Maternal Complications During Pregnancy - Ob / GYN

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Quizzes Created: 19 | Total Attempts: 13,907
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GYN Quizzes & Trivia

OB/GYN quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    This is a form of diabetes that occurs during pregnancy and develops in approximately 2.5% of pregnancies.

    Explanation
    Gestational diabetes is a form of diabetes that occurs during pregnancy and affects approximately 2.5% of pregnancies. It is characterized by high blood sugar levels that develop during pregnancy and usually resolves after giving birth. This condition is caused by hormonal changes that affect insulin production and utilization in the body. It is important to manage gestational diabetes through proper diet, exercise, and sometimes medication to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

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  • 2. 

    Between ___ - ___ weeks is when a glucose screening test is given.

    Explanation
    A glucose screening test is given between 24 and 28 weeks of pregnancy. This test is performed to check for gestational diabetes, a condition that affects pregnant women and can cause complications for both the mother and the baby. By conducting this test during this specific time frame, healthcare providers can identify and manage gestational diabetes early on to ensure the well-being of the mother and the baby.

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  • 3. 

    Risk factors of gestational diabetes:

    • A.

      Previous macrosomic infant

    • B.

      Previous still birth

    • C.

      Family history of diabetes

    • D.

      Obesity

    • E.

      Fetus with congenital anomalies

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Previous macrosomic infant
    B. Previous still birth
    C. Family history of diabetes
    D. Obesity
    E. Fetus with congenital anomalies
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes risk factors for gestational diabetes such as having a previous macrosomic infant (a baby that is larger than average), experiencing a previous still birth, having a family history of diabetes, being obese, and having a fetus with congenital anomalies (birth defects). These factors can increase the likelihood of developing gestational diabetes during pregnancy.

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  • 4. 

    Type 1 diabetes is ________ dependent, juvenile onset and type 2 diabetes is ____________ dependent.

    Correct Answer(s)
    insulin, non-insulin
    Explanation
    Type 1 diabetes is characterized by a dependency on insulin, as the body is unable to produce enough or any insulin. It typically occurs in childhood or adolescence, hence the term "juvenile onset." On the other hand, type 2 diabetes is non-insulin dependent, meaning that the body can still produce insulin, but it is either not enough or not used effectively. Type 2 diabetes is more commonly diagnosed in adults, although it can also occur in children and adolescents.

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  • 5. 

    What are the 4 associated effects of diabetes mellitus? (MATERNAL)

    Correct Answer(s)
    hypoglycemia, polyhydramnios, PIH, renal dysfunction, hypoglycemia, polyhydramnios, pregnancy induced hypertension, renal dysfunction
    Explanation
    The correct answer is hypoglycemia, polyhydramnios, pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH), and renal dysfunction. These are the four associated effects of diabetes mellitus in maternal patients.

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  • 6. 

    Name the 3 associated effects of diabetes mellitus for the fetus.

    Correct Answer(s)
    LGA/macrosomia, polyhydramnios. hydrops fetalis , LGA/macrosomia, polyhydramnios, hydrops, LGA/macrosomia, polyhydramnios, fetal hydrops
    Explanation
    Diabetes mellitus during pregnancy can have several effects on the fetus. One of the effects is LGA (large for gestational age) or macrosomia, which means the baby is larger than average. Another effect is polyhydramnios, which is an excessive accumulation of amniotic fluid. The third effect is hydrops fetalis, which is the abnormal accumulation of fluid in two or more fetal compartments. These effects can occur individually or in combination, leading to complications for the fetus.

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  • 7. 

    This is an accumulation of fluid or edema in at least two fetal compartments.

    Correct Answer(s)
    hydrops fetalis, hydrops, fetal hydrops
    Explanation
    Hydrops fetalis, also known as hydrops or fetal hydrops, refers to the accumulation of fluid or edema in at least two fetal compartments. This condition can occur due to various causes, such as heart or lung problems, infections, or chromosomal abnormalities. The accumulation of fluid can lead to severe complications and even fetal death. Therefore, it is important to diagnose and manage hydrops fetalis promptly to improve the chances of a successful outcome.

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  • 8. 

    Select all the following associated with fetal hydrops:

    • A.

      Scalp edema

    • B.

      Pleural effusion

    • C.

      Pericardial effusion

    • D.

      Ascites

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Scalp edema
    B. Pleural effusion
    C. Pericardial effusion
    D. Ascites
    Explanation
    Fetal hydrops is a condition characterized by abnormal fluid accumulation in the fetus, leading to swelling or edema. It can affect various parts of the body, including the scalp, pleural cavity (pleural effusion), pericardial cavity (pericardial effusion), and abdominal cavity (ascites). Therefore, scalp edema, pleural effusion, pericardial effusion, and ascites are all associated with fetal hydrops.

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  • 9. 

    Name the 2 types of hydrops:

    Correct Answer(s)
    immune hydrops and non-immune hydrops, immune and non-immune hydrops, immune, non-immune
    Explanation
    The correct answer is immune hydrops and non-immune hydrops. These are the two types of hydrops. Immune hydrops occurs when the mother's immune system produces antibodies that attack the baby's red blood cells, leading to severe anemia. Non-immune hydrops, on the other hand, is not caused by an immune response but can be due to various factors such as heart or lung problems, infections, or genetic disorders. Both types of hydrops can result in fluid accumulation in the baby's body, leading to serious complications.

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  • 10. 

    Immune hydrops is due to ____ ____________.

    Correct Answer(s)
    Rh sensitivity
    Explanation
    Immune hydrops is a condition that occurs when there is an incompatibility between the blood types of the mother and the fetus, specifically involving the Rh factor. Rh sensitivity refers to the mother's immune system producing antibodies against the Rh factor present in the fetus's blood. These antibodies can cross the placenta and attack the red blood cells of the fetus, leading to severe anemia and fluid accumulation, which is known as immune hydrops. Therefore, Rh sensitivity is the cause of immune hydrops.

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  • 11. 

    Non-immune hydrops can be caused by _______, such as an infection, virus, or chromosomal __________.

    Correct Answer(s)
    anything, abnormality
    Explanation
    Non-immune hydrops is a condition characterized by abnormal accumulation of fluid in two or more body cavities of a fetus or newborn. This can be caused by a variety of factors, including infections, viruses, or chromosomal abnormalities. The term "anything" suggests that any factor, regardless of its specific nature, can potentially contribute to the development of non-immune hydrops. On the other hand, the word "abnormality" refers to any deviation from the normal structure or function of chromosomes, which can also lead to the occurrence of this condition.

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  • 12. 

    Immune hydrops and Non-immune hydrops cause the parvo virus.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Immune hydrops and non-immune hydrops are both conditions that can be caused by the parvo virus. Immune hydrops occurs when the mother's immune system produces antibodies that attack the baby's red blood cells, leading to severe anemia. Non-immune hydrops, on the other hand, is caused by various factors such as heart or lung problems, infections, or genetic disorders. However, the parvo virus can also cause non-immune hydrops by directly infecting the baby's organs and causing fluid buildup. Therefore, it is true that the parvo virus can cause both immune and non-immune hydrops.

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  • 13. 

    ____________ is defined as blood pressure greater than 140/90 mmHg.

    Correct Answer
    hypertension
    Explanation
    Hypertension is defined as blood pressure greater than 140/90 mmHg. This means that when the systolic pressure (the top number) is consistently above 140 mmHg and the diastolic pressure (the bottom number) is consistently above 90 mmHg, it indicates hypertension. Hypertension is a chronic condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated, such as heart disease, stroke, and kidney damage. It is important to monitor blood pressure regularly and take necessary measures to control it, such as lifestyle changes and medication if prescribed by a healthcare professional.

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  • 14. 

    What are the 2 types of hypertension:

    Correct Answer
    chronic and PIH, chronic and pre-eclampsia, chronic and toxemia
    Explanation
    The correct answer is chronic and PIH, chronic and pre-eclampsia, chronic and toxemia. This answer is correct because hypertension can be classified into different types based on the underlying cause. Chronic hypertension refers to high blood pressure that persists over time, while PIH (pregnancy-induced hypertension) specifically occurs during pregnancy. Pre-eclampsia is a severe form of PIH that can lead to organ damage and other complications. Toxemia is an older term for pre-eclampsia. Therefore, all three pairs of types of hypertension listed in the answer are accurate classifications.

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  • 15. 

    Chronic hypertension is related to pregnancy.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    chronic hypertension is unrelated to pregnancy

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  • 16. 

    What are the 4 clinical symptoms of pre-eclampsia:

    Correct Answer
    edema, rapid weight gain, high blood pressure, proteinuria
    Explanation
    The four clinical symptoms of pre-eclampsia are edema, rapid weight gain, high blood pressure, and proteinuria. Edema refers to the swelling of the hands, face, and feet due to fluid retention. Rapid weight gain is often observed in pre-eclampsia due to excessive fluid accumulation. High blood pressure is a common symptom and is defined as a reading of 140/90 mmHg or higher. Proteinuria refers to the presence of excess protein in the urine, which is a sign of kidney damage. These symptoms are important indicators of pre-eclampsia and require medical attention to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby.

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  • 17. 

    The most sever form of pre-eclampsia is _________.

    Correct Answer
    eclampsia
    Explanation
    The most severe form of pre-eclampsia is eclampsia. Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure and damage to organs such as the liver and kidneys. Eclampsia is a complication of pre-eclampsia and is marked by the onset of seizures or convulsions. It is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention.

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  • 18. 

    Check all the clinical symptoms that apply to eclampsia:

    • A.

      Seizures

    • B.

      Blurred vision

    • C.

      Headaches

    • D.

      Coma

    • E.

      Death

    • F.

      Stroke

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Seizures
    B. Blurred vision
    C. Headaches
    D. Coma
    E. Death
    F. Stroke
    Explanation
    The clinical symptoms that apply to eclampsia include seizures, blurred vision, headaches, coma, death, and stroke. Eclampsia is a serious condition that can occur during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure and seizures. Blurred vision and headaches are common symptoms experienced by individuals with eclampsia. In severe cases, eclampsia can lead to coma, death, and stroke. Therefore, all of the listed symptoms are applicable to eclampsia.

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  • 19. 

    Preeclampsia / eclampsia are associated with:

    • A.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum

    • B.

      IUGR

    • C.

      Prematurity

    • D.

      Placenta previa

    • E.

      Placenta abruption

    • F.

      Oligohydramnios

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. IUGR
    C. Prematurity
    E. Placenta abruption
    F. Oligohydramnios
    Explanation
    Preeclampsia/eclampsia is a condition that affects pregnant women and is characterized by high blood pressure and damage to organs, such as the liver and kidneys. It can lead to complications for both the mother and the baby. The given answer options, IUGR (intrauterine growth restriction), prematurity, placenta abruption, and oligohydramnios, are all associated with preeclampsia/eclampsia. IUGR refers to poor growth of the baby in the womb, which can be caused by reduced blood flow from the placenta. Prematurity is when a baby is born before 37 weeks of gestation, which can be a result of preeclampsia. Placenta abruption is the separation of the placenta from the uterus before delivery, which can be a complication of preeclampsia. Oligohydramnios is a condition where there is too little amniotic fluid surrounding the baby, which can also be associated with preeclampsia.

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  • 20. 

    Treatment of preeclampsia / eclampsia involves bed rest, delivery, and __________ medicaiton.

    Correct Answer(s)
    hypertensive
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "hypertensive" because preeclampsia/eclampsia is a condition characterized by high blood pressure during pregnancy. Therefore, the treatment involves the use of medications that help to lower and control blood pressure, known as hypertensive medication. Additionally, bed rest and delivery are also important components of the treatment plan for preeclampsia/eclampsia.

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  • 21. 

    Severe and persistent nausea and vomiting during pregnancy that may involve hospitalization is known as:

    Correct Answer(s)
    hyperemesis gravidarum
    Explanation
    Hyperemesis gravidarum is a condition characterized by severe and persistent nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. It is more severe than the typical morning sickness experienced by many pregnant women and may require hospitalization. This condition can lead to dehydration, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalances. Treatment may involve intravenous fluids, anti-nausea medications, and nutritional support.

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  • 22. 

    Women who are effected by hyperemesis gravidarum may experience severe nausea and vomiting, rapid __________, and excessive _________ or ptyalism.

    Correct Answer(s)
    heartbeat, salivation
    Explanation
    Women who are affected by hyperemesis gravidarum may experience severe nausea and vomiting, which can lead to an increased heart rate. This is because the body is under stress and trying to cope with the excessive vomiting. Additionally, hyperemesis gravidarum can also cause excessive salivation, known as ptyalism. This excessive salivation can be a result of hormonal changes during pregnancy and can contribute to the discomfort experienced by women with hyperemesis gravidarum.

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  • 23. 

    With hyperemesis gravidarum, the fetus may have low birth weight, IUGR, and placental ____________.

    Correct Answer(s)
    insufficiency
    Explanation
    With hyperemesis gravidarum, which is a severe form of morning sickness during pregnancy, the mother experiences excessive vomiting and nausea. This can lead to inadequate nutrition and dehydration, affecting the growth and development of the fetus. As a result, the fetus may have low birth weight and intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), which refers to the poor growth of the baby while in the womb. Additionally, hyperemesis gravidarum can also cause placental insufficiency, which means that the placenta is unable to provide enough oxygen and nutrients to support the growing fetus.

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  • 24. 

    Risk factors of hyperemesis gravidarum:

    • A.

      History of hyperemesis

    • B.

      Twins

    • C.

      2nd pregnancy

    • D.

      1st pregnancy

    • E.

      Fetus with congenital anomalies

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. History of hyperemesis
    B. Twins
    D. 1st pregnancy
    Explanation
    The risk factors for hyperemesis gravidarum include a history of hyperemesis, carrying twins, and being in the first pregnancy. A history of hyperemesis indicates that the individual has previously experienced severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, making them more likely to develop hyperemesis again. Carrying twins increases the hormonal changes and strain on the body, which can contribute to the development of hyperemesis. Being in the first pregnancy also increases the risk, as the body is not yet accustomed to the hormonal changes and physical demands of pregnancy.

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  • 25. 

    Treatment of hyperemesis gravidarum involves hospitalization to replace ________ and ________ through IV, antiemetic drugs, and possible parental feeding.

    Correct Answer(s)
    fluids, electrolytes
    Explanation
    The treatment for hyperemesis gravidarum involves hospitalization to replace fluids and electrolytes through IV. Hyperemesis gravidarum is a condition characterized by severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, which can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Hospitalization allows for the administration of fluids and electrolytes directly into the bloodstream to rehydrate the patient and restore the balance of essential minerals in the body. In addition to IV therapy, antiemetic drugs may be prescribed to control nausea and vomiting, and in severe cases, parental feeding may be necessary to provide nutrition when oral intake is not possible.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jan 10, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Agambino
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