)
- B.
  
  To speed up context switches (dialog time/ roll-out)
- C.
  
  To speed up context switches (roll-in/ enqueue time)
- D.
  
  To speed up context switches (roll-in/ processing time)
Correct Answer
A. To speed up context switches (roll-in/ roll-out)

Explanation
Parts of user contexts are stored in SM50 (extended) memory instead of local memory of a system to speed up context switches during roll-in and roll-out processes. Storing user contexts in SM50 memory allows for faster retrieval and loading of the necessary data when a context switch occurs, improving the overall efficiency and performance of the system.

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49.

What does Zero administration management do? 2 right
- A.
  
  It allows the extended memory to grow dynamically
- B.
  
  It allows other memory management parameters to be set automatically
- C.
  
  It allows you identify your SAP Technology release (Software component SAP_BASIS and SAP Kernel).
- D.
  
  Identify your Operating System (OS) release
- E.
  
  Search the notes database using the following or similar search term combinations
Correct Answer(s)
A. It allows the extended memory to grow dynamically
B. It allows other memory management parameters to be set automatically

Explanation
Zero administration management allows the extended memory to grow dynamically, meaning that it automatically adjusts the amount of memory allocated to a system based on its needs. It also allows other memory management parameters to be set automatically, further simplifying the management of memory in a system. These features help to reduce the need for manual intervention and administration in managing memory, making the system more efficient and easier to maintain.

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50.

The user’s context is initially stored in the heap area in the shared memory.. Determine whether this statement is true or false.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
Correct Answer
B. False

Explanation
The statement is false. The user's context is not initially stored in the heap area in the shared memory. The user's context is typically stored in the stack area of memory. The stack is a region of memory that is used for local variables and function calls. The heap area, on the other hand, is used for dynamically allocated memory.

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Current Version
Jan 23, 2023

Quiz Edited by
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Feb 28, 2019

Quiz Created by
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What does Zero Administration Memory Management do?

Which of the following RFC quota parameters should be set to maintain the number of dialog work processes that should be kept free for users? Choose the correct answer.

Which of the following tools is best for monitoring and analyzing issues in the transactional RFC queue? Choose the correct answer

What is RFC+CPIC time in synchronous RFC? Choose the correct answer.

Which of the following types of RFC calls guarantees multiple communications steps in a specific order? Choose the correct answer

You are reviewing RFC data in the transaction Workload Monitor (ST03n). Which RFC profile provides information about function modules in other systems that are called from this system?

Which system parameters are used to set RFC quotas? There are 2 correct answers to this question

Which RFC type is used if you want to establish communication with a remote system, but don't want to wait for the result for further processing?

Which elements are part of the RFC CPIC time during a synchronous RFC call to another system? There are 4 correct answers to this question.

What is the purpose of buffering data in SAP table buffers? 2 right

SQL trace (transaction ST05) offers a lot of information on table accesses, which includes the database activities, number of ABAP requests, and number of invalidations. Determine whether this statement is true or false.

Table buffering is recommended for which of the following scenarios ? Choose 2 correct answers.

Which of the following parameter controls the buffer synchronization behavior in the SAP system? Choose the correct answer.

Which of the following are valid options for table buffering types? Choose 3 correct answers.

What happens when a buffered table is updated by an SQL request? There are 2 correct answers to this question.

When should you usually switch on table buffering? There is 1 correct answers to this question.

Which option represents "Generic area buffered"?

When you run transaction Table Call Statistics (ST10), which of the following indicates that a table should be unbuffered? There are 3 correct answers to this question

Which profile parameters control the buffer synchronization? There are 2 correct answers to this question

Programs which show database request time > 40 % (response time – wait time) in the transaction profile of ST03 are potential candidates for containing expensive SQL statements. Determine whether this statement is true or false.

Which of the following can be found in the Explain function in SQL trace? Choose 3 correct answers

The ABAP trace (transaction SE30 or SAT) is the tool to use if we want to find out more about the expensive SQL statement and its execution plan. Determine whether this statement is true or false.

Which of the following SQL statements cannot be tuned? Choose 3 correct answers.

Which of the following statements is true about the SQL Monitor? Choose 3 correct answers.

Which of the following statements is considered to be an expensive SQL statement? Choose 2 correct answers.

How should optimizer statistics be kept up to date? 2 right

What is an expensive SQL statement?

Where can you find the top expensive SQL statements on the system?

What is mean time?

On which information does the data access strategy used for executing an SQL statement depend on? There are 3 correct answers to this question.

In the transaction Workload Monitor (ST03n), what is the main indicator of poor database performance?

What are some of the evaluation criteria for the impact of SQL statements on performance? There are 2 correct answers to this question.

When you are investigating a database performance issue you find an often used expensive SQL statement that is doing a full table scan to access a small amount of data. No suitable index exists. How can you improve the performance of this query?

Which elements of total response time should be under 20ms? 3 right

In the transaction profile Workload Monitor (ST03), how do you identify a bottleneck? 2 right

PHYS_MEMSIZE indicates how much memory is used in an SAP instance and it can be used to automatically initiate changes of those formula-based memory parameters. Determine whether this statement is true or false.

Which of the following tools can be used to check the formulas and the values used in the formula-based memory parameters? Choose the correct answer.

There is hardware bottleneck in the CPU if processing time is more than twice the CPU time. Determine whether this statement is true or false.

Which of the following from the Operating System Monitor (transaction ST06) indicates that there is some hardware bottleneck in the SAP system if it happens all the time? Choose 2 correct answers.

You see very high paging rates (>20% RAM per hour). What could be possible countermeasures? There are 2 correct answers to this question.

With transaction Operating System Monitor (STO6) - Top 40 CPU Processes, you identified a process with unusually high CPU utilization. What are next steps to check the root cause? There are 2 correct answers to this question.

In transaction Operating System Monitor (ST06) you detect that CPU idle value on a server, with dedicated resources, is often below 20%. How should you investigate this situation? There are 2 correct answers to this question

In transaction Operating System Monitor (STDG) in an ABAP-only system, how can you recognize a memory bottleneck? There are 2 correct answers to this question.

You suspect that there is an issue with the network connection from the application layer to the presentation layer. Which check do you perform in which transaction?

In which sequence do dialog work processes allocate memory

Which of the following areas of an instance’s shared memory have corresponding files on the instance the user is logged on to? 2 right

Where and when is ABAP heap memory allocated?

Why are parts of user contexts stored in SM50 (extended?) memory instead of local memory of a system?

What does Zero administration management do? 2 right

The user’s context is initially stored in the heap area in the shared memory.. Determine whether this statement is true or false.