Test Your Knowledge About Complications Of Pregnancy! Trivia Questions Quiz

39 Questions | Total Attempts: 1213

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Test Your Knowledge About Complications Of Pregnancy! Trivia Questions Quiz - Quiz

Test Your Knowledge about Complications of Pregnancy using this trivia questions quiz. When the sperm attaches itself to the egg there is a lot that starts to happen to the mother’s body and this throughout the development from an egg to a fully formed baby. There are some external and internal threats to a healthy pregnancy and this quiz will see how well you can diagnose and fix such issues.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Worldwide, which of the following is the most common problem during pregnancy?
    • A. 

      Iron-deficiency anemia

    • B. 

      Urinary tract infection (UTI)

    • C. 

      Heart disease

    • D. 

      Diabetes

    • E. 

      Pre-eclampsia 

  • 2. 
    In the United States, it appears that maternal mortality is increasing after years of decline. To address this increase, efforts must be directed toward the leading causes. Which of the following choices lists those leading causes?
    • A. 

      Embolism, hypertension, and ectopic pregnancy

    • B. 

      Infection, cardiomyopathy, and stroke

    • C. 

      Complications related to abortion and anesthesia

    • D. 

      Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and infections related to immunodeficiency

  • 3. 
    A patient presents with a positive pregnancy test, the exact date of the start of her last normal menses, and the date of her luteinizing hormone (LH) surge from a urine kit. Her expected date of delivery can most correctly be calculated by which of the following?
    • A. 

      Counting 280 from the first day of the LMP

    • B. 

      Adding 254 to the date of the start of the last menstrual period (LMP)

    • C. 

      Counting 10 lunar months from the time of ovulation

    • D. 

      Counting 40 weeks from the last day of the LMP

    • E. 

      Adding 256 to the date of the elevated urinary LH when detected by home testing

  • 4. 
    A friend mentions to you she just had a positive pregnancy test and wonders if you can tell her when she is likely due. The LMP was June 30. Her expected date of confinement (EDC) is approximate which of the following?
    • A. 

      April 7

    • B. 

      March 23

    • C. 

      April 23

    • D. 

      March 7

  • 5. 
    A patient presents to your clinic complaining of nausea and vomiting. She is currently ingesting combined oral contraceptive pills (OCP) and has used them for over a year. When you tell her she has a positive pregnancy test, she reports that her last bleeding on the OCPs was 8 weeks ago. In such a situation, determine
    • A. 

      Obtaining fetal biometry by ultrasound prior to 20 weeks’ gestation

    • B. 

      Asking the patient when she first felt pregnant

    • C. 

      Counting 280 days from the first positive serum pregnancy test

    • D. 

      Assessing uterine size by physical examination

    • E. 

      Eliciting when breast tenderness or morning sickness began

  • 6. 
    A 24-year-old patient who has signs and symptoms of renal lithiasis is to have an intravenous pyelogram (IVP) as part of a urologic investigation. Before proceeding with the study, which of the following should you determine?
    • A. 

      Whether she may be pregnant

    • B. 

      Whether she has a history of children with birth defects

    • C. 

      Whether she is sexually active

    • D. 

      Whether she is in the follicular phase of a menstrual cycle

    • E. 

      Whether she is using contraception

  • 7. 
    A 20-year-old primigrávida, who is 24 weeks pregnant, expresses concern about the normality of her fetus after learning that a close friend has just delivered an infant with hydrocephalus. Which of the following details about hydrocephalus should be included in her counseling?
    • A. 

      Has a multifactorial etiology

    • B. 

      Occurs spontaneously in 1 in 500 pregnancies

    • C. 

      Is usually an isolated defect

    • D. 

      Can be cured by intrauterine placement of shunts

    • E. 

      Can be identified as early as 10 weeks’ gestation

  • 8. 
    Fundal height, part of the obstetric examination, is taken from the top of the symphysis pubis to the top of the fundus. How is it measured?
    • A. 

      In centimeters, approximating the weeks of gestation beyond 22 weeks

    • B. 

      By calipers in centimeters, prognosticating the fetal weight

    • C. 

      In centimeters and divided by 3.5, approximating the lunar months of gestation

    • D. 

      In inches, approximating the lunar month of gestation

    • E. 

      By calipers, approximating the week of gestation

  • 9. 
    Using your knowledge of normal maternal physiology, which of the following would you employ if a patient at 38 weeks became faint while lying supine on your examination table?
    • A. 

      Turning the patient on her side

    • B. 

      Aromatic ammonia spirit (smelling salts)

    • C. 

      Oxygen by face mask

    • D. 

      Intravenous (IV) drugs to increase blood pressure

    • E. 

      IV saline solution

  • 10. 
    A woman in early pregnancy is worried because of some recent discomfort in her left breast. On examination, her skin appears normal, she has no axillary or clavicular adenopathy, but you palpate a smooth, nontender, 2-cm mass. Your immediate management should be which of the following?
    • A. 

      Breast ultrasound

    • B. 

      Needle aspiration of the mass

    • C. 

      Excisional biopsies of the mass

    • D. 

      Mammography

    • E. 

      Warm compresses and antibiotics

  • 11. 
    The management of vaginal bleeding in a first-trimester pregnancy requires a trending of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels. Because urine pregnancy tests can typically be less expensive and results are more rapidly available, it is important to know their sensitivity. Immunologic tests for pregnancy can detect hCG in the urine in which of the following concentrations?
    • A. 

      2 IU/L

    • B. 

      20 IU/L

    • C. 

      100 IU/L

    • D. 

      200 IU/L n 4

    • E. 

      1,000 IU/L

  • 12. 
    The new obstetrical visit typically includes a general well-woman assessment as well as pregnancy evaluation. Which of the following is true about Pap smears taken from the uterine cervix during a normal pregnancy?
    • A. 

      They should be part of routine obstetric care, if needed, based on pap frequency for the

    • B. 

      They are indicated only in patients with clinically assessed risks.

    • C. 

      They are difficult to interpret because of gestational changes.

    • D. 

      They are a cost-effective replacement for cultures for sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).

    • E. 

      They are likely to induce uterine irritability.

  • 13. 
    Prenatal care is a structured approach to obstetric care to assess for increase risk of complications or the actual development of problems. Which of the following would most predispose the patient to obstetrical complications?
    • A. 

      Maternal age 39

    • B. 

      Maternal age 17, with menarche at age 13

    • C. 

      History of four normal deliveries

    • D. 

      History of ovarian dermoid cyst removed 4 years ago

    • E. 

      A clinically measured pelvic diagonal conjugate of 12 cm

  • 14. 
    A pregnant woman at 4 weeks’ gestation had an upper gastrointestinal (GI) series and is worried about possible fetal effects from radiation. You inform her that the risk for mental retardation to the fetus is greatest during which phase of pregnancy?
    • A. 

      8th through 15th week of gestation

    • B. 

      15th through 25th week of gestation

    • C. 

      Last trimester

    • D. 

      1st to 8th week of gestation

    • E. 

      Implantation stage from 0 to 9 days

  • 15. 
    Advising a 34-year-old woman at 12 weeks’ gestation about the risk of chromosomal defects in the fetus, you can correctly state which of the following?
    • A. 

      Efficacy of screening for Down Syndrome is improved by adding estriol, inhibin A, and hCG concentration to the MSAFP (quadruple screen) 

    • B. 

      Screening for Down syndrome can be improved by checking amniotic fluid for acetylcholinesterase level.

    • C. 

      Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) is a very specific test for Down syndrome.

    • D. 

      Paternal age is very important in the etiology of Down syndrome.

    • E. 

      There is little worry regarding Down syndrome before the age of 35.

  • 16. 
    The most worrisome sign or symptom of potentially serious pathology in late pregnancy is which of the following?
    • A. 

      Visual changes

    • B. 

      Swollen ankles

    • C. 

      Constipation

    • D. 

      Nocturia

    • E. 

      Heartburn

  • 17. 
    During late pregnancy, which of the following implies urinary tract disease?
    • A. 

      Decreased creatinine clearance

    • B. 

      Dilation of the ureters

    • C. 

      Failure to excrete concentrated urine after 18 hours without fluids

    • D. 

      Glucosuria

    • E. 

      Decreased serum creatinine

  • 18. 
    Because the treatment of HIV during pregnancy and labor can significantly decrease fetal transmission as well as maternal morbidity, which of the following is the standard of care regarding HIV testing in pregnancy?
    • A. 

      Universal screening using an opt-out approach is recommended.

    • B. 

      It should not be offered to patients in low-risk populations.

    • C. 

      Universal screening is required by law.

    • D. 

      It is performed routinely without patient consent in federal facilities serving high-risk populations.

    • E. 

      Testing is done only at the request of the patient.

  • 19. 
    Routine screening procedures at her first prenatal care visit for a 35-year-old primigravida with an estimated gestational age (EGA) of 8 weeks should include which of the following?
    • A. 

      Family history

    • B. 

      Quadruple test

    • C. 

      1-hour glucose challenge

    • D. 

      Toxoplasma titer

    • E. 

      Ultrasound

  • 20. 
    Many fetal anomalies found on ultrasound are associated with other anomalies that the sonographer must assess. Which of the following abnormal ultrasound findings of the fetus are usually found in isolation and not as part of a collection of abnormalities or a syndrome?
    • A. 

      Posturethral value

    • B. 

      Duodenal atresia

    • C. 

      Diaphragmatic hernia

    • D. 

      Gastroschisis

    • E. 

      Omphalocele

  • 21. 
    An abnormal biophysical profile (BPP) predicts which of the following?
    • A. 

      Higher risk for antepartum death within 1 week

    • B. 

      A baby that will be small for gestational age (SGA)

    • C. 

      Maternal preeclampsia

    • D. 

      Meconium staining

    • E. 

      Placental abruption

  • 22. 
    A pregnant woman not previously known to be diabetic, who is at 26 weeks’ gestation, had a routine 50-g (GTT) with a 1-hour blood glucose value of 144 mg/dL. A follow-up 100-g, 3-hour oral GTT revealed plasma values of fasting blood sugar of 102; 1 hour, 180; 2 hours, 162; and 3 hours, 144. You should do which of the following?
    • A. 

      Begin American Diabetes Association (ADA) diet and daily glucose monitoring

    • B. 

      Repeat the GTT in early or mid-third trimester

    • C. 

      Start oral hypoglycemic agents in the diet

    • D. 

      Perform an immediate Contraction Stress Test (CST)

    • E. 

      Treat the patient as one with normal gestation

  • 23. 
    A patient is measuring size larger than dates at her initial obstetric visit at 24 weeks’ EGA. She is worried about twins since they “run” in the family. The best method to safely and reliably diagnose twins is by which of the following?
    • A. 

      Ultrasonography

    • B. 

      Leopold’s maneuvers

    • C. 

      Auscultation

    • D. 

      X-rays

    • E. 

      Computed tomography (CT) scan

  • 24. 
    Of the following evaluations done during routine prenatal care in a normal pregnancy, which of the following is most important in the initial clinic visit?
    • A. 

      Determination of the gestational age

    • B. 

      Routine measurement of the fundus

    • C. 

      Determination of maternal blood pressure

    • D. 

      Maternal urinalysis

    • E. 

      Maternal weight

  • 25. 
    There is good evidence that a woman who gave birth to an infant with a neural tube defect (NTD) can substantially reduce the risk of recurrence by taking periconceptional folic acid supplementation. What is the recommended dose?
    • A. 

      0.4 mg

    • B. 

      0.8 mg

    • C. 

      1.0 mg

    • D. 

      4 mg

    • E. 

      8 mg

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